SBI Clerk 2019 Previous Year Paper Mains

SBI Clerk 2019 Previous Year Paper Mains
Direction:
Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
The Indian wearables market has blown up in the last few years, with a number of players entering thefray with
their very own smartwatches and fitness bands. And as a result of this increased number of players entering the
market, coupled with the fact that there has been some meaningful growth in technology in the segment in the
recent past, has now led to the wearables market in India reaching its all time high in India. According to an IDC
report, the segment is currently going through a purple patch that has seen the market for wearable devices grow
by 30.9 per cent sequentially in Q2 in India. During the period, the segment also showed an all-time high of 30 lakh
shipments in a single quarter. Smartwatches alone appear to be showing staggering potential for growth in the
country, with the segment showing a 99.6 per cent (Year-on-Year) and 42.9 per cent (QoQ) growth in the second
quarter of 2019. While Apple emerged as (A)/ the top dog in the (B)/ wearables segment, brands (C)/ like Fossil also
managed to make a comeback (D)/. Fossil became the leading wearable watch brand with 34 per cent category
share, said the IDC. However, continuing its lead over its competitors, Apple Watch Series 5 remained the first
choice for watch lovers in the country. This strong growth for the segment has now made smartwatch makers and
those directly involved with the business hopeful about what could lie ahead for them in 2020. According to Sanjay
Gupta (India Head), Vice President and India Country Manager, NXP Semiconductors, technological
advancements combined with machine learning abilities,______________________ Artificial Intelligence technology
along with IoT can unlock a whole new world of opportunities for the Smart Watch market in 2020.Among the
wearables that did really well in 2019, at the top of the list remained Apple Watch Series 5. The smart wearable from
Apple is powered by WatchOS 6 and comes with a new Always On’ display feature. It also features some industry
leading features and powerful specs. Samsung Galaxy Watch 4G also appears to have done well for Samsung this
year. The watch comes with LTE connectivity which allows it to be used without a smartphone. The Watch Active
4G lets users respond to text messages, use GPS mapping, stream music and more without a smartphone by using
just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.
Question No. 1
According to the passage, what is the category share of Fossil in the wearable market?
Options :
1. 32%
2. 36%
3. 34%
4. 38%
5. 33.9%
Answer : 34%
Direction:
Question No. 2
Which of the following is the closest meaning of the word fray used in the passage?
Options :
1. wear out
2. combat
3. truce
4. armistice
5. None of these
Answer : combat
Direction:

Question No. 3
Which of the following is the farthest meaning of the word purple patch used in the passage?
Options :
1. underachivement
2. triumph
3. smash
4. conquest
5. None of these
Answer : underachivement
Direction:
Question No. 4
Which of the following statements is false regarding the passage?
Options :
1. During the period, the segment also showed an all-time high of 30 lakh shipments in a single quarter.
2. The smart wearable from Apple is powered by WatchOS 6 and comes with a new Always On’ display
feature.
3. However, continuing its lead over its competitors, Apple Watch Series 5 remained the first choice for
watch lovers in the country
4. Smartwatches alone appear to be showing staggering potential for growth in the country, with the
segment showing a 96.9 per cent (Year-on-Year) and 42.9 per cent (QoQ) growth in the second quarter of
2019.
5. None of these
Answer : Smartwatches alone appear to be showing staggering potential for growth in the country, with the
segment showing a 96.9 per cent (Year-on-Year) and 42.9 per cent (QoQ) growth in the second quarter of 2019.
Direction:
Question No. 5
What should replace_________________ in the passage?
Options :
1. grips
2. spate
3. overdue
4. embedded
5. None of these
Answer : embedded
Direction:
managed to make a flashback (D)/. Fossil became the leading wearable watch brand with 34 per cent category
Question No. 6
In the passage, a part is given in bold and is divided into four parts A, B, C and D. Among the four parts, there may
be some errors in one of the parts. Find that part and mark that as your answer.
Options :
1. B
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. No error
Answer : D
Direction:
Question No. 7
What should be the most appropriate title for the given passage?
Options :
1. Different wearables in India
2. Wearable market in India
3. Popularity of Apple wearables in the Indian market
4. Apple wearable
5. None of these
Answer : Popularity of Apple wearables in the Indian market
Direction:
An idiom is used in three sentences. You need to choose the right option that covers the correct usage amongst these
three sentences.
Question No. 8
Cutting edge
A. My son is lazy and cutting edges.
B. There are cutting edge methods in 3D printing nowadays.
C. Shyam is sharp, intelligent and cutting edge in nature.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. A & B
4. A & C
5. B & C
Answer : Only B
Direction:
three sentences.
Question No. 9
On top of the world
A. I was angry and on top of the world after my father screamed at me.
B. After clearing my exam, I was on top of the world.
C. She was on top of the world after her research paper was published.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. A & B
4. A & C
5. B & C
Answer : B & C
Direction:
three sentences.
Question No. 10
Put your foot where your mouth is
A. I put my foot where my mouth is when I asked my friends when they are leaving from my house.
B. Shyam asked Sneha if she was his friend’s mother but she was actually his sister. Shyam put his foot where
his mouth is!
C. It is advisable to put your foot where your mouth is as there are several miscreants of late.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. A & B
4. A & C
5. B & C
Answer : A & B
Direction:
three sentences.
Question No. 11
Heads up
A. A heads up needs to be given to players about the bad pitch.
B. One should be confident and heads up about all situations.
C. The customer was given a heads up before closing their software for maintenance issues.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. A & B
4. A & C
5. B & C
Answer : A & C
Direction:
three sentences.
Question No. 12
2nd bite at the cherry
st
A. I got the 2nd bite at the cherry when I visited Niagara Falls for the 1 time.
B. When Shyam was called again after getting rejected, he got a 2nd bite at the cherry to work at Google.
C. Sourav Ganguly got a 2nd bite at the cherry when he got selected to play again for the Indian Cricket Team.
Options :
1. Only A
2. Only B
3. A & B
4. A & C
5. B & C
Answer : B & C
Direction:
In each of the questions given below, a passage has been given which are either situational based or describes a
scenario. Below each passage, a question has been given which is framed to make you infer something out of it.
Mark out the correct inference as your answer.
Question No. 13
Vikram had recently joined the sales team of a huge company. His bosses asked him to speak about the products of
the company in a compelling manner to prospective customers. They asked him to talk about the benefits and
expect any objections that prospective customers might make and have ready answers for those too. They also
suggested him to give the best price to the prospective customers. What do the bosses want Vikram to be?
Options :
1. Happy
2. Persuasive
3. Cunning
4. Aggressive
5. Logical
Answer : Persuasive
Direction:
Question No. 14
For the last few months, the bank’s NPA figures were constantly on the rise. A Clerk working in the bank came up
with an idea and told the Manager that due diligence is not being done in various branches as the processes are
manual. Having strict digitization of processes will help in NPA reduction. After 3 years of implemention of this
process, the bank has seen reduction of NPAs due to this action. What quality best describes the clerk here?
Options :
1. Astute
2. Passive
3. Obedient
4. Courageous
5. Adaptable
Answer : Astute
Direction:
Question No. 15
Heena is always in a hurry. The other day, she rushed to the bus stop and her all books fell off. While picking up,
another person came to help and she ended up scratching the stranger’s hand by mistake while collecting the
papers from the stranger. Her mobile phone was a lot of scratches and it is because she has dropped her mobile
phone several times. What quality is Heena depicting here?
Options :
1. Careful
2. Quick
3. Clumsy
4. Dull
5. Annoying
Answer : Clumsy
Direction:
There are two words mentioned against (i) and (ii). Three sentences are given with one blank in each sentence. The
right word out of (i) and (ii) needs to be selected to fill the blank for each sentence and the right combination in the
order of sentence, A B, C out of the 5 choices should be marked as your right answer.
Question No. 16
i. everyday
ii. every day
A. Cloud is the technology that is going to solve _____ farming problems.
B. The seminar is going to be about the ______ mistakes that people make while driving sports cars.
C. Oats should become an _______ meal in people’s lives as it is full of essential nutrients and minerals.
Options :
1. (i,i,i)
2. (ii,i,ii)
3. (i,i,ii)
4. (i,ii,i)
5. (ii,ii,ii)
Answer : (i,i,i)
Direction:
Question No. 17
i. stationery
ii. stationary
A. The car is ______ for the past 2 hours due to the traffic jam.
B. Office _______ isn’t available in plenty due to a delay in placing the Purchase Order.
C. The pen is _____ because the lid prevents it from rolling.
Options :
1. 1) (ii,ii,ii)
2. 2) (ii,i,i)
3. 3) (i,i,i)
4. 4) (i,i,ii)
5. 5) (ii,i,ii)
Answer : 5) (ii,i,ii)
Direction:
Question No. 18
i. amiable
ii. amicable
A. Amitabh Bachchan quoted that Arun Jaitley was a friendly and ____ person.
B. Dinesh has always considered Chunky one of the most ____ actors in the film industry and has raved
about his self-deprecating humour.
C. A few people sitting across the aisle from the otherwise ____ Mr. Isakson were sorry to see him and his
tempered approach to the job.
Options :
1. (ii,ii,ii)
2. (i,ii,i)
3. (ii,i,ii)
4. (i,i,ii)
5. (i,i,i)
Answer : (i,i,i)
Direction:
Question No. 19
i. discreet
ii. discrete
A. The book is strange because it is broken up into several _____ parts, which are totally unrelated.
B. Sony made a _____ launch of its own social media platform as they did not want their competitors to
know about it.
C. Investors are being _____ about where they want invest as they don’t want to sway the market
incorrectly in a certain direction.
Options :
1. (ii,ii,ii)
2. (i,i,ii)
3. (ii,i,ii)
4. (ii,i,i)
5. (i,i,i)
Answer : (ii,i,i)
Direction:
Question No. 20
i. elicit
ii. illicit
A. Vietnam has topped the list for the world’s ____ cash flows.
B. Reddy first visited Alipiri depot where he held a 'gate meeting' to ____ the views of the workers.
C. The International Maritime Organization has started creating a searchable database that will show ships
subject to U.N. sanctions, as part of efforts to crack down on _____ North Korean trade.
Options :
1. (ii,ii,ii)
2. (i,i,ii)
3. (ii,i,ii)
4. (ii,i,i)
5. (i,i,i)
Answer : (ii,i,ii)
Direction:
Traffic congestion hurts the quality of life, reduces productivity and saps the economic potential of our cities. This
gridlock is the result of poor urban planning and public transportation shortfalls, which in Bengaluru have led to an
explosion in vehicle population from 50.5 lakh in 2014 to more than 80 lakh in 2019. (3) The subpar bus service and
tardy peace of metro rail expansion have made India’s Silicon Valley a commuting nightmare.
The story isn’t very different in other urban centres like Delhi where the metro service may be a lifesaver but lack of
adequate buses continues to hobble commuters. (4) Mumbai’s urban rail service still caters to millions but have’t
been modernised anywhere near potential. In the long term of course we simply need more cities across the
country, relieving the pressure on existing ones. But as the Amaravati fiasco shows, the project of building new
cities is mired in bureaucracy, land acquisition struggles and above all politics. (5) This must change, otherwise the
promise of Indian cities serving as engines of economic growth will been remain significantly unmet.
Question No. 21
What is the theme of the passage?
Options :
1. Mumbai’s rail service did not get modernised over time.

2. Traffic congestion is gradually weakening the Indian urban cities and its strength
3. The Urban cities of India are facing high traffic congestion
4. Over time, India will face the negative consequences of traffic congestion
5. None of these
Answer : Traffic congestion is gradually weakening the Indian urban cities and its strength
Direction:
Question No. 22
What is the tone of the passage?
Options :
1. Informational
2. One-sided
3. Critical
4. Cynical
5. Analytical
Answer : Critical
Direction:
Question No. 23
Against the sentence indicated as (3), in the passage, indicate which fragment
of the sentence has an error as per choices below. Mark (e) if there is no error.
Options :
1. The subpar bus service and
2. tardy peace of metro rail expansion
3. have made India’s Silicon Valley
4. a commuting nightmare
5. None of these
Answer : tardy peace of metro rail expansion
Direction:
been modernised anywhere near potential.
In the long term of course we simply need more cities across the country, relieving the pressure on existing ones.
But as the Amaravati fiasco shows, the project of building new cities is mired in bureaucracy, land acquisition
struggles and above all politics. (5) This must change, otherwise the promise of Indian cities serving as engines of
economic growth will been remain significantly unmet.
Question No. 24
Options :
1. Mumbai’s urban rail service
2. still caters to millions
3. but have’t been modernised
4. anywhere near potential
5. None of these
Answer : but have’t been modernised
Direction:
Question No. 25
Options :
1. This must change, otherwise
2. the promise of Indian cities
3. serving as engines of economic growth
4. will been remain significantly unmet.
5. None of these
Answer : will been remain significantly unmet.
Direction:
In each of the questions a sentence is given divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are not properly
arranged. The question is followed by five alternatives each containing the pair that needs to be interchanged to
make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. You have to find that pair and mark the corresponding
alternative as the answer. If the sentence is correct in all forms, then mark option 5 i.e., ‘the sentence is correct’ as
your answer.
Question No. 26
irrespective of whether Nato survives in its present form, (A) seek strategic partnerships with Western democracies
(B) India must now shed its traditional diffidence and (C) while leaving room for flexibility in its foreign policy.(D)
Options :
1. Only B-C
2. Both A-C & B-D
3. Only A-C
4. Both A-D & B-C
5. The sentence is correct
Answer : Only B-C
Direction:
In each of the questions a sentence is given divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) and (D) which are not properly
arranged. The question is followed by five alternatives each containing the pair that needs to be interchanged to
make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. You have to find that pair and mark the corresponding
alternative as the answer. If the sentence is correct in all forms, then mark option 5 i.e., ‘the sentence is correct’ as
your answer.
Question No. 27
Tokyo wanted more negotiations in RCEP for (A) much of the statement of a junior Japanese minister that (B) Indian
commentators have made (C)including India, before signing on to it.(D)
Options :
1. Only B-C
2. Only A-B
3. Both A-C & B-D
4. Only A-C
5. The sentence is correct
Answer : Only A-C
Question No. 28
The Committee suggests amend (A)/ the clause to authorise (B)/ public information officers,to denied information
(C)/ containing ‘personal data’, if they feel that such disclosure (D)/ is like to cause harm to ‘the data principal’(E).
Options :
1. A
2. B
3. E
4. C
5. All are correct
Answer : B
Question No. 29
The RTI Act’s core aim is (A)/ to brings accountability by (B)/ making available public records that (C)/ discloses
the actions and decisions of (D)/ specific, identifiable members for the political class and the bureaucracy (E).
Options :
1. B
2. E
3. C
4. D
5. All are incorrect
Answer : C
Question No. 30
Barring the demand on (A)/ free services in banking transactions,(B)/ there was far greater clarity and certainty (C)/
under the service tax regime and there have been limited (D)/ instances of the tax department valuing free services
(E).
Options :
1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E
5. All are correct
Answer : All are correct
Direction:
In a significant move, the Union Cabinet has approved the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill,
2020, which proposes to extend the upper limit for abortion in India to 24 weeks from 20 weeks. This is welcome in
that any move that expands safe abortion choices for women is great. After all, this is about women having
autonomy over their bodies and the agency to decide when – if at all – they will have children. Robbing women of
this fundamental choice is the load-pillar of patriarchy. The latter sees women as servile baby-making machines,
that too to serve the honour of and provide socio-economic benefits to their husbands’ families. (3) This mindset
not only leads to a (i) environment in women’s status in society, hampering their (ii) development as productive
human beings, but also (iii) creates a poor (iv) diminution for new mothers and their babies. Again, in all of this it is
the woman that suffers – it is she who can’t develop, it is she who has to give up her career, it is she who has to
give up her education, it is she who is (4) relegated to second-class status. Women should have the choice to have
children only when they are fully ready. And expanding abortion options enhances this autonomy. In this regard,
the new MTP amendment proposes the requirement of opinion of one medical provider for termination of
pregnancy up to 20 weeks of gestation and introduces the requirement of opinion of two medical providers for
termination of pregnancy of 20-24 weeks of gestation. (5) This is an (i) mandated on the current law which (ii)
improvement the opinion of two medical providers for abortion beyond 12 weeks of pregnancy up to 20 weeks of
pregnancy. Beyond 20 weeks abortion was not allowed and those (iii) seeking to terminate their pregnancy after
that (iv) threshold had to approach the courts.
Question No. 31
What is the title of the passage?
Options :
1. The introduction of new law regarding abortion has been introduced.
2. The government’s new law for expanding abortion options is acceptable.
3. The upper limit of abortion has extended in new law which is 24 weeks instead of 20 weeks.
4. The new law indicates that women have the freedom over their bodies and have the right to decide when
they want child.
5. None of these
Answer : The new law indicates that women have the freedom over their bodies and have the right to decide when
they want child.
Direction:
Question No. 32
What is the tone of the passage?
Options :
1. Optimistic
2. Sad
3. Aggressive
4. Cynical
5. Satisfied
Answer : Satisfied
Direction:
Question No. 33
Against the sentences indicated as (3), in the passage, there are four words marked (i), (ii), (iii), (iv). One pair of
these words needs to be interchanged to impart the correct meaning. Choose the option that conveys the
replacement of words. If the words are already in the right places, choose option (e).
Options :
1. (i)-(iv)
2. (ii)-(iii)
3. (i)-(ii)
4. (iii)-(iv)
5. None of these
Answer : (i)-(iv)
Direction:
Question No. 34
Against the word indicated as (4), in the passage, choose the best word from the choices that can replace the word
indicated as (4). If none of the choices can be a replacement, select (e).
Options :
1. moved
2. put down
3. accelerated
4. solitude
5. None of these
Answer : put down
Direction:
Question No. 35
Against the sentences indicated as (5), in the passage, there are four words marked (i), (ii), (iii), (iv). One pair of
these words needs to be interchanged to impart the correct meaning. Choose the option that conveys the
replacement of words. If the words are already in the right places, choose option (e).
Options :
1. (ii)-(iii)
2. (i)-(iv)
3. (ii)-(iv)
4. (i)-(ii)
5. None of these
Answer : (i)-(ii)
Direction:
In the following questions as sentence is given with a word printed in bold. The sentence is followed by five options.
Among the given alternatives, one alternative can be synonym or antonym of the given bold word. You have to find
that word and mark that as your answer. If none of the alternative is related to the given word, then mark option 5
‘None of these’ as the answer.
Question No. 36
An ever more financially integrated global world doesn’t augur well when economic turbulence slithers through the
cracks.
Options :
1. breakthrough
2. mizzle
3. adumbrate
4. bode
5. None of these
Answer : bode
Direction:
Question No. 37
SC’s verdict lamented that arbitrary and groundless arrests were still common and curtailing the discretionary
power to grant anticipatory bail
Options :
1. astonish
2. described
3. bewailed
4. summoned
5. None of these
Answer : bewailed
Direction:
Question No. 38
Giving greater impetus to the tailwind is Trump’s acquittal by the US Senate in the impeachment trial.
Options :
1. erration
2. competence
3. impinge
4. incentive
5. None of these
Answer : incentive
Direction:
Question No. 39
The presidency’s callous approach to equity will prove problematic in a year when developed countries must
enhance their climate actions.
Options :
1. bodement
2. mandate
3. surmise
4. benevolent
5. None of these
Answer : benevolent
Direction:
Question No. 40
The subpar bus service and tardy pace of metro rail expansion have made India’s Silicon Valley a commuting
nightmare.
Options :
1. taper
2. sluggish
3. compress
4. alleviate
5. None of these
Answer : sluggish
Question No. 41
Find the difference between the number of unread pages of book Q and S?
Options :
1. 55
2. 68
3. 87
4. 78
5. None of these
Answer : 68
Question No. 42
Find the ratio between the total number of pages of book Q and the unread pages of book P?
Options :
1. 125:36
2. 25:6
3. 75:4
4. 5:3
5. None of these
Answer : 125:36
Question No. 43
Total number of pages read in book P and R together is approximately what percent of total number of pages in
book Q and S together?
Options :
1. 50%
2. 25%
3. 20%
4. 10%
5. None of these
Answer : 50%
Question No. 44
Find the average number of pages read in all the given books together?
Options :
1. 562
2. 614
3. 868
4. 756
5. None of these
Answer : 756
Question No. 45
Find the difference between the average number of read pages in book P and S together to that of the average
number of unread pages in book Q and R together?
Options :
1. 138
2. 114
3. 106
4. 142
5. None of these
Answer : 138
Question No. 46
Team A can built a project in 8 hours less than the time taken by Team B to built the same project.
The ratio of the strength of Team A to that of Team B is ______. If it is given that the efficiencies of each member
of both the teams is same (where the efficiency is measured in work done per hour), then which of the following
ratios will satisfy the condition?
(i) 7:4
(ii) 21:32
(iii) 16:11
(iv) 19:24
Options :
1. Only (i) satisfy
2. Only (i) and (ii) satisfy
3. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) satisfy
4. Only (i) and (iii) satisfy
5. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) satisfy
Answer : Only (i) and (iii) satisfy

Question No. 47
Two taps A and B can fill an oil tank in 10 min and 12 min respectively while a third tap is used to empty the tank.
The third tap is opened after 6 min of opening of tap A and B. If the tank empties in `16(1)/2` min after opening the
third tap, then in how much time th third tap can empty the full tank?
Options :
1. 4 min
2. 5 min
3. 6 min
4. 7 min
5. None of these
Answer : 4 min
Question No. 48
A seller calculated his intended selling price at 9% profit on the cost of a product. However, owing to some mistake
while selling, the units and tens digits of the selling price got interchanged. This reduced the profit by Rs. 240 and
profit percentage to 4.2%. What is the cost price of the product?
Options :
1. Rs 5000
2. Rs 16000
3. Rs 4500
4. Rs 1500
5. Rs 8000
Answer : Rs 5000
Question No. 49
A Mahalaxmi tourist bus with only the driver inside has a speed of 84 kmph. Its maximum speed reduces by a
quantity which is directly proportional to the number of passengers (excluding the driver) seated inside. The
maximum speed of the bus reduces by 20 kmph, if there are 5 passengers. A maximum of how many passengers
should be seated so that the bus can move?
Options :
1. 25
2. 20
3. 14
4. 16
5. None of these
Answer : 20
Question No. 50
A sum of Rs. 3,240 was fixed to complete a work. 48 workers completed the work in 9 days and the sum was
divided equally among the workers. If the work was to be completed in 3 days then how much less money each
worker would receive compared to when the work was completed in 9 days (sum is divided equally among the
workers)?
Options :
1. Rs. 21
2. Rs. 32
3. Rs. 45
4. Rs. 35
5. None of these
Answer : Rs. 45
Question No. 51
345, 355, 335, 375, 295, 457
Options :
1. 335
2. 355
3. 457
4. 295
5. 109
Answer : 457
Question No. 52
134, 140, 275, 831, 3313, 16567
Options :
1. 134
2. 140
3. 275
4. 831
5. 3313
Answer : 831
Question No. 53
412, 562, 442, 532, 472, 505
Options :
1. 472
2. 562
3. 442
4. 532
5. 505
Answer : 505
Question No. 54
48, 50.4, 47.8, 50.2, 49.6, 50
Options :
1. 48
2. 50.4
3. 47.8
4. 50.2
5. 49.6
Answer : 49.6
Question No. 55
178, 183, 374, 1113, 4454, 22271
Options :
1. 374
2. 178
3. 183
4. 1113
5. 4454
Answer : 374
Question No. 56
85, 174, 531, 2140, 10720, 64386
Options :
1. 64386
2. 85
3. 10720
4. 174
5. 531
Answer : 10720
Question No. 57
125, 60.5, 64.5, 123, 505, 3990
Options :
1. 125
2. 60.5
3. 64.5
4. 123
5. 505
Answer : 505
Question No. 58
P took a loan of Rs. 20,000 from Q. The condition that Q set for P was that for the first three years the rate of
interest would be at 8% simple interest per year and at 5% compound interest (compounded annually) from the
fourth years onwards. P played foul and did not pay anything until the end of the fifth year. How much would he
have to repay if he is to clear the entire amount only at the end of the fifth year? (in Rupees)
Options :
1. 32506
2. 27342
3. 20506
4. 25506
5. none of these
Answer : 27342
Question No. 59
A invests half of the amount invested by B. B left after 4 months. C joins them with the capital of X Rs in a month
after B had withdrawn from the business. At the end of the year A and C share same amount of profit. If capital of B
is Rs 2800 then which of the following can be the capital of the C?
i) 5600
ii) 8600
iii) 3360
iv) 2300
v) 4400
Options :
1. (i) & (iii)
2. (i) & (ii)
3. (ii), (iii) & (v)
4. (i), (ii),(iii) & (iv)
5. Only (ii)
Answer : (i) & (iii)
Question No. 60
A goes to his office from his house at a speed of 10 km/hr and returns to his home from his office at a speed of 40
km/hr and he takes 5 hour in all. If the distance of his friend's house from his office is 25% more than the distance of
his house from his office, find the distance of his house to his friend's house.(assuming the office lies between A's
house and his friend's house)
Options :
1. 83 km
2. 98 km
3. 90 km
4. 80 km
5. none of these
Answer : 90 km
Question No. 61
Find the difference between the total number of people went for passport office P to that of total number of
people went for passport office Q, if the total number of male renewal their passports in passport office P is 900
and the total number of female apply for new passports in passport office Q is 640, which is equal to two fifth of
total number of people apply for new passport in passport office Q?
Options :
1. 1500
2. 1000
3. 1200
4. 1100
5. None of these
Answer : 1000
Question No. 62
Find the sum of total number of female apply for new passport in passport office Q and the total number of female
apply for new passport in passport office R together, if the total number of male in Q apply for new passport is
three fifth of total people apply for new passport in the same office and total number of male renewal their
passport in passport office Q is 1440 and the percentage of total number of male apply for new passport in
passport office R is 58%, which is equal to 192 more than the total number of female renewal their passport in the
same office?
Options :
1. 928
2. 1384
3. 1266
4. 1018
5. None of these
Answer : 1018
Question No. 63
Find the total number of male apply for new passport office S, if the total number of male renewal their passport in
passport office S is 1125 and the ratio of the total male to that female apply for new passport in passport office S is
7:3?
Options :
1. 1925
2. 1750
3. 1675
4. 1825
5. None of these
Answer : 1925
Question No. 64
Total number of male renewal their passport in passport office Q is what percent of total number of female renewal
their passport office P, if the total number of female renewal their passport in passport office Q is 960 and the total
number of male renewal their passport in passport office P is 900?
Options :
1. 540%
2. 420%
3. 480%
4. 360%
5. None of these
Answer : 480%
Question No. 65
Find the percentage of total number of female apply for new passports in passport office Q, the total number of
female renewal their passport office Q is equal to the total number of male apply for new passport in the same
office?
Options :
1. 20%
2. 30%
3. 40%
4. 25%
5. None of these
Answer : 40%
Question No. 66
Number of female in department P is how much percent of the total number of persons (male and female) in
department S?
Options :
1. 45%
2. 35%
3. 65%
4. 75%
5. None of these
Answer : 65%
Question No. 67
Find the ratio between the total number of female in department Q and S to total number of female in department
P and R?
Options :
1. 103:102
2. 13:12
3. 3:2
4. 83:92
5. None of these
Answer : 103:102
Question No. 68
Number of male in department R and S together is approximately what percent more/less than the number of
female in department P and Q?
Options :
1. 9%
2. 14%
3. 18%
4. 5%
5. None of these
Answer : 5%
Question No. 69
What is the difference between the total number of female in department P and S together and total female in
department Q and R together?
Options :
1. 50
2. 150
3. 25
4. 75
5. None of these
Answer : 50
Question No. 70
Find the approximate average of the total number of female in department Q and R and total number of male in
department P and S together?
Options :
1. 442
2. 435
3. 482
4. 463
5. None of these
Answer : 463
Question No. 71
The average age of 7 members in a family 3 years ago was 40 years. At present, the daughter of the family got
married and daughter- in- law came into the family so their average age now decreased by 1 year then find the
difference the ages of daughter and daughter-in-law?
Options :
1. 24 yrs
2. 20 yrs
3. 16 yrs
4. 28 yrs
5. 32 yrs
Answer : 28 yrs
Question No. 72
The marked price of a book is 40% above its manufacturing cost. The book is sold through a retailer, who earns 12%
profit on his purchase price. The retailer gives 15% discount on marked price. What is the approximate profit
percentage for the book manufacturer who sells his book to the retailer?
Options :
1. 6%
2. 4%
3. 7%
4. 5%
5. None of these
Answer : 6%
Question No. 73
Two places A and B are at a certain distance. Rahul started from A towards B at a speed of 40 kmph. After 3 hours
Mohit started from B towards A at a speed of 60 kmph. If they meet at a place C then ratio of ratio of time taken by
Mohit to Rahul to reach Place C is 2:5. Then what is the distance between A and B?
Options :
1. 280 Km
2. 440 Km
3. 320 Km
4. 620 Km
5. None of these
Answer : 320 Km
Question No. 74
All the four lateral walls and the ceiling of a room of length 15 ft, breadth 11 ft and height 8 ft are to be painted. The
total cost of painting is Rs. 7395. If the cost of painting is Rs. 17 per sq ft then what is the area occupied by the doors
and windows?
Options :
1. 146 sq. ft
2. 133 sq. ft
3. 125 sq. ft
4. 154 sq. ft
5. 129 sq. ft
Answer : 146 sq. ft
Question No. 75
A builder borrows Rs.9100 to be paid back with CI at the rate of 20% per annum in three equal yearly installments.
How much will each installment will?
Options :
1. Rs 70340
2. Rs 46305
3. Rs 13310
4. Rs 4320
5. Rs 92610
Answer : Rs 4320
Question No. 76
Find the value of X?
Options :
1. 12
2. 6
3. 8
4. 4
5. None of these
Answer : 4
Question No. 77
Find the difference between the 50% of the amount get by B for those notes to that of 80% of the amount get by
D for those notes?
Options :
1. Rs 120
2. Rs 140
3. Rs 160
4. Rs 180
5. None of these
Answer : Rs 160
Question No. 78
Find the sum of the total number of notes get 80% amount of person B and the total number of notes get 50%
amount of person C?
Options :
1. 108
2. 96
3. 126
4. 116
5. None of these
Answer : 108
Question No. 79
Find the average notes get full amount for mutilated notes by all the given persons?
Options :
1. 62
2. 84
3. 76
4. 90
5. None of these
Answer : 76
Question No. 80
Find the ratio between the total number of notes get 50% amount of person C and the total number of notes get
80% amount of person D?
Options :
1. 2:5
2. 12:25
3. 5:6
4. 4:9
5. None of these
Answer : 12:25
Question No. 81
A man invested a total sum of Rs 5400 which is invested in two different schemes A and B. Scheme A offers 10%
rate of interest compounded annually and B offers 20% rate of interest compounded annually. The difference in the
interest received from both the scheme after 2 years is Rs 1076. Find the amount invested in scheme A?
Options :
1. 3000
2. 4000
3. 1500
4. 2000
5. None of these
Answer : 2000
Question No. 82
A container contains mixture of Milk and water. If 56 litres of milk added to mixture the quantity of milk becomes
680% of water and if 28 litres of milk is added than quantity milk becomes 540% of water. Find the initial quantity
of mixture in container?
Options :
1. 120 litres
2. 150 litres
3. 100 litres
4. 140 litres
5. None of these
Answer : 100 litres
Question No. 83
Speed of stream in River R1 is 1 km/hr more than speed of stream in river R2. Sum of speed of boat in River R1
travelling upstream and speed of boat in River R2 travelling downstream 35 km/hr. A boat can cover 73.5 km in 3 hrs
30 minutes in downstream while travelling in river R1 . Find the speed of stream of River R2 if speed of boat in still
water is same in both rivers?
Options :
1. 3 km/hr
2. 4 km/hr
3. 1 km/hr
4. 2 km/hr
5. None of these
Answer : 2 km/hr
Question No. 84
A man purchases cold-drink for three consecutive years. In the first year, he purchases cold-drink at the rate of ₹
7.50 per litre, in the second year, at the rate of ₹ 9.00 per litre and in the third year, at ₹ 10.00 per litre. If he
purchases cold-drink worth ₹ 4,500 each year, the average price of cold-drink per litre for the three years is:
Options :
1. ₹ 6.77
2. ₹ 8.70
3. ₹ 11.07
4. ₹ 7.32
5. ₹ 10.90
Answer : ₹ 8.70
Question No. 85
The compound interest on a sum of Rs. 6500 is Rs.1500. Find the rate of interest.
Statement I: The simple interest on the same sum at the same rate is Rs. 1320.
Statement II: Compound interest is compounded every six months.
Statement III: The sum doubles itself in 25 years at the rate of 5.25% per annum.
Options :
1. Only I and II together are sufficient
2. Only I and III together are sufficient
3. I, II and III together are sufficient
4. I, II and III together are not sufficient
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
Question No. 86
What was the age of Kamal 6 years ago?

Statement I: Sumit is three years older than Kamal.
Statement II: The ratio of Sumit’s present age to Kamal’s is 9:8.
Statement III: The difference between the age of Sumit and that of Vishal is 16 years.
Options :
1. Only Statement II
2. Only Statement III
3. Only Statement I and II
4. All Statement I, II and III
5. Statement I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer : Only Statement I and II
Question No. 87
How much money did Neha borrow?
Statement I: If borrowed for 4 years at 5% rate of interest per annum, she has to give double interest as earlier.
Statement II: If the rate of interest per annum increases from 5% to 9% then she could borrow 33.33% less to give
same amount of interest.
Statement III: If she gets Rs. 645.30 compound interest at 4% per annum on the borrowed amount.
Options :
1. Only I and III are sufficient
2. All are not sufficient
3. I, II and III together are sufficient
4. Only II is sufficient
5. None of these
Answer : All are not sufficient
Question No. 88
What is the circumference of the semi-circle?
Statement I: The difference between the length and the breadth of a parallelogram is 17 cm.
Statement II: The area of the semi-circle is 2/5 of the area of the parallelogram.
Statement III: The length of the parallelogram is 3.5 times the radius of the circle.
Options :
1. Only II and III are sufficient
2. Only III is sufficient
3. All are not sufficient
4. Only I is sufficient
5. Only I and II is sufficient
Answer : All are not sufficient
Question No. 89
Vinay sells some pens to Sanjay at a profit of 10%. Sanjay now sells all pens to Mayank at a loss of 20% .
Quantity I: The selling price of pens at the end if Mayank sells pens at a profit of 10% and Sanjay bought these pens
for Rs 200.
Quantity II: Initial cost price of pens.
Options :
1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.
4. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
5. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Answer : Quantity I < Quantity II
Question No. 90
i20 sportz 2nd hand is available at 25% discount at OLX and the same is available at only 20% discount at Quikr.
Ankit has just sufficient amount of Rs. 7,50,000 to purchase it from OLX.
Quantity I: Difference between Marked Price and SP at OLX.
Quantity II: Difference between Marked Price and SP at Quikr.
Options :
1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I = Quantity II or relation cannot be established.
Answer : Quantity I > Quantity II
Question No. 91
How many steps would be needed to complete the arrangement?
Options :
1. VII
2. VI
3. V
4. IV
5. None of these
Answer : V
Question No. 92
Which step number would be the following output?
36 48 67 83 25 GKYB CRTU DNPT AKLM EJLQ
Options :
1. V
2. III
3. IV
4. II
5. None of these
Answer : IV
Question No. 93
Which of the following would be Step III?
Options :
1. 67 83 25 MALK GKYB 41 LQEJ CRTU DNPT
2. 67 83 53 25 MALK GKYB 41 LQEJ CRTU DNPT
3. 83 67 53 25 MALK 41 LQEJ CRTU GKYB DNPT
4. 48 67 83 25 GKYB 41 LQEJ CRTU DNPT AKLM
5. None of these
Answer : 48 67 83 25 GKYB 41 LQEJ CRTU DNPT AKLM
Question No. 94
rd th
Which of the following element would be the 3 to the left of the one which is 8 from the left in step IV?
Options :
1. 25
2. AKLM
3. 67
4. DNPT
5. None of these
Answer : 25
Question No. 95
Step V, which of the following element would be on fifth position from the right end?
Options :
1. AKLM
2. 83
3. CRTU
4. 36
5. None of these
Answer : CRTU
Question No. 96
Which among the following box contains 81 balls?
Options :
1. Box J
2. Box T
3. Box P
4. Box K
5. Box Q
Answer : Box P
Question No. 97
How many boxes are kept above box K?
Options :
1. Three
2. Two
3. Five
4. Four
5. None of these
Answer : Four
Question No. 98
Number of boxes between T and the box having 25 balls is same between the box V and the box?
Options :
1. Box L
2. 42 balls
3. 81 balls
4. Box M
5. Both (1) and (3)
Answer : 42 balls
Question No. 99
Box M contains how many balls?
Options :
1. 8
2. 63
3. 42
4. 81
5. None of these
Answer : 8
Question No. 100
Total number of balls in the boxes R, L and Q is?

Options :
1. 146
2. 97
3. 121
4. 84
5. None of these
Answer : 97
Direction:
Study the following information carefully to answer the below questions.
There are three rows i.e. row 1, row 2 and row 3, such that row 2 is in the north of row 3 and row 1 is in the north of
row 2. There are four persons sitting in row 1 and 8 persons are sitting in the row 2 and 4 persons are sitting in the
row 3. Persons sitting in the row 3 faces north. Persons sitting in the row 1 faces south. First four persons sitting
from west to east in row 2 faces north and last four persons sitting from west to east in row 2 faces south. Note: All
the persons sitting in the row 1 and row 3 are facing the persons sitting in the row 2.
G faces W but does not sit at the end of the row. P is not the immediate neighbour of G. Only one person sits
between X and W. X faces the one who sits third to the right of Z. J and Y are immediate neighbours. H faces the
one who sits second to the right of P. No one sits on the left of H. D sits immediate right of O. I does not face south.
D does not sit at the end of the row. Q sits second to the right of the one who faces D. T faces the one who sits on
the immediate left of Q. J does not face D. Only two persons sit between Y and U. Only one person sits between P
and V. Only two persons sit between V and the one who faces O. More than two persons sit between B and I, who
does not face U.
Question No. 101
How many persons sit between T and G?
Options :
1. Four
2. Three
3. One
4. None
5. None of these
Answer : Three
Direction:
does not face U.
Question No. 102
Who among the following sits third to the right of I?
Options :
1. U
2. T
3. Q
4. H
5. D
Answer : T
Direction:
D does not sit at the end of the row. Q sits second to the right of the one who faces D. A faces the one who sits on
does not face U.
Question No. 103
Four of the following five belongs to a group following a certain pattern find the one that does not belong to that
group.
Options :
1. W, G
2. T, J
3. Z, U
4. I, P
5. U, B
Answer : Z, U
Direction:
does not face U.
Question No. 104
Which among the following pairs sits at the ends of the rows?
Options :
1. XG
2. VB
3. YT
4. UO
5. None of these
Answer : VB
Direction:
D does not sit at the end of the row. Q sits second to the right of the one who faces D. A faces the one who sits on
does not face U.
Question No. 105
How many persons sit on the left of B?
Options :
1. Three
2. One
3. No one
4. Four
5. None of these
Answer : No one
Question No. 106
If the code for the word ‘RE_ _ACE’ is coded as ‘ ⧫⧫ 63 3 ⧫ 4’ then what letters will come in the blanks to make it a
meaningful word?
Options :
1. LP
2. AT
3. ME
4. PL
5. Either (2) or (4)
Answer : PL
Question No. 107
Which of the following word will be coded as ‘343 ⧫ 443 ’?

I. ASSIGNED II. PATTERN III. STARTED
Options :
1. Only II
2. Either II or III
3. Only III
4. Either I or III
5. All of the three
Answer : Only III
Question No. 108
Which of the following combinations of the words and codes is/are true?
Options :
1. ARMOUR - 3⧫4672
2. AROUND – 326753
3. EDITION - 4⧫54565
4. INCREASE - 5♠2⧫4334
5. All are true
Answer : All are true
Question No. 109
If the code for the words ‘VOWEL MAINS _____’ is coded as ‘4 ⧫ 553 56643 ⧫ 45 ♠ ⧫ 6 ’ in the given coded pattern,
then what will be the missing word?
Options :
1. LETTER
2. REVIEW
3. NUMBER
4. DIGITS
5. Either (b) or (d)
Answer : REVIEW
Question No. 110
What is the code for ‘PERCENTAGE’?
Options :
1. 642⧫4♠4354
2. 642⧫4♠4⧫54
3. 64324♠4⧫54
4. 642⧫4♠4⧫64
5. None of these
Answer : 642⧫4♠4⧫54
Question No. 111
V is in which direction with respect to S?
Options :
1. West
2. North
3. North-east
4. East
5. South-east
Answer : North-east
Question No. 112
If Z is the midpoint of the line formed between C and S, then what is the distance between Z and K?
Options :
1. 9√14 m
2. 5√26 m
3. 14√7 m
4. 8√29 m
5. None of these
Answer : 5√26 m
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A%B (32)- A is 25m in north of B
A$B (27)- A is 20m in south of B
A#B (39)- A is 32 in east of B
A&B (45)- A is 38m in west of B
K&D (17), S$K (26), C#S (41), V%C (34), X#T (21), D%X (12),
Question No. 113
What is the distance between D and V?
Options :
1. 13√5m
2. 8√10m
3. 6√5m
4. 5√3m
5. None of these
Answer : 8√10m
Question No. 114

In the word ‘MEMORANDUM’ all consonants are written as their preceding letter and all vowels are written as their
following letters. Now all letters are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and all the repeated letters are
eliminated. Then, how many such pairs of letters are there, each of which have as many letters between them in the
word (in both forward and backward direction) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
Options :
1. Three
2. Two
3. Four
4. One
5. More than four
Answer : Two
Question No. 115
th th, th th nd th th
If we form a meaningful word by 4 , 6 10 and 12 letter of ‘COMMUNICATION’ and 2 ,4 and 8 letter of
th
‘’DECISION’ then, what will be the 4 letter from right?
Options :
1. N
2. T
3. I
4. O
5. None of these
Answer : T
Question No. 116
Who among the following takes least amount of loan?
Options :
1. Person who have 6 years’ experience

2. Person who is DGM
3. Person who have lowest experience
4. Person who is DM
5. None of these
Answer : Person who have 6 years’ experience
Question No. 117
Person who is DM have how many years’ experience?
Options :
1. 6 years
2. 3 years
3. 5 years
4. 8 years
5. None of these
Answer : 3 years
Question No. 118
How many persons are senior than the person who takes loan of Rs.13 lakhs?
Options :
1. One
2. More than three
3. None
4. Two
5. Three
Answer : One
Question No. 119

Which of the following is the loan amount taken by the person who is PO ?
Options :
1. 12 lakhs
2. 8 lakhs
3. 10 lakhs
4. 16 lakhs
5. None of these
Answer : 16 lakhs
Question No. 120
Which of the following pair of combination is/are true?
Options :
1. AGM – 11 lakhs
2. DGM - 8 lakhs
3. PO – 16 lakhs
4. DM – 12 years
5. None is true
Answer : PO – 16 lakhs
Direction:
In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to
assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide
which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Question No. 121
Statement: The Committee has criticized the Institute for its failure to implement a dozen of regular programmes
despite an increase in the staff strength and not drawing up a firm action plan for studies and research.
Courses of Action:
1. The broad objectives of the Institute should be redefined to implement a practical action plan.
2. The Institute should give a report on reasons for not having implemented the planned programmes
Options :
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. either I or II follows
4. neither I nor II follows
5. both I and II follow
Answer : both I and II follow
Direction:
In each question below is given a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume
everything in the statement to be true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them
logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Give answer:
Question No. 122
Statements: Although we have rating agencies like Crisil, ICRA, there is demand to have a separate rating agency
for IT companies to protect investors.
Conclusions:
I. Assessment of financial worth of IT companies calls for separate set of skills, insight and competencies.
II. Now the investors investing in IT companies will get protection of their investment.
Options :
1. If only conclusion I follows
2. If only conclusion II follows
3. If either I or II follows
4. If neither I nor II follows
5. If both I and II follow
Answer : If only conclusion I follows
Direction:
In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. You have to consider
the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
Question No. 123
Statement: The district administration has issued a circular to all the farmers under its jurisdiction advising them for
not using pesticides indiscriminately as it may pollute the ground water.
Assumptions:
I. People may stop using ground water if the farmers continue to use pesticides indiscriminately.
II. Farmers may refrain from using pesticides indiscriminately.
Options :
1. Only assumption I is implicit
2. Only assumption II is implicit
3. Both I and II are implicit
4. Either I or II is implicit
5. Neither I nor II is implicit
Answer : Only assumption II is implicit
Direction:
Read the following statements and answer the given question.
Question No. 124
Effect: This year majority of the final year students of the management institute have opted for
finance specialisation.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect?
(a) Last year most of the students with HR specialisation got better job offers than other specialization.
(b) The management institute offers only finance specialization to its final year students
(c) Last year the students with finance specialisation bagged most of the lucrative offers vis-a-vis students with to
other specialization
(d) The management institute has recently started its finance specialization in addition to Marketing and HR being
offered earlier
(e) None of these
Options :
1. a)
2. b)
3. c)
4. d)
5. e)
Answer : c)
Direction:
In each question below a statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is
something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Question No. 125
Statement: It is not just the water in the Bellandur lake which is deemed ‘unsatisfactory’ in the water quality index.
Assumptions:
I.Besides Bellandur lake, there are some other lakes also which do not have a ‘satisfactory’ water quality index.
II. None of the lakes in the state have a ‘satisfactory’ water quality index.
Options :
1. If only I implicit.
2. If only II implicit.
3. If either I or II implicit.
4. If neither I nor II implicit
5. If both I and II implicit.
Answer : If only I implicit.
Direction:
In the following questions, the symbols @, %, *, & and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘A % B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
‘A & B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’.
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s
given below them is/are definitely true?
Question No. 126
Statements:
I * Z, Z @ N, K & N, N @ X
Conclusions:
I. K % I
II. Z @ K
III. K % X
Options :
1. All Conclusions are true.
2. Both Conclusions I and II are true.
3. Either Conclusion I or III is true.
4. Neither Conclusions are true.
5. None of these.
Answer : Both Conclusions I and II are true.
Direction:

Question No. 127
Statements:
K * B, B @ P, M & P, P @ Z
Conclusions:
I. M % Z
II. B @ M
III.M % K
Options :
1. Neither Conclusions are true.
2. Either Conclusions I or II is true.
3. Both Conclusion II and III are true.
4. All Conclusions are true.
5. None of these.
Answer : Both Conclusion II and III are true.
Direction:

Question No. 128
Statements:
D @ V # G, C & A # D, F % V
Conclusions:
I. V % C
II. G * F
III. A * F
Options :
1. Only conclusions I and II are true
2. Only conclusions II and III are true
3. Only conclusion I and III are true
4. All conclusions are true
5. None of these
Answer : Only conclusions II and III are true
Direction:

Question No. 129
Statements:
W @ E # T, X & Z # W, U % E
Conclusions:
I. E % X
II. T * U
III. Z * U
Options :
1. Only conclusions I and II are true
5. None of these
Answer : Only conclusions II and III are true
Direction:
Question No. 130
Statement: F# G, F %H & V, B @ H
Conclusions:
I. F % V
II. G # H
III. V % B
Options :
1. Only conclusion I is true
5. None of these
Answer : Only conclusion I is true
Question No. 131
What does ‘ps’ stand for?
Options :
1. people
2. debate
3. from
4. visiting
5. None of these
Answer : from
Question No. 132

What will be the code for ‘qw ma’?
Options :
1. debate people
2. visiting in
3. from with
4. Can’t be determined
5. None of these
Answer : debate people
Question No. 133
What will be the code for ‘world’?
Options :
1. ps
2. ta
3. ly
4. sa
5. Can’t be determined
Answer : sa
Question No. 134
Which of the following pairs sit between W and T, in the clockwise direction of W?
Options :
1. P, R
2. V, Q
3. U, S
4. R, V
5. None of these
Answer : U, S
Question No. 135
Starting from P’s position, if all the eight were arranged in alphabetical order in the clockwise direction the seating
position of how many members (excluding P) not change?
Options :
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. None of these
Answer : Three
Direction:
If, ‘P × Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’.
‘P + Q’ means ‘P is daughter of Q’.
‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is wife of Q’.
‘P – Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’.
Question No. 136
In the expression ‘A + Q – K ? C’, what will come in place of ? If X is mother of Z?
Options :
1. ÷
2. ×
3. +
4. –
5. Cannot be determined
Answer : Cannot be determined
Direction:
Question No. 137
Which of the following relation is true with regard to expression ‘H ÷ I × A – P + L’?
Options :
1. L is daughter of A
2. H is daughter-in-law of L
3. I is brother of L
4. H is daughter-in-law of P
5. None of these
Answer : H is daughter-in-law of L
Direction:
Question No. 138
If it is provided that H is grandfather of R, then what will come in place of ‘?’ in expression – ‘H – T ÷ C ? R’?
Options :
1. +
2. –
3. ÷
4. ×
5. None of these
Answer : –
Direction:
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is
a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
Question No. 139
Statement: Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation
to any university?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.
II. No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such
courses.
Options :
1. If only argument I is strong
2. If only argument II is strong
3. If either I or II is strong
4. If neither I nor II is strong
5. If both I and II are strong
Answer : If only argument II is strong
Direction:
In each question given below a statement is followed by three courses of action numbered, I, II and III. A course of
action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the
problem, police etc. on the basis of the information given in the statement. You have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, then decide which of the three given/suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing
and then decide the answer.
Question No. 140
Statement: Residents from Model Colony coming under North Ward of City have complained to the Ward Officer
that for last three days the tap water in the ward is contaminated no action is being initiated by municipal staff.
Course of action:
I. The Ward officer should ask his junior officer to visit Model Colony to assess the actual condition of water with
his staff and to get samples of water tested from laboratories.
II. The Ward officer should ask Ward Engineer to check water installations and pipelines in the Model Colony area.
III. The Ward Officer of North Ward should initiate action against residents who have lodged complaints against
municipal staff.
Options :
1. Either I or III and II follow
2. I and III follow
3. I and II follow
4. II and III follow
5. None of these
Answer : I and II follow
Question No. 141
Which of the following day is observed on 19th August every year?
Options :
1. World Humanitarian Day
2. National Mountain Climbing Day
3. International Youth Day
4. U.S. Coast Guard Day
5. Women's Equality Day

Answer : World Humanitarian Day
Question No. 142
Who became the first state to list Masala bond in Overseas Market?
Options :
1. Gujarat
2. Maharashtra
3. Kerala
4. West Bengal
5. Karnataka
Answer : Kerala
Question No. 143
What was the aim of the NASA's PUNCH mission which is expected to be launched in 2022?
Options :
1. New Mission to study the Sun
2. New Mission to study the Moon
3. New Mission to get the image of the Black hole
4. New Mission to discover water in Mars
5. None of these
Answer : New Mission to study the Sun
Question No. 144
Which of the following is the money market instrument?
Options :
1. Certificate of Deposit
2. Equities
3. Derivatives
4. Bonds
5. Debentures
Answer : Certificate of Deposit
Question No. 145
According to the Union Budget 2019-20 interest subvention for all GST- registered MSMEs on fresh or incremental
loans is ____
Options :
1. 5%
2. 2.5%
3. 3%
4. 2%
5. None of these
Answer : 2%
Question No. 146
What is the fixed income with no maturity period called?
Options :
1. Municipal bond
2. Corporate bond
3. Perpetual bond
4. Zero coupon bond
5. None of these
Answer : Perpetual bond

Question No. 147
The account in which the broker lends cash to an investor for purchasing stocks/other financial products is known
as
Options :
1. NRI account
2. Demat account
3. Current account
4. Margin account
5. None of these
Answer : Margin account
Question No. 148
Which type of fund is a diversified portfolio of stocks that has a capital appreciation as its primary goal, with little
or no dividend payout?
Options :
1. Growth Fund
2. Equity Fund
3. Fixed Income Fund
4. Index Fund
5. Balanced Fund
Answer : Growth Fund
Question No. 149
In which of the following city 21st Commonwealth Table Tennis Championship was held recently?
Options :
1. Cuttak
2. Puri
3. Kolkata
4. Bangalore
5. Hyderabad
Answer : Cuttak
Question No. 150
How much overdraft is allowed for every verified women SHG member having a Jan Dhan Bank Account?
Options :
1. Rs 5 lakhs
2. Rs 1.5 lakhs
3. Rs 5,000
4. Rs 50,000
5. None of these
Answer : Rs 5,000
Question No. 151
India's first Film Festival was opened in which of the following city?
Options :
1. Kolkata
2. Ahmedabad
3. Jaipur
4. Mumbai
5. None of these
Answer : Mumbai
Question No. 152

According to the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) 2019 Mid-year Update, the Indian economy
expanded by 7.2% in 2018. Domestic consumption and investment are estimated at 7% in 2019 and 7.1% in 2020.
Which of the following publishes the World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) report?
Options :
1. United Nations
2. IMF
3. World Bank
4. ADB
5. None of these
Answer : United Nations
Question No. 153
An Indo-French joint air exercise Garuda VI was held at ___________
Options :
1. Marseille
2. Paris
3. Mont de Marsan
4. Nantes
5. None of these
Answer : Mont de Marsan
Question No. 154
Where is the Kaziranga National Park located at?
Options :
1. Karnataka
2. Assam
3. Maharashtra
4. Gujarat
5. None of these
Answer : Assam
Question No. 155
Which city has recently been included in UNESCO World Heritage City?
Options :
1. Jaipur
2. Hyderabad
3. Kolkata
4. Bhubaneswar
5. Lucknow
Answer : Jaipur
Question No. 156
______ summarizes the chances a company faces in the course of conducting its daily business activities,
procedures, and systems.
Options :
1. Inflation risk
2. Liquidity risk
3. Credit risk
4. Operational risk
5. None of these
Answer : Operational risk
Question No. 157
Who among the following is the winner of AIFF Men's Footballer of the year 2019 tittle?
Options :
1. Sunil Chettri
2. Sahal Abdul Samad
3. Robin Singh
4. Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
5. None of these
Answer : Sunil Chettri
Question No. 158
Which of the following organisation launched a Working on a Warmer Planet – The Impact of Heat Stress on Labour
Productivity and Decent Work?
Options :
1. International Labour Organization
2. United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
3. World Health Organization
4. International Fund for Agricultural Development
5. None of these
Answer : International Labour Organization
Question No. 159
Who among the following is the author of the Book “War Over Words”?
Options :
1. Amitav Gosh
2. Devika Sethi
3. Shashi Tharoor
4. Arundhati Roy
5. None of these
Answer : Devika Sethi
Question No. 160
Male is the capital city of which of the following country?
Options :
1. Armenia
2. Laos
3. UAE
4. Maldives
5. None of these
Answer : Maldives
Question No. 161
Budget 2019 has proposed to levy tax deduction at source (TDS) of 2 per cent on the cash withdrawal of more than
_______ from a bank account.
Options :
1. Rs 1.5 cr
2. Rs 2 cr
3. Rs 1 cr
4. Rs 3 lakhs
5. None of these
Answer : Rs 1 cr
Question No. 162
Where was BRICS Summit 2019 held at?
Options :
1. India
2. China
3. Brazil
4. Russia
5. None of these
Answer : Brazil
Question No. 163
Basant Kumar Birla passed away in Mumbai recently. He was a ______
Options :
1. Politician
2. Bussinessman
3. Scientist
4. Freedom Fighter
5. None of these
Answer : Bussinessman
Question No. 164
Anshula Kant is the MD and CFO of which of the following organisation?
Options :
1. IMF
2. ADB
3. SBI
4. World Bank
5. None of these
Answer : World Bank

Question No. 165
Which of the following countries has signed a deal with India of Rs.200 Crore to acquire Strum Ataka?
Options :
1. France
2. Germany
3. Russia
4. USA
5. Japan
Answer : Russia
Question No. 166
In which of the following Indian state first elephant rehabilitation centre will be set up?
Options :
1. Karnataka
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Assam
5. Kerala
Answer : Kerala
Question No. 167
Who is the winner of the men's single title of Wimbeldon 2019?
Options :
1. Roger Federer
2. Rafael Nadal
3. Alexander Zverev
4. Novak Djokovic
5. None of these
Answer : Novak Djokovic
Question No. 168
Ajay Singh is related to
Options :
1. Cricket
2. Boxing
3. Athletics
4. Javelin Throw
5. None of these
Answer : Boxing
Question No. 169
Which of the following has launched STRIDE scheme recently, aimed at strengthening research culture and
innovation in universities and colleges of the country?
Options :
1. HRD ministry
2. University Grants Commission
3. AICTE
4. CBSE
5. None of these
Answer : University Grants Commission
Question No. 170
What is the C stand for in DPCR?

Options :
1. Common
2. Currency
3. Credit
4. Capital
5. None of these
Answer : Credit
Question No. 171
SCO Summit 2019 was held at which of the following place?
Options :
1. Kyrgyzstan
2. Afghanistan
3. Turkmenistan
4. Shanghai
5. China
Answer : Kyrgyzstan
Question No. 172
The final match of Cricket World Cup 2019 was played at which of the following stadium?
Options :
1. The Oval
2. Lord's
3. Old Trafford
4. Edgbaston
5. None of these
Answer : Lord's
Question No. 173
Arjun Munda is from which of the following Lok Shabha constituency?
Options :
1. Chatra
2. Khunti
3. Kodarma
4. Giridih
5. None of these
Answer : Khunti
Question No. 174
Which of the following bank has reportedly drawn up plans for a radical restructuring that will involve the creation
of a “bad bank”?
Options :
1. Standard Chartered Bank
2. Citi Bank
3. DBS Bank
4. Deutsche Bank
5. None of these
Answer : Deutsche Bank
Question No. 175
Which of the following space agency is to send Dragonfly drone to explore Titan, Saturn’s largest moon?
Options :
1. ISRO
2. NASA
3. JAXA
4. Roscosmos
5. None of these
Answer : NASA
Question No. 176
Under the Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan-Dhan Yojana scheme, pension benefits will be extended to 3 crore
retail traders and shopkeepers whose annual turnover is less than ________
Options :
1. Rs 2 crore
2. Rs 1.5 crore
3. Rs 3 crore
4. Rs 1 crore
5. None of these
Answer : Rs 1.5 crore
Question No. 177
PM unveiled the statue of former Prime Minister Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri at the Lal Bahadur Shastri International
Airport in
Options :
1. Lucknow
2. Rajkot
3. Baroda
4. Varanasi
5. None of these
Answer : Varanasi
Question No. 178
In which of the following state Hemis Festival is celebrated every year on the birth anniversary of Guru
Padamsambhav?
Options :
1. Ladakh
2. West Bengal
3. Karnataka
4. Maharashtra
5. None of these
Answer : Ladakh
Question No. 179
The Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) appointed the former Indian captain Rahul Dravid as Head of Cricket
at the National Cricket Academy (NCA). The headquarters of National Cricket Academy located in Chinnaswamy
Stadium_______
Options :
1. Bengaluru
2. Nagpur
3. Mumbai
4. Kolkata
5. Chennai
Answer : Bengaluru
Question No. 180
Small business money back credit card announced Common Services Centres (CSCs) with which of the following
bank?
Options :
1. ICICI Bank
2. HDFC Bank
3. Yes Bank
4. Kotak Mahindra Bank
5. None of these
Answer : HDFC Bank
Question No. 181
The 2023 ICC Cricket World Cup will be the 13th edition of the men’s Cricket World Cup, scheduled to be hosted by
which of the following country?
Options :
1. Australia
2. India
3. Sri Lanka
4. Bangladesh
5. None of these
Answer : India
Question No. 182
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana – PMMVY is a maternity benefit program offered by the government of
India under which a cash incentive of ____ in three installments is provided to pregnant women and lactating
mothers.
Options :
1. Rs 2500
2. Rs 5000
3. Rs 10000
4. Rs 4000
5. None of these
Answer : Rs 5000
Question No. 183
CH-47F (I) Chinooks arrived for the Indian Air Force (IAF) at Mundra port in Gujarat. They are manufactured by
Options :
1. Airbus
2. Lockheed Martin
3. Dassault Falcon
4. Boeing
5. None of these
Answer : Boeing
Question No. 184
Where was the India International Cooperative Trade Fair was held recently?
Options :
1. New Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Ahmedabad
4. Chennai
5. None of these
Answer : New Delhi
Question No. 185
Who among the following Union Minister attended the G20 Ministerial Meeting on Trade and Digital Economy?
Options :
1. Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi
2. Piyush Goyal
3. Dharmendra Pradhan
4. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
5. None of these
Answer : Piyush Goyal
Question No. 186
What is the name of the committee which was apppointed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to review the
economic capital framework?
Options :
1. Narasiham Committee
2. Bimal Jalan Committee
3. Usha Thorat Committee
4. K S KrishnaSwamy Committee
5. None of these
Answer : Bimal Jalan Committee
Question No. 187
Residential Asset Price Monitoring Survey conducted by which of the following organization?
Options :
1. SBI
2. Government of India
3. LIC
4. RBI
5. None of these
Answer : RBI
Question No. 188
Name the first foreign bank to set up unit in Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT)?
Options :
1. Deutsche Bank
2. HSBC India
3. Standard Chartered Bank
4. Citi Bank
5. None of these
Answer : Deutsche Bank
Question No. 189
Dutee Chand becomes the first Indian to win a gold medal at the Summer Universiade which was held at?
Options :
1. Napoli
2. Rome
3. Turin
4. Palermo
5. None of these
Answer : Napoli
Question No. 190
Where is the Headquarters of National Institute of panchayat raj located?
Options :
1. Hyderabad
2. Mumbai
3. Kolkata
4. Bhopal
5. Jaipur
Answer : Hyderabad
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SBI Clerk 2019 Previous Year Paper Mains

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SBI Clerk 2019 Previous Year Paper Mains

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

Which of the following statements is false regarding the passage?

watch lovers in the country

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

What should replace_________________ in the passage?

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

just the smartphone’s 4G eSIM feature.

1. Different wearables in India

2. Wearable market in India

3. Popularity of Apple wearables in the Indian market

Answer : Popularity of Apple wearables in the Indian market

A. My son is lazy and cutting edges.

B. There are cutting edge methods in 3D printing nowadays.

C. Shyam is sharp, intelligent and cutting edge in nature.

On top of the world

B. After clearing my exam, I was on top of the world.

Put your foot where your mouth is

his mouth is!

A. A heads up needs to be given to players about the bad pitch.

B. One should be confident and heads up about all situations.

2nd bite at the cherry

phone several times. What quality is Heena depicting here?

ii. every day

about his self-deprecating humour.

tempered approach to the job.

know about it.

incorrectly in a certain direction.

What is the theme of the passage?

1. Mumbai’s rail service did not get modernised over time.

3. The Urban cities of India are facing high traffic congestion

What is the tone of the passage?

1. The subpar bus service and

2. tardy peace of metro rail expansion

3. have made India’s Silicon Valley

Answer : tardy peace of metro rail expansion

1. Mumbai’s urban rail service

2. still caters to millions

3. but have’t been modernised

4. anywhere near potential

Answer : but have’t been modernised

1. This must change, otherwise

2. the promise of Indian cities

3. serving as engines of economic growth

4. will been remain significantly unmet.

Answer : will been remain significantly unmet.

2. Both A-C & B-D

4. Both A-D & B-C

5. The sentence is correct

Answer : Only B-C

commentators have made (C)including India, before signing on to it.(D)

3. Both A-C & B-D

5. The sentence is correct

Answer : Only A-C

5. All are correct

5. All are incorrect

5. All are correct

Answer : All are correct

that (iv) threshold had to approach the courts.

What is the title of the passage?

Answer : (i) & (iii)