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I. https://quizlet.com/vn/617745220/mgt-full-flash-
cards/?i=3skxza&x=1jqY

II. Which type of weather is Dallas, Texas, likely experiencing?

1. Gentle precipitation for days

A hurricane forms over the Atlantic Ocean. When it hits land and comes ashore, its wind speed
decrease significantly. This happens because the hurricane:

1. no longer gains energy from warm ocean water

This is the symbol for a...

1. Cold Front

____________ air rises because it is ____________dense.

1. Warm, Less

The process the causes plate tectonics, wind, and ocean currents is known as...

1. Convection

____________ air sinks/falls because it is ____________dense.

1. Cold, More

What type of weather usually goes with this symbol?

1. Clear, sunny skies

Hot air rises because...

1. it is less dense

Which of the following will heat the fastest?

1. land

This is the symbol for a...

1. Warm Front

Air travels

1. from high pressure to low pressure

Which type of front is near Seattle?

1. cold front

According to the map, which city is likely experiencing warmer weather?

1. San Diego

Which of the following is most likely a cause of hurricanes?

1. Warmer ocean temperatures

The conditions of the atmosphere at a certain time and place.

1. weather

This is the symbol for a...

1. Stationary Front

Which type of air would you find at air mass A?

1. cold, humid

What type of weather will occur with this symbol?

1. Gentle precipitation, warmer temperatures

This is the symbol for a...

1. Occluded Front

A(n) _____ is a large body of air that has properties similar to the part of Earth's surface over which it
depends.

1. air mass

Technological advancements can create new ______ advantages that are more
powerful than existing advantages.1. competitive
_____ focuses on the processes the organization uses to transform resources
into products or services1. Operations control

As what is ensuring that one individual does not carry the burden of a whole
work task referred to?1. Work specialisation

Enhancement of job satisfaction and productivity are key characteristics of

which theoretical perspective of work design?1. Socio-technical systems

Which of the following is an accurate difference between the task

environment and the general environment?1. The task environment
provides useful information more readily than the general environment

Which of the following tend to be least important to the success of lower level
management 1. Conceptual skills

How do you call a system that allows workers to work part of the week from
home?1. Telecommuting

To perform an external audit, a company first must 1. gather competitive

intelligence and information about external trends
The administration of Whassamatta University recently bought new copiers
that make copies much more quickly, taking up less of the secretaries' time.
This is an example of an attempt to improve the organization's:1. Planning

What is referent power in leadership?1. power that is based on attraction or

identification with another person

What is the optimal span of control?1. None of the above

.__________ is not part of an external audit.1. Analyzing financial ratios

A company would to begin business in another country only if the trade

relationships with that country are relatively well defined and stable. In the
context of general environment, which of the following does this point of view
reflect?1. Political-legal

A manager engaged in the managerial function of______is monitoring progress

toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed 1.
Controlling

Which of the following types of organizational control is characterized by

formal and mechanistic structural arrangements?1. Bureaucratic control

One of the reasons that bureaucracies have endured is that they 1. help
satisfy people's need for order and security.

During a pandemic, there are so many uncertainties where the economy is

concerned. Choose the cheapest way in which an employer can reward his or
her outstanding employees 1. By giving employees a day-off or time -off
from work

Job embeddedness refers to 1. the array of forces attaching people to their

jobs
•Individuals who are responsible for making organization-wide decisions and
establishing plans and goals that affect the entire organization are...
1.Top Managers

What one of these is not a recognised type of authority? 1. Supplier

Subordinate organizational member who is responsible for planning,

organizing, leading and controlling the activities of organization so that its
goals are achieved 1. False

Which of the following is a concern of the technological dimension of an

organization’s general environment? 1. Tools, methods, and technology

_____ are hired for short periods of time and provide greater flexibility, earn
lower wages, and often do not participate in benefits programs. 1.
Temporary workers

The I/O approach to competitive advantage advocates that external factors

are ________ internal factors in a firm achieving competitive advantage. 1.
more important than

According to path goal theory, which of the following is not a leadership

behavior? 1. none of the above

What happens in step 1 of the control process? 1. Managers are given

immediate feedback on how efficiently inputs are being transformed into
outputs

Company sets a target of doubling its sales every year. This sales target is
knownas:1. a goal

The people who work in an organization are considered:1. Resources

The purpose of decision making is to1. solve a problem

Why is an understanding of motivational theories important to managers?1.
Motivational theories help managers to understand the factors that lead
higher levels of employee performance in an organization

Determining how a company's activities and resources are to be grouped is

called _____.1. Organizing

A(n) _____ represents a special compensation opportunity that is usually tied to

performance 1. Benefit

Which of the following is NOT definition of Management?

1.
The process of preparing detailed financial statements to show targeted
financial results expected in a future time frame.

______ include things like a deep pool of managerial talent, surplus capital, a
unique reputation and/or brand name.1. Organizational strengths

From what does a chain of command extend?1. Top to bottom

In a matrix organization, the project managers have line authority over the
people assigned to their projects.1. false

A disadvantage of product-service departmentalization is that 1. it often

leads to duplication of effort.

Which of the following is NOT a Basic Skills of Managers?

1.
Financial skills

Hike and Loiters are two shoe manufacturers. Their products are similar, they
are in the same price range, and their consumers keep switching between
their products. This makes them:1. Competitors

A bureaucracy is characterized by a hierarchy of authority 1. TRUE

When an industry relies heavily on government contracts, which forecasts can
be the most important part of an external audit.1. political

In which step of the rational decision-making model does the decision maker
test the feasibility and satisfactoriness of alternatives before choosing one?1.
Evaluating alternatives

Marvin's job involves selling used trucks. To boost his job satisfaction, Marvin's
boss authorizes him to tell the dealer when a truck needs a paint job in order
to sell. Which task characteristic has been added to Marvin's job?1. decision-
making authority

A notable disadvantage of a bureaucracy is that it often leads to1. rigidity in

dealing with people.

The ability to influence people through granting or withholding benefits that

are of interest to them is called.1. reward power

A(n) _____ represents a special compensation opportunity that is usually tied to

performance.1. benefit

An organization that pursues a(n) _____ strategy seeks to stand out among
competitors through the quality (broadly defined) of its products or
services.1. differentiation

A Theory X manager believes that people do not like work, and will try to
avoid it.1. True

How can the expectancy theory be used to explain the relationship between
employee motivation and performance?1. An employee will be motivated
to put forth higher levels of effort if he/ she is of the belief that it will
bring about increased performance and rewards that are of value to him/
her.
The clearest example of a staff department in a manufacturing organization
would be1. food services

The _____ dimension of the general environment consists of government

regulation of business and the relationship between business and
government.1. political–legal

What one of the following is not a characteristic of the job characteristics

model?1. Reward

_____ are typically involved in recruiting and selecting employees, training and
development, designing compensation and benefit systems, formulating
performance appraisal systems, and discharging low-performing and problem
employees.1. Human resource managers

According to the Managerial Grid, a manager who exhibits impoverished

management 1. has little concern for people or for work performance.

What is a Gantt chart a type of?1. Work schedule design

CEO Maria is so convinced that company sales will triple, that she commits the
company to lavish new expenses without making contingency plans if the
sales growth does not take place. Maria might be falling into the 1.
overconfidence trap.

Pursuing a strategy of _____ reduces

an organization's dependence on any one of its business activities and thus
reduces economic risk.1. related diversification

A job contains high task significance when the 1. work output touches the
lives of many people.
The _____ decision model is a prescriptive approach that tells managers how
they should make decisions; it assumes that managers are logical and rational
and that their decisions will be in the organization's best interests.1. classical
A business manufactures top-of-the-line cabinets. The _____ dimension of its
general environment includes computer-assisted design software that helps to
convert wood and people's idea into lovely, functional cabinets.1.
technological

The aim of an external audit is to develop an exhaustive list of every possible

factorthat could influence the business 1. False

Organizations that provide resources to other organizations are known as: 1.

Suppliers

Management refers to the process of planning, organizing, leading, &

controlling that encompasses human, material, financial & information
resources in an organizational environment to achieve stated organizational
goals 1. True

A taxi company has a policy that it will never hire women drivers. This scenario
illustrates_____.1. confirmatory bias

The process of performing an external audit should involve 1. as many

managers and employees as possible.

Which of the following types of operations control relies heavily on feedback

processes?1. Screening control

Which of these answers best demonstrate positive employee motivation and

reward?1. Showing appreciation for good performance

Threshold capabilities enable a firm to do what every firm in its industry must
do. Distinctive or core competences 1. Enable it to earn higher profits or
greater market share than its competitors in the same industry

A force-field analysis identifies:1. factors that facilitate and hinder

organization change.
Alex, one of the proprietors of Atlas Corp. is worried.The stock market was not
doing well, unemployment was 10 percent, inflation was on the rise again, and
government debt was still increasing. These concerns of Alex are related to the
_____ dimension of the general environment of Atlas Corp.1. economic

Operations management refers to1. The effective management of the process

of transforming inputs into outputs and maximising the efficiency and
effectiveness of the production process to meet business objectives.

To what does authority refer?1. The power to command and direct

In making a decision, the alternative should be chosen that most clearly1.

achieves the goal of the decision.
Ralph Corp. and Swan Inc. have entered into an arrangement in which Ralph
sells Swan's merchandise in its stores, and Swan promotes Ralph stores in its
advertisements. In this context, which of the following best describes the
relationship between Ralph Corp. and Swan Inc.?1. They are strategic
partners.

Juanita is a data-driven manager, so she 1. bases her decisions on facts.

Creating company mission statement is1. Planning

Groups of people who work together to achieve a set of goals are called
a(n):1. Organization

________ focuses on improving the quality of an organization's products and

stresses that all of an organization's value chain activities should be directed
toward this goal.1. Total quality management

A(n) _____ is a form of group decision making in which a group arrives at a

consensus of expert opinion.1. Delphi group
Who are managers?1. people who allocate and monitor the use of
organizational resources in the form of information, materials, money
and people

The science of management involves each of the following except:1.

Experience

In Asia, consumers have historically had an aversion to debt. However, in

recent years credit card use has grown significan aggressive marketing and
government policies in the region to promotegrowth in the region.This
example comprises the _ organization’s general environment.1. economic

The set of broad dimensions and forces in an organization’s surroundings that

determines its overall context is called the:1. regulatory environment

Which of the following is NOT an important challenge for today’s manager? 1.

The shift toward a manufacturing economy
Martin runs a gardening service. His wife is going to give birth next five
months, so he wants to earn more money. Therefore, he has decided to take
on additional clients and work more hours. Martin's motivation is due to1.
low performance-to-outcome expectancy

Collecting and evaluating information on competitors is essential for

successful 1. strategy formulation.

_____ is the set of values, beliefs, behaviors, customs, and attitudes that helps
the organization’s members understand what it stands for, how it does things,
and what it considers important 1. Organizational culture

An analysis suggested that many organizations have suffered because of

abandoning the bureaucratic structure, such as eliminating policies, rules, and
regulations.1. TRUE

Legitimate power in leadership stems from:1. a role acknowledged by the

followers
Priscilla, a customer service representative at a call center, adds to her job by
asking customers how much they liked their previous purchase. Priscilla is
engaged in job1. Crafting

Analyzing and diagnosing complex situations to see how things fit together
and to facilitate good decisions.1. Conceptual skills

Richard is a data-driven manager, so he tells subordinates,1. "Don't politic,

use data."

The measure of how well (or how productively) an organization uses its
resources to achieve a goal is known as:1. Efficiency

A company's ________ is the coordinated series or sequence of functional

activities necessary to transform inputs into the finished goods or services that
customers value and want to buy1. value chain

The World Future Society predicts that 100 million people with telecommute
by the year 2015, illustrating a(n) ____ forecast.1. economic

Which of the following is a concern of the economic dimension of an

organization’s general environment?1. Inflation, interest rates, and
unemployment

Julio was going to recommend a new billing system for the hospital where he
works. However, he does not want to upset the executive who installed the
system, so he does not make the recommendation. Julio has fallen into the 1.
status quo trap.

_____ is the process of managing operations control, resource acquisition and

purchasing, and inventory to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness.1.
Supply-chain management
A job description is most likely to provide information about:1. the tools,
materials, and equipment used to perform the job

The set of broad dimensions and forces in an organization's surroundings that

determines its overall context is called the _____ environment.1. General

Which of the following best describes Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs

theory of workplace motivation?1. There are five levels of needs that
influence employee motivation and by extension, their performance on
the job. Needs ranked from basic to complex

When decision making is under a condition of uncertainty:1. The alternatives

are not known.

An approach to leadership in which the leader's behavior is first categorized

on a scale from task orientation to people orientation, and efforts are made to
find a work situation to which that particular style is best suited is called:1.
Fielder's LPC theory

Which of the following is not a part of Management process 1. Delegating

To perform an external audit, a company first must:1. gather competitive

intelligence and information about external trends

Which of the following is a part of the task environment of organizations?1.

Competitors

For a private college, parents of students may be considered part of the _____
dimension of the task environment.1. customer

Which of the following statements about organizational culture is true?1.

Organizational culture shapes the behavior of employees, and thus
impacts organizational effectiveness
A problem with geographical departmentalization is that it leads to too much
centralization of decision making.1. False

All of the following are examples of "input resources" for an organization

EXCEPT:1. number of units produced

Jeffry's Foodbar, a locally owned restaurant is experiencing competition from

an internationally known chain of fast food restaurants, which has recently
started business in its neighborhood. Jeffrey’s Foodbar is experiencing a
change in its:1. task environment

Which of the following is a Theory Y assumption?1. People do not naturally

dislike work.

Which of the following is not a primary characteristic of Emotional intelligence

1. the ability to perceive emotions accurately

One of the reasons that bureaucracies have endured is that they 1. help
satisfy people's need for order and security

Which of the following is true of organizational culture?1. Organizational

culture can be maintained by rewarding people whose behaviors are
consistent with the existing culture

The _____ design is essentially a holding company that results from unrelated
diversification.1. H-form

One of the benefits of job specialization is that:1. It makes employees

proficient at a task.

The organization structure best suited to gaining the advantage of

specialization is ____ departmentalization.1. functional

The manufacturing sector of the economy now accounts for well over half of
the gross domestic product in the United States.1. False
Nonstop is a free instant messaging and voice chat service that allows users to
communicate with each other, using a microphone and/or a webcam, over the
Internet. Its popularity is increasing and, as a result, the number of people
using Chatterbox, another instant texting service, has decreased. Nonstop is a
_____ to Chatterbox 1. Competitor

1) _____ can be defined as a set of activities directed at an organization's

resources, with the aim of achieving organizational goals in an efficient and
effective manner.
A) Economics
B) Job de-skilling
C) Management
D) Self-dealing
E) Divestment
C
2) Which of the following helps make the management process efficient?
A) Increasing overhead production costs
B) Using resources in a cost-effective manner
C) Making management decisions independently of the organization's external
environment
D) Using the majority of resources for sales promotion activities
E) Using micromanagement techniques
B
3) A management process is considered to be effective when:
A) overhead production costs are increased.
B) the right decisions are made and implemented.
C) decisions are made independently of the organization's external environment.
D) the same amount of resources are allocated to all the functions of the
organization.
E) the organization is highly centralized.
B
4) One of the titles found in the group of middle managers is _____.
A) director
B) vice president
C) supervisor
D) office manager
E) plant manager
E
5) Which of the following statements is true about top managers?
A) They are the largest group of managers in most organizations.
B) They officially represent their organization to the external environment.
C) They primarily oversee the day-to-day operations of an organization.
D) They supervise and coordinate the activities of first-line managers.
E) They supervise and coordinate the activities of operating employees.
B
6) Which of the following is the role of top managers in an organization?
A) Overseeing day-to-day operations
B) Performing routine administrative tasks
C) Implementing plans of first-line managers
D) Creating organizational goals and overall strategy
E) Coordinating the work of first-line managers
d
7) _____ make decisions about activities such as investing in research and
development (R&D) and entering or abandoning various markets.
A) Division heads
B) Limited partners
C) First-line managers
D) Middle managers
E) Top managers
e
8) A common middle-management title is:
A) chief executive officer.
B) division head.
C) supervisor.
D) office manager.
E) coordinator.
b
9) _____ are probably the largest group of managers in most organizations, and
are primarily responsible for implementing the policies and plans of an
organization.
A) Middle managers
B) Top managers
C) The members of board of directors
D) First-line managers
E) Floor supervisors
a
10) First-line managers:
A) are primarily responsible for implementing the policies and plans developed by
top managers.
B) make decisions about activities such as acquiring other companies.
C) officially represent their organization to the external environment.
D) create organizational goals.
E) handle administrative duties.
e
11) Which of the following statements is true about first-line managers?
A) They are primarily responsible for implementing policies made by top
managers.
B) They are typically involved in creating overall organizational strategies and
goals.
C) They officially represent their organization to the external environment.
D) They typically spend a large proportion of their time supervising the work of
their subordinates.
E) They make decisions about activities such as acquiring other companies.
d
12) _____ involves selecting a course of action from a set of alternatives.
A) Divesting
B) Controlling
C) Leading
D) Decision making
E) Job deskilling
d
13) One of the titles found in the group of first-line managers is _____.
A) chief executive officer
B) coordinator
C) division head
D) general manager
E) plant superintendent
b
14) Determining how a company's activities and resources are to be grouped is
called _____.
A) leading
B) controlling
C) deskilling
D) planning
E) organizing
e
15) yler works with Alpha Pharmaceuticals Inc. He is primarily responsible for
overseeing production activities. Tyler is concerned with decisions such as the
number of product units that need to be manufactured, the overall functioning of
the production plants, and the quality of products. Tyler is most likely to be
a(n)_____.
A) operations manager
B) marketing manager
C) human resource manager
D) sales manager
E) public relations manager
a
16) Typical responsibilities of operations managers include:
A) inventory control.
B) sales promotion.
C) accounting.
D) employee development.
E) benefit systems development.
a
17) In its simplest form, _____ means setting an organization's goals and
deciding how best to achieve them.
A) coordinating
B) deskilling
C) organizing
D) controlling
E) planning
e
18) Which of the following would be included in the management function of
planning?
A) Selecting the course of action most likely to lead to success
B) Monitoring progress toward the achievement of goals
C) Motivating others to higher levels of achievement
D) Communicating company policies to subordinates
E) Organizing people and resources
a
19) _____ work in areas like new product development, promotion, and
distribution.
A) Human resource managers
B) Marketing managers
C) Plant managers
D) Operations managers
E) Finance managers
b
20) _____ are typically involved in recruiting and selecting employees, training
and development, designing compensation and benefit systems, formulating
performance appraisal systems, and discharging low-performing and problem
employees.
A) Operations managers
B) Human resource managers
C) Plant managers
D) Marketing managers
E) Finance managers
b
21) _____ work at getting consumers and clients to buy the organization's
products or services.
A) Operations managers
B) Marketing managers
C) Regional managers
D) Financial managers
E) Human resources managers
b
22) _____ are concerned with creating and managing the systems that create an
organization's products and services.
A) Marketing managers
B) Human resources managers
C) Financial managers
D) Operations managers
E) First-line managers
d
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23) _____ are not associated with any particular management specialty.
A) Office managers
B) Floor supervisors
C) Public relations managers
D) Operations managers
E) Administrative managers
e
24) _____ is the set of processes used to get members of an organization to
work together to further the interests of the organization.
A) Planning
B) Organizing
C) Controlling
D) Leading
E) Deskilling
d
25) The final phase of the management process is _____ that involves
monitoring the organization's progress toward its goals.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) deskilling
d
26) The management function of leading involves:
A) setting an organization's goals.
B) motivating and influencing others.
C) grouping activities and resources.
D) interacting with the external business environment.
E) creating organizational strategies.
b
27) The management at Beta Corp. has introduced new employment policies.
The mangers are now tracking and monitoring the implementation of the new
policies. Which of the following management functions is illustrated in the
scenario?
A) Deskilling
B) Controlling
C) Organizing
D) Leading
E) Planning
b
28) The skills necessary to accomplish or understand the specific kind of work
done in an organization are called _____ skills.
A) diagnostic
B) time management
C) conceptual
D) technical
E) spatial
d
29) ____ skills refer to the abilities of managers to think in the abstract,
understand the overall workings of the organization and its environment, to grasp
how all the parts of the organization fit together, and to view the organization in a
holistic manner.
A) Time management
B) Technical
C) Conceptual
D) Interpersonal
E) Communication
c
30) Technical skills:
A) are crucial for top managers more than any other managers.
B) are nonspecific and broad.
C) depend on a manager's ability to think in the abstract.
D) are especially important for first-line managers.
E) are used the most when making organizational policies.
d
31) When a manager answers a subordinate's question regarding the process of
creating a report from raw data, he is relying on his _____ skills.
A) abstract
B) technical
C) time management
D) decision-making
E) spatial
b
32) The ability to motivate others is a(n) _____ skill.
A) conceptual
B) technical
C) communication
D) interpersonal
E) diagnostic
d
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33) Winston is often intimidated and uncomfortable with his superiors. Winston
needs to develop his _____ skills to be able to communicate easily with his
superiors.
A) time management
B) spatial
C) interpersonal
D) conceptual
E) diagnostic
c
34) Maria, a manager, studied the performances of the various business units of
her organization. After making an assessment, Maria came to the conclusion that
the overall costs of the organization can be reduced by integrating the functions
of two of the business units. This scenario illustrates Maria's _____ skills.
A) technical
B) time management
C) social
D) interpersonal
E) conceptual
e
35) _____ skills refer to the abilities of managers to visualize the most
appropriate response to a situation.
A) Social
B) Interpersonal
C) Technical
D) Diagnositc
E) Communication
d
36) _____ skills refer to a manager's abilities to both effectively convey ideas and
information to others and effectively receive ideas and information from others.
A) Technical
B) Abstract
C) Communication
D) Diagnostic
E) Conceptual
c
37) When a manager writes a mail to a supplier apologizing for a delay in
payment, he is most likely to be using his _____ skills.
A) conceptual
B) technical
C) communication
D) abstract
E) spatial
c
38) Sarah, a manager, has postponed the task of preparing a report as she has
realized that she needs to meet a supplier immediately. This scenario illustrates
Sarah's _____ skills.
A) conceptual
B) spatial
C) time management
D) technical
E) abstract
c
39) Jordon, a manager, realizes that many employees are leaving the
organization. He identifies inconvenient work timings and some of the new
employment policies as the causes. Jordon decides to introduce better policies
and flexible work timings to reduce employee turnover. This scenario illustrates
Jordon's _____ skills.
A) mechanical
B) technical
C) diagnostic
D) spatial
E) time management
c
40) _____ refer to a manager's ability to prioritize work, to work efficiently, and to
delegate work appropriately.
A) Diagnostic skills
B) Commanding skills
C) Decision-making skills
D) Time-management skills
E) Conceptual skills
d
41) A manager who uses the scientific approach to management when making
decisions is most likely rely on:
A) instincts.
B) stereotypes.
C) personal experience.
D) intuition.
E) Logic.
e
42) A _____ is a conceptual framework for organizing knowledge and providing a
blueprint for action.
A) classic
B) mnemonic
C) prediction
D) theory
E) doctrine
d
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43) When employees deliberately work at a slower pace than their capabilities, it
is called _____.
A) Soldiering
B) persevering
C) controlling
D) planning
E) deceiving
a
44) Scientific management focuses on:
A) improving the efficiency of individual workers.
B) increasing employee turnover.
C) analyzing the external rather than the internal environment of an organization.
D) encouraging soldiering among employees.
E) increasing overhead costs.
a
45) Lillian Gilbreth was one of the earliest advocates of:
A) the contingency theory.
B) scientific management.
C) administrative management.
D) theory X and Y.
E) the Hawthorne studies.
b
46) The first person to identify the managerial functions of planning, organizing,
leading, and controlling was:
A) Elton Mayo.
B) Lillian Gilbreth.
C) Henri Fayol.
D) Hugo Munsterberg.
E) Mary Parker Follett.
c
47) Which of the following focuses on the management of the entire firm as
opposed to the jobs of individual workers?
A) The Contingency theory
B) Scientific management
C) Administrative management
D) Theory X
E) The Hawthorne studies
c
48) Which of the following statements is true of administrative management?
A) It deals with the jobs of individual employees.
B) It was first introduced by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth.
C) It focuses solely on combating soldiering.
D) It encompasses the concepts of planning, organizing, and controlling.
E) It exclusively focuses on individual attitudes and behaviors and group
processes.
d
49) The scientific management perspective:
A) assumed that workers liked their work.
B) focused on the overall management of an organization rather than individual
employees.
C) emphasized the importance of supervising workers.
D) was based on the assumption that workers are internally motivated to achieve
organizational goals.
E) placed maximum emphasis on individual attitudes and behaviors.
c
50) Which of the following statements is true about the behavioral management
perspective?
A) It was first introduced by Max Weber.
B) It viewed jobs and organizations from a mechanistic point of view.
C) It was influenced by the industrial psychology movement.
D) It essentially dealt with job specialization techniques.
E) It slighted the role of the individual in organizations.
c
51) The concept of _____, suggested by Weber, is based on a rational set of
guidelines for structuring organizations in the most efficient manner.
A) adhocracy
B) bureaucracy
C) technocracy
D) meritocracy
E) scientocracy
b
52) Early advocates of the classical management perspective viewed
organizations and jobs from an essentially _____ point of view.
A) Mechanistic
B) behavioral
C) humanistic
D) systematic
E) contingent
a
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53) _____ is recognized as the father of industrial psychology.
A) Douglas McGregor
B) Elton Mayo
C) Abraham Maslow
D) Hugo Munsterberg
E) Henri Fayol
d
54) The management pioneer who performed the Hawthorne studies at Western
Electric was:
A) Lillian Gilbreth.
B) Elton Mayo.
C) Henry Gantt.
D) Frank Gilbreth.
E) Frederick Taylor.
b
55) in the Hawthorne Studies, workers who overproduced were branded as
_____.
A) operators
B) squealers
C) rate busters
D) chiselers
E) producers
c
56) Which of the following was one of the findings of the Hawthorne studies?
A) Workers tend to underperform when they are given special attention or
supervision.
B) Higher pay and incentives are more important to workers than social
acceptance.
C) All the workers in a group work toward achieving productivity targets set by
supervisors.
D) Both individual and social processes play a major role in shaping worker
behavior.
E) Workers in all groups tend to encourage and support members who are over
productive.
d
57) Which of the following is a Theory Y assumption?
A) Social processes do not influence the performance of workers.
B) People are not internally motivated to achieve their goals.
C) People do not naturally dislike work.
D) People like to be directed as they want security.
E) People perform better when they are threatened by the manager.
c
58) Which of the following assumptions is represented by Theory Y?
A) People prefer to be directed, to avoid responsibility, and to want security.
B) People are bright, but under most organizational conditions, their potential is
underutilized.
C) People do not like work and try to avoid it.
D) The productivity of workers is not affected by social processes at the
workplace.
E) Managers need to be coercive to get work done from their workers.
b
59) A difference between Theory X and Theory Y is that:
A) Theory X makes positive assumptions.
B) Theory Y is consistent with the views of scientific management.
C) Theory Y assumes that people lack ambition.
D) Theory Y represents the assumptions made by human relations advocates.
E) Theory Y assumes that people naturally dislike work.
d
60) A Theory Y assumption is that:
A) incentives rather than social processes influence workers.
B) managers have to control, direct, coerce, and threaten employees to get them
to work toward organizational goals.
C) people prefer to be directed, to avoid responsibility, and to want security; they
have little ambition.
D) people are committed to goals to the degree that they receive personal
rewards when they reach their objectives.
E) people naturally dislike work and try to avoid it.
d
61) The _____ proposed that workers respond primarily to the social context of
the workplace, including social conditioning, group norms, and interpersonal
dynamics.
A) classical management perspective
B) human relations movement
C) systems theory
D) management science perspective
E) organizational theory
b
62) Which of the following is a Theory X assumption?
A) People will both seek and accept responsibility.
B) Managers are harsh on their employees.
C) People have little ambition.
D) People are internally motivated.
E) People do not naturally dislike work.
c
63) Which of the following draws from psychology, sociology, anthropology,
economics, and medicine?
A) Organizational behavior
B) Scientific management
C) Administrative management
D) Systems perspective
E) Contingency perspective
a
64) When a manufacturing plant uses mathematical models to plan production
and schedule equipment maintenance, it is drawing upon:
A) scientific management.
B) administrative management.
C) management science.
D) behavioral perspective.
E) Theory X assumptions.
c
65) Which of the following represent the two branches of the quantitative
management theory?
A) Scientific management and administrative management
B) Human relations movement and organizational behavior
C) Contingency theory and systems theory
D) Theory X and Theory Y
E) Management science and operations management
e
66) The _____ perspective focuses on decision making, cost-effectiveness,
mathematical models, and the use of computers.
A) systems management
B) behavioral management
C) scientific management
D) administrative management
E) quantitative management
e
67) Which of the following statements is true about management science?
A) It is part of the classical management perspective.
B) It relies on bureaucratic techniques proposed by Max Weber.
C) It focuses on mathematical representations of reality.
D) It is concerned with improving the performance of individual workers.
E) It introduced the piecework pay system.
c
68) Which of the following statements is true about operations management?
A) It is more statistically sophisticated than management science.
B) It exclusively focuses on improving employee attitudes and behavior.
C) It can be applied more directly to managerial situations than management
science.
D) It relies more on mathematical models than management science.
E) It cannot be applied to inventory control and production operations of an
organization.
c
69) _____ is considered to be a form of applied management science.
A) Scientific management
B) Lean manufacturing
C) Behavioral management
D) Human relations movement
E) Operations management
e
70) In the context of the systems perspective, an output would be:
A) technological processes.
B) labor skills.
C) services.
D) raw materials.
E) human resources.
c
71) In the context of the systems perspective, an input would be:
A) human resources.
B) losses.
C) feedback loops.
D) products.
E) services.
a
72) Relatively new management concepts such as supply chain management
and new techniques such as enterprise resource planning have evolved from the
_____ perspective.
A) quantitative management
B) systems
C) contingency
D) classical management
,E) behavioral management
a
73) In the systems perspective, outputs include _____.
A) raw materials
B) controls
C) funds
D) human resources
E) employee attitudes
e
74) Which of the following statements is true in the context of the systems
perspective?
A) Entropy is a process that leads to system progress.
B) Products and services can be considered as system inputs.
C) A closed system is closely connected with and interacts with its environment.
D) The performance of one subsystem does not affect the performance of
another subsystem.
E) Organizations essentially should be open systems.
e
75) _____ is a normal process that leads to system decline.
A) Economy of scale
B) Synergy
C) Entropy
D) Contingency
E) Symbiosis
c
76) _____ suggests that organizational units (or subsystems) may often be more
successful working together than working alone.
A) Divestiture
B) Operations management
C) Synergy
D) Entropy
E) Soldiering
c
77) The _____ suggests that appropriate managerial behavior in a given situation
depends on unique elements in a that situation.
A) behavioral management perspective
B) quantitative management perspective
C) systems perspective
D) contingency perspective
E) universal perspective
d
78) Emilio says, "Employees and situations are unique. Sometimes I get good
results by trying one approach, sometimes I decide to do something completely
different." Emilio's statement is best aligned with which of the following
management views?
A) The classical theory
B) Administrative management
C) The generalist perspective
D) Theory X
E) The contingency perspective
e
79) In the systems perspective, _____ emphasizes the importance of working
together in a cooperative and coordinated fashion.
A) synergy
B) entropy
C) contingency
D) diversity
E) uniformity
a
80) A primary objective of management, from a systems perspective, is to
continually reenergize the organization to avoid _____.
A) reciprocity
B) collaboration
C) diversity
D) entropy
E) synergy
d
81) The _____ perspective states that effective managerial behavior in one
situation cannot always be generalized to other situations.
A) behavioral
B) scientific management
C) contingency
D) administrative management
E) systems
c
82) Which of the following statements is true about the contingency perspective?
A) It states that the organizations which are not influenced by their external
environments tend to be more successful than others.
B) It states that effective managerial behavior in one situation cannot always be
generalized to other situations.
C) It states that all employees tend to perform better when they are promised
higher incentives.
D) It states that the behavior of employees at work is not influenced by social
processes.
E) It is a part of the classical perspective of management.
b
83) Which of the following statements is true in the context of contemporary
management trends?
A) More and more organizations are using quality as a basis for competition.
B) The service sector of the economy has steadily declined.
C) Younger people entering the workforce over the past 20 to 30 years are more
devoted to work and more willing to adapt.
D) The emphasis on business ethics has declined.
E) The emphasis on management of diversity has declined.
a
84) Improving the quality of products and services tends to increase _____.
A) inertia
B) entropy
C) latency
D) productivity
E) divestment
d
85) The _____ perspective places emphasis on individual attitudes.
A) contingency
B) systems
C) quantitative management
D) administrative management
E) behavioral management
e
1. Which of the following is a part of an organization's external environment?

a.
Board of directors

b.
Physical work environment

c.
Inflation

d.
Organization's culture
e.
Employees
c
2. In Asia, consumers have historically had an aversion to debt. However, in
recent years credit card use has grown significantly, supported by aggressive
marketing to promote growth in the region. This example comprises the _____
dimension of an organization's general environment.

a.
economic

b.
technological

c.
sociocultural

d.
political-legal

e.
task
a
3. A business manufactures top-of-the-line cabinets. The _____ dimension of its
general environment includes computer-assisted design software that helps to
convert wood and people's idea into lovely, functional cabinets.

a.
legal

b.
sociocultural

c.
technological

d.
political

e.
economic
c
4. Alex, one of the proprietors of Atlas Corp. is worried. The stock market was not
doing well, unemployment was 10 percent, inflation was on the rise again, and
government debt was still increasing. These concerns of Alex are related to the
_____ dimension of the general environment of Atlas Corp.

a.
legal

b.
sociocultural

c.
technological

d.
political

e.
economic
e
5. The set of broad dimensions and forces in an organization's surroundings that
determines its overall context is called the _____ environment.

a.
task

b.
general

c.
physical work

d.
regulatory

e.
ethical
b
6. Which of the following is a concern of the technological dimension of an
organization's general environment?

a.
Organization's policies and practices
b.
Inflation, interest rates, and unemployment

c.
Tools, methods, and technology

d.
Government regulations

e.
Offices, production facilities, and cafeteria
c
7. A company would begin to do business in another country only if the trade
relationships with that country are relatively well defined and stable. In the
context of general environment, which of the following does this point of view
reflect?

a.
Task

b.
Economic

c.
Technological

d.
Political-legal

e.
Competitive
d
8. The _____ dimension of the general environment consists of government
regulation of business and the relationship between business and government.

a.
technological

b.
task

c.
political-legal

d.
competitive

e.
socio-economic
c
9. Competitors, customers, suppliers, strategic partners, and regulators make up
the _____ environment of an organization.

a.
technological

b.
general

c.
economic

d.
political-legal

e.
task
e
10. Eastlawn Pharmacy is a local drugstore that has been serving the
neighborhood for over 25 years. Recently, a national pharmacy chain opened
one of its stores two blocks from Eastlawn. Eastlawn is experiencing a change in
its

a.
task environment.

b.
internal environment.

c.
physical work environment.

d.
government regulations.
e.
organizational culture.
a
11. Which of the following is an accurate difference between the task
environment and the general environment?

a.
The general environment is quite complex, whereas the task environment is very
simple.

b.
The task environment provides useful information more readily than the general
environment.

c.
The task environment deals with more abstract dimensions than the general
environment.

d.
The general environment's impact is short term, whereas that of the task
environment is long term.

e.
The general environment includes competitors and regulators, whereas that of
the task environment includes customers, suppliers, and strategic partners.
b
12. Laney's and MarketPlace are both grocery stores. They stock similar
products, and customers switch between the stores based on convenience, sale
items, and other promotions. Laney's and MarketPlace are

a.
strategic allies.

b.
competitors.

c.
associates.

d.
regulators.
e.
suppliers.
b
13. Nonstop is a free instant messaging and voice chat service that allows users
to communicate with each other, using a microphone and/or a webcam, over the
Internet. Its popularity is increasing and, as a result, the number of people using
Chatterbox, another instant texting service, has decreased. Nonstop is a _____
to Chatterbox.

a.
competitor

b.
supplier

c.
customer

d.
strategic partner

e.
regulator
a
14. Organizations that provide resources to other organizations are known as:

a.
suppliers.

b.
competitors.

c.
regulators.

d.
interest groups.

e.
importers.
a
15. For a private college, parents of students may be considered part of the
_____ dimension of the task environment.
a.
supplier

b.
competitor

c.
regulator

d.
strategic partner

e.
customer
e
16. Two or more companies that work together in joint ventures or other
partnerships are called what?

a.
Strategic partners

b.
Competitors

c.
Customers

d.
Suppliers

e.
Regulators
a
17. _____ are elements of the task environment that have the potential to control,
legislate, or otherwise influence an organization's policies and practices.

a.
Board members

b.
Owners
c.
Strategic partners

d.
Employees

e.
Regulators
e
18. Ralph Corp. and Swan Inc. have entered into an arrangement in which Ralph
sells Swan's merchandise in its stores, and Swan promotes Ralph stores in its
advertisements. In this context, which of the following best describes the
relationship between Ralph Corp. and Swan Inc.?

a.
They are competitors.

b.
Ralph is Swan's supplier.

c.
Swan is Ralph's supplier.

d.
They are strategic partners.

e.
They are each customers of the other.
d
19. A diner received many warnings from the local Board of Health regarding the
quality of its food. The Board of Health objected to the trans-fats used for frying
and the freshness of bread and meat used at the diner. The Board is playing the
role of a(n) _____ in the restaurant's environment.

a.
competitor

b.
customer

c.
supplier
d.
regulator

e.
investor
d
20. Canyon LLC, a television manufacturing company, is about to launch its
smart TV. The television will come with a built-in web browser by a company
called Wayfarer Inc. to access Internet. Canyon is Wayfarer's _____.

a.
strategic partner

b.
business rival

c.
franchisee

d.
supplier

e.
owner
a
21. Which of the following would supply capital to a business?

a.
Employment agencies

b.
Regulators

c.
Banks

d.
Board of directors

e.
Employees
c
22. A group organized by its members to attempt to influence organizations is
known as a(n)

a.
interest group.

b.
board of directors.

c.
strategic ally.

d.
competitor.

e.
ethics committee.

a
23. _____ are created by the government to protect the public from certain
business practices or to protect organizations from one another.

a.
Interest groups

b.
Boards of directors

c.
Strategic partner

d.
Economic councils

e.
Regulatory agencies
e
24. A person who purchases stock in a company becomes a(n) _____ of the
company.

a.
member of the board of directors
b.
customer

c.
strategic partner

d.
owner

e.
regulator
d
25. In a business, which of the following people have legal property rights to that
business?

a.
Employees

b.
Suppliers

c.
Customers

d.
Owners

e.
Regulators
d
26. A corporate _____ that is relatively passive performs a general oversight
function without getting actively involved in how the company is run.

a.
council of strategic partners

b.
board of directors

c.
regulators directorate

d.
whistle-blowing committee

e.
economic community

b
27. _____ are hired for short periods of time and provide greater flexibility, earn
lower wages, and often do not participate in benefits programs.

a.
Temporary workers

b.
Regulatory agencies

c.
Interest groups

d.
Strategic allies

e.
Suppliers
a
28. Which of the following is an element of an organization's internal
environment?

a.
Government regulations

b.
Competitors

c.
Facilities

d.
Strategic allies

e.
Technology suppliers
c
29. Which of the following accurately describes the responsibility of a corporate
board of directors?

a.
Exerting considerable influence by using the media to call attention to their
positions

b.
Helping the company get the expertise they lack from other companies

c.
Ensuring the firm is run to best serve the stockholders' interests

d.
Gaining legal property rights to the business by buying stock

e.
Protecting the public from certain business practices or to protect organizations
from one another
c
30. The term _____ refers to an individual's personal beliefs about whether a
behavior, action, or decision is right or wrong.

a.
justice

b.
culture

c.
ethics

d.
aesthetics

e.
regulations
c
31. Which of the following is true of ethics or ethical behavior?

a.
Ethics is the same for all individuals.
b.
Organizations define ethics in the context of the individual.

c.
Organizations themselves have ethics.

d.
Ethical behavior is controlled and directed according to rules made by federal
agencies.

e.
Ethical behavior is behavior that conforms to generally accepted social norms.
e
32. The management of a company prevents its employees from meeting in
groups of three or more. Which of the following would best describe these
restrictions imposed by the management?

a.
Legal

b.
Unethical

c.
Illegal

d.
Ethical

e.
Racist
b
33. A(n) _____ occurs when an employee's decision potentially benefits the
individual to the possible detriment of the organization.

a.
loss of confidence

b.
security breach

c.
conflict of interest
d.
violation of organizational culture

e.
act of incitement
c
34. Which of the following terms represents a formal, written statement of the
values and ethical standards that guide a firm's action?

a.
Codes of ethics

b.
Business plan

c.
Standard operating procedures

d.
Strategic plan

e.
Licensing agreement
a
35. Myrtle Wines, a chain of wine retailers, has prepared guidelines that clearly
specify how employees should interact with suppliers, customers, competitors,
and other people associated with their business. These guidelines are
documented and distributed at all Myrtle outlets. The guidelines prepared by
Myrtle forms its

a.
business plan.

b.
code of ethics.

c.
strategic plan.

d.
fair trade standards.
e.
licensing agreement.
b
36. Ethical issues in corporate governance are primarily the responsibility of

a.
interest groups.

b.
employees.

c.
strategic partners.

d.
the board of directors.

e.
federal regulatory agencies.
d
37. _____ is a law that requires CEOs and CFOs to vouch personally for the
truthfulness and fairness of their firms' financial disclosures and imposes tough
new measures to deter and punish corporate and accounting fraud and
corruption.

a.
Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002

b.
Glass-Steagall Act of 1933

c.
Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999

d.
Commodity Futures Modernization Act of 2000

e.
Investment Company Act of 1940
a
38. When organizations relate to their environments in ways that involve ethical
dilemmas and decisions, these situations are said to fall within the context of the
organization's _____ responsibility.
a.
legal

b.
ethical

c.
social

d.
cultural

e.
financial
c
39. Some people who argue in favor of social responsibility for businesses claim
that

a.
the purpose of business in U.S. society is to generate profit for owners.

b.
involvement in social programs gives businesses too much power.

c.
businesses do not create problems and should not therefore help solve them.

d.
businesses often have the resources necessary to solve problems.

e.
there is potential for conflicts of interest among businesses.
d
40. Which of the following is an accurate argument against social responsibility
for organizations?

a.
Business is not a partner in our society, unlike the government and the general
population.

b.
Corporations are citizens in our society.
c.
Profit generation, for the owners, is the purpose of business in U.S. society.

d.
Business does not create problems and should therefore not try to solve them.

e.
Business lacks the resources needed to solve social programs.
c
41. _____ is the extent to which the organization conforms to local, state, federal,
and international laws.

a.
Technological compliance

b.
Philanthropic giving

c.
Ethical compliance

d.
Legal compliance

e.
Risk management
d
42. Which of the following actions represents an attempt to manage social
responsibility through ethical compliance?

a.
Requiring top financial managers to ensure compliance with securities and
banking regulations

b.
Donating money to fund the performing arts

c.
Creating a committee to review policies concerning selection of new hires and
promotion of employees

d.
Consulting the legal department regarding the requirements of a particular law

e.
Making human resource managers responsible for complying with the Equal
Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) standards
c
43. Which of the following about the ethical compliance of an organization is
true?

a.
It is a formal dimension of managing social responsibility.

b.
It cannot be enhanced by providing training.

c.
It includes awarding of funds or gifts to charities or other worthy causes.

d.
It is used to circumvent their legal obligations.

e.
It cannot be imposed by developing guidelines and codes of conduct.
a
44. Development of guidelines and codes of conduct is one of the most common
ways through which an organization ensures

a.
risk management.

b.
technological specification.

c.
philanthropic giving.

d.
ethical compliance.

e.
export restraint agreements.
d
45. Which of the following is an informal organizational dimension of managing
social responsibility?

a.
Licensing

b.
Philanthropic giving

c.
Legal compliance

d.
Ethical compliance

e.
Organizational culture
e
46. Soft Bites, a factory that makes breads, has asked all its retailers to return
the loaves that have not been sold till the last date of expiry. It then donates all
these loaves to shelters for the poor and the homeless. This act of Soft Bites can
be termed as

a.
corporate gifting.

b.
legal compliance.

c.
ethical compliance.

d.
philanthropic giving.

e.
apprentice sponsoring.
d
47. _____ is an employee's disclosure of illegal or unethical conduct by others
within the organization.

a.
Lobbying
b.
Influence peddling

c.
Whistleblowing

d.
Source criticizing

e.
Reconnaissance
c
48. Which of the following is an advantage of licensing as an approach to
internationalization?

a.
Lack of competition

b.
Extended profitability

c.
Lesser uncertainty

d.
Flexibility

e.
Shared ownership
b
49. A(n) _____ strategy requires small cash outlay, is heavily regulated by
government, and does not require modification to products for local conditions.

a.
importing

b.
licensing

c.
joint venture
d.
direct investment

e.
offshoring
a
50. Atlantia is a German company that manufactures dishwashers in Germany.
Its products are sold in the United States. Which of the following statements is
most accurate?

a.
Atlantia is exporting its products to the United States.

b.
Atlantia has a license agreement with the United States.

c.
Atlantia is importing its products from the United States.

d.
Atlantia wholly owns subsidiaries of the firm in the United States.

e.
Atlantia is outsourcing to the United States.
a
51. A potential disadvantage of licensing agreements is

a.
decreased profits.

b.
limited profitability.

c.
inflexibility.

d.
home production costs.

e.
excessive transportation costs.
c
52. Which of the following is true of a quota in trade?

a.
It is used most commonly to restrict trade.

b.
It is used to encourage strategic alliance.

c.
It is used to increase domestic competition.

d.
It is the tax breaks given by the host government.

e.
It is a form of tax collected on imported goods.
a
53. An advantage of importing and exporting is

a.
shared ownership.

b.
the lack of government restrictions.

c.
low transportation costs.

d.
the lack of tariffs and taxes.

e.
small cash outlay.

e
54. Making a product in the firm's domestic marketplace and selling it in another
country is known as

a.
direct investment.

b.
exporting.
c.
joint venture.

d.
competing.

e.
franchising.
b
55. Once a licensing agreement is agreed to, the licensee pays a(n) _____ in
return.

a.
interest

b.
royalty

c.
remuneration

d.
tariff

e.
reward
b
56. Which of the following is an advantage of direct investment?

a.
New infrastructure

b.
Simplicity

c.
Enhanced control

d.
Greater political support
e.
Greater certainty
c
57. Which of the following approaches to internationalization of business has the
disadvantage of shared ownership?

a.
Importing

b.
Licensing

c.
Exporting

d.
Joint ventures

e.
Direct investment
d
58. What are maquiladoras?

a.
Strategic alliances between U.S. and Mexican companies

b.
Licensing agreements made between U.S. and Mexican companies

c.
Light assembly plants built in northern Mexico close to the U.S. border

d.
Convenience stores in northern Mexico to serve the workers in the area

e.
Light assembly plants in the U.S. near the Mexican border where day workers
come for daily work
c
59. Basco Electric Inc., is an American company. It built two factories in Mexico,
which are wholly owned subsidies of Basco. Basco chose to build in Mexico to
get special concessions from the Mexican government for providing employment
to the local population. The factories are an example of
a.
licensing agreements.

b.
franchises.

c.
leases.

d.
mergers.

e.
direct investments.
e
60. Sam's Big Bites, an American chain of burger stands, operates on all military
bases in the United States. The agreement between Sam's Big Bites and the
Department of Defense is a(n)

a.
maquiladora.

b.
licensing agreement.

c.
exporting agreement.

d.
importing agreement.

e.
strategic alliance.
e
61. In a(n) _____, two or more firms jointly cooperate for mutual gain.

a.
direct investment

b.
technology transfer
c.
strategic alliance

d.
interest group

e.
economic community
c
62. Greater economic and political risks are among the disadvantages
associated with

a.
importing.

b.
exporting.

c.
licensing.

d.
direct investment.

e.
joint ventures.
d
63. The _____ environment of an organization includes all the values, symbols,
beliefs, and language that guide behavior.

a.
task

b.
general

c.
physical work

d.
regulatory
e.
cultural
e
64. Which of the following statements about cultural environment is true?

a.
An employee's cultural environment is personal, therefore, does not affect his
profession.

b.
In international business, cultural factors always cause problems for managers.

c.
Cultural differences between countries can have a direct impact on business
practice.

d.
Difficulties can arise when there is complete overlap between a manager's home
culture and the culture of the country in which business is to be conducted.

e.
Subtle cultural differences between countries do not have a major impact on
business activities.
c
65. The French government charges a 25 percent tax on all American fruits and
vegetables that are sold in France. This tax collected by French authorities is
a(n)

a.
direct investment.

b.
license.

c.
export tariff.

d.
import tariff.

e.
strategic alliance.
d
66. Accords reached by governments in which countries voluntarily limit the
volume or value of goods they export to or import from one another are known as
_____ agreements.

a.
service-level

b.
licensing

c.
export restraint

d.
strategic alliance

e.
operational-level
c
67. Almonds United Inc., a company that produces almonds, is based in
California, United States. Almonds United ensures that most of its produce is
sold in the local market and not more than 20 percent is sold in the Indian
markets each year. This is in accordance with the U.S. government's voluntary
limit on trade with India. Almonds United is following the _____ exercised by the
U.S. government.

a.
franchising agreement

b.
direct investment

c.
strategic alliance

d.
licensing agreement

e.
export restraint agreement
e
68. The government of Westeria has made it mandatory that all local publishers
must use paper made in Westeria itself. This restriction imposed by Westeria on
its publishers is a form of

a.
"ban maquiladoras" policy.

b.
import tariff.

c.
export restraint agreement.

d.
"go global" strategy.

e.
"buy national" legislation.
e
69. Which of the following statements about organizational culture is true?

a.
Organizational culture shapes the behavior of employees, and thus impacts
organizational effectiveness.

b.
Organizational culture of an overseas franchisee is always the same as the
culture of the nation in which the organization's headquarters are located.

c.
Organizational culture will necessarily be the same throughout an organization's
subunits.

d.
Organizational culture refers to the cultural and artistic charities that an
organization supports.

e.
Organizational culture is frequently and easily changed by most organizations.
a
70. An American company is in a joint venture with an overseas Middle East
company. The U.S. managers are particular about time management and
appointments for conference calls and meetings. However, their overseas Middle
Eastern counterparts are not conditioned the same way and don't necessarily
adhere to schedules. This variation in time management is an aspect of their
_____ environment.

a.
legal

b.
cultural

c.
technological

d.
political

e.
economic
b
71. A(n) _____ is a limit on the number or value of goods that can be traded.

a.
royalty

b.
tariff

c.
quota

d.
threshold

e.
allowance
c
72. A(n) _____ is a tax collected on goods shipped across national boundaries.

a.
quota

b.
tariff

c.
allowance

d.
remuneration

e.
commission
b
73. In international trade, the _____ amount is typically designed to ensure that
domestic competitors will be able to maintain a certain market share.

a.
benefaction

b.
royalty

c.
tariff

d.
quota

e.
minimum hourly wage
d
74. _____ are, in effect, export quotas.

a.
Export restraint agreements

b.
Export licensing agreements

c.
Service-level agreements

d.
Export tariffs

e.
Strategic alliance agreements
a
75. _____ gives preference to domestic producers through content or price
restrictions.

a.
"Buy national" legislation

b.
"Go local" strategy

c.
Federal acquisition regulation

d.
Trade agreements legislation

e.
"Ban maquiladoras" policy
a
76. Which of the following statements about the European Union is true?

a.
It dictates the internal organizational culture.

b.
It is a union of observer countries that monitor the open markets to ensure that
WTO rules are followed.

c.
It is the strategic alliance between a European company and an American
company.

d.
It a form of labor union across Europe.

e.
It is an economic community.
e
77. Which of the following is an agreement among the United States, Canada,
and Mexico to promote trade with one another?

a.
North American Free Trade Agreement
b.
North Atlantic Treaty Organization

c.
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade

d.
Transatlantic Free Trade Agreement

e.
World Trade Organization

a
78. An international _____ is a set of countries that agree to markedly reduce or
eliminate trade barriers among member nations.

a.
commonwealth

b.
trade bloc

c.
economic community

d.
customs union

e.
free trade area
c
79. Which of the following is a determinate of an organization's culture?

a.
The extended benefits provided by an organization

b.
Corporate success and shared experiences

c.
The regulations for work performance set by an organization
d.
The strategic partners of an organization

e.
The products and services available for the functioning of an organization
b
80. Unicorn designs Inc., a software company, requires its employees to wear a
specific color every day of the week. The colors for the weekdays are presently
orange, red, green, yellow, and blue, respectively. The colors are changed from
time to time and the employees are informed about it. The colors should be
visible and could be on anything, like scarves, bags, ties, or socks. According to
the management, the color coding system makes the company a vibrant and fun
place to work. This decision of the management affects the

a.
company's economic dimension.

b.
task environment.

c.
technological dimension.

d.
organizational culture.

e.
political-legal atmosphere.
d
81. The _____ is a trade agreement intended to promote international trade by
reducing trade barriers and making it easier for all nations to compete in
international markets.

a.
Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS)

b.
Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)

c.
North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)

d.
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)

e.
Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT)
d
82. The _____ replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
and absorbed its mission in 1995.

a.
European Union (EU)

b.
International Trade Centre (ITC)

c.
World Trade Organization (WTO)

d.
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

e.
Global System of Trade Preferences among Developing Countries (GSTP)
c
83. Where does an organization's culture originate?

a.
Societal norms and expectations

b.
Pressure applied through mergers

c.
With the organization's founder

d.
Resolution of disputes between rival factions

e.
Government regulation of the specific industry
c
84. Which of the following is true of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

a.
The WTO establishes impartial procedures for resolving trade disputes among its
members.

b.
The WTO requires members to limit their markets in international trade.

c.
The WTO replaced the GATT and dismissed its mission.

d.
The WTO focuses too narrowly on human rights and the environment.

e.
The WTO promotes trade flows by encouraging nations to adopt preferential and
flexible trade policies.
a
85. Which of the following is true of organizational culture?

a.
Managers are advised to maintain an organization's culture even if it has become
dysfunctional.

b.
Corporate success and shared experiences have limited effect on organizational
culture.

c.
Organizational culture is always consistent throughout each of the divisions of an
organization.

d.
An organization's culture is not necessarily affected by the growth of rival factions
within the organization.

e.
Organizational culture can be maintained by rewarding people whose behaviors
are consistent with the existing culture.

e
1) An organization's _____ is a statement of its fundamental, unique purpose that
sets a business apart from other firms of its type and identifies the scope of the
business's operations in product and market terms.
A) mission
B) statement of qualification
C) article of incorporation
D) operational goal
E) tactical plan
a
2) Nutrimax Inc. identifies its purpose as "to produce the finest cookies in the
world while upholding our principles of promoting good health and maintaining
environmental sustainability." This purpose is most likely to be the _____ of
Nutrimax.
A) strategic goal
B) distinctive competence
C) mission statement
D) operational goal
E) tactical goal
c
1) Which of the following statements is true about strategic goals?
A) They are set by an organization's middle managers.
B) They are set by first-line managers.
C) They provide plans for the day-to-day operations of an organization.
D) They focus on broad and general issues.
E) Their focus is on short-term issues
d
1) Strategic goals are set by:
A) first-line managers.
B) middle managers.
C) top managers.
D) stockholders.
E) consumers.
c
1) Goals set for and by line-managers are called _____ goals.
A) strategic
B) tactical
C) developmental
D) organizational
E) operational
e
1) Samantha is responsible for building the day-to-day work schedules for her
subordinates. She assigns specific tasks to her subordinates and designs
activities according to the objectives that she receives from her seniors.
Samantha works on _____ plans.
A) Operational
B) organizational
C) strategic
D) divestiture
E) tactical
a
1) Which of the following statements is true about tactical goals?
A) Their focus is on how to operationalize actions necessary to achieve strategic
goals.
B) Their focus is on broad and long-term issues such as increasing the
profitability of the organization over a period of time.
C) They are set for and by top managers.
D) They are set for and by the board of directors.
E) They are broad and nonspecific.
a
1) The top managers at Redd Inc. are developing a plan to reduce the production
costs of the company. By reducing costs, Redd wants to gain a competitive
advantage of cost leadership. The plan being developed in this scenario is a(n)
_____ plan.
A) strategic
B) tactical
C) operational
D) contingency
E) recovery
a
1) A(n) ____ goal for a waste management plant could be "to develop a recycling
campaign for rural communities of less than 1000 customers." It would develop
naturally out of a strategic goal "to increase recycling by 10% everywhere."
A) strategic B) departmental
C) functional
D) divestiture
E) tactical
e
1) The top managers of Dietizza, a large low-fat pizza chain, plan to increase the
profitability of all its outlets by 15 percent in a period of two years. This is a(n)
_____ goal.
A) tactical
B) operational
C) nonspecific
D) divestiture
E) strategic
e
1) A(n) _____ plan is a general plan outlining decisions about resource
allocation, priorities, and action steps necessary to reach the goals set by the top
managers.
A) recovery
B) contingency
C) operational
D) tactical
E) strategic
e
1) _____ plans generally have an extended time horizon, and address questions
of scope, resource deployment, competitive advantage, and synergy.
A) Operational
B) Contingency
C) Recovery
D) Tactical
E) Strategic
e
1) Venus Corp. is a large corporation with many strategic business units. The top
managers and board of directors are reviewing the performance of the business
units to estimate the amount of resources that each unit will require in the next
few years. The plan created for allocation of resources among the business units
of Venus would be a(n) _____ plan.
A) strategic
B) tactical
C) operational
D) contingency
E) recovery
c
1) A difference between tactical and strategic plans is that:
A) tactical plans have a more concrete focus.
B) tactical plans are set for and by the board of directors.
C) tactical plans have broader time horizons.
D) strategic plans are developed by first-line managers.
E) strategic plans deal with the day-to-day operations of an organization.
a
1) _____ plans have a short-term focus and are relatively narrow in scope.
A) Corporate
B) Tactical
C) Operational
D) Contingency
E) Strategic
c
1) Tactical goals are set by:
A) first-line managers.
B) middle managers.
C) assembly-line managers.
D) stockholders.
E) investors.
b
1) Operational goals are set by:
A) first-line managers.
B) top-level managers.
C) the board of directors.
D) shareholders.
E) investors.
a
1) The _____ is the component of a strategy that specifies the range of markets
in which an organization will compete.
A) divestiture
B) competency
C) scope
D) resource deployment
E) deskilling
c
1) Gadgetbug Inc. is known for its extremely efficient after-purchase service.
None of Gadgetbug's competitors provide the same kind of customer service.
Gadgetbug's _____ is described in the scenario.
A) scope
B) divestiture strategy
C) strategic limitation
D) process loss
E) distinctive competence
e
1) _____ is a way of approaching business opportunities and challenges.
A) Supply-chain management
B) Value migration
C) Self-dealing
D) Strategic management
E) Greenwashing
d
1) Zing Inc. is a large fashion brand that manufactures clothing and shoes. The
top managers of Zing have decided to use the profits from its clothing outlets to
invest in the shoes business. This scenario illustrates the _____ component of a
strategy.
A) resource deployment
B) scope
C) distinctive competence
D) process loss
E) divestiture
a
1) A(n) _____ is a comprehensive plan for accomplishing an organization's goals.
A) scope
B) competence
C) strategy
D) article of incorporation
E) statement of qualification
c
1) _____ is the set of strategic alternatives that helps an organization focus its
competitive efforts for each industry or market in a targeted and focused manner.
A) Anti-competitive strategy
B) Divestiture strategy
C) Corporate-level strategy
D) Business-level strategy
E) Operational-level strategy
d
1) Alba Motorbikes is known for its heavyweight motorcycles. The company
places emphasis on the quality of the bikes and after-sale service. The brand
also enjoys customer loyalty. This scenario described Alba Motorbikes':
A) distinctive competence.
B) scope.
C) process gain.
D) competitive disadvantage.
E) related diversification.
a
1) The choices a firm makes as to where and how much to invest reflect issues
of _____.
A) value migration
B) distinctive competencies
C) resource deployment
D) deskilling
E) industrial symbiosis
c
1) Which of the following questions that companies consider is most closely
related to the resource deployment component of a strategy?
A) How much money should we invest in our business units overseas?
B) What are the markets in which we can compete?
C) What are the preferences of our customers?
D) Who are our competitors?
E) How can we make our products more unique in a way that they stand out?
a
1) _____ strategy is the set of strategic alternatives from which an organization
chooses as it manages its operations simultaneously across several industries
and several markets.
A) Corporate-level
B) Business-level
C) Operational-level
D) Divestiture
E) Anti-competitive
a
1) _____ strategy is the set of strategic alternatives from which an organization
chooses as it operates in a particular industry or market.
A) Business-level
B) Corporate-level
C) Operational-level
D) Divestiture
E) Anti-competitive
a
1) The set of processes for determining the strategies that will be used by an
organization is known as:
A) strategy implementation.
B) environmental scanning.
C) strategy formulation.
D) divesting.
E) deskilling.
c
1) _____ refers to the methods by which strategies are operationalized or
executed within the organization; it focuses on the processes through which
strategies are achieved.
A) Strategy implementation
B) Strategy mapping
C) Strategy formulation
D) Strategy visualization
E) Strategy conceptualization
a
1) The starting point in formulating strategies is usually:
A) SWOT analysis.
B) resource deployment.
C) divesting.
D) deskilling.
E) contingency analysis.
a
1) In the context of SWOT analysis, which of the following would be considered
as an organization's strength?
A) Exiting competitors
B) High overhead costs
C) Favorable government policies
D) Motivated employees
E) High employee turnover rate
c
e turnover rate
1) Which of the following will be considered as an organizational strength in the
context of SWOT analysis?
A) Organizational opportunities
B) New competitors
C) Surplus capital
D) High overhead costs
E) New government policies
c
1) _____ include things like a deep pool of managerial talent, surplus capital, a
unique reputation and/or brand name.
A) Market opportunities
B) Organizational opportunities
C) Market strengths
D) Environmental strengths
E) Organizational strengths
e
1) Which of the following is an organizational strength?
A) High employee turnover
B) High production costs
C) Well-established distribution channels
D) High purchasing power of customers
E) New competitors
c
1) A(n) _____ is an internal skill or capability that does not enable a company to
choose and implement strategies that support its mission.
A) organizational weakness
B) organizational threat
C) market threat
D) process gain
E) economic downswing
a
1) A(n) _____ is an area in an organization's environment that, if exploited, may
generate higher performance.
A) organizational opportunity
B) economic downswing
C) organizational strength
D) process gain
E) process loss
a
1) Hydraliscious is a juice brand that sells a wide range of fruit juices that only
uses organic ingredients, which is its uniqueness when compared with other
brands. Even though Hydraliscious juices are highly priced, a lot of customers
buy them because of the quality of the juices. Hydraliscious is most likely to be
using a(n)_____ strategy.
A) Differentiation
B) cost-leadership
C) divesting
D) bundle pricing
E) anti-competitive
a
1) An organization that pursues a(n) _____ strategy seeks to stand out among
competitors through the quality (broadly defined) of its products or services.
A) differentiation
B) divesting
C) anti-competitive
D) focus
E) cost-leadership
a
1) Which of the following statements is true about the differentiation strategy?

A) It enables a firm to sell products at lower prices and still make profits. B) It
enables a firm to charge more for its products.
C) It is aimed at reducing production costs by using inexpensive raw materials.
D) It involves making simple, low-priced products for the mass market.
E) It cannot be used by companies that only offer services.
a
1) Which of the following is most closely associated with an overall cost
leadership strategy?
A) Manufacturing highly-customized products
B) Manufacturing products in bulk
C) Providing highly efficient customer service that is better than any other
competitor
D) Selling products at high prices
E) Using expensive raw materials
b
1) Alpha Inc. is a large shoe manufacturer that caters to a large customer base.
In addition to the high volume of shoes it manufactures, the company sells
simple-designed sneakers for low prices. Many customers buy Alpha shoes
because they are durable and inexpensive. Which of the following strategies is
illustrated in the scenario?
A) Overall cost leadership strategy
B) Market diversification strategy
C) Differentiation strategy
D) Divesting strategy
E) Market development strategy
a
1) Which of the following will help a company achieve an overall cost leadership?
A) Manufacturing customized products in small quantities
B) Increasing after-purchase services
C) Using simple inexpensive product packaging
D) Selling products at very high prices
E) Increasing overhead costs
a
1) A firm pursuing a(n) _____ strategy concentrates on a specific regional
market, product line, or group of buyers.
A) overall cost leadership
B) divesting
C) restraint of trade
D) anti-competitive
E) focus
e
1) Supertech Inc. is a large firm that manufactures gadgets and mobile phones.
The company sells a line of inexpensive mobile phones exclusively targeted at
youth and teenagers in Selenasia. Which of the following strategies is illustrated
in the scenario?
A) Differentiation strategy
B) Focus strategy
C) Restraint of trade strategy
D) Anti-competitive strategy
E) Divesting strategy
b
1) During the introduction phase of the product life cycle _____.
A) companies must sacrifice product quality
B) most companies tend to downsize
C) demand may be very high
D) competition is at its peak
E) sales volume is the highest
c
1) During the growth stage of the product life cycle,:
A) most companies downsize.
B) the demand is the lowest.
C) competitors start exiting the industry.
D) more firms begin producing the product.
E) sales rapidly decline.
d
1) During the maturity stage of the product life cycle,:
A) most companies start hiring more employees.
B) managers need to focus their efforts on "getting product the out the door"
without sacrificing quality.
C) the sales volume is the highest.
D) more competitors enter the industry.
E) the overall demand growth for a product begins to slow down.
c
1) In the maturity stage of the product life cycle,:
A) the demand is extremely high.
B) product sales rapidly increase.
C) compeition is at its peak.
D) managers need to focus their efforts on "getting the product out the door"
without sacrificing quality.
E) the number of new firms producing the product begins to decline.
b
1) During the decline stage of the product life cycle:
A) demand peaks.
B) new competitors enter the industry.
C) sales drop.
D) managers need to focus their efforts on "getting the product out the door"
without sacrificing quality.
E) managers must increase production costs.
c
1) Which of the following strategies can help companies survive during the
decline stage of the product life cycle?
A) Increasing production costs
B) Manufacturing the products frequently and in smaller quantities
C) Avoiding differentiation strategies
D) Developing new products or services
E) Focusing on strategies to slow the entry of competitors
d
1) Which of the following strategies can help companies during the maturity stage
of a product life cycle?
A) Manufacturing products in small quantities intermittently than in bulk
B) Drastically increasing product prices
C) Focusing on keeping costs low
D) Sacrificing the quality of products
E) Focusing more on strategies to slow the entry of competitors
c
1) Strategies to slow the entry of competitors are important if an organization is
entering an industry during the _____ stage of the product life cycle.
A) growth
B) introduction
C) decline
D) maturity
E) recovery
d
1) Which of the following strategies will help companies succeed during the
growth stage of a product cycle?
A) Increasing overhead costs
B) Focusing on developing new products or services
C) Sacrificing product quality
D) Focusing on creating product differentiation
E) Increasing product prices significantly
d
1) During the growth stage of a product life cycle, companies should focus on:
A) creating product differentiation.
B) increasing overhead costs.
C) sacrificing product quality.
D) using anti-competitive strategies.
E) divesting.
a
1) During the maturity stage of a product life cycle:
A) demand is maximum.
B) companies must sacrifice product quality.
C) sales are the highest.
D) demand comes to a halt.
E) product differentiation concerns are still important.
e
1) _____ describes the number of different businesses that an organization is
engaged in and the extent to which these businesses are related to one another.
A) Entropy
B) Diversification
C) Divestiture
D) Competency
E) Economy of scale
b
1) An organization that pursues a single-product strategy:
A) clusters relayed products in a single strategic business unit.
B) manufactures a range of products that are related to each other in some way.
C) uses a single marketing strategy for all its products.
D) operates in a single geographic market.
E) creates a separate business unit for each product it sells.
d
1) Virtually all larger businesses in the United States use a(n) _____ strategy.
A) related-diversification
B) single-product
C) divestiture
D) unrelated diversification
E) single-service
a
1) Aries Inc. manufactures dairy products and detergents.This is an example of
_____ diversification.
A) horizontal
B) unrelated
C) single-product
D) concentric
E) related
b
1) ____ techniques are methods that diversified organizations use to determine
in which businesses to engage and how to manage these businesses to
maximize corporate performance.
A) Divestiture
B) Portfolio management
C) Process gain
D) Deskilling
E) Entropy
b
1) In a Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix, _____ are businesses that have
only a small share of a quickly growing market.
A) stars
B) question marks
C) entropies
D) dogs
E) cash cows
b
1) In a BCG matrix, _____ are businesses that have a very small share of a
market that is not expected to grow.
A) question marks
B) cows
C) stars
D) dogs
E) rate busters
d
1) In the context of the BCG matrix, _____ are businesses that have the largest
share of a rapidly growing market.
A) question marks
B) stars
C) cows
D) dogs
E) entropies
b
1) In a BCG matrix, _____ are businesses that have a large share of a market
that is not expected to grow substantially.
A) stars
B) cash cows
C) entropies
D) question marks
E) dogs
b
1) The _____ is a portfolio management technique that considers industry
attractiveness and competitive position rather than focusing solely on market
growth and market share.
A) Black-Litterman model
B) modern portfolio theory
C) growth-share matrix
D) BCG matrix
E) GE Business Screen
e
1) In the GE Business Screen portfolio management technique, businesses that
have good competitive position in an attractive industry are known as:
A) losers.
B) winners.
C) profit producers.
D) question marks.
E) cash cows.
b
1) In the GE Business Screen matrix, which of the following is a determinant of
industry attractiveness?
A) Market share
B) Market size
C) Product quality
D) Operating costs
E) Service network
c
1) In the GE Business Screen matrix, which of the following determines the
competitive position of the company?
A) Market size
B) Market growth
C) Price competitiveness
D) Capital requirements
E) Competitive intensity
a
1) In the context of the GE Business Screen, a determinant of an organization's
competitive position is:
A) capital requirements.
B) market growth.
C) government policies.
D) market size.
E) product quality.
d
1) Pursuing a strategy of _____ reduces an organization's dependence on any
one of its business activities and thus reduces economic risk.
A) single-product
B) single-service
C) divestiture
D) related diversification
E) trade restraint
d
1) Firms that implement a strategy of _____ operate multiple businesses that are
not logically associated with one another.
A) single-business unit
B) unrelated diversification
C) entropy
D) nondiversification
E) synergy
b
1) In the context of the GE Business Screen, a determinant of industry
attractiveness would be:
A) capital requirements.
B) product quality.
C) service network.
D) price competitiveness.
E) market share.
a
1) Which of the following is a determinant of an organization's competitive
position in the context of the GE Business Screen?
A) Government policies
B) Market size
C) Technological know-how
D) Capital requirements
E) Market growth
c
1) In the context of the GE Business Screen matrix, _____ is a determinant of the
competitive position of a company.
A) intensity of competition
B) government policies
C) market size
D) market growth
E) market share
a
1) In contrast to strategic plans, tactical plans must:
A) specify resources and time frames.
B) be developed independently of the internal business environment.
C) be developed independently of the external business environment.
D) be more general and broadly based.
E) focus on resources, environment, and mission.
a
1) Which of the following statements is true about a tactical plan?
A) It is an organized sequence of steps designed to execute strategic plans.
B) It is exclusively developed by the board of directors.
C) It is more broad and nonspecific when compared to a strategic plan.
D) It is developed independently of the external business environment.
E) It does not specify time frames and resources.
a
1) A(n) _____ is a single-use plan for a large set of activities. It might consist of
identifying procedures for introducing a new product line, opening a new facility,
or changing the organization's mission.
A) policy
B) entropy
C) regulation
D) project
E) program
e
1) _____ planning refers to the determination of alternative courses of action to
be taken if an intended plan is unexpectedly disrupted or rendered inappropriate.
A) Divestiture
B) Deskilling
C) Synergy
D) Contingency
E) Entropy
d
1) A _____ is the most general form of standing plan that specifies the
organization's general response to a designated problem or situation.
A) project
B) standard operating procedure
C) policy
D) program
E) single-use plan
c
1) The narrowest of the standing plans, _____ describe exactly how specific
activities are to be carried out.
A) standard operating procedures
B) projects and programs
C) rules and regulations
D) contingency theories
E) crisis management procedures
c
1) Venus Corp. prohibits its employees from smoking in its premises. This is an
example of a(n):
A) standard operating procedure
B) rule
C) program
D) entropy
E) project
b
1) Relish has a chain of outlets that sells baked products. Relish requires all its
employees to complete a month's training before they could work in the kitchen.
This is an example of a:
A) standard operating procedure.
B) contingency plan.
C) regulation
D) policy.
E) standing plans.
c
1) Libra Travels LLC. has a few back-up buses at key locations where the
business operates. This is to be prepared in case any of its day-tour buses break
down. This is an example of a:
A) project.
B) program.
C) regulation.
D) single-use plan.
E) contingency plan.
e
1) The process of choosing one alternative from among a set of alternatives is
called _____.
A) rational ignorance
B) altruism
C) bounded rationality
D) decision making
E) groupthink
d
1) Which of the following statements is true about the decision-making process?
A) It exclusively applies to problem situations.
B) It requires that the nature of a particular situation be defined.
C) It seldom applies to situations that are positive
. D) It typically involves only one individual and seldom applies to groups.
E) It results in the generation of only one alternative.
b
1) Ryan, the production manager at the Tan Shoes Company, chose the
cheapest leather-cutting machine from a set of five machines from different
manufacturers. Ryan was engaged in _____.
A) decision making
B) optimizing
C) rationalizing
D) brainstorming
E) social loafing
a
1) Which of the following statements is true about the process of decision
making?
A) It ends when the decision situation has been defined.
B) It includes putting the chosen alternative to practice.
C) The first step in the process is to identify alternatives to a problem.
D) The process is said to be complete when a set of alternatives to a problem
has been created.
E) In a business scenario, the decision-making process is always aimed at
finding a way to increase profits.
b
1) A(n) _____ decision is a decision that is relatively structured or recurs with
some frequency (or both).
A) custom-made
B) novel
C) unstructured
D) intuitive
E) programmed
e
1) Decisions regarding standard organizational transactions are most likely to be
_____ decisions.
A) unstructured
B) infrequent
C) programmed
D) intuitive
E) irrational
c
1) Nutrimax Inc. sponsors a football championship in Oriel in August every year.
The championship is organized by the Oriel Football Association (OFA) to
encourage new talent, and Nutrimax bears all the expenses incurred during the
championship. The Oriel regional manager of Nutrimax sends across a check to
the OFA in July of each year in order for them to prepare for the championship.
The regional manager's decision about when to send the check to OFA is a(n)
_____ decision.
A) programmed decision
B) unstructured decision
C) intuitive decision
D) contingency decision
E) satisficing decision
a
1) When the inventory manager of Cuisine Royale, a restaurant, decides to order
a batch of brown bread because the stock is almost empty, she's making a(n)
_____ decision.
A) programmed
B) unstructured
C) intuitive
D) irrational
E) strategic
e
1) A nonprogrammed decision:
A) is relatively more frequent that programmed decisions.
B) is highly structured.
C) requires more time and resources than programmed decisions.
D) is typically regarding daily organizational transactions.
E) typically applies to basic operating systems and procedures.
c
1) Decisions made by top managers involving strategy, such as signing mergers
or making acquisitions, are examples of _____ decisions.
A) frequent
B) nonprogrammed
C) structured
D) operational
E) programmed
b
1) Programmed decisions:
A) can only be made by the top management.
B) generally deal with long-term matters such as expanding business in another
country.
C) lack structure.
D) recur more frequently than nonprogrammed decisions.
E) are typically made by shareholders.
d
1) Venus Electronics Inc. decided to explore markets in different countries. It has
now set up a branch in Selenasia. This is an example of a(n) _____ decision.
A) structured
B) nonprogrammed
C) standard
D) programmed
E) operational
b
1) Which of the following illustrates a programmed decision?
A) A cafe owner buys a hundred cartons of coffee every month.
B) A fast food chain decides to enter into a new franchise agreement.
C) A content development company decides to sue a competitor for copyright
infringement.
D) A health drink manufacturing company decides to launch a new product in the
market.
E) An IT company decides to lay off a hundred employees.
a
1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of decision making
under a state of risk?
A) The decision maker clearly knows the alternatives.
B) The decision maker uses probability estimates to assess alternatives.
C) The decision maker is least likely to choose a bad alternative.
D) The decision maker has an accurate understanding of payoffs of all the
alternatives.
E) The decision maker seldom considers his or her past experience while making
the decision.
b
1) In decision making, a condition of _____ exists when a decision maker knows
what the alternatives are and what conditions are associated with each
alternative.
A) risk
B) uncertainty
C) certainty
D) imperfect information
E) ambivalence
c
1) When Irene wants to buy new laptops for her marketing executives and she
has to pick them up from a single brand that is preinstalled with the marketing
software that her company needs, she's making a decision under a condition of
_____.
A) imperfect information
B) ambiguity
C) risk
D) certainty
E) unclear alternatives
d
1) When decision making is under a condition of uncertainty:
A) the alternatives are not known.
B) no ambiguity is involved.
C) errors are least likely to occur.
D) the consequences of solutions are known.
E) the decision situation is simple.
a
1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of decision making
under a condition of uncertainty?
A) A decision maker greatly relies on intuition, judgment, and experience.
B) A decision maker clearly knows all the risks associated with alternatives to a
problem.
C) A decision maker puts in least effort and uses a pre-determined structure for
decision making.
D) A decision maker is able to estimate the payoffs and risks associated with
alternatives.
E) A decision maker identifies only two alternatives to the decision situation.
a
1) Professor Campbell needs to recommend a biology textbook for his senior
class. Only two well-known publishers, Educate and WordTree, publish biology
textbooks in the state, and both publishers are known for the clarity and
extensiveness of their content. When Campbell chooses a textbook from one of
the two publishers, he is making a decision in a state of _____.
A) certainty
B) irrationality
C) risk
D) imperfect information
E) ambiguity
a
1) Managers are most prone to error in a condition of _____.
A) certainty
B) uncertainty
C) risk
D) rationality
E) perfect information
b
1) The _____ decision model is a prescriptive approach that tells managers how
they should make decisions; it assumes that managers are logical and rational
and that their decisions will be in the organization's best interests.
A) behavioral
B) classical
C) administrative
D) bureaucratic
E) probabilistic
b
1) According to the classical decision model, managers:
A) evaluate all aspects of a decision situation logically and rationally.
B) are inefficient at eliminating uncertainty.
C) never have adequate information about decision situations.
D) never make errors even under uncertain conditions.
E) can never assess alternatives appropriately.
a
1) The first step in rational decision making is _____.
A) identifying alternatives
B) implementing an alternative
C) selecting the best alternative
D) recognizing and defining the decision situation
E) evaluating alternatives
d
1) Tina works at a coffee shop. One of the four coffee machines at the coffee
shop has not been functioning well; the same machine has broken down thrice in
two weeks. Now, Tina is looking at the machine and trying to decide if the
problem is a bad machine or if people are just using the machine wrong. Tina is
currently _____.
A) implementing an alternative
B) evaluating the results of a chosen alternative
C) consulting with other decision makers
D) recognizing and defining the decision situation
E) eliminating feasible alternatives
e
1) Libra Inc. chose to settle a lawsuit for $75 million. In the context of the rational
decision-making model, when executives of the company begin to compare the
cost of the settlement to those of other financial institutions, they will be _____.
A) developing a set of rational alternatives
B) evaluating the possible alternatives
C) consulting with other decision makers
D) recognizing and defining the decision situation
E) following up and evaluating the results of a chosen alternative
e
1) After being laid off by their companies, many individuals recognized three
options they could choose from before they could secure new jobs: to spend
less, to use savings, or to use credit. In the context of the steps involved in the
rational decision-making model, they were _____.
A) monitoring implementation
B) selecting the best alternative
C) identifying alternatives
D) implementing alternatives
E) evaluating decision effectiveness
b
1) In general, while identifying alternatives, the more important the decision,
_____.
A) the more alternatives should be generated
B) the lesser the time needed to make the decision
C) the lesser the chances of managers making the right decision
D) the more the tendency of managers to ignore intuitions
E) the lesser the chances of managers using expert opinion to make the decision
a
1) Christine, a teacher, notices that the performances of her students at class
tests have been declining. While attempting to find a solution to the problem, she
thinks of three choices: rewarding students who get good grades, holding class
tests more often, or punishing students when they perform poorly in the tests.
Which step of the rational decision-making process is Christine in?
A) Identifying alternatives
B) Implementing an alternative
C) Defining the decision situation
D) Selecting the best alternative
E) Evaluating the decision effectiveness
a
1) The rational decision-making process:
A) begins when a decision maker chooses the best solution.
B) involves the evaluation of different alternatives.
C) ends when alternatives have been identified.
D) does not include the implementation of an alternative.
E) ends when a decision situation has been defined.
c
1) Delta Corp. introduced a new set of policies, giving its employees more
flexibility in work timings. This decision was made in response to complaints from
employees about fatigue. Which step of the rational decision-making process is
illustrated in the scenario?
A) Defining the situation
B) Evaluating the possible alternatives
C) Selecting the alternative
D) Implementing an alternative
E) Evaluating decision effectiveness
d
1) When the prices of oil came down, the demand for sport utility vehicles (SUVs)
increased. Automakers chose to increase production of full-size SUVs as the
profit from large vehicles is greater than that from small vehicles. Which step in
the rational decision-making model is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Developing a set of rational alternatives
B) Evaluating the possible alternatives
C) Selecting the best alternative and implementing it
D) Recognizing and defining the decision situation
E) Evaluating decision effectiveness
c
1) In which step of the rational decision-making model does the decision maker
test the feasibility and satisfactoriness of alternatives before choosing one?
A) Identifying alternatives
B) Implementing the chosen alternative
C) Defining the situation
D) Following up the implementation
E) Evaluating alternatives
e
1) Peter was looking for alternatives to double his plant's production capacity,
and he considered acquiring the production plant of a rival company. The
engineers in Peter's company advised him against it because acquiring the new
plant would only increase their company's production by 15 percent. Therefore,
Peter's idea failed the test for _____ in the context of the rational decision-
making process
. A) feasibility
B) satisfactoriness
C) bounded rationality
D) satisficing
E) escalation of commitment
b
1) In the rational decision-making model, once the alternatives have been
evaluated, the next step is to _____.
A) select the best alternative
B) implement the chosen alternative
C) evaluate the results of the chosen alternative
D) identify the available alternatives
E) define the decision situation
a
1) An alternative should be eliminated during evaluation if:
A) it is supported by the most number of individuals.
B) it involves minimal costs.
C) it is found to have passed the satisfactoriness test.
D) it has several unaffordable consequences.
E) it requires minimal resources.
d
1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of selecting the best
alternative?
A) The decision maker can only select one best alternative.
B) The decision maker can develop subjective estimates and weights for
choosing an alternative.
C) The decision maker must choose the alternative that involves the most costs.
D) The decision maker must only stick to completely rational, mathematical
analysis while selecting an alternative.
E) The decision maker can choose an alternative that does not pass the
consequence, satisfactoriness, and feasibility test.
a
1) In the rational decision-making process, optimization means:
A) identifying obvious, standard alternatives.
B) choosing the alternative with the best overall expected outcomes.
C) gathering the most complete information before making the decision.
D) developing the maximum number of creative, innovative alternatives.
E) choosing an alternative that is feasible even if it is not satisfactory or has
undesirable consequences.
b
1) The final step in the decision-making process requires that managers _____.
A) evaluate the results of the chosen alternative
B) select the best alternative
C) implement the chosen alternative
D) identify the available alternatives
E) define the decision situation
a
1) A plant manager had taken a few measures to try to reduce worker turnover.
For four months he monitored the implementation of the measures. He now finds
that the turnover rate is reduced by 10 percent. Which step of the rational
decision-making model is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Evaluating the results
B) Identifying alternatives
C) Recognizing the decision situation
D) Selecting the best alternative
E) Developing a set of alternatives
a
1) _____ is one of the factors that makes an alternative infeasible.
A) Decrease in expenditure
B) Increase in production capacity
C) Low costs
D) Increased satisfactoriness
E) Legal barriers
e
1) According to the evidence-based management approach, managers must
_____.
A) discourage employees from telling the unpleasant truth
B) be committed to fact-based decision making
C) avoid experimentation
D) completely rely on the recommendations made by others
E) base decisions on untested but strongly held beliefs
b
1) Which of the following statements is true about the administrative model of
decision making?
A) It suggests that most managers make decisions rationally and logically.
B) It suggests that decisions that are based on instincts are better than the ones
based on logic.
C) It suggests that managers tend to satisfice when making decisions.
D) It suggests that managers have the most accurate information about decision
situations.
E) It suggests that managers should not make decisions based on mathematical
analysis.
c
1) Political forces, intuition and escalation of commitment, risk propensity, and
ethics constitute the _____ aspects of decision making.
A) rational
B) administrative
C) classical
D) behavioral
E) sequential
d
1) _____ was one of the first experts to develop the administrative model of
decision making.
A) Elton Mayo
B) George Bennett
C) Martin Johnson
D) Jack Welch
E) Herbert Simon
e
1) The administrative model of decision making argues that decision makers
_____ while making decisions.
A) use complete and perfect information
B) do not use intuition while making decisions
C) are constrained by bounded rationality
D) completely avoid escalation of commitment
E) use only instincts
c
1) According to the administrative model, decision makers:
A) use incomplete and imperfect information.
B) are never constrained by bounded rationality.
C) tend to avoid satisficing when making decisions.
D) are not limited by their values and unconscious reflexes while making
decisions.
E) always act in the best interests of their organizations.
a
1) ____ is a concept suggesting that decision makers are limited by their values
and unconscious reflexes, skills, and habits.
A) Satisficing
B) Escalation of commitment
C) Risk propensity
D) Groupthink
E) Bounded rationality
e
1) Bounded rationality is assumed in the _____ model of decision making.
A) administrative
B) rational
C) classical
D) groupthink
E) irrational
a
1) Which of the following statements is true about the administrative model of
decision making?
A) It suggests that political forces do not exist in business scenarios.
B) It suggests that managers may not always make decisions that best serve the
interests of their organizations.
C) It suggests that managers use a blend of subjective knowledge and analysis
to choose the best alternative.
D) It suggests that decisions should only be made individually and not in groups.
E) It suggests that decisions made by groups are better than decisions made by
individuals.
b
1) For his work in developing the administrative model to describe how managers
make decisions in the real world, Herbert Simon won the Nobel Prize in _____.
A) Medicine
B) Economics
C) Peace
D) Psychology
E) Management
b
1) _____ is the tendency to search for alternatives only until one is found that
meets some minimum standard of sufficiency.
A) Satisficing
B) Groupthink
C) Optimization
D) Bounded rationality
E) Escalation of commitment
a
1) Lucy needs to buy a new laptop for her business, and she buys a particular
brand even though it does not support the software that is required for her
business. She does this because all her family members have used computers of
the same brand all their lives. This is an example of how decision makers are
constrained by _____.
A) political forces
B) bounded rationality
C) Lucy's high risk propensity
D) logic
E) organizational strategies
b
1) Tim is the production manager at a steel factory. One of the steel processing
machines in the factory has broken down and has to be replaced. Tim decides to
buy a new machine from a company that he has read reviews of in industry
magazines, even though there are other companies offering a discount on
machines with better functionality. This is an example of how managers are
constrained by _____.
A) bounded rationality
B) escalation of commitment
C) risk propensity
D) groupthink
E) political forces
a
1) Mike is in a hurry to appoint a personal assistant to help him with scheduling
his meetings with clients. He posts an advertisement on a job website, and picks
the first person who sends in her resume for the job. He only checks for the
candidate's qualification and does not consider her work experience. This is an
example of _____.
A) rational decision making
B) classical decision making
C) satisficing
D) evidence-based management
E) optimizing
c
1) Keisha is the vice president of accounting, and she has to decide which
computer software to purchase for her department. She has looked at all of the
possible alternatives and is leaning toward the system with which she is most
familiar. This is an example of _____.
A) optimizing
B) bounded rationality
C) satisficing
D) synergy
E) escalation of commitment
b
1) _____ is one major element of organizational politics that is especially relevant
to decision making.
A) Coalitions
B) Intuition
C) Escalation of commitment
D) Satisficing
E) Risk propensity
a
E) Risk propensity
1) Chelsea has been contemplating buying a red car. When she visits the used
cars dealership, she looks at a red Ford Hatchback and buys it even before
checking for its technical specifications. Chelsea's decision is an example of
_____.
A) optimization
B) escalation of commitment
C) an evidence-based decision
D) satisficing
E) a decision under uncertainty
c
1) _____ is an innate belief about something without conscious consideration.
A) Optimization
B) Intuition
C) Logic
D) Ethics
E) Risk propensity
b
1) A marketing manager decides to launch a new product because it is the first
product that came to his mind, even if there are several better products to be
explored. Which of the following is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Escalation of commitment
B) Rational decision making
C) Bounded rationality
D) Satisficing
E) Optimization
d
1) Eric is a manager who recently introduced a new process for screening
potential employees. Eric has noticed that the new screening process is not very
efficient and is not helping recruiters find the best candidates. However, Eric
continues to use the same process because it was so expensive to set up the
initial system. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Evidence-based decision making
B) Escalation of commitment
C) Rational decision making
D) Optimization
E) Satisficing
b
1) Ryan Tools Company just acquired Coney Tools. The purchase came about
because the employees in both the research and development and the
production departments at Ryan Tools joined forces to lobby for the purchase of
Coney Tools as opposed to other companies. Both departments wanted Coney
Tools because of its state-of-the-art research and production facilities. This is an
example of _____.
A) satisficing
B) intuitive decision making
C) a dissection
D) escalation of commitment
E) a coalition
e
1) William had invested in an initial public offering. He kept incurring losses due
to unfavorable market conditions. However, he decided to keep the investment
because he had spent so much money on it. This scenario best exemplifies
_____.
A) evidence-based management
B) rational decision making
C) escalation of commitment
D) rationality
E) satisficing
c
1) _____ is a behavioral process in which a decision maker stays with a decision
even when it appears to be wrong.
A) Bounded optimization
B) Escalation of commitment
C) Risk propensity
D) Strategic maximization
E) Intuitive rationality
b
1) Managers sometimes decide to do something because it feels right or they
have a hunch. This is an example of using _____ in decision making.
A) satisficing
B) rationality
C) intuition
D) optimization
E) logic
c
1) _____ is the extent to which a decision maker is willing to gamble when
making a decision.
A) Risk propensity
B) Intuition
C) Optimization
D) Satisficing
E) Bounded rationality
a
1) Managers with higher levels of risk propensity are more likely than their
conservative counterparts to:
A) adhere to the rational model and be extremely cautious about their decisions.
B) avoid mistakes and infrequently make decisions that lead to big losses.
C) rely heavily on intuition and gamble big investments on their decisions.
D) reach decisions slowly after a great amount of analysis.
E) display no aggression in decision making.
c
1) A manager who has a high level of risk propensity is likely to:
A) make decisions quickly.
B) avoid risks.
C) spend a lot of time evaluating alternatives.
D) be wary of making a wrong choice.
E) rely heavily on mathematical analysis.
a
1) The nominal group decision-making technique:
A) involves maximum interaction among group members.
B) is used to generate creative and innovative ideas.
C) is a technique in which members are not brought together in a face-to-face
setting.
D) always results in groupthink.

E) is a technique in which the manager lacks the authority to reject an alternative.

b
1) The Delphi group technique is a group decision-making technique in which:
A) the members are involved in extensive discussions with each other.
B) the opinions of group member are combined and averaged.
C) the daily operational problems of an organization are addressed.
D) the members are most likely to indulge in groupthink.

E) the members are most likely to be first-line employees belonging to the same
department.
a
1) One advantage of group decision making is:
A) groupthink.
B) saved time.
C) more acceptance of the final decision.
D) lowered cost of decision making.
E) elimination of political forces.
c
1) A disadvantage of using interacting groups to make decisions is that:
A) it fosters political forces.
B) it discourages creativity.
C) it generates very few alternatives.
D) it involves more costs than all other group decision techniques.
E) it does not foster understanding between members.
a
1) Which of the following is true of interacting groups?
A) They are the least common decision-making groups.
B) They effectively eliminate the possibility of groupthink.
C) They can be regular work teams.
D) They provide little scope for new ideas.
E) They do not involve political forces.
c
1) A(n) _____ is a form of group decision making in which a group arrives at a
consensus of expert opinion.
A) interacting group
B) Delphi group
C) inactive group
D) unconventional group
E) unstructured group
b
1) Macy Computers Inc. faced a major software error that brought all work in the
company to a standstill. Roger, the CEO, arranged for a panel of well-known
engineers in the state to estimate the time that it would take for the error to be set
right. Each engineer made an estimate and sent it to the group's leader, Dr.
Rajesh. Dr. Rajesh averaged the estimates and sent the average back out to the
group. People who had submitted unusual estimates were asked to say why
those estimates were chosen. Roger used a(n) _____to help his company get rid
of the software crisis.
A) interacting group
B) Delphi group
C) standing committee
D) work group
E) unstructured group
b
1) When managers want to be sure to get innovative and creative ideas, they will
often create a(n) ____ group..
A) judge-advisor system
B) coalition
C) advocacy group
D) nominal group
E) political group
d
1) A disadvantage of group decision making is that:
A) groupthink may occur.
B) generation of different opinions does not occur.
C) communication may be curbed.
D) knowledge available is always limited.
E) only a few alternatives are likely to be generated.
a
1) _____ is a situation that occurs when a group or team's desire for consensus
and cohesiveness overwhelms its desire to reach the best possible decision.
A) Groupthink
B) Groupshift
C) Brainstorming
D) Condorcet's paradox
E) Group polarization
a
1) Which of the following is true of nominal groups?
A) Innovative ideas are not generated in nominal groups.
B) Members of nominal groups are brought together in a face-to-face setting.
C) Members of nominal groups talk freely among themselves, argue, agree, form
internal coalitions, and so forth.
D) Only one individual dominates a nominal group.
E) Nominal groups are most often used for forecasting technological
breakthroughs.
d
1) Which of the following disadvantages of group decisions typically results from
the group being very cohesive?
A) Disagreement
B) Groupthink
C) Lower acceptance of the final decision
D) Minimal participation of members
E) Conflicts
b
1) Omega Inc., a large appliances company, went bankrupt because of a series
of poor managerial decisions and a downturn in the economy. In retrospect, it
would seem that there was too much emphasis on the group reaching a
consensus decision whenever the managers were involved in decision making.
As a result, many decisions by the managers at Omega were made to avoid
conflict. What disadvantage of group decision making does this scenario
represent?
A) Domination
B) Groupthink
C) Irrationality
D) Satisficing
E) Coalitions
b
1) Which of the following is an advantage of group decision making when
compared to individual decision making?
A) The group process is less expensive.
B) Groupthink is avoided.
C) Less time is consumed.
D) More alternatives are likely to be generated.
E) Political forces are completely eliminated.
d
1) Groupthink:
A) results in more conflicts.
B) is most likely to occur in non-cohesive groups.
C) often leads to choosing a wrong alternative
. D) results in extensive brainstorming.
E) results in polarization.
d
1) One disadvantage of group decision making is that:
A) very little information and knowledge are available.
B) one person may dominate the group.
C) fewer alternatives are generated.
D) it reduces the chances of acceptance of the final decision.
E) it prevents groupthink from developing.
c
1) Which of the following helps a manager avoid groupthink during group
decision making?
A) Assigning one person to act as devil's advocate
B) Making his or her preferences known to the group as early as possible
C) Instructing members to avoid expressing divergent viewpoints
D) Giving the group as much time as they need to make a decision, without
enforcing a deadline
E) Encouraging group cohesiveness
a
1) _____ is the degree to which the overall task of the organization is broken
down and divided into smaller component parts.
A) Job specialization
B) Job enrichment
C) Job rotation
D) Job enlargement
E) Task identity
a
1) One of the benefits of job specialization is that:
A) it makes employees proficient at a task.
B) it significantly increases employee satisfaction.
C) it offers new challenges and stimulation to the workers.
D) it decreases boredom and absenteeism among workers.
E) it eliminates job monotony and fatigue.
a
1) One of the disadvantages of job specialization is that:
A) it increases the transfer time between tasks.
B) it makes it difficult to develop specialized equipment to assist with a job.
C) it does not help a worker become proficient at a task.
D) it does not offer challenges or stimulation to workers.
E) it requires workers to handle different tasks at a time.
d
1) Which of the following is an advantage of job specialization?
A) It decreases transfer time between tasks.
B) It increases the level of employee satisfaction.
C) It eliminates monotony and boredom.
D) It provides stimulation and challenges to employees.
E) It significantly reduces employee turnover rates.
a
1) Jimmy owns an ice cream parlor. He designs a schedule for the different tasks
the employees have to perform in order to prevent monotony at work. According
to the schedule, if an employee makes waffle cones on a day, he serves ice
creams the next day and clears the tables on the day after that. Jimmy is using
the _____ approach at his ice cream parlor.
A) job enrichment
B) job enlargement
C) job rotation
D) job deskilling
E) job specialization
c
1) _____ involves systematically moving employees from one job to another.
A) Job enlargement
B) Job rotation
C) Job deskilling
D) Job specialization
E) Job enrichment
b
1) In _____, the jobs do not change, but instead workers move from job to job.
A) job rotation
B) job specialization
C) job enrichment
D) job deskilling
E) job enlargement
a
1) _____ was developed to increase the total number of tasks workers perform.
As a result, all workers perform a wide variety of tasks, which presumably
reduces the level of job dissatisfaction.
A) Job enlargement
B) Job rotation
C) Job enrichment
D) Job specialization
E) Job deskilling
a
1) Which of the following would require continually adding new tasks and
challenges as part of the job design?
A) Job enlargement
B) Job specialization
C) Job rotation
D) Job enrichment
E) Job deskilling
d
1) _____ attempts to increase both the number of tasks a worker does and the
control the worker has over the job.
A) Job deskilling
B) Job enrichment
C) Job specialization
D) Job rotation
E) Job entropy
b
1) Job enrichment:
A) does not increase the number of tasks that workers perform.
B) requires the organization to be highly centralized.
C) requires delegation of authority.
D) requires workers to perform a single task.
E) involves workers moving from job to job in a predetermined manner.
b
1) According to the job characteristics approach, task identity is _____.
A) the number of things a person does in a job
B) the extent to which a worker does a complete portion of the total job
C) the extent to which a worker knows how well the job is being performed
D) the perceived importance of the task
E) the degree of control a worker has over how the work is performed
b
1) In the context of the job characteristics approach, skill variety refers to:
A) the extent to which a worker knows how well the job is being performed.
B) the degree of control a worker has over how the work is performed.
C) the perceived importance of a task.
D) the extent to which a worker does a complete or identifiable portion of the total
job.
E) the number of things a person does in a job.
e
1) In the context of the job characteristics approach, _____ refers to the extent to
which a worker knows how well the job is being performed.
A) feedback
B) task identity
C) task significance
D) autonomy
E) skill variety
e
1) _____ is the process of grouping jobs according to some logical arrangement.
A) Job rotation
B) Job enrichment
C) Departmentalization
D) Centralization
E) Industrialization
c
1) _____ departmentalization groups together those jobs involving the same or
similar activities.
A) Product
B) Functional
C) Location
D) Customer
E) Sequential
b
1) Creating different teams for finance, production, and marketing is consistent
with _____ departmentalization.
A) location
B) product
C) functional
D) sequential
E) customer
b
1) At Gamma Inc., there are separate departments of employees who specialize
in sales, service maintenance, customer service, and accounting. What form of
departmentalization does Gamma use?
A) Functional departmentalization
B) Product departmentalization
C) Location departmentalization
D) Customer departmentalization
E) Sequential departmentalization
a
1) Which of the following is a disadvantage of functional departmentalization?
A) Supervision becomes difficult as managers will need to have skills in several
areas.
B) Coordinating activities inside each department becomes difficult.
C) Decision making may tend to become slower as the organization grows.
D) Employees tend to focus on the overall organization rather than their specific
jobs.
E) Functional departmentalization cannot be implemented for smaller
organizations.
b
1) Relish Inc. is a large corporation in the food industry that manufactures
canned foods, confectionery, and baked?foods. The organization has a separate
department for each of these types of food manufactured. Each department
integrates all the activities required to manage their respective line of food. Which
of the following types of departmentalization is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Sequential departmentalization
B) Customer departmentalization
C) Product departmentalization
D) Location departmentalization
E) Functional departmentalization
c
1) Janice owns a bakery that has only ten employees, out of which three are
bakers, four are waiters, and the rest belong to the housekeeping staff. Which of
the following approaches to departmentalization would work best for the bakery?
A) Functional departmentalization
B) Product departmentalization
C) Customer departmentalization
D) Location departmentalization
E) Sequential departmentalization
a
1) The advantage of using the functional departmentalization approach is that:
A) supervision is facilitated because an individual manager needs to be familiar
with only a small set of skills.
B) the speed and effectiveness of decision making increase as the organization
grows.
C) accountability and performance become easier to monitor.
D) employees get a better view of the total organization.
E) decision making becomes less bureaucratic as the organization grows.
a
1) One disadvantage of using product departmentalization is that:
A) decision making tends to become slower and more bureaucratic.
B) the performance of individual products or product groups becomes difficult to
assess.
C) administrative costs rise because each department must have its own
functional specialists.
D) all activities associated with one product or product group cannot be easily
integrated and coordinated. E) accountability of departments becomes very
difficult to monitor.
c
1) _____ is defined as a clear and distinct line of authority among the positions in
an organization.
A) Chain of command
B) Span of management
C) Job deskilling
D) Flat structure
E) Synergy
a
1) The term span of management refers to the:
A) extent to which authority is delegated at the individual level.
B) extent to which authority is systematically delegated to middle and lower
levels of management.
C) number of people reporting to a particular manager.
D) process of grouping jobs according to some logical pattern.
E) number of managers assigned to a department.
c
1) _____ suggests that each person within an organization must have a clear
reporting relationship to one and only one boss.
A) Span of management
B) Entropy
C) Flat hierarchy
D) Unity of command
E) Scalar principle
d
1) Which of the following concepts suggests that there must be a clear and
unbroken line of authority that extends from the lowest to the highest position in
the organization?
A) The scalar principle
B) Unity of command
C) Entropy
D) Synergy
E) Decentralization
a
1) Which of the following is an accurate comparison between tall organizations
and flat organizations?
A) Tall organizations foster employee morale better than flat organizations.
B) Tall organizations have fewer managers than flat organizations.
C) Tall organizations foster more communication problems than flat
organizations.
D) Tall organizations place excessive administrative responsibilities on managers
than flat organizations.
E) Tall organizations foster more productivity than flat organizations.
c
1) When compared to tall organizations, flat organizations:
A) are more expensive.
B) place more supervisory responsibilities on managers.
C) have more layers of managers.
D) place minimal administrative responsibilities on managers.
E) have lower levels of employee morale and productivity.
b
1) When compared to flat organizations, tall organizations:
A) foster fewer communication problems.
B) foster more employee productivity.
C) are more expensive.
D) place excessive responsibilities on managers.
E) are less bureaucratic.
c
1) A wide span of management in a flat organization may result in a manager
having _____.
A) less authority over subordinates
B) more administrative responsibility
C) less accountability to a higher-up
D) less supervisory responsibility
E) more officers at different levels to report to
b
1) Tall organizations:
A) have more managers than flat organizations.
B) foster employee morale better than flat organizations.
C) place excessive supervisory responsibilities on managers.
D) have very few communication problems.
E) have less managerial expenses than flat organizations.
a
1) Researchers have found that a flat organization structure _____.
A) fosters more communication problems
B) is more expensive to maintain than a tall structure
C) leads to higher levels of employee morale
D) fosters bureaucracy
E) leads to lower levels of employee productivity
c
1) _____ is power that has been legitimized by the organization.
A) Entropy
B) Process gain
C) Synergy
D) Authority
E) Process loss
d
1) _____ is the process by which a manager assigns a portion of his or her total
workload to others.
A) Micromanagement
B) Delegation
C) Entropy
D) Synergy
E) Centralization
b
1) _____ is the process of systematically delegating power and authority
throughout the organization to middle- and lower-level managers.
A) Deskilling
B) Decentralization
C) Self-dealing
D) Divesting
E) Specialization
b
1) _____ is the process of systematically retaining power and authority in the
hands of higher-level managers.
A) Specialization
B) Delegation
C) Centralization
D) Self-dealing
E) Deskilling
c
1) Gadgetbug Inc. manufactures home appliances. All the decisions are made by
the top managers at the company. The middle and lower managers follow the
instructions given by top managers rather than making decisions by themselves.
Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Self-dealing
B) Synergy
C) Centralization
D) Specialization
E) Delegation
c
1) At Supertech Inc., a technology company, employees are given more authority
and are allowed to make their own decisions. Supertech operates in a business
environment that is not predictable. The middle managers, supervisors, and
employees have a degree of autonomy and are encouraged to make decisions.
Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Deskilling
B) High power distance
C) Micromanagement
D) Decentralization
E) Job specialization
d
1) _____ is defined as the process of linking the activities of the various
departments of an organization.
A) Centralization
B) Specialization
C) Decentralization
D) Coordination
E) Delegation
d
1) At Delta Corp. the manufacturing and design department frequently consults
with the research and development department and the marketing and sales
department regularly interacts with the manufacturing and design department.
This scenario illustrates _____ at Delta.
A) coordination
B) delegation
C) job rotation
D) job specialization
E) centralization
a
1) _____ represents the lowest level of interdependence.
A) Pooled interdependence
B) Reciprocal interdependence
C) Sequential interdependence
D) Synergetic interdependence
E) Structural interdependence
a
1) Units with _____ operate with little interaction-the output of the units is put
together at the organizational level.
A) pooled interdependence
B) total interdependence
C) reciprocal interdependence
D) sequential interdependence
E) structural interdependence
a
1) In _____, the output of one unit becomes the input for another in a serial
fashion.
A) pooled interdependence
B) sequential interdependence
C) structural interdependence
D) total interdependence
E) reciprocal interdependence\
b
1) _____ exists when activities flow both ways between units.
A) Sequential interdependence
B) Pooled interdependence
C) Structural interdependence
D) Reciprocal interdependence
E) Total interdependence
d
1) Reciprocal interdependence:
A) is found in product and not service-based companies.
B) involves one-way interdependence.
C) represents the lowest level of interdependence.
D) involves minimal communication among departments.
E) is the most complex form of interdependence.
e
1) At Heritage Chocolates, the raw materials are processed at a plant and then
sent to the manufacturing plant. The manufactured chocolates are finally sent to
the packaging plant. This scenario illustrates _____ at Heritage Chocolates.
A) pooled interdependence
B) two-way interdependence
C) reciprocal interdependence
D) sequential interdependence
E) structural interdependence
d
1) At Libra Motors Inc. operations managers give availability information to the
dealerships department. When the dealerships department has a specific order,
it is sent to the operations department. Which of the following concepts is
illustrated in the scenario?
A) Sequential interdependence
B) Product departmentalization
C) Pooled interdependence
D) Reciprocal interdependence
E) One-way interdependence
d
1) At Synergy School, Math, English, Science and Social Studies departments
operate separately. Student test scores in each area are gathered to evaluate the
effectiveness of the school. What level of interdependence does this represent?
A) Pooled interdependence
B) Complex interdependence
C) Reciprocal interdependence
D) Sequential interdependence
E) Absolute interdependence
a
1) Cuisine Royale is a restaurant chain that has many outlets. Each outlet has a
separate budget and a set of staff. To determine the success of the entire chain,
the profits made by all the outlets are put together. Which of the following
concepts is illustrated in the scenario? A) Pooled interdependence B) Reciprocal
interdependence C) Job rotation D) Sequential interdependence E)
Specialization
a
1) Sequential interdependence:
A) typically involves no interaction among departments.
B) generally involves one-way interdependence.
C) is the most complex form of interdependence.
D) is a level of interdependence in which the performance of one department is
not affected by the performance of other departments.
E) represents the lowest level of interdependence.
b
1) A(n) _____ is a model of organization design based on a legitimate and formal
system of authority.
A) adhocracy
B) bureaucracy
C) entropy
D) autocracy
E) theocracy
b
1) Which of the following is one of the characteristics of Weber's bureaucracy?
A) Distinct division of labor
B) Close personal relationships between supervisors and subordinates
C) Absence of rules and regulations
D) Maximum level of decentralization
E) Presence of cross-departmental teams
a
1) Which of the following is a characteristic of Weber's bureaucracy
A) Promotions based on technical expertise
B) Absence of rules and regulations
C) Arbitrary dismissals
D) Random work assignment
E) A high level of decentralization
a
1) According to Weber, in a bureaucracy:
A) there should not be any arbitrary dismissals.
B) there should be no rules and regulations.
C) promotions should not be given based on technical expertise
. D) there should not be a social distance between supervisors and subordinates.
E) there should be a chain of command.
a
1) _____ encompasses the conversion processes used to transform inputs (such
as materials or information) into outputs (such as products or services).
A) Deskilling
B) Entropy
C) Synergy
D) Technology
E) Divestiture
d
1) Durban Cafe takes one order at a time and customizes the coffee as per the
customer's requirement . The cafe uses _____ technology.
A) small-batch
B) mass-production
C) continuous-process
D) standardized process
E) large-batch
a
1) Jeanne owns a boutique in Paris and is best known for the formal suits that
she stitches for working women. She makes customized suits for each of her
customers, keeping their age, body type, and their appearance in mind. Which of
the following technologies is Jeanne using in her boutique?
A) Standardized-process technology
B) Large-batch technology
C) Continuous-process technology
D) Small-batch technology
E) Mass-production technology
d
1) Alpha Electronics assembles different parts to make standardized laptops.
Alpha Electronics uses _____ technology.
A) job rotation
B) mass-production
C) unit
D) continuous-process
E) small-batch
b
1) In _____ technology, raw materials are transformed to a finished product by a
series of machine transformations in such a way that the composition of the
materials themselves is changed.
A) product-customization
B) large-batch
C) mass-production
D) continuous-process
E) small-batch
d
1) In organizations using _____, the product is manufactured in assembly-line
fashion by combining component parts into another part or finished product.
A) job rotation technology
B) large-batch technology
C) unit technology
D) continuous-process technology
E) small-batch technology
b
1) According to Woodward, which of the following is true about the relationship
between organization design and core technology?
A) Organizations using mass production technology tend to have the least level
of specialization.
B) Organizations using continuous-process technologies tend to be the most
bureaucratic.
C) Organizations with large-batch technologies tend to be more bureaucratic.
D) Continuous-process technology is the least complex of all other technologies.
E) Organizations using unit or small-batch technology are the most bureaucratic.
c
1) According to Woodward's findings related to technology and organization
design:
A) successful continuous-process organizations tended to have more
bureaucracy.
B) unit-batch organizations had the highest level of specialization.
C) mass-production organizations tended to be the least bureaucratic.
D) unit-batch organizations tended to be the most bureaucratic.
E) mass-production organizations had a higher level of specialization.
e
1) A finding of Woodward's study about forms of technology was that:
A) mass-production organizations tended to have the lowest level of
specialization.
B) small-batch organizations tended to have minimal bureaucracy.
C) mass-production organizations tended to be the least bureaucratic.
D) continuous-process technology was the simplest of all forms of technology.
E) continuous-process organizations tended to be the most bureaucratic.
b
1) Gemini Motors has an assembly-line structure. Workers combine separate
parts into standardized finished motorbikes. Gemini Motors is most likely to be
using _____ technology.
A) small-batch
B) mass-production
C) continuous-process
D) unit
E) job enrichment
b
1) A(n) _____ organization is similar to the bureaucratic model.
A) mechanistic
B) organic
C) continuous process
D) large-batch
E) unit
a
1) Mechanistic organizations:
A) have the least level of specialization.
B) are least likely to have rules and regulations.
C) are most frequently found in stable environments.
D) are least likely to be bureaucratic.
E) are the most decentralized.
c
1) Which of the following statements is true about mechanistic organizations?
A) They have a very flexible and informal structure.
B) They have the lowest level of job specialization.
C) They are highly decentralized.
D) They are most frequently found in unpredictable and unstable environments.
E) They structure their activities in predictable ways.
e
1) A mechanistic organization is most likely to:
A) have the least level of job specialization.
B) have a flexible structure.
C) have centralized authority.
D) have an informal organizational design.
E) operate in an unstable environment.
c
1) Which of the following statements is true about organic organizations?
A) They are similar to bureaucracies.
B) They are formal and rigid.
C) They have centralized authority.
D) They operate in unstable environments.
E) They have an inflexible organizational design.
d
1) Which of the following statements is true about an organic organization?
A) It has a flexible and informal organizational design.
B) It is most likely to be operating in a very stable and predictable environment.
C) It has a structure that is similar to a bureaucracy.
D) It is most likely to have centralized authority.
E) It has higher levels of job specialization than a mechanistic organization.
a
1) _____ is the extent to which an organization is broken down into subunits.
A) Entropy
B) Differentiation
C) Integration
D) Synergy
E) Divestiture
b
1) _____ is the degree to which the various subunits must work together in a
coordinated fashion.
A) Integration
B) Differentiation
C) Departmentalization
D) Specialization
E) Entropy
a
1) Organizational size is defined as:
A) the total number of investors and stockholders in an organization. B) the total
number of departments in an organization.
C) the total number of full-time or full-time-equivalent employees in an
organization.
D) the total number of customers of an organization.
E) the total number of middle and first-line managers in an organization.
c
1) The _____ of an organizational life cycle is characterized by growth and the
expansion of organizational resources.
A) youth
B) birth
C) senescence
D) decline
E) divestiture
a
1) _____ is a period of stability in an organizational lifecycle, eventually evolving
into decline.
A) Maturity
B) Birth
C) Youth
D) Midlife
E) Synergy
a
1) As an organization passes from one stage of the organizational lifecycle to the
next, _____.
A) it becomes smaller
B) it's coordination demands increase
C) it becomes more centralized
D) it's structure becomes less mechanistic
E) it's control systems become more limited
b
1) Under the _____ arrangement, the members and units in an organization are
grouped into functional departments such as marketing and production.
A) division form
B) Z-form
C) H-form
D) U-form
E) M-form
d
1) The _____ design is based on multiple businesses in related areas operating
within a larger organizational framework.
A) conglomerate
B) divisional
C) H-form
D) matrix
E) functional
b
The _____ design is based on two overlapping bases of departmentalization.
A) H-form
B) matrix
C) functional
D) divisional
E) U-form
b
1) The _____ design is essentially a holding company that results from unrelated
diversification.
A) H-form
B) U-form
C) divisional
D) departmental
E) M-form
a
1) An organization that uses a team organization design:.
A) has a bureaucratic structure.
B) has an inflexible organizational structure.
C) has functional teams that perform specific functional tasks.
D) relies exclusively on project-type teams.
E) provides little scope for teams to develop adaptability.
d
1) A virtual organization:
A) typically has only a handful of permanent employees.
B) typically has a bureaucratic design.
C) has an inflexible formal structure.
D) typically has a very large staff and administrative headquarters facility.
E) has functional departmentalization.
a
1) A _____ organization works to facilitate the lifelong personal development of
all of its employees while continually transforming itself to respond to changing
demands and needs.
A) bureaucratic
B) centralized
C) hybrid
D) learning
E) matrix
d
1) Enlightened Minds is a software services firm that uses routine training
programs, seminars by eminent developers, and discussion forums to keep
employees updated on the recent developments in the software field.
Enlightened Minds is an example of a(n) _____.
A) learning organization
B) team organization
C) H-Form organization
D) matrix organization
E) virtual organization
a
1) Substantive modification to some part of an organization is known as _____.
A) organization synergy
B) organization maturity
C) organization implementation
D) organization change
E) organization entropy
d
1) _____ is an example of an external force that affects an organization.
A) Employee motivation
B) Production costs
C) New government regulations
D) Surplus capital
E) High employee turnover
c
1) An example of a force for change in the task environment of an organization is
_____.
A) pricing strategies of competitors
B) employee turnover rates
C) capital availability
D) employee motivation
E) production costs
a
1) Which of the following forces for change is present in the task environment of
an organization?
A) Prices at which suppliers sell raw materials
B) The number of employees in the organization
C) Political changes in the country in which the organization operates
D) Overhead production costs of the organization
E) Availability of resources in the organization
a
1) Consumer tastes and preferences are _____ forces that influence an
organization's product line.
A) technical
B) internal
C) managerial
D) external
E) political
d
1) Alpha Motors Inc. was affected by the recession in 2008. The company had to
make extensive changes to its organizational structure and design. This scenario
illustrates how _____ forces affect organizations.
A) technical
B) external
C) managerial
D) legal
E) internal
b
1) ProDairy Inc. reduced the prices of its products to combat competitors that
were selling dairy products at lower prices. This scenario illustrates a force for
change present in the _____ of an organization.
A) task environment
B) supply chain
C) internal environment
D) legal-political environment
E) demographic environment
a
1) The top executives at Delta Inc. have decided to reorganize the corporation
from product divisions into geographic sectors. This is a(n) _____ force for
change.
A) internal
B) technical
C) political
D) external
E) environmental
a
1) Unions negotiating for higher wages is an example of a(n) _____ force for
change.
A) internal
B) technical
C) external
D) managerial
E) legal
c
1) _____ is change that is designed and implemented in an orderly and timely
fashion in anticipation of future events.
A) Planned change
B) Reactive change
C) Involuntary change
D) Organic change
E) Crisis change
a
1) Modifying the benefits system on a yearly basis to maintain employee
satisfaction is most likely to be a _____ change.
A) reactive
B) planned
C) contingency
D) legal
E) general environmental
b
1) _____ is a piecemeal response to circumstances as they develop.
A) Planned change
B) Programmed change
C) Premeditated change
D) Natural change
E) Reactive change
e
1) Reactive changes:
A) are made in anticipation of future events.
B) are generally more effective than planned changes.
C) have more potential for poorly conceived and executed change.
D) involve fewer risks than planned changes.
E) are preferred to planned changes by most successful organizations.
c
1) Which stage of the Lewin model of organization change involves managers
letting people who will be affected by an impending change know the reasons for
the change?
A) Implementing
B) Recognizing
C) Refreezing
D) Transforming
E) Unfreezing
e
1) According to the Lewin model of organization change process, refreezing
involves _____.
A) recognizing why the change is necessary
B) informing people about the change
C) the implementation of the change
D) reinforcing the change so that it becomes a part of the system
E) repeating the organization change process at frequent intervals
d
1) A company has set an objective to increase its product sales by 50 percent in
the next two years. Identify the step of the organization change process of the
company.
A) Recognition of the need for change
B) Establishment of goals for the change
C) Selection of appropriate change technique
D) Planning for implementation of the change
E) Evaluation and follow-up
b
1) Beta LLC has decided to change its hiring criteria so that more people with
technical expertise can join the company. Which step of the change process is
illustrated in the scenario?
A) Establishment of goals for the change
B) Recognition of the need for change
C) Selection of appropriate change technique
D) Diagnosis of the relevant variables
E) Evaluation and follow-up
c
1) A company has built a new manufacturing plant to increase production. This
scenario illustrates which step in the Lewin model of organization change?
A) Unfreezing
B) Entropy
C) Reengineering
D) Implementation
E) Refreezing
d
1) _____ is the last step in the change process.
A) Diagnosis of relevant variables
B) Actual implementation
C) Evaluation and follow-up
D) Recognition of the need for change
E) Establishment of goals for the change
c
1) The first step of the change process involves:
A) recognizing the need for change.
B) implementing the change.
C) selecting a change technique.
D) choosing a change leader.
E) overcoming resistance to change.
a
1) Ron, a manager at a hardware components manufacturing unit, has recently
learned from a subordinate's report that the production rates in his firm have
gone down immensely because of poor employee morale. Ron has realized that
he needs to implement a change in the organization that will motivate
employees. Which of the following steps in the comprehensive approach to
change is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Recognizing the need for change
B) Understanding how to implement the change
C) Setting goals for the change
D) Selecting a change technique
E) Implementing the change
a
1) Which of the following is an example of a goal for change for an organization?
A) Reacting to a forecast indicating new market potential
B) Recognizing that poor employee morale was caused by dangerous working
conditions
C) Deciding to decrease employee turnover rates by 90 percent
D) Introducing a new reward system for employees
E) Arranging for training on interpersonal skills for managers
c
1) Which of the following exemplifies the first step in the comprehensive
organization change model?
A) Setting standards for a new absenteeism control procedure
B) Noticing that the pension fund has less cash than needed to provide the
guaranteed employee benefits
C) Determining the probable causes of a recently detected drop in the level of
employee job satisfaction
D) Investigating different techniques for enhancing employee job satisfaction
E) Planning meetings to help employees understand the procedures in the
company's new quality program
b
1) Jenny runs a small boutique in New Orleans and has five employees working
under her. Lately, she has noticed that her boutique has not been delivering
customer orders on time, and she has realized that it is because of the rise in the
number of customers and insufficient manpower. She has decided to employ
another five employees. Which step of the change process is illustrated in the
scenario?
A) Implementing the change
B) Diagnosis of relevant variables
C) Selection of an appropriate change technique
D) Planning for implementation of change
E) Evaluation and follow-up
c
1) The top management at Omega Inc. recently initiated an employee motivation
drive to improve employee morale and in turn decrease turnover rates. It has
now commissioned a statistics firm to check the effect of its initiative on the
employees' morale. Which step of the comprehensive approach to change is
illustrated in the scenario?
A) Evaluation and follow-up
B) Selection of appropriate change technique
C) Planning for implementation of change
D) Diagnosis of relevant variables
E) Actual implementation
a
1) In general, the biggest cause of worker resistance to change is _____.
A) satisfaction
B) uncertainty
C) regret
D) feelings of loss
E) different perceptions
b
1) When Beta Inc. acquired Redd Communications, there was a huge uproar by
the staff of Redd Communications as there were rumors of staff reductions and
operations closures. _____ was the cause for this reaction by the Redd
Communications staff.
A) Synergy
B) Process gain
C) Uncertainty
D) Process loss
E) Facilitation
c
1) Wendy is reluctant to accept a new job offer because she's worried about her
ability to meet new job demands. The most likely reason for such employee
resistance to change is _____.
A) threatened self-interests
B) facilitation
D) participation
C) uncertainty
E) feelings of loss
c
1) When the top management at Venus Corp. sought to change the organization
design, form more work teams, and decrease the managers' span of
management, it met with great resistance from the managers. This was because
the managers feared that their power within the company would decrease. The
managers' reaction to change was brought about by _____.
A) facilitation
B) participation
C) threatened self-interests
D) low self-confidence
E) unfamiliarity with company procedures
c
1) Which of the following is an effective way of overcoming resistance to change?
A) Allowing employees to participate in the change process
B) Fostering an environment of uncertainty in the organization
C) Announcing the change only after it has been implemented
D) Minimizing communication among employees
E) Avoiding force-field analysis
a
1) Which of the following is a cause for the resistance to change that a worker
might feel because the worker disagrees with the management that the change
will be best for the organization in the long-run?
A) Threatened self-interests
B) Risk propensity
C) Participation
D) Different perceptions
E) Feelings of loss
d
1) Managers can overcome resistance to change by:
A) not letting employees know about the change.
B) letting employees know about the change only after it has been successfully
implemented.
C) limiting the involvement of employees in the change process.
D) minimizing communication during the change process.
E) announcing the change much in advance.
e
1) Which of the following is an effective way of overcoming resistance to change?
A) Using micromanagement techniques
B) Using facilitation techniques
C) Using deskilling techniques
D) Limiting employee involvement in the change process
E) Minimizing communication
b
1) To overcome resistance to change, the top management of a company
discusses with its employees the new employee policies and procedures that it
proposes to bring in and also seeks their involvement in the change process.
This scenario illustrates the _____ technique that helps reduce resistance to
change.
A) participation
B) synergy
C) deskilling
D) greenwashing
E) risk propensity
a
1) Martin is trying to adopt more automated equipment in his soda bottling facility,
and workers are resisting the change. When Martin decides to hold a meeting to
explain to workers how the change will be beneficial to them, he is using _____
as a means of overcoming resistance to change.
A) entropy
B) micromanagement
C) deskilling
D) education
E) specialization
d
1) The top management at Phoenix Inc. planned to shift their corporate office to a
bigger and better facility about four streets away from the current location. The
top managers knew that their decision would meet with considerable employee
resistance, so they informed all the employees well in advance of the advantages
of moving to the new office. This minimized the employees' resistance. Which of
the following techniques of overcoming resistance is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Risk propensity
B) Education
C) Specialization
D) Micromanagement
E) Deskilling
b
1) According to the results of a classic study, employee participation:
A) reduces the need for communication.
B) encourages employees to resist change.
C) increases productivity and satisfaction.
D) increases turnover rates.
E) creates a centralized structure.
c
1) In most change situations, there are factors that make the change process
more difficult and others that seem to ease the process. The process by which a
manager identifies these factors and then tries to tip the balance so that the
factors facilitating the change outweigh those hindering the change is called
_____.
A) facilitation
B) implementation
C) force-field analysis
D) participative development
E) education
c
1) A force-field analysis identifies:
A) management potential in existing employees.
B) synergy in an organization.
C) the need for structural change in an organization.
D) factors that facilitate and hinder organization change.
E) the appropriate span of management for an organization.
d
1) Gamma Corp. is planning to bring in new internal standards for all the
products it manufactures. The new standards will ensure better quality and will
also help the company gain a competitive advantage. However, the factors that
stand in the way of the change are increased workload on employees and the
need for skill development among employees. To minimize these factors that
hinder the change, Gamma has decided to motivate its employees through a
reward system. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the scenario?
A) Force-field analysis
B) Participation
C) Job deskilling
D) Specialization
E) Micromanagement
a
1) A change in an organization's culture is an example of change in the area of
_____.
A) organization structure
B) organizational operations
C) work processes
D) information technology
E) organizational control systems
a
1) Alpha Corp. has divided its business into a number of sub units. This
organization change is an example of change in the area of _____.
A) people
B) operations
C) structure and design
D) social responsibility
E) organization mission
c
1) Richard Inc. has been receiving complaints from its customers about the
inefficiency of its customer service professionals. The company has now decided
to change the recruitment criteria for this role. The new criteria place more
emphasis on technical expertise. Richard Inc. is attempting to make a change in
the area of _____.
A) information technology
B) work sequences
C) operations
D) enterprise resource planning
E) organization structure and design
e
1) A company has recently undergone a transformation from using a highly
centralized approach to a much more decentralized approach for managing its
operations. This change represents a change in the area of _____.
A) technology
B) work sequences
C) work processes
D) organization structure
E) enterprise resource planning
d
1) Image LLC, an advertising company, has recently received several long-term
projects from leading companies. Image has decided to switch from functional
departmentalization to cross-functional work teams to be able to perform better.
This is an example of change in the area of _____.
A) technology and operations
B) social structure
C) people
D) organization structure and design
E) task environment
d
1) When a firm decides to decrease the number of first-line managers it has, and
thus increase the span of management of first-line managers, it is making a
change in the area of _____.
A) organization structure and design
B) social structure
C) task environment
D) people
E) technology and operations
a
1) Robin Plastics Inc. recently set up a new strategic business unit. The company
made changes in the area of _____.
A) technology and operations
B) social structure
C) people
D) task environment
E) organization structure and design
e
1) Alba Inc. replaced old equipment with new and advanced production
equipment in all its plants. This is an example of a change in the area of _____.
A) job design
B) people
C) organization culture
D) line-staff structure
E) technology and operations
e
1) When a company changes its work processes, the change is in the area of
_____.
A) people
B) technology and operations
C) job design
D) facilitation
E) task environment
b
1) Watches.com, an online watch store, recently adopted a new enterprise
resource planning (ERP) system to help keep track of the company's inventory
and to deliver customers' orders on time. The company's adoption of the new
ERP system reflects a change in the area of _____.
A) organization culture
B) job design
C) technology and operations
D) people
E) departmentalization
c
1) Which of the following is an example of an organization's change in technology
and operations?
A) Enhanced job design
B) Introduction of departmentalization
C) Adoption of new information systems
D) Introduction of a new compensation program
E) Introduction of new employment policies
c
1) When organizational change involves planned alteration of work sequence or
work activities, the change primarily occurs in the area of _____.
A) people
B) technology and operations
C) social responsibility
D) strategy
E) organizational structure and design
b
1) Which of the following represents organization change in the area of change in
technology and operations?
A) Changing line and staff relationships
B) Upgrading the management information system
C) Training people to give them new skills and abilities
D) Redesigning jobs
E) Changing the authority distribution in a company
b
1) _____ is the conversion process used by an organization to transform inputs
into outputs.
A) Reengineering
B) Divestment
C) Technology
D) Entropy
E) Process gain
c
1) Blue Bells Inc. is a software services firm. Lately, the company's HR
department noticed that its employees' performance levels have plummeted, and
a survey conducted by the firm indicated that this was due to low employee
satisfaction levels. This prompted the HR department to introduce a new
incentive system in the company. This is an example of change in the area of
_____.
A) people B) task environment
C) technology and operations
D) general environment
E) regulatory systems
a
1) Attempting to change the attitudes and values of a company's workforce
indicates a change in the area of _____.
A) people
B) work processes
C) organizational control systems
D) organization structure
E) task environment
A
1) A company has introduced new rules and regulations and appraisal criteria to
promote discipline and commitment among employees. This organization change
is in the area of _____.
A) work process
B) enterprise resource management
C) technology
D) operations
E) people
e
1) _____ is a common platform for changing business processes.
A) Enterprise resource planning
B) Entropy
C) Reverse engineering
D) Contingency planning
E) Synergy
a
1) The radical redesign of all aspects of an organization in order to achieve major
gains in cost reduction, service delivery, or reduction in order-processing time is
known as _____.
A) entropy
B) process change
C) innovation
D) reengineering
E) system change
d
1) The normal process within an organization that leads to a system decline is
known as _____.
A) reengineering
B) synergy
C) process gain
D) innovation
E) entropy
e
1) Which of the following is true of business process changes?
A) Business process change should not be carried out during a phase of entropy.
B) Business process change requires a careful blend of top-down and bottom-up
involvement.
C) Centralization must be adopted by the top management for the business
process change to be successful.
D) Employee participation should be minimal during a business process change.
E) Successful business process change is not accompanied by a sense of
urgency.
b
1) In the reengineering process, the first step involves:
A) setting goals and developing a strategy.
B) emphasizing top management's commitment to reengineering.
C) implementing the chosen strategy across the organization.
D) optimizing top-down and bottom-up perspectives.
E) creating a sense of urgency among managers.
a
1) Which of the following can help make the reengineering process more
effective?
A) Limiting communication
B) Creating a sense of urgency in the organization
C) Adopting a highly centralized organizational structure
D) Refraining from making extensive changes
E) Limiting employee involvement in the process
b
1) Which of the following can help make the business change process more
effective?
A) Limiting employee involvement in the process
B) Refraining from creating a sense of urgency in the organization
C) Starting the process with a new, clean slate
D) Limiting communication channels
E) Refraining from changing company strategies
c
1) The reengineering process can be made effective by:
A) adopting a hands-off leadership style.
B) extensively using micromanagement leadership techniques.
C) adopting a strong but not autocratic leadership style.
D) eliminating any sense of urgency in the organization.
E) limiting employee participation in the process.
e
1) Which of the following is one of the assumptions on which the theory and
practice of organization development (OD) are based?
A) Employees tend to perform well when micromanagement techniques are
used.
B) The total organization and the way it is designed influence the way individuals
behave within the organization.
C) All employees have a strong need to control and influence their colleagues
and the organization's work processes.
D) Employees naturally dislike their work and lack ambition.
E) A successful corporate leader is one who adopts an autocratic style of
leadership to control his subordinates.
b
1) Libra Technologies Inc. frequently asks its employees to measure such things
as supervisor effectiveness. The company circulates various questionnaires
among all its employees to get their insights. Which organization development is
illustrated in the scenario?
A) Third-party peacemaking
B) Survey feedback
C) Team building
D) Process consultation
E) Force-field analysis
b
1) _____ are aimed at analyzing the current condition of an organization; this
approach involves using questionnaires, opinion surveys, interviews, archival
data, and meetings to assess the various characteristics of the organization.
A) Life and career planning activities
B) Technostructural activities
C) Third-party peacemaking activities
D) Diagnostic activities
E) Process consultation activities
d
1) Which of the following is a possible diagnostic activity in organization
development?
A) Enterprise resource planning
B) Attitude surveys
C) Force-field analysis
D) Job shadowing
E) Reverse engineering
b
1) Leading Edge Software Inc. has introduced a new activity called "Group
Farming" in which the company's executive groups participate in farming
activities for three hours every month. This activity has been designed by the
company to emphasize the importance of interdependence and coordination
among its employees. Which of the following organization development
techniques is the company using?
A) Third-party peacemaking
B) Process consultation
C) Team building
D) Survey feedback
E) Coaching and counseling
c
1) Zen Electricals Inc. has internal experts who help executives learn about how
others see them and improve their performance in the future. The company is
using the organization development technique called _____.
A) technostructural activities
B) process consultation
C) team building
D) coaching and counseling
E) third-party peacemaking
d
1) In the context of organization development techniques, coaching and
counseling:
A) focus on how an individual is performing today.
B) provide nonevaluative feedback to individuals.
C) provide assistance to individuals with achieving non-work-related objectives.
D) are designed for managers and not executive employees.
E) focus exclusively on increasing productivity.
b
1) _____ is an organization development (OD) technique that helps employees
formulate their personal goals and evaluate strategies for integrating their goals
with the goals of the organization.
A) Process consultation
B) Third-party peacemaking
C) Team building
D) Life and career planning
E) Counseling
d
1) The first stage of the organizational innovation process is _____ of creative
ideas.
A) growth
B) maturity
C) launch
D) development
E) application
d
1) _____ is the managed effort of an organization to develop new products or
services or new uses for existing products or services
A) Divestiture
B) Innovation
C) Reverse engineering
D) Job deskilling
E) Contingency management
b
1) _____ is the stage of the innovation process at which an organization
introduces new products or services to the marketplace.
A) Innovation development
B) Application launch
C) Innovation application
D) Application growth
E) Innovation maturity
b
1) During which phase of the organizational innovation process do most
organizations have access to an innovation and apply it in the same way?
A) Innovation development
B) Innovation maturity
C) Innovation launch
D) Innovation growth
E) Innovation application
b
1) _____ are new products, services, or technologies developed by an
organization that completely replace the existing products, services, or
technologies in an industry.
A) Process innovations
B) Incremental innovations
C) Radical innovations
D) Mechanical innovations
E) Managerial innovations
c
1) _____ are changes in the way products or services are manufactured,
created, or distributed.
A) Process innovations
B) Operational innovations
C) Radical innovations
D) Mechanical innovations
E) Managerial innovations
a
1) A(n) _____ is a change in the appearance or performance of a product or
service or of the physical processes through which a product or service is
manufactured.
A) technical innovation
B) incremental innovation
C) radical innovation
D) mechanical innovation
E) managerial innovation
a
1) _____ is one of the three specific ways for promoting innovation in
organizations.
A) Organization culture
B) Organization development
C) Enterprise resource planning
D) Force-field analysis
E) Division of labor
a
1) A(n) _____ is a top-level manager who approves of and supports a project.
This person may fight for the budget needed to develop an idea, overcome
arguments against a project, and use organizational politics to ensure the
project's survival.
A) product champion
B) inventor
C) innovation champion
D) investor
E) sponsor
e
1) A(n) _____ is a person who actually conceives of and develops the new idea,
product, or service by means of the creative process.
A) inventor
B) sponsor
C) product champion
D) angel investor
E) venture capitalist
a
1) A(n) _____ is usually a middle manager who learns about a new project and
becomes committed to it. He helps overcome organizational resistance to
change and convinces others to take the innovation seriously.
A) product champion
B) inventor
C) sponsor
D) venture capitalist
E) transformational leader
a
1) The set of activities directed at attracting, developing, and maintaining an
effective workforce is called _____.
A) operations management
B) organization development
C) relationship management
D) enterprise feedback management
E) human resource management
e
1) _____ reflects an organization's investment in attracting, retaining, and
motivating an effective workforce.
A) Financial capital
B) Human capital
C) Surplus capital
D) Enterprise capital
E) Production capital
b
1) _____forbids discrimination on the basis of sex, race, color, religion, or
national origin in all areas of the employment relationship.
A) The Citizen Rights Act of 1957
B) Title IV of the Sarbanes Oxley Act
C) Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
D) Section 1107 of the Sarbanes Oxley Act
E) Section 401 of the Public Company Accounting Reform and Investor
Protection Act
c
1) A hospital refuses to employ male nurses. This illustrates _____.
A) confirmatory bias
B) affirmative action
C) a direct form of discrimination
D) equal employment opportunity
E) employment at will
c
1) A taxi company has a policy that it will never hire women drivers. This scenario
illustrates_____.
A) workforce diversity
B) source monitoring error
C) a direct form of discrimination
D) confirmatory bias
E) affirmative action
c
1) Which of the following is an example of a direct form of discrimination?
A) An organization intentionally seeking and hiring employees from groups that
are underrepresented in the organization
B) An organization refusing to promote employees belonging to an ethnic
minority into management
C) An organization hiring professionals based on their experience and skills
D) An organization using employment tests that men pass at a higher rate than
women
E) An organization using realistic job previews to recruit employees
b
1) When an organization uses an employment test that the majority ethnic group
is known to pass at a higher rate than minority groups , it is exhibiting _____.
A) an indirect form of discrimination
B) equal employment opportunity
C) affirmative action
D) a direct form of discrimination
E) a realistic job preview
a
1) _____ is defined as intentionally seeking and hiring qualified or qualifiable
employees from racial, sexual, and ethnic groups that are underrepresented in
an organization.
A) Affirmative action
B) Direct form of discrimination
C) Indirect form of discrimination
D) Adverse impact
E) Validation
a
1) A medical student belonging to a minority ethnic group was selected for an
internship program at a hospital even though he had lower grades and test
scores than other applicants. This scenario illustrates:
A) confirmatory bias.
B) employment at will.
C) affirmative action.
D) source monitoring error.
E) equal employment opportunity.
c
1) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act forbids discrimination against
workers above which of the following ages?
A) 40
B) 45
C) 50
D) 55
E) 65
a
1) Employment requirements such as test scores and other qualifications are
legally defined as having a(n) _____ on minorities and women when such
individuals meet or pass the requirement at a rate less than 80 percent of the
rate of majority group members.
A) affirmative action
B) adverse impact
C) confirmatory action
D) lien
E) divergent impact
b
1) The Age Discrimination in Employment Act:
A) exclusively protects the elderly belonging to minority groups from
discrimination.
B) sets a minimum wage for the elderly and requires overtime pay for work in
excess of 40 hours per week.
C) protects individuals below the age of 25 years from discrimination.
D) requires affirmative action.
E) requires passive nondiscrimination.
e
1) The Civil Rights Act of 1991:
A) increases punitive damages in lawsuits.
B) makes it easier for employees to sue an organization for discrimination.
C) requires employers to provide up to 12 weeks of paid leave for family and
medical emergencies.
D) limits union powers.
E) sets standards for safe working conditions.
...
1) The Civil Rights Act of 1991:
A) limits union powers.
B) mandates affirmative action in all private business firms.
C) limits punitive damages in lawsuits.
D) allows passive discrimination.
E) sets standards for product packaging
D
1) The _____ sets up a procedure for employees to vote on whether to have a
union.
A) National Labor Relations Act
B) Labor Management Relations Act
C) Taft-Hartley Act
D) Civil Rights Act of 1991
E) Fair Labor Standards Act
a
1) Which of the following laws limits union power and specifies management
rights during union-organizing campaign?
A) The National Labor Relations Act
B) The Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974
C) The Fair Labor Standards Act
D) The Labor Management Relations Act
E) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
d
1) The Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993 requires employers to provide up
to _____ for family and medical emergencies.
A) six months of paid leave
B) 12 weeks of unpaid leave
C) 15 weeks of paid leave
D) one year of unpaid leave
E) one year of paid leave
b
1) _____ also contains the National Emergency Strike provision, which allows the
president of the United States to prevent or end a strike that endangers national
security.
A) The Civil Rights Act of 1991
B) Title IV of the Sarbanes Oxley Act
C) The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970
D) The Taft-Hartley Act
E) The Kennedy-Hawkins Act
d
1) The _____, passed in 1938 and amended frequently since then, sets a
minimum wage and requires the payment of overtime rates for work in excess of
40 hours per week.
A) National Labor Relations Act
B) Labor Management Relations Act
C) National Labor Relations Act
D) Occupational Safety and Health Act
E) Fair Labor Standards Act
e
1) _____ is a systematized procedure for collecting and recording information
about jobs within an organization.
A) Job analysis
B) Job evaluation
C) Job specialization
D) Job enrichment
E) Job enlargement
a
1) Which of the following is the first step in human resource planning?
A) Assessing external and internal trends
B) Predicting demand
C) Forecasting supply
D) Comparing future demand and internal supply
E) Planning a response to predicted shortfalls or overstaffing
a
1) The _____ lists the duties of a job, the job's working conditions, and the tools,
materials, and equipment used to perform it.
A) job specification
B) job description
C) replacement chart
D) statement of qualification
E) article of incorporation
b
1) The _____ lists the skills, abilities, and other credentials needed to do a job.
A) article of incorporation
B) replacement chart
C) job description
D) job specification
E) statement of qualification
d
1) A(n) _____ is usually computerized and contains information on each
employee's education, work experience, and career aspirations.
A) bona fide occupational qualification
B) article of incorporation
C) skills inventory
D) statement of qualification
E) job description
c
1) A job description is most likely to provide information about:
A) the skills of an existing employee.
B) the tools, materials, and equipment used to perform the job.
C) the educational background of an applicant.
D) the personal profile of a supervisor.
E) the kind of skills that a job demands.
b
1) You are reading a document that says that a job applicant must have good
writing skills, be a citizen of the United States, and have a degree in
management. You are reading a(n) _____.
A) article of incorporation
B) job analysis
C) job description
D) replacement chart
E) job specification
e
1) A(n) _____ lists each important managerial position in an organization, who
occupies it, how long he or she will probably remain in the position, and who is or
will be a qualified fill-in.
A) skills inventory
B) employee information system
C) enterprise resource planning system
D) replacement chart
E) Gantt chart
d
1) The CEO of Redd Inc. needs to know the names of the line managers in the
company who will soon be ready to take up positions in middle management.
The CEO can obtain this information from the _____.
A) demand forecast
B) job analysis
C) supply forecast
D) job evaluation
E) replacement chart
e
1) Jennifer, the CEO of Phoenix Corp., is planning to build an internal design
team for the company. She is looking for employees within the company who
have the expertise and an interest in designing. Jennifer can find this information
in the _____.
A) replacement chart
B) job specification
C) skills inventory
D) job description
E) article of incorporation
c
1) Jason, a manager, is working on a new project that involves a lot of statistics.
Jason is looking for employees with a background in statistics. He can find this
information in the _____ of his company.
A) article of incorporation
B) job description
C) job specification
D) skills inventory
E) replacement chart
d
1) While matching human resource supply and demand, managers can handle
predicted shortfalls by _____.
A) avoiding the employment of new employees
B) convincing individuals who are approaching retirement to stay on
C) not replacing people who have quit
D) laying off employees
E) reducing the benefits provided to employees
b
1) _____ is the process of attracting qualified persons to apply for jobs that are
open.
A) Mentoring
B) Recruiting
C) Job analysis
D) Job evaluation
E) Validation
b
1) Advertising, campus interviews, employment agencies, and union hiring halls
are all _____ methods.
A) external recruiting
B) job analysis
C) validation
D) job evaluation
E) realistic job preview
a
1) _____ is defined as determining the extent to which a selection device is really
predictive of future job performance.
A) Realistic job preview
B) Internal recruitment
C) Job evaluation
D) Validation
E) Job analysis
d
1) Nelson recently attended an interview where the HR manager showed him a
video of an ordinary work day in the organization and explained in detail the
expectations of the job. The HR manager also explained about the criteria for
promotions in the company. Although some of the information did not appeal to
Nelson, he was sure about what to expect from the job and the company. The
organization used the _____ method in the interview.
A) affirmative action
B) training and development
C) job enlargement
D) job specialization
E) realistic job preview
e
1) A job application blank should not contain questions about an
applicant's_____.
A) previous work history
B) educational background
C) national origin
D) age
E) personal interests
c
1) Teresa, a recruiter, needs to know basic information such as the name,
educational background, and the work experience of a candidate she will be
interviewing. Teresa can find this information in the candidate's _____.
A) skills inventory
B) job description
C) job specification
D) application blank
E) replacement chart
d
1) The assessment center:
A) is used to select external candidates.
B) is a content-valid simulation of major parts of the managerial job.
C) is most likely to be biased against women and minority groups.
D) essentially involves conducting physical exams and drug tests on candidates.
E) essentially involves running credit checks on prospective employees.
b
1) A company has all of its candidates who are qualifiable for promotion attend a
five-day evaluation session during which they take a battery of tests, interviews,
and perform in simulated work scenarios. The _____ method is used for the
selection process in this scenario.
A) assessment center
B) structured orientation process
C) job analysis
D) job deskilling
E) attrition
a
1) _____ refers to teaching managers and professionals the skills needed for
both present and future jobs.
A) Development
B) Deskilling
C) Validation
D) Job evaluation
E) Performance appraisal
a
1) In human resource management, _____ usually refers to teaching operational
or technical employees how to do the job for which they were hired. .
A) job rotation
B) job specialization
C) development
D) training
E) deskilling
d
1) Sara is an efficient supervisor at a restaurant, which is part of a large national
chain. She was recently sent to a two-week educational course by her employer
to help her get the skills she needs for promotion to a higher management post.
The human resource management concept illustrated in the scenario is _____.
A) job specialization
B) job rotation
C) development
D) training
E) recruitment
c
1) Venus LLC has recently recruited a new batch of employees, and the HR
manager intends to apprise company rules to the employees. Which of the
following training methods is most preferable in this scenario?
A) Electronic-media-based training
B) The lecture method
C) Role-playing
D) Case discussion groups
E) On-the-job training
b
1) _____is an ideal method for training employees in group decision making.
A) Vestibule training
B) Programmed learning
C) Role-playing
D) Assigned reading
E) The lecture method
c
1) Ken is a newly hired police officer. He has been asked to spend a workday
with a more experienced officer to learn about paperwork, how to handle
accident scenes, how to interact with people, and other duties that he will be
expected to perform. Which of the following concepts is illustrated in the
scenario?
A) Performance appraisal
B) The assessment center method
C) Training manuals
D) On-the-job training
E) The lecture method
d
1) _____ is an effective method to use for training employees about ethical
dilemmas and ethical decision making.
A) Job specialization
B) Case discussion groups
C) On-the-job training
D) The lecture method
E) Programmed instruction
b
1) _____ is used when employees must learn a physical skill, and this method
also enables participants to focus on safety, learning, and feedback rather than
on productivity.
A) Job rotation
B) The lecture method
C) Case discussion groups
D) Vestibule training
E) Assigned reading
d
Which of the following is an advantage of Web-based training methods?
A) They can be easily updated and revised.
B) They facilitate interpersonal skills better than all other training methods.
C) They perfectly simulate real activities.
D) They effectively facilitate face-to-face interaction.
E) They can be easily used in place of vestibule training methods
a
1) _____ is a formal assessment of how well employees are doing their jobs
. A) Job specialization
B) Job analysis
C) Performance appraisal
D) Employment branding
E) Validation
c
1) Which of the following is an example of an objective measure of performance?
A) Dollar volume of sales
B) Interpersonal agreeability
C) Ranking
D) Ratings
E) Commitment
a
1) Ranking D) Ratings E) Commitment
2) Number of claims processed, total sales, and scrap rate are all examples of
_____.
A) training methods
B) predictive validation methods
C) content validation methods
D) judgmental performance appraisal criteria
E) objective performance appraisal criteria
e
1) An example of judgmental performance measure is _____.
A) ranking
B) total sales
C) scrap rate
D) dollar volume of sales
E) number of units produced
a
1) _____ compares each employee with a fixed standard rather than comparison
with other employees.
A) An objective method
B) Rating
C) Ranking
D) Job specialization
E) Job enlargement
b
1) The Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) is _____.
A) a method used for the validation of a selection device
B) an objective method of performance appraisal
C) a judgmental method of performance appraisal
D) a job training technique
E) a job analysis technique
c
1) A(n) _____ occurs when a manager allows the assessment of an employee on
one dimension to spread to ratings of that employee on other dimensions.
A) recency error
B) average error
C) validation error
D) source monitoring error
E) halo error
e
1) Jan works as a salesperson. She generally achieves the expected targets but
has also failed several times. For the previous month, she performed better than
all her team members and achieved a huge sales volume. Even though Jan has
not achieved her targets on several occasions during the past one year, her
supervisor ranked her as number one. This is an example of how a(n) _____ can
influence a performance appraisal.
A) recency error
B) halo error
C) source monitoring error
D) severity error
E) average error
a
1) A performance appraisal system in which managers are evaluated by
everyone around them-their boss, their peers, and their subordinates is known as
_____.
A) employment at will
B) 360-degree feedback
C) source monitoring
D) job evaluation
E) job specialization
b
1) _____ is the financial remuneration given by an organization to its employees
in exchange for their work.
A) Progression
B) Compensation
C) Validation
D) An intangible benefit
E) Insurance
b
1) A(n) _____ represents a special compensation opportunity that is usually tied
to performance.
A) wage
B) salary
C) incentive
D) benefit
E) intangible reward
c
1) _____, sometimes called indirect compensation, are things of value other than
compensation that an organization provides to its workers.
A) Appraisals
B) Ratings
C) Rankings
D) Benefits
E) Scrap rates
d
1) At Omega Inc., a fixed amount of money is added to the salaries of employees
if their performance exceeds a predetermined level of expectation. A smaller
portion of the amount is added if the employees' performances just meet the
expected level. Omega is most likely to be motivating their employees with
_____.
A) incentives
B) intangible benefits
C) rankings
D) progressions
E) appraisals
a
1) During a job interview, Sarah asked the HR manager if the company would
provide her a family insurance or a retirement plan. She was discussing the
_____ that companies generally offer.
A) benefits
B) intangible benefits
C) incentives
D) wages
E) progressions
a
1) Gamma Inc. has a reputation for paying higher than the prevailing wages in its
industry. This is an example of a(n) _____ decision by its management.
A) wage-level
B) wage-structure
C) individual wage
D) wage-benefit package
E) benefit-level
a
1) The _____ is a management policy decision about whether a firm wants to pay
above, at, or below the going rate for labor in the industry or the geographic area.
A) wage-level decision
B) benefit-level decision
C) wage-structure decision
D) individual wage decision
E) individual benefit decision
a
1) An attempt to assess the worth of each job relative to other jobs is known as
_____.
A) job analysis
B) job evaluation
C) the wage-level decision
D) performance appraisal
E) benefit determination
b
1) When human resource managers determine how much each worker in a
particular wage grade will be paid, they are making a(n) _____ decision.
A) wage-level
B) wage-structure
C) individual wage
D) benefit-level
E) overall-benefit
c
1) _____ are usually set up through a procedure called job evaluation-an attempt
to assess the worth of each job relative to other jobs.
A) Wage-level policies
B) Wage structures
C) Individual wage policies
D) Wage level decisions
E) Individual-benefit structures
b
1) A policy at Synergy Corp. states that the middle managers get a pay that is
three times the pay of supervisors and the top managers get a pay that is six
times the pay of first-line managers. The policy is regarding the _____ of
Synergy.
A) wage-benefit decision
B) wage-level decision
C) individual-wage structure
D) benefit structure
E) wage structure
e
1) A cafeteria benefits plan:
A) allows employees to choose from a set of optional benefits.
B) provides performance-linked incentives to employees.
C) reimburses employees for their food and transportation expenses.
D) pays extra wages to employees for work they do during their lunch hour.
E) allows employees to take a certain number of unpaid leaves.
a
1) In the business world, the term _____ is generally used to refer to
demographic differences among people-differences in gender, age, ethnicity, and
so forth.
A) homogeneity
B) synergy
C) diversity
D) divestiture
E) entropy
c
1) Organizations with a diverse workforce are most likely to _____ when
compared to less diverse organizations.
A) have higher levels of productivity
B) have higher levels of turnover
C) have higher levels of absenteeism
D) foster fewer conflicts
E) have a lack of understanding of different market segments
A
1) Which of the following is an effective individual strategy for managing
diversity?
A) Using micromanagement techniques for managing minority groups
B) Limiting interpersonal communication
C) Fostering tolerance
D) Treating everyone the same without regard for their fundamental human
differences
E) Forming culturally and ethnically homogenous work teams
c
1) An effective individual strategy for managing a diverse workforce is:
A) Encouraging interpersonal communication
B) Treating everyone the same without regard for their fundamental human
differences
C) Creating ethnically homogenous work teams
D) Using micromanagement techniques
E) Limiting managerial communication
a
1) An organization with a diverse workforce:
A) is most likely to have a high turnover.
B) is most likely to have low productivity.
C) is least likely to have conflicts.
D) is least likely to require communication.
E) is most likely to have a competitive advantage.
e
1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of diversity in an
organization?
A) Organizations with a diverse workforce are also better able to understand
different market segments than are less diverse organizations.
B) Organizations with diverse workforces are generally less creative and
innovative than other organizations.
C) Organizations that place emphasis on diversity tend to have fewer conflicts
and communication problems than other organizations.
D) Organizations that place emphasis on diversity have fewer training
requirements than organizations with non-diverse workforces.
E) Organizations with diverse workforces generally have lower levels of
productivity than other organizations.
a
1) Organizations with a diverse workforce:
A) have fewer training needs.
B) find it difficult to gain competitive advantages.
C) tend to have low productivity.
D) tend to have conflicts.
E) find it difficult to understand different market segments.
d
1) Which of the following statements is true in the context of effectively managing
diverse workforces?
A) Tolerance is not required to effectively function in a diverse workforce.
B) A diverse workforce can be managed effectively by not acknowledging the
differences among people.
C) Organizations can more effectively manage diversity by following practices
and procedures that are based on flexibility.
D) Any effort to treat everyone the same, without regard for their fundamental
human differences, will reduce problems.
E) Limiting communication among different ethnic groups is an effective way of
handling conflicts in a diverse organization.
c
1) _____ is the process of dealing with employees who are represented by a
union.
A) Labor relations
B) Public relations
C) Human relations
D) Operational management
E) Assembly-line management
a
1) A person who works for an organization on something other than a permanent
or fulltime basis is known as a(n)_____.
A) SCORE volunteer
B) union worker
C) contingent worker
D) knowledge worker
E) intrapreneur
c
1) Which of the following is a discussion process between a union and
management that focuses on agreeing to a written contract that will cover all
relevant aspects of their relationship?
A) Job evaluation
B) Collective bargaining
C) The grievance procedure
D) Certification
E) Arbitration
b
1) The means by which a labor agreement is enforced is the _____.
A) grievance procedure
B) union rights clause
C) management rights clause
D) union security clause
E) strike/lockout procedure
a
1) Executives who retire and then work as consultants are part of the _____
workforce.
A) temporary
B) emergent
C) task-oriented
D) job-specific
E) union
a
1) Top managers at Phoenix Inc. are all computer engineers and are highly
regarded by other companies. They are frequently approached by executive
search firms with information about openings at other companies. The managers
are examples of _____.
A) temporary workers
B) emergent workers
C) contingent employees
D) job-specific employees
E) knowledge workers
e
1) A category of temporary workers is:
A) independent contractors.
B) shareholders. C) intrapreneurs
. D) angel investors.
E) venture capitalists.
a
1) _____ is defined as the set of forces that cause people to behave in certain
ways.
A) Motivation
B) Management
C) Attribution
D) Personality
E) Contribution
a
_____ is defined as the set of forces that cause people to behave in certain
ways.
A) Motivation
B) Management
C) Attribution
D) Personality
E) Contribution
b
1) Madeline works at a local retail store. She feels that she is being underpaid in
spite of her job performance. She motivates herself to improve her performance
to get the due recognition she deserves. Madeline's motivation is due to a _____.
A) need deficiency
B) negative reinforcement
C) low performance-to-outcome expectancy
D) dissatisfaction of physiological needs
E) need for belongingness
a
1) According to the motivation framework, after a worker notices an unfilled need,
the next step is:
A) choosing a behavior that satisfies the need.
B) determining future needs.
C) searching for ways to satisfy the need.
D) evaluating need satisfaction.
E) identifying a need deficiency.
c
1) Under which of the following circumstances will an employee feel a need
deficiency?
A) When she feels that her tasks are challenging
B) When she receives recognition for a job well done
C) When she feels she is underpaid
D) When she is motivated to perform a job
E) When she attains self-actualization
c
1) Which of the following perspectives on motivation concerns "what" motivates
people rather than "how" they are motivated?
A) Reinforcement
B) Process
C) Content
D) Equity
E) Expectancy
c
1) Which of the following factors would be included in Maslow's physiological
needs category?
A) Air
B) Job stability
C) Safety
D) Recognition
E) Self-image
a
1) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, once an individual has satisfied his
physiological needs, he turns his focus towards _____ needs.
A) survival needs
B) esteem
C) belongingness
D) security
E) self-actualization
d
1) Organizations provide adequate wages, comfortable temperatures, restrooms,
ventilation, etc. as a means to address the _____ needs of its employees.
A) esteem
B) belongingness
C) self-actualization
D) security
E) physiological
e
1) According to Maslow's hierarchy, the need to have a safe physical and
emotional environment is a(n) _____ need.
A) esteem
B) physiological
C) psychological
D) security
E) social
d
1) When a manager tries to encourage social interaction among his
subordinates, he is trying to address their need for _____.
A) belongingness
B) esteem
C) security
D) physiological
E) self-actualization
a
1) According to Maslow's hierarchy, when a satisfaction of security needs is
achieved an individual is typically concerned with a need for _____.
A) self-actualization
B) recognition
C) physiology
D) belongingness
E) positive self-image
d
1) Martha is given a new cabin and a new job title as recognition for her
accomplishment over her years of service to the organization. She is satisfied
with the recognition and respect from her colleagues. This portrays that the
organization is addressing her _____ needs.
A) esteem
B) psychological
C) security
D) physiology
E) self-actualization
a
1) According to Maslow's hierarchy, _____ needs include the need that people
have for respect and recognition.
A) achievement
B) security
C) self-actualization
D) belongingness
E) esteem
e
1) _____ needs in Maslow's hierarchy involve realizing one's potential for
continued growth and individual development.
A) Esteem
B) Social
C) Self-actualization
D) Security
E) Physiological
c
1) Brenda, a senior engineer at Machineworks Inc., sets herself difficult goals
and assumes personal responsibility for the performance of her subordinates.
Brenda most likely has a high need for _____.
A) achievement
B) affiliation
C) esteem
D) security
E) potential
a
1) A construction worker injured on the job is on convalescent time-off for five
weeks. She has a desire to get back to work and achieve her goals more
effectively than she has done in the past. This portrays her need for _____.
A) esteem
B) power
C) affiliation
D) security
E) achievement
e
1) In expectancy theory, raises, promotions, stress and resentment are all _____
of an individual's behaviors.
A) factors
B) motivations
C) reinforcements
D) outcomes
E) valences
d
1) Amelia believes that if she tries hard to eliminate distractions and concentrate
on her work, she will learn to do her job more efficiently. Amelia has:
A) low effort-to-performance expectancy.
B) moderate performance-to-outcome expectancy.
C) low performance-to-outcome expectancy.
D) high effort-to-performance expectancy.
E) moderate effort-to-performance expectancy.
d
1) Neal works for the state of Vermont. He perceives that his union will protect
him from getting fired, but the only way he will get promoted is if the person
above him retires or dies. He has
A) low effort-to-performance expectancy, and low performance-to-outcome
expectancy.
B) low effort-to-performance expectancy, and high performance-to-outcome
expectancy.
C) high effort-to-performance expectancy, and low performance-to-outcome
expectancy.
D) high effort-to-performance expectancy, and high performance-to-outcome
expectancy.
E) zero valence.
a
1) A manager expends extra effort because she has been told that she will get a
$50,000 bonus if her team meets their quota. She also feels stress because she
has been informed that she will be put on probation if she does not get her team
to perform above last year's total. Which of the following does this scenario
illustrate?
A) Equity theory
B) Maslow's esteem needs
C) Two-factor theory
D) Performance-to-outcome expectancy
E) The Porter-Lawler extension
d
1) Which of the following motivational theories is based on the idea that
employees compare the treatment they receive relative to others' treatment in
order to determine if they are being treated fairly?
A) Expectancy theory
B) Reinforcement theory
C) Equity theory
D) Hierarchy of needs theory
E) Two-factor theory
c
1) Which of the following is a process perspective on motivation?
A) Maslow's need hierarchy
B) McClelland's work on need for power
C) McClelland's work on need for achievement
D) Two-factor theory
E) Equity theory
e
1) What is the most important idea for managers to remember from equity
theory?
A) People who feel underrewarded may try to decrease the inequity by
increasing their inputs.
B) Employees must receive equal rewards irrespective of their overall
performance.
C) For rewards to motivate employees, employees must perceive them as being
fair.
D) Employees must consider their inputs equal to the inputs of their colleagues.
E) Employees must consider their outcomes equal to the outcomes of their
colleagues.
c
1) Ana is a police detective. She believes that she is just as good a detective as
her male counterparts. Because she is female, many of her counterparts assume
that she will type up their reports as well as her own. She has been doing this
typing for a while and is increasingly feeling underrewarded for her efforts. In
terms of _____, she will decrease her inputs by refusing to do additional work
and try to reduce the gap between work and rewards.
A) expectancy theory
B) reinforcement theory
C) equity theory
D) hierarchy of needs theory
E) two-factor theory
c
1) Brianna's employer has announced a goal of getting workers to live a healthier
lifestyle. Because of this, Brianna has improved the foods she eats and is getting
more physical activity. Which attribute of the expanded goal-setting theory best
portrays this example?
A) goal specificity
B) goal acceptance
C) goal satisfaction
D) goal congruity
E) goal difficulty
b
1) Tyler is the marketing manager at MarketAds Inc., and Emily is an account
manager reporting to him. Tyler instructs Emily to improve public opinion. The
goal that Emily was given lacks goal _____.
A) specificity
B) acceptance
C) conformity
D) congruity
E) difficulty
a
1) Workers at Windlock Works Inc. were instructed by their supervisor to
increase productivity to 350 percent in the next three months. The workers are
most likely to be challenged by goal _____.
A) specificity
B) acceptance
C) conformity
D) congruity
E) difficulty
e
1) Leo showed up late for a meeting. His boss ignored it. She was using _____
as reinforcement.
A) avoidance
B) extinction
C) positive reinforcement
D) punishment
E) distortion
b
1) Jaime, who works at Minlog Inc., maintains punctuality to avoid a loss of pay.
Jaime's behavior is strengthened through _____.
A) avoidance
B) extinction
C) positive reinforcement
D) punishment
E) distortion
a
1) Justin is rewarded a significant pay raise for his contributions to the
organization. This motivates him to put in more hard work and better
performances. The organization has used _____ to strengthen his behavior.
A) Avoidance
B) Extinction
C) Positive reinforcement
D) Punishment
E) Distortion
c
1) Employees at GreenTech Inc. complete their schedules on time as every hour
they take in excess may lead to a corresponding loss of pay. Their behaviors are
strengthened through _____.
A) Avoidance
B) Extinction
C) Positive reinforcement
D) Punishment
E) Incentives
a
1) Monthly paychecks are examples of reinforcements provided at a _____
schedule.
A) Random
B) Fixed-interval
C) Fixed-ratio
D) Variable-ratio
E) Variable-interval
B
1) Which of the following reinforcement schedules offers a worker the least
incentive to do good work?
A) Fixed-interval
B) Fixed-ratio
C) Variable-interval
D) Variable-ratio
E) Continuous
A
1) Which of the following reinforcement methods can be used to weaken
behaviors?
A) Recognition
B) Avoidance
C) Extinction
D) Participation
E) Pay raises
C
1) Clara plays offensive pranks at her workplace, which were so far encouraged
by her colleagues. To make sure that she does not repeat such behaviors,
managers at the organization instruct her colleagues to ignore her actions. The
reinforcement method adopted by the organization is _____.
A) Recognition
B) Punishment
C) Avoidance
D) Extinction
E) Pay raises
D
1) Alberto complimented Daniel on his project updates two weeks in a row. Then
he waited a month to compliment him again. Not knowing when Alberto will drop
by for inspection, Daniel keeps his projects updated regularly. What
reinforcement schedule is he using?
A) Fixed-interval
B) Fixed-ratio
C) Variable-interval
D) Variable-ratio
E) Fixed-variable
C
1) A popular retail outlet provides its salespersons a small bonus for every sale
that exceeds a $50 bill amount. The type of reinforcement used here is _____.
A) Fixed-ratio
B) Fixed-interval
C) Variable-interval
D) Variable-ratio
E) Fixed-variable
A
1) When a subordinate has outstanding performance and his or her supervisor
publicly praises it, the supervisor is using:
A) positive reinforcement.
B) punishment.
C) avoidance.
D) extinction.
E) an intrinsic reward.
A
1) Every alternate day, quality control inspectors at McHeinz Inc. randomly select
items from an assembly line for inspection, and compliment the workers for every
product that meets their expectations on quality. However, they vary the number
of items they inspect each time.This motivates the employees to put in more
effort to ensure that all the items are of the required quality. What reinforcement
schedule are the quality control inspectors using?
A) Variable-interval
B) Variable-fixed
C) Fixed-ratio
D) Fixed-interval
E) Variable-ratio
E
1) A manager who provides reinforcement on a periodic basis, regardless of
behavior, is using a _____ schedule.
A) variable-interval
B) variable-fixed
C) fixed-ratio
D) fixed-interval
E) variable-ratio
D
1) If one wants to maintain an employee's behavior at a high level with variations
in the level of behavior irrespective of the time interval, which of the following
schedules of reinforcement would be most successful?
A) Fixed-interval
B) Fixed-ratio
C) Variable-interval
D) Variable-ratio
E) Continuous
D
1) A manager who provides reinforcement on the basis of a particular number of
behaviors, rather than on the basis of time is using a(n) _____ schedule.
A) fixed-ratio
B) fixed-interval
C) variable-interval
D) variable-ratio
E) interval-ratio
A
1) Which of the following programs applies the concepts of reinforcement theory?
A) Modified workweek
B) Work redesign
C) Organizational behavior modification
D) Attribution theory
E) Two-factor theory
C
1) _____ represents an important method that managers can use to enhance
employee motivation.
A) Punishment
B) Extinction
C) Absenteeism
D) Turnover
E) Empowerment
E
1) Windmere allows its administrative employees to arrive any time between 7:00
a.m. and 9:00 a.m., and to leave any time between 4:00 p.m. and 6:00 p.m., as
long as they work an eight-hour day. This arrangement is known as _____.
A) empowerment
B) compressed work schedule
C) a nine-eighty schedule
D) flextime
E) traditional schedule
D
1) Cheri and Aaron both wanted to work part-time, and they found a lawyer who
was willing to split one full-time paralegal job between the two of them so that
Cheri works mornings and Aaron works afternoons. This arrangement is known
as _____
. A) flextime
B) participation
C) OB Mod
D) job sharing
E) reinforcement
D
1) Jessica is required to follow a forty-hour work schedule from 9:00 in the
morning and ends at 5:00 each day, every week. However, she has the freedom
to take a day off by working two extra hours each day. This reflects a _____.
A) variable work schedule
B) flexible work schedule
C) telecommuting arrangement
D) job sharing arrangement
E) traditional work schedule
A
1) Rewards tied specifically to _____ have the greatest impact on enhancing
motivation.
A) outcome
B) performance
C) effort
D) ability
E) skill
B
1) Aside from motivational strategies such as the content perspective, process
perspectives, and reinforcement perspectives, an organization's _____ is its most
basic tool for managing employee motivation.
A) strategic plan
B) vision statement
C) objective
D) reward system
E) goal
D
1) Allowing employees to spend part of their time working offsite, usually at
home, is called _____.
A) empowerment
B) compressed work schedule
C) flexitime
D) job sharing
E) telecommuting
E
1) Elena is a sales representative. She gets paid a base salary plus a percentage
of sales attained as a commission for a period of time. Her pay is an example of
_____.
A) merit pay plan
B) scanlon plan
C) gainsharing program
D) nonmonetary incentives
E) incentive pay plan
E
1) A criticism against executive compensation in recent years is that:
A) organizations are getting increasingly innovative in their incentive programs.
B) executive compensation is based on the performance of each and every
employee in an organization.
C) there seems to be no relationship between organization's performance and
executives' compensations.
D) executives are earning a meager amount compared to the typical worker in an
organization
E) the gap between the earnings of a CEO and the earnings of a typical worker is
significantly less.
C
1) Jessica Weller, a senior manager at DigWell Inc., differentiates the annual pay
raises provided to her subordinates based on their individual contributions to the
organization. The type of reward system used by Jessica is an example of
_____.
A) fixed-rate pay
B) profit sharing
C) gainsharing
D) scanlon plan
E) merit pay
E
1) A manager gives her employees a variable bonus every month based on
resulting cost savings every time they exceed their sales quota. This type of
incentive pay is known as _____.
A) fixed-rate pay
B) profit sharing
C) gainsharing
D) lump-sum bonus
E) pay-for-knowledge
C
1) _____ is an intangible determinant of individual performance.
A) Motivation
B) Management
C) Attribution
D) Personality
E) Contribution
A
1) Assurance on ____ can satisfy the security needs of an employee in the
workplace.
A) comfortable work environment
B) positive self-image
C) adequate wages
D) job continuity
E) recognition
D
1) _____ needs are at the top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A) Security
B) Self-actualization
C) Physiological
D) Esteem
E) Belongingness
B
1) According to Maslow, an individual is motivated first and foremost to satisfy
_____ needs.
A) security
B) self-actualization
C) physiological
D) esteem
E) belongingness
C
1) According to the two-factor theory, which of the following is a hygiene factor
that influences an employee's satisfaction or dissatisfaction?
A) Achievement
B) Recognition
C) Working conditions
D) Advancement and growth
E) The work itself
C
1) Brianne, a graduate engineer, prefers to work in a job that provides her the
opportunity to interact with people and make new friends on the job. Brianne has
a need for _____.
A) achievement
B) affiliation
C) power
D) esteem
E) security
B
1) _____ focuses on why people choose certain behavioral options to satisfy
their needs and how they evaluate their satisfaction after they have attained
those goals.
A) Maslow's hierarchy
B) Two-factor theory
C) Expectancy theory
D) Reinforcement theory
E) Variable work schedule
C
1) A basic assumption on which the expectancy theory is based on is that:
A) behavior is determined by a combination of forces in the individual and in the
environment.
B) people do not make decisions about their own behaviors in organizations.
C) different people have the same type of needs, desires, and goals.
D) people make choices based on the extent to which a given behavior will lead
to undesired outcomes.
E) people are motivated to seek social equity in the rewards they achieve for
performance.
B
1) A value associated with the outcomes of a performance is called its _____.
A) behavior
B) valence
C) need
D) hygiene factor
E) commitment
B
1) _____ are consequences of behaviors in an organizational setting, usually
rewards.
A) Performance
B) Valences
C) Outcomes
D) Need deficiencies
E) Commitments
B
1) According to the expectancy theory, which of the following conditions must be
met for motivated behavior to occur?
A) Effort-to-performance expectancy must be greater than zero
B) Performance-to-outcome expectancy must be less than zero
C) Sum of the valencies for an outcome must be less than zero
D) The individual must believe that effort and performance are unrelated
E) Every outcome must have a negative valence
A
1) _____ is the process of enabling workers to set their own work goals, make
decisions, and solve problems within their sphere of responsibility and authority.
A) Participation
B) Empowerment
C) Commitment
D) Reinforcement
E) Enrichment
B
1) _____ is the process of giving employees a voice in making decisions about
their own work.
A) Participation
B) Empowerment
C) Commitment
D) Reinforcement
E) Enrichment
A
1) Working a full forty-hour week in fewer than the traditional five days is called
as _____.
A) job sharing
B) flexitime
C) nine-eighty schedule
D) compressed work schedule
E) flexible work schedule
D
1) A disadvantage of using compressed work schedules is that:
A) some individuals develop resentment as they feel constrained by their job
schedules.
B) it makes it difficult for employees to attend routine personal businesses.
C) employees put too much effort in a single day, and tend to perform at lower
levels.
D) employees have to work additional hours all the five days of a week.
E) it gives employees more personal control over the times they work.
D
1) An arrangement where an employee works a traditional schedule one week
and a compressed schedule the next, getting every other Friday off is called as
_____.
A) job sharing
B) flextime
C) nine-eighty schedule
D) compressed work schedule
E) traditional work schedule
C
1) Work schedules that allow employees to select, within broad parameters, the
hours they work is called _____.
A) job sharing
B) flextime
C) nine-eighty schedule
D) compressed work schedule
E) traditional work schedule
B
1) An organizational _____ is the formal and informal mechanisms by which
employee performance is defined, evaluated, and awarded.
A) reinforcement policies
B) reward system
C) work schedule
D) outcome
E) valence
B
1) _____ refers to pay awarded to employees on the basis of the relative value of
their contributions to the organization, which is a performance-based reward
arrangement for individuals.
A) Scanlon plan
B) Piece-rate incentives
C) Incentive pay
D) Merit pay
E) Gainsharing
D
1) _____ is a reward system wherein an organization pays an employee a certain
amount of money for every unit he or she produces.
A) Scanlon plan
B) Piece-rate incentive plan
C) Incentive pay
D) Merit pay plan
E) Gainsharing
B
1) Which of the following is true about individual incentive plans?
A) They are focused to recognize efforts rather than individual performances.
B) They are used to provide individual performances with non monetary rewards.
C) They are most likely to be used when performance can be subjectively
assessed.
D) They are focused at increasing a person's base salary at the end of every
year.
E) They are used to reward individual performance on a real-time basis.
E
1) A major advantage of incentives relative to merit systems is that:
A) incentives do not accumulate by becoming part of an individual's salary.
B) incentives are provided only one time, based on that level of performance.
C) individuals receive the same amount or larger irrespective of their
performances over the years.
D) the base salary of an individual is unaffected by lower incentives.
E) these plans remain static and cannot be modified by an organization.
A
1) Which of the following is a group based incentive reward system
A) Merit pay
B) Gainsharing
C) Piece-rate incentive plan
D) Annual pay raise
E) Sales commission
B
1) _____ is a group based incentive reward system where the distribution of
gains is tilted heavily toward the employees.
A) Merit pay
B) Gainsharing
C) Piece-rate incentive plan
D) Scanlon plan
E) Sales commission
D
1) _____ argues that behavior that results in rewarding consequences is likely to
be repeated, whereas behavior that results in punishing consequences is less
likely to be repeated
A) Equity theory
B) Reinforcement theory
C) Two-factor theory
D) Maslow's hierarchy
E) Expectancy theory
B
1) _____ is used by managers to weaken undesired behaviors by creating
unpleasant consequences.
A) Recognition
B) Extinction
C) Avoidance
D) Punishment
E) Incentive
D
1) ____ is a counterproductive side affect of using punishment as a
reinforcement method.
A) Commitment
B) Motivation
C) Resentment
D) Participation
E) Empowerment
C
1) The _____ is the most powerful schedule in terms of maintaining desired
behavior.
A) variable-interval schedule
B) fixed-ratio schedule
C) variable-ratio schedule
D) fixed-interval schedule
E) nine-eighty schedule
C
1) The _____ varies the number of behaviors needed for each reinforcement.
A) variable-ratio schedule
B) fixed-ratio schedule
C) variable-interval schedule
D) fixed-interval schedule
E) nine-eighty schedule
A
1) A variable-ratio schedule is difficult to use for formal rewards such as pay
because:
A) it typically weakens the behavior that has been previously rewarded.
B) is the least powerful schedule in terms of maintaining the desired behaviors.
C) it has a fixed number of desires to needed for each reinforcement.
D) it does not motivate the employee to increase the frequency of the desired
behavior.
E) it would be complicated to keep track of who was rewarded when.
E
1) As a process, leadership can be defined as:
A) the practice of empowering employees to participate in organizational decision
making.
B) the set of characteristics attributed to individuals who are perceived to be
leaders.
C) the use of noncoercive influence to shape an organization's goals.
D) the ability to assess business process performance.
E) the ability to adjust to and understand the changes in a workplace.
C
1) As a property, leadership can be best defined as:
A) the practice of empowering employees to participate in organizational decision
making.
B) a set of belief that supports the practice of interpersonal risk taking in teams.
C) the ability to shape employee behavior without using force.
D) the ability to adjust to and understand changes in the workplace.
E) a set of characteristics found in people who can influence the behavior of
others.
E
1) Which of the following is an example of a good leader in the context of
business?
A) A person who relies on force to lead people
B) A person who disobeys authority
C) A person who is a dictator
D) A person who can influence others
E) A person who is efficient and does not delegate his or her duties
D
1) Christine is in charge of managing the marketing team at her office. To be an
efficient leader, she should:
A) affect the behavior of others only through coercion.
B) use her power only in ways that are ethical.
C) defy all forms of authority.
D) engage in freeriding.
E) encourage instances of groupthink.
B
1) When leaders decide to either give salary increases to their employees or
withhold any salary increases, which of the following types of power do they
exercise?
A) Coercive
B) Reward
C) Informal
D) Expert
E) Referent
B
1) Karl is fond of saying, "Remember, half the doctors you see graduated in the
bottom of their class." Karl is attempting to limit the _____ power of physicians
A) expert
B) legitimate
C) referent
D) reward
E) coercive
A
1) Bullies in the workplace use sarcasm, humiliation, and fear to influence others.
This is a form of _____ power.
A) expert
B) legitimate
C) referent
D) reward
E) coercive
E
1) Which of the following is NOT a possible reward for a manager to use who
wants to exercise effective reward power with his or her subordinates?
A) A cash bonus
B) A recommendation for promotion
C) An interesting job task
D) A salary increase
E) A standard reward for everyone
E
1) The more a manager uses coercive power, the more likely he is to encourage
_____.
A. sympathy.
B. good will.
C. resentment.
D. cordiality.
E. tolerance.
C
1) A supervisor's frequent use of coercion involves the:
A) use of distortion.
B) use of extinction.
C) use of positive reinforcement.
D) loss of leadership.
E) loss of persuasion.
D
1) One of the reasons Steve Jobs was very successful at Apple was his
charisma. From this observation, we can infer that he had _____ power.
A) referent
B) reward
C) legitimate
D) coercive
E) expert
A
1) When an organization promotes someone, it sends a signal to everyone that
the person is competent. This gives the person _____ power
A) legitimate
B) technological
C) reward
D) referent
E) coercive
A
1) A news producer has the authority to choose which reporter will get to cover
important news items and which reporter will cover trivial news items. The news
producer uses this authority to recognize the hard work of reporters. Which of the
following types of power is the producer using in this case?
A) Referent
B) Expert
C) Reward
D) Coercive
E) Informal
C
1) Bill Lennox is a good man. He demonstrates high moral standards with every
decision he takes and inspires others to follow suit. From the given information,
we can say that he has _____ power.
A) legitimate
B) technological
C) expert
D) referent
E) coercive
D
1) The first organized approach to studying leadership focused on
A) leadership behavior
B) leadership traits.
C) rewards expected.
D) situational favorableness.
E) leader-member relations.
B
1) Which of the following approaches to identifying a leader is a person using if
he votes for a politician based on his communication skills, intelligence,
appearance, and assertiveness?
A) LPC theory
B) Vroom's decision tree approach
C) Path-goal theory
D) Trait approach
E) Fiedler's contingency theory
D
1) The behavior that is called "job-centered leader behavior" in the Michigan
studies is similar to the behavior called _____ behavior in the Ohio State studies.
A) initiating-structure
B) consideration
C) concern for production
D) concern for people
E) employee-centered leader
A
1) Abbott, a shoe manufacturing company, strives to keep its workers satisfied.
As many of them are working mothers, the company allows flexible time shifts.
CEO Miles White says, "One of the most important things we can do for working
families today is to help them lead healthier lives." According to the Michigan
studies, White is demonstrating _____ behavior.
D) employee-centered leader
D
1) In the Ohio State studies, employees of supervisors who ranked high on
initiating structure:
A) reflected low absence rates.
B) were high performers.
C) expressed high levels of satisfaction.
D) had low productivity.
E) were confused about the leader-subordinate role.
B
1) At the opposite ends of the single continuum used by the Michigan studies are
the leader's:
A) initiating-structure behavior and consideration behavior.
B) job-centered leader behavior and employee-centered leader behavior.
C) concern for production and concern for people.
D) task-oriented behavior and relationship-oriented behavior.
E) traits reflecting the hierarchical theory x and traits reflecting the innovative
theory y.
B
1) The CEO at Green Inc. has established that employees at the workplace
should adhere to the vertical communication system. She has established fixed
work flow systems and strictly monitors these processes. The steps taken by the
CEO at Green Inc. reflect the _____ behavior of leaders suggested by the Ohio
State studies.
A) consideration
B) initiating structure
C) employee-centered
D) job-centered
E) authoritative
B
1) In the Managerial Grid, the ideal manager behavior is represented by a 9,9
"team" manager, who has high concern for both:
A) structure and people.
B) people and production.
C) leadership and production.
D) finances and operations.
E) resources and products.
B
1) Which of the following is a generic approach to leadership?
A) The least-preferred coworker model
B) The path-goal model
C) Vroom's decision tree approach
D) The Ohio state studies
E) The leader-member exchange approach
D
1) What is the basic assumption of situational approaches to leadership?
A) Increasing worker job satisfaction through considerate leadership will get the
best results.
B) Initiating structure for employees so they know exactly what needs to be done
will be most effective.
C) The appropriate leader style will vary from one set of circumstances to
another.
D) Effective leaders can be identified by certain traits.
E) The 1,1 manager exhibits minimal concern for both production and people.
C
1) Which of the following is a situational leadership model?
A) Trait approach
B) Michigan studies
C) Ohio State studies
D) Leadership Grid
E) Path-goal theory
D
1) How did Fiedler measure leadership styles?
D) By means of a questionnaire called the least-preferred coworker measure
D
1) According to Fiedler, a task is structured when it is:
A) routine, difficult to understand, and unambiguous.
B) routine, easy to understand, and ambiguous.
C) irregular, difficult to understand, and ambiguous.
D) routine, easy to understand, and unambiguous.
E) irregular, difficult to understand, and unambiguous.
D
1) In Fiedler's model, a high least-preferred coworker score is said to reflect a
_____ orientation.
A) relationship
B) task
C) structure
D) communication
E) schedule
A
1) In Fiedler's model, favorable situations are those that have:
B) good leader-member relations, highly structured tasks, and strong leader
position-power.
B
1) Daniel has been appointed leader of a project task force. He has legitimate
power in this position. The task is unstructured. Also, Daniel has weak leader-
member relations. According to Fiedler's LPC theory, what type of leadership
style is appropriate in this situation?
A) Task-oriented
B) Relationship-oriented
C) Participative
D) Transformational leadership
E) Concern for people
A
1) Mihee, the chief nurse in a hospital, sets challenging goals for her
subordinates because she has confidence in her fellow nurses. Based on the
path-goal theory, what kind of leader behavior is Mihee exhibiting?
A) Task-oriented
B) Employee-centered
C) Achievement-oriented
D) Relationship-oriented
E) Bureaucratic
C
1) Vernique, a manager, consults with her subordinates and encourages their
involvement in the decision making process. Based on the path-goal theory, what
kind of leader behavior is Vernique exhibiting?
A) Job-oriented
B) Employee-centered
C) Achievement-oriented
D) Participative
E) Bureaucrat
D
1) Which of the following leadership models is a direct extension of the
expectancy theory of motivation?
A) Vroom's decision tree approach
B) Fiedler's contingency
C) Vertical-dyad linkage
D) Path-goal
E) Substitutes for leadership
D
1) In contrast to Fiedler's theory, path-goal theory assumes that leaders:
A) have little tolerance for their least-preferred coworker.
B) can change their leadership style to fit the demands of a particular situation.
C) should maintain a consistent leadership style to avoid confusing subordinates.
D) must find a fit between their leader styles and the situation.
E) should always maintain a participative leader style.
B
1) Don Draper is responsible for managing the creative section of his ad agency.
In one-to-one sessions, he asks each member of his group to give ideas for the
ad campaign to promote a new product. He considers all the ideas and decides
to go ahead with the best among them. Which decision-making style is best
reflected in the given scenario?
A) Consult individual
B) Facilitate
C) Delegate
D) Participate
E) Decide
A
1) Which of the following is a task characteristic that may neutralize or substitute
for leadership?
A) Collective hysteria
B) Conformity
C) Intrinsic satisfaction
D) Bystander apathy
E) Groupthink
C
1) Demonstrating personal excitement or passion about something is part of
_____ leadership.
A) charismatic
B) entrepreneurial
C) symbolic
D) integrative
E) participative
A
1) The concept of charismatic leadership is most closely related to:
A) the Vroom-Yetton-Jago approach.
B) the trait approach.
C) Fiedler's contingency theory.
D) substitutes for leadership.
E) path-goal theory.
B
1) Carl, the manager at a publishing house, heads the editorial team. Peggy, one
of his subordinates belongs to his in-group. This information would be significant
for the proceedings of the:
A) Vroom's decision tree approach.
B) path-goal theory.
C) leader-member exchange model.
D) least-preferred coworker theory.
E) leadership grid.
C
1) _____ is the style of leadership that goes beyond ordinary expectations by
transmitting a sense of mission, stimulating learning experiences, and inspiring
new ways of thinking.
A) Directive leadership
B) Participative leadership
C) Transformational leadership
D) Supportive leadership
E) Task-oriented leadership
C
1) Which of the following is a defining characteristic of strategic leaders?
A) They possess interpersonal attraction that inspires support and acceptance.
B) They understand the organization and recognize its superior alignment with
the environment.
C) They transmit a sense of mission, stimulate learning experiences, and inspire
new ways of thinking.
D) They understand international differences and diversity-based differences
within one culture.
E) They encourage others by supporting them, empathizing with them, and
expressing confidence in them.
B
1) Why has the importance of cross-cultural leadership increased in today's
times?
A) Because of improving profit margins
B) Because of office politics
C) Because of increasing unethical practices
D) Because of the increasing environmental concerns
E) Because of the improving diversity ratios in workplaces
E
1) Which of the following is a prerequisite for effective leadership?
A) Low tolerance toward diversity
B) Belief in the dictatorship style of leadership
C) High levels of coercive powers
D) Belief in ethnocentrism
E) High standards of ethical conduct
E
1) A manager tells a subordinate that he will not recommend her for promotion
unless she supports his proposal in an upcoming sales meeting. Which type of
political behavior is reflected in the given scenario?
A) Creation of an obligation
B) Coercion
C) Initiating structure
D) Persuasion
E) Assault
B
1) Carolyn, a manager, discusses and reasons with the Board of Directors of her
company until they agree to let her try her new strategic plan for a trial period.
Carolyn is using _____ in the given situation.
A) an obligation
B) persuasion
C) coercion
D) inducement
E) passive aggression
B
1) After oil prices hit record highs and the oil companies made record profits,
some of the oil company's CEOs appeared on the Today show to explain their
business to consumers. This is an example of:
A) creation of an obligation.
B) impression management.
C) initiating structure.
D) persuasion.
E) inducement.
B
1) Valencia, an employee at Y Inc., attempts to bring all her contributions to
successful projects to the notice of her manager. Her intention is to build a good
image in the eyes of the management. What is best exemplified by Valencia's
behavior?
A) Creation of an obligation
B) Impression management
C) Coercion
D) Persuasion
E) Inducement
B
1) Which of the following is the most probable motive for a manager to engage in
political behavior?
A) To avoid covert activities
B) To acquire power
C) To promote clear communication
D) To promote transparency
E) To avoid charges of political motivation
B
1) What measures should managers take to prevent political behavior from doing
excessive damage?
A) They should refrain from providing subordinates with autonomy.
B) They should provide challenges to subordinates.
C) They should use their coercive powers.
D) They should reduce diversity in the workplace.
E) They should encourage ethnocentrism.
B
1) Which of the following statements is true of political behavior?
A) Political behavior is always a manifestation of good intent.
B) Managers should cover up disagreements so that subordinates will have less
opportunity for political behavior.
C) Even if a manager's actions are not politically motivated, others may assume
that they are.
D) By providing subordinates with autonomy, managers are likely to promote
political behavior.
E) Managers should use power if they want to avoid charges of political
motivation.
C
1) According to the Managerial Grid, the _____ manager is highly concerned
about production but exhibits little concern for people.
A) 9,1
B) 0,1
C) 1,9
D) 0,1
E) 9,0
A
1) The Ohio State researchers found that employees of supervisors who ranked
high on _____ were high performers but expressed low levels of satisfaction and
had a higher absence rate.
A) concern for people
B) consideration
C) initiating structure
D) employee-centered leader behavior
E) task-oriented leadership behavior
C
1) _____ is the part of the Managerial Grid that deals with the job and task
aspects of leader behavior.
A) Employee-centered leader behavior
B) Initiating structure
C) Task-oriented leadership behavior
D) Concern for people
E) Concern for production
E
1) Based on the Michigan studies, Rensis Likert argued that the _____ behavior
generally tends to be more effective.
A) initiating structure
B) job-centered leader
C) employee-centered leader
D) considerate
E) authoritative
C
1) According to the Michigan studies, managers using _____ behavior are
interested in developing a cohesive work group and ensuring that employees are
satisfied with their jobs.
A) consideration
B) initiating structure
C) job-centered leader
D) employee-centered leader
E) authoritative
D
1) When followers react favorably because they identify in some way with a
leader, the leader is said to possess _____ power.
A) reward
B) expert
C) legitimate
D) coercive
E) referent
E
1) Verbal reprimands, written reprimands, disciplinary layoffs, fines, demotion,
and termination are examples of _____ power possessed by managers.
A) coercive
B) reward
C) legitimate
D) expert
E) referent
A
1) The more important the information and the fewer the people who have
access to it, the greater is the degree of _____ power possessed by any one
individual.
A) legitimate
B) reward
C) referent
D) expert
E) coercive
D
1) A secretary who knows how to unravel bureaucratic red tape has _____ power
over anyone who needs that information.
A) reward
B) referent
C) legitimate
D) expert
E) coercive
D
1) A manager expressing praise, gratitude, or recognition best exemplifies _____
power.
A) informal
B) reward
C) referent
D) expert
E) coercive
B
1) A manager can assign tasks to a subordinate, and a subordinate who refuses
to do them can be reprimanded or even fired. This is an example of _____
power.
A) legitimate
B) informal
C) referent
D) expert
E) coercive
A
1) _____ power is power granted through the organizational hierarchy. A) Expert
B) Referent
C) Coercive
D) Reward
E) Legitimate
E
1) ____ is the ability to affect the behavior of others.
A) Power
B) Discipline
C) Function
D) Potential
E) Virtue
A
1) _____ is necessary to create change, while management is necessary to
achieve orderly results.
A) Dominion
B) Leadership
C) Legitimacy
D) Administration
E) Control
B
1) _____ describes activities carried out for the specific purpose of acquiring,
developing, and using power and other resources to obtain one's preferred
outcomes.
A) Group cognition
B) Workplace diversity
C) Organizational culture
D) Political behavior
E) Collective intelligence
D
1) In the context of the charismatic leadership theory, proposed by Robert
House, charismatic leaders are likely to:
A) rate low on self-confidence.
B) avoid influencing people.
C) have a firm conviction in their beliefs.
D) have an external locus of control.
E) be dependent on others.
C
1) In the context of the Vroom's decision tree approach, when managers present
a problem to their group at a meeting, define the problem and its boundaries, and
then guide group member discussions as they make the decision, they follow the
_____ decision-making style.
A) delegate
B) consult group
C) facilitate
D) consult individually
E) decide
C
1) In the context of the Vroom's decision tree approach, when a manager allows
his group to define for itself the exact nature and parameters of a problem and
then to develop a solution, they follow the _____ decision-making style.
A) facilitate
B) consult individually
C) decide
D) delegate
E) consult group
D
1) According to the path-goal theory, a person with an internal locus of control is
most likely to prefer _____ leadership.
A) task-oriented
B) achievement-oriented
C) directive
D) supportive
E) participative
E
1) According to the path-goal theory, if people perceive that they are lacking in
abilities, they are most likely to prefer _____ to help them understand path-goal
relationships better.
B) directive leadership
B
1) _____ behavior, identified by the path-goal theory, primarily involves being
friendly and approachable, showing concern for subordinate welfare, and treating
members as equals.
A) Directive leader
B) Task-oriented leader
C) Achievement-oriented leader
D) Participative leader
E) Supportive leader
E
1) A supervisor exhibiting _____ behavior, identified by the path-goal theory, is
most likely to let subordinates know what is expected of them, gives guidance
and direction, and schedules work.
A) participative leader
B) supportive leader
C) directive leader
D) achievement-oriented leader
E) Task-oriented leader
C
1) _____ leader behavior, identified by the path-goal theory, primarily involves
setting challenging goals, expecting subordinates to perform at high levels,
encouraging subordinates, and showing confidence in subordinates' abilities.
A) Relationship-oriented
B) Achievement-oriented
C) Directive
D) Participative
E) Supportive
B
1) _____ is a theory of leadership which suggests that the primary functions of a
leader are to make valued or desired rewards available in the workplace and to
clarify for the subordinate the kinds of behavior that will lead to those rewards.
A) Path-goal theory
B) Leadership trait approach
C) Least-preferred coworker theory
D) Strategic leadership approach
E) Leader-member exchange theory
A
1) According to Fiedler, _____ is the degree to which the group's task is well
defined.
A) task thread
B) task stream
C) task orientation
D) task structure
E) task parallel
D
1) According to Fiedler, the key situational factor of leadership is the _____ from
the leader's point of view.
A) cause of the situation
B) importance of establishing formal lines of communication
C) favorableness of the situation
D) overall objective of the situation
E) importance of an employee-centered environment
C
1) Sam, the CEO of a company, has the power to take decisions related to
resource allocations. His power is mainly derived from his position in the
company. Which power is best demonstrated in the given scenario?
A) Coercive
B) Reward
C) Legitimate
D) Expert
E) Referent.
C
1. The report issued about a major packaging defect showed a culture at an
organization that did not listen when small safety issues were raised. Each issue
by itself might not have caused the flaw. This example illustrates:
the need to understand organizational complexity.
B) that changing conditions are influenced by innovation
C) the need for control in order to reduce the accumulation of errors.
D) the way that control helps organizations respond to changing standards.
E) the way that organizations cope with multiple control standards.
C
1. Which of the following is true of organizational control?
A)Control always results in higher costs for an organization.
B) Sales and marketing forecasting is a part of financial control
. C) Control can help an organization adapt to environmental change.
D) Control systems increase organizational complexity.
E) Public relations is a part of human resources control.
C
1. When large firms merge, the results are often initially disappointing due to
control systems trying to cope with a(n) _____.
A) rise in error accumulation
B) increase in organizational complexity
C) lack of environmental change
D) increase in costs
E) reduction in output
B
1. In organizations, sales forecasting, economic forecasting, and environmental
analysis are examples of the control of _____ resources.
A) physical
B) human
C) information
D) financial
E) inventory
C
1. Performance appraisals are part of _____ control.
A) physical
B) human resources
C) information
D) financial
E) inventory
B
1. Google partnered with Nielsen Co. to poll users about ads on Google+.
Nielsen then packaged the information for advertisers. This was a response to
advertiser complaints about the effectiveness of ads on the social network. This
indicates that Google is placing an emphasis on _____ controls.
A) operations
B) development
C) strategic
D) financial
E) structural
E
1. Quality control is a type of _____ control.
A) physical
B) human
C) operations
D) financial
E) structural
C
1. The control of _____ affects all the other resources in an organization.
A) physical resources
B) human resources
C) financial resources
D) information resources
E) inventory resources
C
1. An organization's attempt to control the behavior of their employees by
directing them toward higher performance is an example of control of _____
resources.
A) physical
B) financial
C) human
D) information
E) inventory
C
1. An organization shifts its budget from a few, large projects to accommodate a
number of smaller projects every year. It also decentralizes power and gives
additional responsibilities to individual project managers. This is an example of
the use of _____ control.
A) physical
B) information
C) structural
D) financial
E) screening
C
1. Monitoring receivables to make sure customers are paying their bills on time is
an example of _____ control.
A) operations
B) strategic
C) structural
D) financial
E) physical
D
1. Monitoring the administrative ratio to make sure staff expenses do not become
excessive is an example of _____ control.
A) postaction
B) strategic
C) structural
D) operations
E) information
C
1. Ensuring that receivables are collected in a timely manner is part of _____
control.
A) physical
B) strategic
C) information
D) financial
E) structural
D
1. The first step in the control process is:
A) modifying control standards.
B) comparing performance against standards
C) measuring performance.
D) establishing control standards.
E) determining the need for corrective action.
D
1. In the control process, which of the following steps follows the measurement of
performance?
A) Considering corrective action
B) Comparing performance against standards
C) Establishing standards
D) Developing effective performance measures
E) Setting standards consistent with organizational goals
B
1. The final step in the control process is:
A) establishing standards.
B) expressing standards in measurable terms.
C) measuring performance.
D) comparing performance against standards.
E) considering corrective action.
E
1. Following the accidental release of a batch of phones that failed screening
control, a manufacturer of mobile phones replaces all such phones at no cost to
the user-even taking care of shipping and delivery. Which step in the control
process does this example represent?
A) Taking corrective action
B) Measuring performance
C) Comparison of performance to standards
D) Setting performance standards
A
1. Which of the following is a form of operations control?
A) Financial control
B) Screening control
C) Strategic control
D) Structural control
E) Budgetary control
B
1. A company that carefully evaluates job applicants is using _____ control.
A) screening
B) cybernetic
C) postaction
D) preliminary
E) information
D
1. A manufacturer of health foods ensures that at least 90 percent of all its raw
materials is grown organically. This is an example of _____ control.
A) preliminary
B) postaction
C) feedback
D) screening
E) concurrent
A
1. Everyone working or volunteering for Girl Scouts goes through a background
check before they can work with girls or handle money. This is an example of:
A) screening control.
B) preliminary control.
C) postaction control.
D) information control.
E) structural control.
B
1. _____ control attempts to monitor the quality or quantity of resources before
they enter an organization.
A) Structural
B) Postaction
C) Preliminary
D) Screening
E) Financial
C
1. Inspection reports are used to monitor the quality of raw materials delivered to
manufacturers. This is an example of _____ control.
A) financial
B) structural
C) preliminary
D) screening
E) postaction
C
1. A policy think tank requires all candidates applying for the position of vice-
president to have a minimum of 10 years of experience in governmental
organizations, international business, or multinational non-profits. This is an
example of _____ operations control.
A) preliminary
B) screening
C) structural
D) postaction
E) decentralized
A
1. A publisher of children's books only uses recycled paper for all its products.
This is an example of _____ operations control.
A) preliminary
B) screening
C) structural
D) postaction
E) decentralized
A
1. Which of the following types of operations control relies heavily on feedback
processes?
A) Strategic control
B) Financial control
C) Postaction control
D) Preliminary control
E) Screening control
E
1. _____ controls are an effective way to catch problems early in the
transformation process.
A) Postaction
B) Structural
C) Screening
D) Strategic
E) Financial
C
1. Which of the following is true of screening control?
A) It takes place during the transformation process.
B) It involves interviewing potential employees.
C) It is the same as preliminary control.
D) It is present only in organizations with bureaucratic control.
E) It is a part of structural control.
A
1. Before submitting a final policy memo, analysts may modify certain
recommendations based on feedback from experts and the general public. This
is an example of _____ control.
A) preliminary
B) postaction
C) screening
D) financial
E) structural
C
1. _____ control is the form of operations control that tends to be used most
often.
A) Human resources
B) Financial
C) Screening
D) Postaction
E) Preliminary
C
1. At a high school, final examinations are held online. During the examination,
the difficulty level of questions assigned to students is modified based on how
well individual students perform. This is an example of _____ operations control.
A) preliminary
B) screening
C) structural
D) postaction
E) decentralized
B
1. Postaction control is applied to _____.
A) resources
B) transformation processes
C) subsystems
D) controllers
E) outputs
E
1. _____ control provides a basis for rewarding employees.
A) Preliminary
B) Strategic
C) Postaction
D) Structural
E) Screening
C
1. Intertek's product quality inspections help protect brand reputations by
minimizing defective merchandise, customer complaints, non-compliant products,
and late shipments. This is an example of _____ control.
A) preliminary
B) postaction
C) screening
D) financial
E) structural
B
1. Which of the following types of control is used for resources such as retained
earnings?
A) Financial control
B) Structural control
C) Operating control
D) Interim control
E) Nonmonetary control
A
1. Hermes is a taxi service that asks customers to fill out an online feedback form
once their ride is complete. Hermes is making use of _____ operations control.
A) preliminary
B) screening
C) structural
D) postaction
E) decentralized
D
1. A publishing firm will use a(n) _____ budget to forecast and plan the demand
for young adult books in Southeast Asia in the coming year.
A) labor
B) capital expenditures
C) operating
D) balance sheet
E) space
C
1. A state university develops a budget that shows its projected income from
sources that include government funding, tuition fees, alumni contributions, and
research grants. This is an example of a(n) _____ budget.
A) operations
B) capital expenditures
C) nonmonetary
D) output
E) revenue
E
1. During the scheduling of a project, a plant manager is told that she has 30
workers for 6 hours a day, 5 days a week. This is part of a(n) _____ budget.
A) capital expenditure
B) master
C) space
D) labor
E) personnel
D
1. The _____ budget shows the anticipated differences between sales or
revenue and expenses.
A) expense
B) profit
C) labor
D) capital expenditure
E) cash flow
B
1. A(n) _____ budget forecasts the organization's assets and liabilities in the
event that all other budgets are met.
A) balance sheet
B) revenue
C) fixed asset
D) expense
E) labor
A
1. A budget that deals with costs of major assets such as a new plant,
machinery, or land is known as a _____ budget.
A) revenue
B) balance sheet
C) cash flow
D) expense
E) capital expenditures
E
1. A company that specializes in indoor farming has recently acquired a large
warehouse. Which of the following budgets will this company use to determine
and plan the area available for various functions?
A) Operating budget
B) Space budget
C) Labor budget
D) Revenue budget
E) Expense budget
B
1. Which of the following shows income that the organization expects to receive
from normal operations?
A) Profit budget
B) Balance sheet budget
C) Cash flow budget
D) Space budget
E) Revenue budget
E
1. Which of the following is a nonmonetary budget?
A) Labor budget
B) Capital expenditures budget
C) Sales budget
D) Balance sheet budget
E) Revenue budget
A
1. Which of the following is a weakness associated with budgeting?
A) Budgets do not allow managers to identify problem areas.
B) Budgets do not facilitate effective control.
C) Budgets fail to link planning and controlling.
D) Budgets can limit innovation and change.
E) Budgets hamper coordination between departments.
D
1. Which of the following financial documents shows a listing of all the
organization's assets and liabilities at a given point in time?
A) Balance sheet
B) Expense budget
C) Income statement
D) Revenue budget
E) Capital expenditures budget
A
1. If an energy company wants to discover the effectiveness of its wind-turbine
division in a particular state, it will use a(n):
A) liquidity ratio.
B) balance sheet ratio.
C) return on investment.
D) operating ratio.
E) debt ratio.
D
1. A(n) _____ compares different elements of a balance sheet or an income
statement to one another.
A) expense budget
B) profit budget
C) internal audit
D) operations budget
E) financial ratio
E
1. Which of the following summarizes the financial performance of an
organization over a period of time?
A) Balance sheet
B) Liquidity ratio
C) Cash flow statement
D) Income statement
E) Debt statement
D
1. John began his company making herb vinegars from a recipe his grandmother
had given him. As demand grew, he had to buy a large commercial kitchen.
Which of the following ratios would a banker be most interested in before
allowing John to borrow $500,000?
A) Liquidity ratio
B) Balance sheet
C) Return on investment
D) Operating ratio
E) Debt ratio
E
1. Which of the following reflects a firm's ability to meet its long-term financial
obligations?
A) Debt ratio
B) Balance sheet
C) Return on investment
D) Profit budget
E) Liquidity ratio
A
1. Which of the following ratios assesses the ease with which an organization's
assets can be converted into cash?
A) Liquidity ratio
B) Profitability ratio
C) Debt ratio
D) Operating ratio
E) Coverage ratio
A
1. Financial analysts look at a company's _____ ratio to determine if it can make
interest payments on borrowed capital.
A) coverage
B) operating
C) debt
D) return
E) liquidity
A
1. Which of the following statements about financial audits is true?
A) Audits can only be conducted by experts who are not employees of the
organization.
B) Financial audits are always internal to an organization.
C) Audits are used to monitor accounting and financial systems within an
organization.
D) Organizational operating systems are not audited.
E) Publicly held corporations are required by law to have internal audits regularly.
C
1. The financial ratio that reflects the ability to meet long-term financial
obligations is the _____ ratio.
A) return
B) operating
C) liquidity
D) debt
E) coverage
D
1. A manager at a supermarket needs to know how easily the store's assets can
be converted into cash. Which of the following ratios will he use?
A) Debt ratio
B) Return ratio
C) Liquidity ratio
D) Coverage ratio
E) Operating ratio
C
1. An appraisal of an organization's accounting and financial procedures
conducted by employees of that organization is known as a(n):
A) internal audit.
B) debt audit.
C) ratio audit.
D) external audit.
E) liquidity audit.
A
1. The purpose of bureaucratic control is to:
A) support employee participation in the control function.
B) produce performance above minimum acceptable standards.
C) get employee compliance.
D) increase group performance.
E) increase employee self-control.
C
1. Which of the following is characteristic of the bureaucratic approach to
organizational control?
A) Rewards are directed at group performance.
B) Organizational structure is flat.
C) Employee participation is extended and informal.
D) Reliance is on strict rules and a rigid hierarchy.
E) Performance expectations extend above and beyond the minimum.
D
1. Organizations that use the bureaucratic control are characterized by:
A) flat structures.
B) rewards focused on group performance.
C) limited employee participation.
D) heavy reliance on group norms.
E) organic structural arrangements.
C
1. An organization that relies on strict rules and a rigid hierarchy and insists that
employees meet minimally acceptable levels of performance most likely uses
_____ structural control.
A) strategic
B) decentralized
C) bureaucratic
D) organic
E) screening
C
1. Decentralized control is characterized by:
A) formal rules
B) an organic structural arrangement.
C) focus on employee compliance.
D) a tall structure.
E) limited employee participation.
B
1. Which of the following is an important element of decentralized control?
A) Group norms
B) Rigid hierarchy
C) Tall organization structure
D) Individual performance
E) Employee compliance
A
1. Organizations that use _____ strategic control believe it is effective because it
allows the home office to keep better informed of the performance of foreign
units.
A) organic
B) centralized
C) mechanistic
D) bureaucratic
E) environmental
B
1. Organizations make the decision of whether to have a centralized or
decentralized international control system when they are addressing issues of
____ control.
A) screening
B) strategic
C) financial
D) bureaucratic
E) preliminary
B
1. A multinational construction firm does not require its various divisions to report
frequently to the head office. The organization believes in letting each manager
have the authority to respond quickly to environmental changes. These
managerial actions do not have to be approved by the head office before they
are implemented. This firm uses _____ strategic control.
A) bureaucratic
B) mechanistic
C) decentralized
D) formalized
E) inflexible
C
1. International firms which use ____ strategic control require each organization
unit around the world to frequently report the results of its performance to
headquarters.
A) decentralized
B) organic
C) screening
D) centralized
E) postaction
D
1. Managers can improve the effectiveness of the control system by:
A) preventing the development of verification procedures.
B) controlling as many things in the organization as possible.
C) focusing only on quantifiable variables.
D) integrating control with planning.
E) correcting all deviations from standards.
D
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective control?
A) It provides timely information.
B) It is separate from planning.
C) It is rigid.
D) It is subjective.
E) It directly controls employee behavior.
A
1. An organizational control system that enforces unique employee dress codes
for different days of the week is guilty of:
A) overcontrol.
B) inappropriate focus.
C) rewarding inefficiency.
D) too much accountability.
E) inaccuracy.
A
1. A company buys electronic components, assembles them into PCs, and then
ships them to customers. In this case the electronic components are _____ for
the company.
A) Outputs
B) products
C) processes
D) inputs
E) services
d
1. The total set of managerial activities an organization uses to transform
resource inputs into products and services is called _____.
a. technology management
b. strategic management
c. project management
d. operations management
e. self-management
d
1. If the product is a physical good, operations create value and provide _____
utility by combining many dissimilar inputs to make something that is more
valuable than the actual cost of the inputs used to create it.
a. time
b. form
c. place
d. service
e. statistical
b
1. Operations management was once called _____.
a. service management
b. process management
c. waste management
d. production management
e. output management
d
1. Fast food restaurants that assemble breads, spreads, and fillings as per the
customers' preference belong to the _____ industry.
a. service
b. manufacturing
c. automotive
d. importing
e. exporting
b
1. An organization that transforms resources into an intangible output in order to
create time or place utility for its customers is known as _____ company.
a. an outsourcing
b. a service
c. a manufacturing
d. the International Organization for Standardization 9000
e. total quality management
b
1. During the 1970s in the United States, manufacturing entered a long period of
decline. Which of the following is the primary reason for this decline?
a. Modernization of plants
b. Rise in unemployment
c. Growth in the service sector
d. Foreign competition
E) Recession
d
1. A convenience store at the gas station provides utility for customers because it
makes it easy for them to purchase a few essentials when they stop for gasoline.
The convenience store belongs to the _____ industry.
a. service
b. manufacturing
c. automotive
d. importing
electronics
a
1. During the decline of the manufacturing sector, a tremendous growth in the
_____ sector kept the U.S. economy from declining at the same rate.
a. coal
b. service
c. agriculture
d. steel
electronics
b
1. A(n) _____ organization is one that transforms resources into an intangible
output and creates time and place utility for its customers.
a. manufacturing
b. production
c. service
d. coal
agricultural
c
1. In the United States, which of the following steps did the manufacturing
companies take to recover from the long period of decline?
a. They increased their workforces dramatically.
b. They opened more plants.
c. They changed their market.
d. They modernized their plants.
e. They changed their sector.
d
1. _____ is a form of business that combines and transforms resources into
tangible outcomes that are then sold to others.
a. Service
b. Manufacturing
c. Outsourcing
d. Licensing
e. Exporting
b
1. A highest-possible-quality strategy will stress on _____.
a. the lowest possible cost regardless of quality
b. quality regardless of cost
c. low quality at low cost
d. large quantities at low cost
e. productivity regardless of quality
b
1. Which of the following questions is addressed by product-service mix
decisions?
a. How the services need to be provided?
b. How many different products need to be offered?
c. What quantity of a product needs to be produced?
d. Where the products need to be distributed?
e. How products need to be produced?
b
1. Upsilon Inc. manufactures leather handbags. It later adds leather accessories,
shoes, and clothing to its production line. With this step, Upsilon is taking a
_____ decision.
a. layout
b. promotion-distribution
c. capacity
d. product-service mix
e. facility
d
1. Globe-Mart, a large chain of department stores, strategically places distribution
centers throughout the United States. In this context, Globe-Mart has made a
_____ decision.
a. product layout
b. facilities location
c. capacity
d. product-service mix
e. process layout
b
1. Katina has hurt her hand. She goes to the emergency room. The doctor thinks
Katina has a broken wrist, and sends her for an X-ray. In this example, which
type of layout does the hospital have?
a. Product layout
b. Cellular layout
c. Random layout
d. Fixed-position layout
e. Process layout
e
1. A _____ layout is appropriate when large quantities of a single product are
needed.
a. process
b. cellular
c. fixed-point
d. product
e. distributed
d
1. _____ layouts are used in operations settings that create or process a variety
of products.
a. Product
b. Cellular
c. Random
d. Fixed-position
e. Process
e
1. In a toy manufacturing factory, the employees are stationed along the
assembly line. As a toy moves along the assembly line, each employee stationed
there adds a particular part to the toy. The toy factory has a _____ layout.
a. process
b. cellular
c. fixed-point
d. product
e. distributed
d
1. Eagle Inc. makes golf clubs. Each set has up to 12 clubs and each club in the
set is slightly different from the other. Which of the following types of layout does
Eagle's manufacturing plant have?
a. Product layout
b. Cellular layout
c. Fixed-position layout
d. Random layout
e. Process layout
b
1. Dina works in a residential construction company. She travels to the job site to
build a house. The residential construction company is an example of a _____
layout.
a. product
b. cellular
c. random
d. fixed-position
e. process
d
1. The _____ layout is used when the organization is creating a few very large
and complex products.
A) product
B) cellular
C) fixed-position
D) process
E) distributed
c
1. The _____ layout is used when the organization is creating a few very large
and complex products.
a. product
b. cellular
c. fixed-position
d. process
e. distributed
c
1. _____ layouts are used when families of products can follow similar flow
paths.
a. Product
b. Cellular
c. Random
d. Fixed-position
Process
b
1. In automation, _____ is the flow of information from the machine back to the
sensor.
a. feedback
b. agrimation
c. input instruction
d. design
e. control mechanism
a
1. Which of the following is true of automation?
a. The development of automation has created jobs across all industries.
b. Automated machines make more errors.
c. Automation discourages innovation.
d. Automation helps to improve products and services.
Automation was the earliest step in the development of machines and machine-
controlling
d
1. In automation, _____ are the parts of the system that gather information and
compare it to preset standards.
a. feedback systems
b. sensors
c. robots
d. mechanical arms
e. control mechanisms
b
a. control mechanisms
2. In automation, which of the following sends instructions to the automatic
machine?
a. Feedback
b. Sensors
c. Agrimation
d. Steering system
e. Control mechanism
e
1. Which of the following uses computers to design parts and complete products
and to simulate performance so that prototypes need not be constructed?
a. Computer-aided automation
b. Computerized robotics
c. Agrimation
d. Computer-aided design
e. Flexible manufacturing systems
d
1. Which of the following is true of computer-integrated manufacturing (CIM)?
a. It is a simple tool.
b. It is very different from computer-aided manufacturing.
c. In CIM, adjustment of machine placements and settings is manual.
d. It is a powerful management control tool.
e. It is a form of service technology.
d
1. EduCool is a web-based student information system. It allows parents to follow
their child's performance online. It includes grades, attendance, assignments,
and student data on a daily basis. EduCool is an example of:
a. advancement in service technology.
b. advancement in manufacturing technology.
c. computer-aided manufacturing.
d. computer aided design.
e. computer-assisted technology.
a
1. A(n) _____ is any artificial device that is able to perform functions ordinarily
thought to be appropriate for human beings.
A) transformer
B) expert system
C) resistor
D) robot
E) just-in-time inventory system
d
1. _____ include robotic work units or workstations, assembly lines, and robotic
carts or some other form of computer-controlled transport system to move
material as needed from one part of the system to another.
A) Agrimations
B) Flexible manufacturing systems
C) Call-center systems
D) Computer-aided design technologies
E) Expert systems
b
1. Which of the following statements about manufacturing technology is true?
A) Computer-assisted manufacturing generates resistance.
B) Computer-aided design systems are always reliable.
C) Computer-integrated manufacturing systems are inexpensive.
D) Computer-aided design systems are very simple.
E) Computer-assisted manufacturing is the same as automation.
a
1. Which of the following uses robot harvesters to pick fruit from a variety of
trees?
A) Agrimation
B) Flexible manufacturing systems
C) Supply chain management
D) Computer--assisted manufacturing
E) Benchmarking
a
1. _____ is the process of managing operations control, resource acquisition and
purchasing, and inventory to improve overall efficiency and effectiveness.
A) Supply-chain management
B) Technology management
C) Design management
D) Quality control
E) Productivity control
a
1. _____ is also called procurement.
A) Automation
B) Purchasing management
C) Inventory Management
D) Materials control
E) Quality control
b
1. Which of the following is concerned with buying the materials and resources
needed to produce products and services?
A) Automation
B) Purchasing management
C) Inventory Management
D) Materials control
E) Quality control
b
1. Which of the following inventory types provides the components needed to
make the product?
A) Raw materials
B) Work-in-process
C) Merchandise
D) Finished goods
E) In-transit
A
1. Which of the following inventory types provides ready supply of products on
customer demand and enables long, efficient production runs?
A) Raw materials inventory
B) Work-in-process inventory
C) Procurements inventory
D) Finished goods inventory
E) In-transit inventory
D
1. Which of the following is a source of control for in-transit inventory?
A) Shop floor control systems
B) High-level production scheduling systems
C) Marketing
D) Distribution control systems
E) Purchasing models and systems
D
1. The purpose of an in-transit inventory is to:
A) provide the materials needed to make the product.
B) enable overall production to be divided into stages of manageable size.
C) reduce the organization's investment on storage space.
D) provide ready supply of products on customer demand and enable long,
efficient production runs.
E) distribute products to customers.
E
1. Just-in-time method helps an organization control its _____.
A) raw materials inventory
B) work-in-process inventory
C) quality
D) finished goods inventory
E) in-transit inventory
B
1. _____ is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that
bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs.
A) Inventory
B) Process
C) Quality
D) Quantity
E) Technology
C
1. Which of the following dimensions of quality refers to a measure of product
life?
A) Reliability
B) Durability
C) Serviceability
D) Features
E) Perceived quality
B
1. Dorothy loves buying Haven's herb bread. As advertised, she thinks it is the
most versatile bread as well as being nutritious. It can be eaten by itself, made
into sandwiches, added to salads, and so on. The versatility of the herb bread is
a supplement to its nutrition and therefore it constitutes the _____ dimension of
quality.
A) features
B) aesthetics
C) reliability
D) durability
E) serviceability
A
1. Sarah followed an online recipe and made pizza for her family. It turned out so
badly that she had to discard it. Sarah and her family said that the pizza tasted
like cardboard. Which dimension of quality were they describing?
A) Aesthetics
B) Conformance
C) Reliability
D) Serviceability
E) Performance
A
1. Serviceability is the dimension of quality that refers to:
A) how a product looks, feels, tastes, and smells.
B) the degree to which a product's design and operating characteristics meet
established standards.
C) a probability of not malfunctioning during a specified period.
D) a measure of product life.
E) the speed and ease of repair.
E
1. Azures Airlines operates between Washington Dulles, Newark Liberty, and
Paris Charles de Gaulle airports. It offers all business-class services. The
customers feel that the prices of Azures' flights are considerably lower than those
of other similar airlines. This quality of Azures is an example of:
A) features.
B) aesthetics.
C) reliability.
D) perceived quality.
E) serviceability.
D
1. The dimension of quality that refers to the degree to which a product's design
and operating characteristics meet established standards is:
A) features.
B) conformance.
C) reliability.
D) durability.
E) serviceability.
B
1. Performance is the dimension of quality that refers to:
A) a product's primary operating characteristic.
B) the degree to which a product's design and operating characteristics meet
established standards.
C) a probability of not malfunctioning during a specified period.
D) a measure of product life.
E) the speed and ease of repair.
A
1. Which of the following is true of the Malcolm Baldrige Award?
A) It is awarded by the Rochester Institute of Technology.
B) It is awarded to firms that achieve major improvements in the quality of their
products or services.
C) It is awarded to the company that has consistently maintained the same
quality for 5 continuous years.
D) It is awarded to the company that has shown the highest company
productivity.
E) It is awarded not to entire organizations but to individual teams of workers
within organizations.
B
1. The dimension of quality of a product that refers to a probability of not
malfunctioning during a specified period is the product's:
A) features.
B) conformance.
C) reliability.
D) durability.
E) serviceability.
D
1. Which of the following is true of ISO 9000:2000?
A) Firms get to choose the organization they want to be audited by for the
certification.
B) It includes 2000 standards that should be met.
C) These standards do not cover employee training and supplier relations.
D) Firms that want to meet these standards need to apply for certification.
E) The auditors review only the firm products in relation to the standards.
D
1. Carrington is one of the best restaurants in Chicago. Carrington's chefs have
made arrangements with local farmers to provide them with fresh and good
quality vegetables and fruits. In the context of total quality management, the
chefs are focusing on _____.
A) employee involvement
B) strategic commitment
C) technology
D) materials
E) methods
D
1. Bingo Inc. sends its consultants for change management to various companies
to learn how those companies have coped with changes in the past. Which of the
following tools or techniques is Bingo using for improving quality?
A) Benchmarking
B) Value-added analysis
C) Outsourcing
D) Reducing cycle times
E) Statistical quality control
A
1. _____ is the comprehensive evaluation of all work activities, materials flows,
and paperwork to determine the worth and appeal that they add for customers.
A) Acceptance sampling
B) Benchmarking
C) In-process sampling
D) Six Sigma
E) Value-added analysis
E
1. Virtually all successful quality-enhancement programs involve making the
person responsible for doing the job responsible for making sure it is done right.
This critical ingredient in total quality management refers to:
A) employee involvement.
B) strategic commitment.
C) technology.
D) materials.
E) methods.
A
1. Which of the following is the process of learning how other firms do things in
an exceptionally high-quality manner?
A) Value-added analysis
B) Benchmarking
C) Outsourcing
D) Reducing cycle times
E) Statistical quality control
B
1. Which of the following TQM guidelines for reducing cycle time is most
appropriate in a decentralized organization?
A) Start from scratch
B) Minimize the number of approvals needed to do something
C) Develop and adhere to a schedule
D) Do not ignore distribution
E) Integrate speed into the organization's culture
B
1. _____ is the time needed by the organization to develop, make, and distribute
products or services.
A) In-process time
B) Six Sigma time
C) Process layout time
D) Cycle time
E) Just-in-time
D
1. Which of the following guidelines for increasing speed is followed in a
bureaucratic organization?
A) Start from scratch
B) Minimize the number of approvals needed to do something
C) Develop and adhere to a schedule
D) Do not ignore distribution
E) Integrate speed into the organization's culture
C
1. Which of the following guidelines for increasing speed is followed in a
bureaucratic organization?
A) Start from scratch
B) Minimize the number of approvals needed to do something
C) Develop and adhere to a schedule
D) Do not ignore distribution
E) Integrate speed into the organization's culture
C
1. Which of the following is an example of statistical quality control?
A) Benchmarking
B) Six Sigma
C) In-process sampling
D) ISO 9000:2000
E) Outsourcing
C
1. Implementing _____ requires making corrections until errors virtually
disappear.
A) ISO 14000
B) ISO 9000:2000
C) Six Sigma
D) value-added analysis
E) statistical quality control
C
1. A factory produces 100,000 units of its product with 10 hours of direct labor.
Which of the following accurately represents the factory's labor productivity
index?
A) 1,000
B) 10
C) 10,000
D) 100
E) 1,000,000
C
1. Which of the following levels of productivity represents the total level of
productivity achieved by a country?
A) Company
B) Partial
C) Partial
D) Individual
E) Aggregate
E
1. At a stereo making factory, the employees stationed along the assembly line
are required to wear ring scanners, small electronic devices worn on their index
fingers and wired to a small computer on their wrists. As a product moves along
the assembly line and is handled by the stationed employee, its location or
progress is updated on the company's database system. This way the
management knows if there are any bottlenecks. This method of improving
operations allows the company to:
A) improve its productivity.
B) decrease fixed cost.
C) decrease its dependence on its Web site.
D) increase customer affective responses.
E) manage quality.
A
b
Management is the process of
a. maintaining the status quo.
b. planning, organizing and staffing, leading, and controlling.
c. keeping labor from taking over.
d. facilitating groups.
d
Crafting a strategic vision is typically the responsibility of a
a. first-level manager.
b. middle-level manager.
c. staff professional.
d. top-level manager.
c
Three roles or activities within entrepreneurial work that arouse passion do NOT
include:
a. opportunity recognition
b. venture growth
c. human resources
d. venture creation
a
Nick is a successful entrepreneur, so he probably emphasizes which of the following
dimensions in his work?
a. innovativeness
b. minimizing risks
c. reacting to events rather than being proactive
d. a love for the status quo
d
On the job, Candice coordinates the work of a small group of people and acts as a
catalyst. Her job title is most likely
a. vice president.
b. CEO.
c. plant general manager.
d. team leader.
a
An important role for the team leader is to
a. act as a catalyst and facilitator.
b. tightly control the work of team members.
c. set a strategic direction for the firm.
d. avoid interactions with team members.
d
Sherri Jackson is a sales manager. She searches the Internet to find new potential
markets for her products. Jackson is most directly making use of ____ resources.
a. human
b. financial
c. physical
d. information
a
Which function of management is most involved with energizing, directing, activating,
and persuading others?
a. leading
b. controlling
c. planning
d. organizing and staffing
b
With respect to creating visions, leaders often fail because they do not
a. have fancy enough visions.
b. convert their visions into results.
c. use visions for inspiration.
d. bribe people for accomplishing a vision.
b
Controlling is primarily concerned with
a. making rational decisions.
b. comparing actual performance to a predetermined standard.
c. influencing people to perform better.
d. laying out work in a logical manner.
b
The two planning roles for manager involve
a. monitoring and disturbance handling.
b. strategy and operations.
c. being a figurehead and a spokesperson.
d. team building and team play.
c
Making sure that competent persons fill positions is part of which managerial role?
a. organizer
b. liaison
c. staffing coordinator
d. resource allocator

b
With respect to managers, poor interpersonal skills
a. have a neutral impact on performance.
b. can lead to job failure.
c. are not important because "Nice guys and gals finish last."
d. only create problems at the first two levels of management.
a
Political skills should be regarded as a
a. supplement to job competence.
b. way to overcome job incompetence.
c. way of creating ambiguity on the job.
d. privilege of top management.
C
A key part of developing your managerial skills would be to
a. forget about practice as soon as you acquire a skill.
b. practice kick boxing to sharpen your reflexes.
c. obtain feedback on your performance.
d. ignore the comments of others on how well you are doing.
b
At the higher levels of management, the four roles that are the most important include::
a. organizer, visionary, team builder, facilitator.
b. liaison, spokesperson, figurehead, and strategic planner
c. environmental specialist, mentor, coach, ethics officer.
d. administrator, implementor, entrepreneur, task coordinator
d
According to Mintzberg, management is a practice, rather than a science or a
profession because
a. science is about the development of systematic knowledge through research.
b. management follows an ethical code.
c. the major purpose of management is to help get things done.
d. both a & c
b
Management as a practice,
a. began during the Industrial Revolution.
b. probably has an almost unlimited history.
c. dates back to World War II.
d. dates back to the Civil War.
c
The primary concern of the administrative management aspect of classical
management was
a. managing a company's information system.
b. teaching nonprofit organizations how to be successful.
c. how organizations should be managed and structured.
d. the application of scientific methods to increase workers' productivity.
b
According to the historically important work of Alfred D. Chandler, when choosing an
organization structure, managers should first
a. study what the competition is doing.
b. be aware of the strategy.
c. draw a hundred boxes to choose from.
d. look for the least expensive structure.
d
The behavioral approach to management emphasizes
a. developing systems for dealing with personnel problems.
b. the interaction of the firm with the environment.
c. finding the most efficient systems of production.
d. understanding people.
b
An organization may experience entropy when
a. its total output exceeds the sum of the parts.
b. it does not receive fresh inputs from the external environment.
c. too many employees call in sick in a given year.
d. three consecutive new products are winners.

a
An important subset of interpersonal skills for managers is__________the ability to work
effectively and conduct business with people from different cultures.
a. multiculturalism
b. bilingualism
c. diversity
d. multinationalism
d
You are using evidence-based management when your practice is based on
a. a recent fad.
b. what your CEO thinks is hot.
c. thinking by philosophers.
d. an established principle.
a
Evidence-based management chooses an organizational practice based on
a. the best evidence available.
b. qualitative evidence only.
c. quantitative evidence only.
d. careful forecasts.
d
A distinguishing feature of a multinational corporation is that it
a. exports some of its products and services.
b. pays comparable wages wherever it conducts business.
c. has a culturally diverse group of executives.
d. has units in two or more countries in addition to its own.
d
The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) creates liberal trading
relationships among
a. North American and Pacific Rim countries.
b. North American and European countries.
c. the United States and Canada.
d. the United States, Canada, and Mexico.
b
A concern many labor union officials have about NAFTA is that it has created
a. wealthy Canadian and Mexican workers at the expense of U.S. workers.
b. a job loss for American workers.
c. widespread violations of child labor laws.
d. limited trade between Mexico and the United States.
b
The major purpose of the European Union (EU) is to turn member countries into
a. countries with the identical currency.
b. a single marketplace for ideas, goods, and services.
c. free trade agreements with the United States.
d. fierce competitors.
b
The World Trade Organization
a. imposes tariffs on countries with a history of human rights violations.
b. liberalizes trade among many nations throughout the world.
c. lowers trade barriers and tariffs for developing countries.
d. increases trade barriers and tariffs for industrialized countries.
d
An advantage of free-trade agreements for a company like Big Moe, the paper recycler
in New Jersey, is that the company can
a. avoid paying United States income tax.
b. avoid paying New Jersey income tax.
c. import trees from China and India more readily.
d. export more easily.
a
A major advantage of offshoring for some American companies is that they
a. lower costs and therefore become more competitive.
b. raise prices to cover the costs of offshoring.
c. develop closer alliances with American labor unions.
d. can avoid participation in international business.
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c
A key characteristic of multicultural workers is that they
a. have worked for one or more multicultural organizations.
b. believe in the importance of a favorable balance of trade.
c. are convinced that all cultures are equally good.
d. can speak at least two languages fluently.
c
You are attempting to sell a British customer a corporate jet. He tells you that your
proposal "holds of bit of promise." At this point you probably
a. will sign a contract within the hour.
b. are being scrutinized for ethical violations.
c. stand a good chance of making the sale.
d. have no chance of making the sale.
d
Cultural sensitivity is
a. awareness of local and national customs
b. being extra-respectful of rank.
c. realizing the importance of local customs in effective interpersonal relationships.
d. both a & c
c
Billy is a supervisor from Billings, Montana (United States). You can tell that Billy is
ethnocentric when he
a. worries about the U. S. trade deficit.
b. decorates his cubicle with photos of cowboys, cowgirls, and their horses.
c. claims that the "real good people are only from Montana."
d. deliberately hires people who will make his group more diverse.
b
You have good global leadership skills when you can
a. go on an overseas business trip without developing culture shock.
b. effectively lead people from other cultures.
c. get diverse members of your group to work well together.
d. speak two or more languages fluently.
a
A major effect of a weak currency is that companies based in the country with the weak
currency
a. can export more readily.
b. find it more difficult to export.
c. are forced to increase their wages.
d. are forced to decrease their wages.
c
A country's balance of trade is
a. the trade deficit..
b. a trade surplus.
c. the difference between exports and imports in both goods and services.
d. the lowering of the value of currency
d
The trade deficit can be attributed to
a. the preference for Americans to purchase lower-priced goods
b. increase in the price of imported petroleum products..
c. the preference to take vacations in foreign countries.
d. all of the choices
c
The symptoms of culture shock usually stem from
a. an intense dislike for foreign cultures.
b. an electrifying experience in another country.
c. being abruptly placed in a foreign culture.
d. being forced to learn a foreign language quickly.
b
A major problem for the international business manager is
a. converting currency from one country to another.
b. revenue lost due to pirating in other countries.
c. finding countries with a large enough consumer base.
d. finding Spanish-speaking workers in the United States.
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b
A key feature of the global startup is that it
a. deposits its receipts in a Swiss bank.
b. begins business as an international company.
c. begins operations as an import-export company.
d. avoids many taxes by beginning offshore.
a
A success factor for businesses in the global marketplace is to
a. think globally, act locally.
b. diversify into quite different product markets.
c. staff most key positions with people from your own country.
d. conduct almost all business in English.
d
A major success factor in building a business in another country is
a. to hire citizens from the United States.
b. to judge candidates based on U.S. perceptions and criteria.
c. to sell American products.
d. to hire talented citizens of that country to fill important positions.
a
Diversity refers to
a. people with different group identities within the same work environment
b. developing the right foreign language skill.
c. acquiring valid information about the firm's target market.
d. reducing the trade deficit.
b
English is the official language of business because
a. diversity training has not been implemented in many companies.
b. the Internet and information technology place a heavy emphasis on English.
c. American companies have an ethnocentric point of view.
d. everyone in the world speaks English.
d
Diversity training sessions
a. focus on the ways that men and women reflect different values and attitudes.
b. focus on the ways that people of different races reflect different cultural backgrounds.
c. focus on entering international markets.
d. both a & b
c
Which one of the following is the least likely to be an advantage of cultural diversity to
the organization?
a. The company gains a marketing advantage, including increased sales and profits.
b. The company is able to recruit a wider range of talented people.
c. The company does not have to deal with different perspectives, thereby slowing down
problem solving.
d. The company advertising reduces the number of cultural bloopers and hidden biases.
d
With respect to diversity, an employee network group consists of
a. members of the same buddy group for instant messaging.
b. company employees who band together to bring complaints to management.
c. members of the same diversity training group.
d. company employees who affiliate on the basis of a demographic or cultural identity.
a
Planning is
a. a complex and comprehensive process involving interrelated stages.
b. organizing, implementing, and controlling.
c. finding the best person for a job.
d. communicating effectively with stakeholders.
a
A key difference between a vision and a mission is that
a. the mission relates more to today's realities.
b. a mission is set farther into the future.
c. a vision does not deal with products or services.
d. a vision deals more with operations.
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a
Policies serve as guidelines to action
a. that still allow for some interpretation.
b. that must be followed quite strictly.
c. for workers below the top-management level.
d. mostly in the areas of finance and human resources.
a
Which one of the following is not one of the five competitive forces that business
strategists are supposed to take into account?
a. competition among business units within the firm
b. the power of customers to affect pricing and reduce profit margins
c. the threat of similar or substitute products
d. the power of suppliers to influence the company's pricing
a
The purpose of the strategic inventory is to help the manager
a. size up the environment accurately.
b. determine how much inventory is on hand.
c. involve workers at all levels in formulating strategy.
d. develop operating plans.
a
The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to assess
a. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
b. strategy, weaknesses, options, and time.
c. satisfactions, worst options, and trade-offs.
d. successes, winners, and ominous threats.
a
Branch manager Hector establishes recycling goals for his branch to support the
company's strategic goal of being a good environmental partner. What is Hector doing?
a. tactical planning
b. strategic planning
c. long-range planning
d. vision formulation
b
McDonald's states that it would like "to satisfy the world's appetite for good food, well-
served, at a price people can afford." The preceding reflects McDonald's
a. cost-leadership strategy.
b. mission.
c. annual goal statement.
d. advertising campaign.
b
Krispy Kreme donuts, a well-known donut retailer (but much smaller than Dunkin
Donuts), most likely emphasizes which one of the following business strategies?
a. cost leadership
b. product differentiation
c. strategic alliances
d. high speed
b
The purpose of tactical planning is to
a. establish a general purpose for the organization.
b. translate strategic plans into specific goals and plans for organizational units.
c. tell entry level workers what to do on a daily basis.
d. compensate for past mistakes.
b
A recommended procedure for formulating strategy is for top-level managers to
a. form a small committee to do most of the work.
b. gather inputs from large numbers of people.
c. perform the task themselves during a retreat.
d. base strategy on fixing customer complaints.
b
A study of CEO failure indicated that 70 percent of the time their failures were attributed
to
a. poorly developed plans.
b. poor execution, not poor planning.
c. over-ambitious plans.
d. lack of adequate cost controls.
b
Assume that Motorola developed a cell and camera phone so small it comes with a
strap to wear on the wrist like a watch. Which strategy does this product launch most
likely fit?
a. cost leadership
b. product differentiation
c. focus
d. high speed
b
A functional strategy for becoming and remaining a successful organization is to
a. form a strategic alliance.
b. find and retain competent people.
c. get to market faster than others.
d. export products.
b
Suppose that Starbucks opens a nation-wide chain of carwashes, called Starbucks Car
Wash. After two years, the executive team sells of the car washes, and invests the cash
back into building more Starbucks stores. The strategy illustrated is referred to as
a. high speed.
b. sticking to core competencies.
c. product diversification.
d. a strategic alliance.
c
A contingency plan is implemented if the
a. strategic plan is too modest.
b. control processes do not work.
c. original plan cannot be implemented.
d. action plan succeeds.
c
Which one of the following is a component of true business strategy?
a. a high level of operational effectiveness
b. a set of activities common to other firms
c. giving customers trade-offs
d. having quite different activities to make similar products for different markets
c
The firm's purpose and where it fits into the world is identified by the
a. strategy.
b. policy.
c. mission.
d. objective.
c
Strategic plans are designed to
a. implement operational plans.
b. establish day-by-day procedures.
c. shape the destiny of the firm.
d. carrying out the functions of management.
c
Which one of the following strategies should be classified as a business-level strategy?
a. strategic alliances
b. diversification of goods and services
c. product differentiation
d. sticking to core competencies
d
When two pharmaceutical firms get together to market a drug, their strategy is referred
to as
a. high speed.
b. cost leadership.
c. product differentiation.
d. a strategic alliance.
d
Save-A-Lot has become one of the most successful grocery chains by serving the poor
and offering low prices. This is an example of
a. focus strategy.
b. premium pricing.
c. product differentiation
d. cost leadership
d
A manager controls the plan when he or she
a. creates a vision statement.
b. creates a mission statement.
c. establishes a budget to pay for the action plan.
d. checks to see how well goals are being attained.
d
Management by objectives (MBO) includes
a. reviewing group members' proposals.
b. creating action plans to achieve objectives.
c. establishing unit objectives.
d. all of the choices.
d
Part of Domino's Pizza's original success was based on getting pizzas delivered more
quickly than competitors. This strategy is called
a. strategic planning
b. cost leadership
c. focus.
d. high speed
a
The purpose of visualization for making better decisions under crisis is to
a. rehearse in your mind how you will react to the crisis.
b. think of all the times you have failed in the past.
c. engage in a pleasant fantasy to reduce your stress.
d. imagine how angry your boss will be if your fail.
a
The condition of groupthink is likely to occur when group members
a. strive too hard for consensus.
b. think of themselves as inferior.
c. use the step-by-step approach to decision making.
d. have different perspectives.
a
The purpose of a heuristic in decision making is to
a. simplify the decision-making process.
b. find a rapid way to explore more alternatives.
c. obtain input from a large number of people.
d. evaluate whether a decision was effective.
a
Emotional intelligence generally deals with the ability to
a. connect with people and understand their emotions.
b. stay in control while taking tests.
c. knowing how to throw a tantrum for effect.
d. using common sense to earn a living.
a
Billy is usually heavily influenced by the first information he receives on a topic. He is
under the influence of a process called
a. anchoring.
b. rationalizing.
c. trial and error.
d. emotional intelligence.
b
Marketing executive Jasmine likes to make a decision quickly as soon as enough
information is available, and she also likes to generate lots of options. Her decision-
making style is therefore characterized as,
a. decisive.
b. flexible.
c. hierarchic.
d. integrative.
b
Creativity can be defined simply as the process of
a. doing two things at once.
b. developing novel ideas that can be put into action.
c. providing feedback.
d. implementing a plan
b
The purpose of decision making is to
a. analyze a problem.
b. solve a problem.
c. collaborate..
d. involve people in the decisions.
b
A frequent decision-making error during a crisis is to
a. methodically search for alternatives
b. become less rational and more emotional.
c. become more rational and less emotional.
d. welcome differences of opinion.
b
Julio was going to recommend a new billing system for the hospital where he works.
However, he does not want to upset the executive who installed the system, so he does
not make the recommendation. Julio has fallen into the
a. overconfidence trap.
b. status quo trap.
c. anchoring trap.
d. creativity rut.
b
In making a decision, the alternative should be chosen that most clearly
a. is favored by top management.
b. achieves the goal of the decision.
c. saves the organization money.
d. leads to innovation.
b
The type of motivation necessary for creativity is a
a. desire to earn large financial bonuses.
b. passion for the task.
c. drive to win over others in competition.
d. state of inner peace and harmony.
c
A research study showed that with respect to work creativity, encouragement from
family and friends
a. had zero impact.
b. resulted in interference.
c. made a contribution.
d. made a contribution providing that the supervisor gave little encouragement.
c
A recommendation for becoming more adept at making decisions under crisis
conditions is
a. to establish a special committee.
b. to avoid taking risks.
c. to anticipate crises
d. to avoid speaking to the media.
c
The flow experience refers to
a. the ultimate involvement in work
b. a condition of heightened focus, productivity, and happiness.
c. both a & b
d. a design that allows for the flow of ideas, such as common meeting areas.
c
Information technology executive Darryl likes to pore over a lot of information before
making a decision, and he also likes to commit to one course of action. His decision-
making style is therefore characterized as
a. decisive.
b. flexible.
c. hierarchic.
d. integrative.
c
A major advantage of group decision making is that
a. it makes efficient use of time.
b. it results in low risk taking.
c. members are likely to be committed to a decision.
d. it eliminates passing the blame onto others.
c
A distinguishing feature of the nominal group technique is that
a. criticism and discussion are disallowed.
b. a small group of people is assembled.
c. alternatives are rated and the best-rated one is chosen.
d. the group is placed on a tight time limit.
c
Which one of the following is the most recommended approach for a manager to
enhance creativity within the group?
a. Staff the group with people of quite similar intellectual backgrounds.
b. Keep risk taking to a minimum.
c. Give support in terms of financial rewards and recognition.
d. Prevent lethargy by making many discouraging comments.
d
Managers can establish a creative atmosphere by
a. allotting time and money carefully.
b. giving employees the freedom to choose how to accomplish a goal.
c. giving employees the right type and amount of challenge.
d. all of the choices
d
A problem is technically defined as a discrepancy between the
a. past and present.
b. future and present.
c. person's wishes and desires.
d. ideal and actual conditions.
d
A key aspect of lateral thinking is that it
a. focuses on few answers to a problem.
b. is needed more in manufacturing than in marketing.
c. decreases the number of wasted alternative solutions.
d. leads to many different solutions to a problem.
d
To say that a decision is based on political considerations means that it is not based on
a. alliances with others.
b. thoughts of acquiring power.
c. both sides of an issue.
d. the objective merits of the situation.
d
A major reason that decision making is often not such a rational process is that there
are
a. too many stages in decision making for most people to cope with.
b. natural biases against diagnosing problems.
c. few bounds to human decision-making capability.
d. limits to how much information people can process and recall.
d
Self-help techniques for improving creativity generally aim toward
a. getting people involved in new hobbies.
b. encouraging group problem solving.
c. improving one's sense of humor.
d. improving the flexibility of one's thinking.
a
A decision tree graphically depicts
a. the alternative solutions available to solve a problem.
b. cause and effect relationships.
c. how much inventory to keep on hand.
d. the states of nature.
a
Fixed cost in break-even analysis refers to the cost that
a. remains constant no matter how many units are produced.
b. covers the initial capital expenditures.
c. covers everything but employee compensation.
d. declines after the break-even point has been reached
a
The World Future Society predicts that 100 million people with telecommute by the year
2015, illustrating a(n) ____ forecast.
a. economic
b. sales
c. technological
d. doomsday
a
The two major variables considered by Gantt charts and milestone charts are
a. planned and actual work.
b. past and present.
c. time and motion.
d. price and cost.
a
Break-even analysis indicates the ____ that will be necessary to justify a new expense.
a. increase in sales.
b. increase in costs.
c. amount of profit.
d. volume of activity.
a
Richard is a data-driven manager, so he tells subordinates,
a. "Don't politic, use data."
b. "Politic, don't use data."
c. "Pay for your own lunch while on a business trip."
d. "Donate 10 percent of your gross income to charity."
b
Juanita is a data-driven manager, so she
a. minimizes interaction with people when working.
b. bases her decisions on facts.
c. finely tunes her intuition.
d. emphasizes politics in her decision making.
b
In addition to estimating the time required for activities, advanced applications of PERT
estimate the
a. job satisfaction associated with the task.
b. amount of resources to needed to accomplish the job.
c. productivity bonuses paid to workers who finish on schedule.
d. starting day of the project.
b
Just-in-time inventory's often referred to
a. supply-chain management
b. as lean manufacturing because waste of "fat" is minimized.
c. operations management.
d. as custom manufacturing.
b
A decision tree is considered particularly useful in
a. evaluating costs over the life of a project.
b. making a sequence of decisions.
c. estimating the length of time required to achieve given return on investment.
d. determining when to drop a product line.
b
A Pareto diagram is
a. an inventory method
b. a bar graph that ranks types of output variations by frequency of occurrence.
c. a forecasting tool.
d. a scenario for the future
b
The critical path is the path through the PERT network with the
a. shortest completion time.
b. longest completion time.
c. most probable time.
d. pessimistic time.
b
CEO Maria is so convinced that company sales will triple, that she commits the
company to lavish new expenses without making contingency plans if the sales growth
does not take place. Maria might be falling into the
a. prudence trap.
b. overconfidence trap.
c. recallability trap.
d. subjective thinking trap.
b
The results of a time-series analysis are best represented by a(n)
a. equation with two variables.
b. chart or graph showing past trends and predicted future trends.
c. verbal summary of expert opinions.
d. pie chart of the various components of the analysis.
c
The numbers in a PERT network refer to the
a. amount of time consumed by events.
b. completion date for projects.
c. time required to complete activities between events.
d. average of the optimistic and pessimistic times.
c
An expected value for a decision tree is the value you would expect if
a. you calculated how much revenue is needed to break even.
b. your business were sold within 30 days.
c. a particular decision is made a large number of times.
d. you took a poll of what people want.
c
A judgmental forecast is
a. based on a collection of subjective opinions..
b. a qualitative forecasting method.
c. both a & b
d. a quantitative forecasting method.
c
The just in time system of inventory control relies on
a. cards, to communicate production requirements from the final point of assembly to
the manufacturing operations that precede it.
b. kanbans
c. both a & b
d. shipping directly from suppliers.
c
Sell the most recently received items first is called
a. FIFO
b. JIT
c. LIFO
d. Wholesaling
d
With a more refined application of PERT, the optimistic, pessimistic, and most probable
times should be based on
a. Bureau of Labor Statistics estimates.
b. the intuition of someone new to the task.
c. the intuition of a well-experienced worker.
d. a frequency distribution of estimates.
d
A major reason that forecasting is so important in business is that
a. customers often demand forecasts before they purchase equipment.
b. forecasts accurately describe a company's history.
c. forecasts are good for spotting errors in current operations.
d. spotting trends can give you an edge over the competition.
d
The economic-order quantity (EOQ) suggests the
a. right size orders to take.
b. break-even point for storing inventory.
c. break-even point for sales orders.
d. right amount of inventory to store.
d
Under a just-in-time inventory system, inventory is moved into a plant as soon as
a. the supplier can deliver.
b. the manufacturer has shelf space.
c. it can be bought at the right price.
d. it is needed.
d
Under the inventory system, FIFO, you sell
a. by shipping directly from one of your suppliers.
b. the first goods you obtained last
c. the last goods you obtained first.
d. the first goods you obtained first.
d
The break-even point occurs when
a. fixed costs and fixed revenues are equal.
b. variable costs and variable revenues are equal.
c. the units produced equal the units sold.
d. total costs and total revenues are equal.
a
Job embeddedness refers to
a. the array of forces attaching people to their jobs.
b. the physical and mental changes individuals make in the task or relationship aspects
of their job.
c. a temporary switching of job assignments.
d. increasing the number and variety of tasks within a job.
a
A job contains high task significance when the
a. work output touches the lives of many people.
b. work output earns a profit for the firm.
c. job holder has varied working hours.
d. job holder receives frequent feedback from the boss.
a
Airplane mechanic Clyde tells his boss, "This job is killing my back. Crawling into small
places every day is more than I can tolerate." Which job sub-dimension is Clyde
complaining about?
a. ergonomics
b. interdependence
c. skill variety
d. work methods autonomy
a
A job description is a written statement of the
a. key features of a job.
b. qualifications necessary to fill a job.
c. design features of a job.
d. degree of specialization within a job.
a
An enriched job typically includes the element of
a. control over resources.
b. indirect communication authority.
c. routine experiences.
d. limited personal accountability.
a
A study showed that a major reason why employees are hesitant to use the flextime
option is that they
a. are concerned about appearing uncommitted to work.
b. dislike starting work so early.
c. dislike staying so late at work.
d. cannot afford the reduction in pay.
a
Which of the following is the least effective method for preventing cumulative trauma
disorder?
a. use the computer mouse whenever possible
b. rotate jobs to reduce repetitive hand and body movements
c. install equipment that minimizes awkward hand and body movements
d. use voice recognition systems as a substitute for keyboarding
a
Workers with high job involvement will
a. identify psychologically with their work.
b. involve others in getting their work done.
c. separate their self-image from their work.
d. search for horizontal job loading.
a
Which one of the following is not a common type of job crafting? Making changes in
a. the pay structure of a job.
b. the number and types of job tasks.
c. the interactions with others on the job.
d. one's view of a job.
b
Contingent workers
a. share jobs with other employees.
b. are only hired when they are needed.
c. always work less than 40 hours per week.
d. work for more than one employer at a time.
b
High-performance work system is a way of organizing work so that
a. jobs are enlarged
b. front-line workers participate in decisions that have an impact on their jobs and the
wider organization.
c. jobs are rotated.
d. telecommuting can take place.
b
Marvin's job involves selling used trucks. To boost his job satisfaction, Marvin's boss
authorizes him to tell the dealer when a truck needs a paint job in order to sell. Which
task characteristic has been added to Marvin's job?
a. feedback from the job
b. decision-making authority
c. work methods autonomy
d. task significance
b
Before implementing a program of job enrichment it is recommended that the manager
a. grant immediate pay increases.
b. find out if employees want an enriched job.
c. rewrite job descriptions for all employees involved.
d. empower employees to enrich their own jobs.
c
Priscilla, a customer service representative at a call center, adds to her job by asking
customers how much they liked their previous purchase. Priscilla is engaged in job
a. simplification.
b. rotation.
c. crafting.
d. specialization.
c
Zeke is in charge of stocking shelves in the soft-drink aisle in a supermarket. To apply
job enlargement, the store manager might
a. allow Zeke to do market research about soft-drink consumption.
b. schedule Zeke to switch back and forth between stocking the soft-drink and pet-food
aisles.
c. give Zeke the additional permanent assignment of also stocking the dry-cereal
section.
d. assign Zeke flexible working hours.

c
c
A modified work schedule
a. is any formal departure from the traditional hours of work.
b. excludes shift work and staggered work hours.
c. both a & b
d. leads to ergonomic problems.
c
In the job characteristics model, the task dimension of autonomy leads to
a. skill variety.
b. a feeling of meaningfulness.
c. a feeling of responsibility for work outcomes.
d. job satisfaction.
c
A potential disadvantage of telecommuting is that workers at home are likely to
a. work on weekends.
b. face distractions at home.
c. feel isolation from coworkers.
d. feel exploited.
c
Job sharing is a work arrangement in which
a. two people who work part-time share one job.
b. salary and benefits are prorated for the half-time workers.
c. both a & b
d. employees work from home
c
Control over method in job enrichment means that the worker
a. communicates directly with the client or customer.
b. must present to management an analysis of the best method.
c. chooses the method to accomplish the assigned task.
d. must try a new method for accomplishing the task.
c
According to the policy of job sharing,
a. high-paid workers share pay with low-paid workers.
b. workers without an office share get to use the offices of those belonging to managers.
c. two part-time workers share one job.
d. workers delegate work to those lower in rank.
c
According to the method of creating high-performance jobs by adjusting resources,
bookkeeper Pam will perform at her best when she
a. gets paid more than most bookkeepers.
b. creates her own resources.
c. gets all the resources she needs to do her job.
d. consults regularly with a human resources specialist.
d
An experiment about noise levels with female clerical workers demonstrated that the
workers exposed to noise
a. increased their productivity levels.
b. capitalized more on ergonomic features of their work furniture.
c. experienced inner-ear damage.
d. developed high levels of stress hormones in the blood.
d
A major benefit of job specialization is that it allows for
a. a flexible work force.
b. enrichment of virtually all jobs.
c. excellent coordination of contributors to a total job.
d. the development of expertise at all occupational levels.
d
A major characteristic of a high-performance work system in a manufacturing
environment is that
a. workers are allowed limited rest breaks.
b. time and motion studies dictate work methods.
c. supervisors make all the important decisions.
d. workers participate in making decisions that have an impact.
c
Business ethics deals primarily with
a. social responsibility
b. the pricing of products and services
c. moral obligation
d. being unfair to the competition
b
Ethics is the vehicle that
a. guides most human resource policies
b. convert values into action
c. creates moral dilemmas for people
d. converts moral worker into immoral ones
a
Bonita is an ethically centered production manager so she will ship a product.
a. only after all its problem have been eliminated
b. only if the shipping people use packing material that does not harm the environment
c. only after an ethics committee has approved it
d. as quickly as she can to meet the customer's schedule
d
According to a survey of questionable workplace behavior observed by employees,
which one of the following was at the top of the list.
a. sexual harassment
b. selling company property on Ebay
c. baking cookies for C-level executives
d. abusive intimidating behavior toward employees
c
According to concept of moral laxity, workers will often behave unethically because
a. they have planned to be unethical
b. they come from dysfunctional families
c. other issues seem more important at the time
d. management pressures them into unethical behavior.
a
An experiment about negotiations conducted with graduate business students revealed
that they would
a. misrepresent the truth to gain advantage
b. not lie even if it meant losing advantage.
c. Curse and intimidate the opponents to win
d. curse and intimidate the arbitrator to win.
c
Unconscious biases can lead to unethical behavior because the biases sometimes
a. create self-hatred
b. propel usu to search the maximum profit in each situation
c. lead us to behave in unjust ways
a
A justification for job crafting is that job descriptions
a. have become too rigid to fit today's job roles.
b. must be followed carefully for maximum efficiency.
c. are now developed by workers themselves.
d.are becoming standardized throughout a given industry
a
A key factor that predisposes workers to carpal tunnel syndrome is
a. spending many non-working hours keyboarding.
b. consuming too many diet soft drinks.
c. keyboarding under limited illumination.
d. oversleeping
c
A potential disadvantage of telecommuting is that working at home is likely to
a. contribute to decreased productivity.
b. lead to inflexible work schedules for telecommuters.
c. reinforce negative tendencies such as procrastination.
d. increase real estate costs for the corporation.
b
In establishing a telecommuting program, it is recommended that managers choose
workers who
a. have performed poorly in the office.
b. have performed well in the office.
c. enjoy sleeping late, and snacking throughout the workday.
d. have had problems getting along with others in the office.
b
According to the policy of hoteling, the worker who travels frequently
a. is charged rent when on company premises.
b. just gets to use office space when in town.
c. must share a locker with two other workers.
d. must stay only at company-approved hotels.
c
The clearest example of a staff department in a manufacturing organization would be
a. sales.
b. operations.
c. food services.
d. quality assurance.
a
The radical redesign of work to achieve substantial improvements in performance is
called:
a. reengineering
b. job design
c. downsizing
d. resistance to change
a
Flexible organization structures, such as project and matrix structures, are the most
likely to be found in
a. high-technology firms.
b. lumber mills.
c. pasta factories.
d. poultry processing plants.
a
The organization structure best suited to gaining the advantage of specialization is ____
departmentalization.
a. functional
b. geographic
c. product
d. matrix
a
An important emphasis of a Six Sigma program is to
a. prevent problems.
b. punish employees who perform sloppy work.
c. minimize the behavioral aspects of achieving high quality.
d. base quality standards on individual differences.
a
A recommended technique for gaining support for change is to
a. discuss and negotiate sensitive issues.
b. figure out what to do as one goes along.
c. discourage worker participation in the changes.
d. avoid discussion about financial consequences.
a
A matrix organization can be described as a(n) ____ structure superimposed on a ____
structure.
a. project; functional
b. product; territorial
c. process; product
d. informal; formal
a
The primary way that employees learn the organization culture is through
a. the process of socialization.
b. studying the company Website.
c. studying the company intranet.
d. making mistakes and then being corrected.
a
You know that you are a homesourcing agent when you
a. perform call center duties out of your home.
b. sell products from door to door.
c. organize parties in your home to sell products.
d. work in a large call center responding to problems with consumer products.
b
A notable disadvantage of a bureaucracy is that it often leads to
a. unclear managerial responsibility.
b. rigidity in dealing with people.
c. an insufficient amount of rules and regulations.
d. wide of span of control.
b
The foundation of an organizational culture is the organization's
a. relative diversity.
b. values.
c. resource allocation and rewards.
d. degree of change
b
Companies such as Dell purchase complete designs for some digital devices from
Asian developers. This is called
a. division of labor
b. outsourcing
c. implementing
d. scenario planning
b
A suggestion for effective delegation is to
a. delegate part of a task.
b. give as much instruction as needed.
c. closely monitor the details.
d. assign the task to the highest-ranking company official.
b
One of the reasons that bureaucracies have endured is that they
a. provide ample opportunity for risk taking and thrill seeking.
b. help satisfy people's need for order and security.
c. were designed with the age of the Internet in mind.
d. are almost immune to downsizing.
c
Downsizing is the most likely to be successful when
a. high-value activity is eliminated first.
b. information about the pending layoff is held back from employees.
c. it is part of the business strategy to improve the company.
d. it is a stopgap measure to save the company money.
c
A key advantage of geographic departmentalization is that it allows for
a. decision making at a local level
b. consideration of the local culture.
c. a & b
d. a one size fits all strategy
c
A disadvantage of product-service departmentalization is that
a. customer needs may be neglected.
b. field units lack authority.
c. it often leads to duplication of effort.
d. employees rarely identify with the field units.
d
To become part of the informal organization structure, you should
a. study the company organization chart carefully.
b. become a temporary worker.
c. send your résumé to key managers.
d. establish a network of contacts to help you accomplish work.
d
An example of a horizontal organization structure would be a
a. department producing an engine.
b. team assembling components for company machines.
c. purchasing department.
d. team responsible for filling orders.
d
Long John Silver's central headquarters exercises tight control over such matters as
menu selection; however, franchises make human resource decisions such as hiring.
This is an example of
a. centralization
b. decentralization
c. specialization
d. centralization and decentralization
d
The dimension or organization culture called a sense of ownership, typically comes
about when
a. the company helps employees purchase houses.
b. employees develop pride in the company.
c. the company helps employees get out of debt.
d. employees purchase stock in the company.
d
A wide span of control is advised when
a. there is considerable flux in the work setting.
b. group members perform similar tasks.
c. group members are physically dispersed.
d. group members and the manager are highly capable.
d
The right organizational culture can enhance
a. productivity, quality, and morale.
b. person-organization fit.
c. competitive advantage.
d. all of the choices
d
CEO Justin wants to sustain the company's culture. One of the recommended actions
he can take is to
a. suggest that employees decide on their own culture.
b. bring outsiders into the company whose values clash with the company's culture.
c. include a statement of the company's desired culture in the annual report.
d. serve as a role model for the desired attitudes and behaviors.
d
In the Model for Change, ______________involves reducing or eliminating resistance to
change.
a. Refreezing
b. Changing
c. Thawing
d. Unfreezing .
a
The organization structure best suited to gaining the advantage of specialization is
_______________ departmentalization.
a. functional
b. geographic
c. product
d. matrix
a
The organization of GE Capital into Commercial Finance, Consumer Finance,
Equipment Management, and Insurance best illustrates the
__________________structure
a. product-service
b. matrix
c. functional
d. geographic
a
A matrix organization can be described as a(n) _______________structure
superimposed on a _______________ structure.
a. project; functional
b. product; territorial
c. process; product
d. informal; formal
b
The speed boat division of a company based in Bay City, Michigan (USA) knows it has
been subject to offshoring when the
a. division now makes tractors instead of boats.
b. boats are now made in Taiwan.
c. customer service unit is now staffed by people working out of their homes.
d. less complex components of the boats are imported from Mexico.
a
Don has a functional mindset, and therefore would be likely to
a. think more about his specialty than working collaboratively.
b. establish a tight schedule of goals.
c. focus too much on the work process instead of his own work.
d. be too eager to collaborate with workers with other specialties.
d
A centralized firm tends to
a. have a very small corporate staff.
b. eliminate the need for a corporate headquarters building.
c. turn over substantial control to decentralized units.
d. exercise control over decentralized units.
d
A major reason that organizational mergers often fail is that
a. both companies have strong cultures.
b. both sides have weak cultures.
c. one of the two firms is lacking a culture.
d. the two corporate cultures are incompatible.
d
One of the components for bring about organizational change in the DICE framework
for change management is
a. for the change initiative to drag on for a long time.
b. the change task to be delegated to small taskforce.
c. inexperienced people to be assigned to the change efforts.
d. commitment of senior executives and staff.
a
A multicultural employee
a. is able to conduct business in another culture.
b. was raised in a multicultural environment.
c. speaks three or more languages fluently.
d. has experience working in other countries.
a
A ranking system that requires managers to rank each employee within each unit and
distribute raises and bonuses accordingly is called
a. stack-ranking
b. 360-degree feedback
c. employee benefits
d. workman's compensation
a
An affirmative action program must comply with anti-discrimination law and
a. create managerial opportunities for minorities and women.
b. change employee attitudes about discrimination.
c. increase minority hiring by 40 percent.
d. increase minority pay by 40 percent.
a
According to federal laws prohibiting discrimination, it is illegal to discriminate against
people
a. in any aspect of employment.
b. mostly with respect to hiring.
c. mostly with respect to transfer, promotion, layoff, or recall.
d. mostly with respect to recruitment and testing.
a
The purpose of a realistic job preview is to give the job applicant a(n)
a. accurate picture of the potential problems within the job.
b. accurate picture of the earnings potential within the job.
c. thorough analysis of his or her perceived strengths.
d. thorough analysis of his or her perceived weaknesses.
a
A specific way in which human resources contributes to business strategy is by
a. helping to build high-performance work practices.
b. organizing company picnics.
c. making PowerPoint presentations to top management.
d. helping to prepare job descriptions.
b
Human resources executive Sarah says, "I finally have a seat at the table." She most
likely is implying that
a. she is allowed into the executive dining room.
b. her work is tied in with company business strategy.
c. she no longer has to stand in the back of the room during meetings.
d. she will be allowed to negotiate with the labor union.
b
Performance, as measured in performance evaluation systems, appears to have the
three following components:
a. task performance, interpersonal performance, and mental performance
b. task performance, citizenship performance, and counterproductive performance
c. past performance, present performance, and future performance
d. performance related to customers, the manager, and coworkers
b
Lucy applies for the position of ambulance medic. To give her a job simulation
screening test, the interviewer
a. asks her to say the alphabet backwards in three minutes.
b. has her stop the bleeding of an accident victim.
c. interviews her in an ambulance.
d. interviews her in an operating room.
b
All of the big five personality factors
a. are included in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
b. influence job performance.
c. are part of measuring the person-organization fit.
d. create job problems, if present.
b
A concern is that in some industries, union demands for compensation
a. include variable pay.
b. have made it difficult for companies to remain competitive.
c. include wellness clinics.
d. seek unfair treatment for workers.
b
Online recruiting
a. now accounts for about 80% of external hires.
b. occurs on social networking Web sites such as Facebook, LinkedIn, and Twitter.
c. is considered discriminatory because they require computer literacy.
d. suffers from not attracting a large enough number of inquiries.
c
Recruiting is the process of
a. attracting job candidates.
b. finding candidates with the right characteristics and skills to fill job openings.
c. both a & b
d. training job candidates.
c
The general purpose of strategic human resource planning is to
a. develop selection systems to meet the needs of the firm.
b. control costs in carrying out the human resource function.
c. identify skills needed for the success of the business.
d. ensure that business strategy does not neglect people.
c
E-learning, is least likely to be effective for teaching
a. financial ratios.
b. product information.
c. interpersonal skills.
d. software skills.
c
According to the theory of job imbeddedness, whether employees stay with a firm
depends on
a. how long a worker has held the job.
b. how well the employee is liked by coworkers.
c. a variety of factors on and off the job.
d. the worker's demographic characteristics.
c
360-degree feedback is
a. a performance appraisal.
b. an evaluation using a sampling of all the people with whom an employee interacts.
c. both a & b
d. a selection tool.
d
Much informal learning takes place
a. in meetings
b. on breaks
c. in customer interactions
d. all of the choices
d
A job specification describes the
a. working conditions encountered on the job.
b. pay and benefits associated with the job.
c. demands of the job.
d. qualifications needed for the job.
d
A key advantage of delivering training content by MP3 players is that workers can
a. listen to music while being trained.
b. impress customers with how cool they look.
c. design their own training content.
d. receive training during spare moments.
d
Forced rankings
a. evaluate employees against a performance standard.
b. measure employees against one another.
c. select an outstanding performer.
d. both a & b.
d
Performance evaluation methods are usually designed to measure
a. traits
b. behavior.
c. results.
d. all of the choices
d
An example of a workplace factor that could lead to turnover is
a. a booming economy with many job opportunities.
b. a worker's limited ability to cope with the job demands.
c. job-hopping tendencies of the worker.
d. lack of emotional support from the supervisor.
d
Under a variable pay system, workers receive some of their pay based on
a. demonstration of skills.
b. demonstration of competencies the company needs for its success.
c. number of years of employment.
d. actual job performance.
d
An example of a knock out question for a flight attendant would be
a. "Would you want a child of yours to be an airplane pilot?"
b. "Are you currently employed?"
c. "Who invented the airplane?"
d. "Are you afraid of flying?"
b
The leading cause of job failures is
a. a dislike for rules and regulations.
b. a poor fit between the worker and the organizational culture.
c. an inability to understand job requirements.
d. insufficient technical knowledge.
b
A useful Internet alternative to using job boards for employee recruiting is
a. chat rooms where people are looking for dates.
b. the career section of a company Website.
c. to attract the attention of eBay surfers.
d. to use pop-up ads to attract the attention of job hunters.
d
You know that you are being evaluated by a forced ranking system when you are
placed in the category of
a. meets requirements
b. counterproductive employee
c. outstanding performer
d. top 20 percent.
c
Amy has just received her 360-degree feedback appraisal. This means she was
evaluated
a. by a circle of managers.
b. on many different dimensions of job performance.
c. by a sampling of the people she interacts with.
d. on many different days during the year.
a
An alternative suggested for a formal appraisal system is for
a. managers to have regular face-to-face discussions with employees about their
performance.
b. employees to provide written evaluations of their own performance.
c. all employees in a certain category to receive the same salary increase.
d. employees to work on group goals rather than individual goals.
d
On average, the benefits for a job usually run about _______________ percent of
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 35
b
In the United States, the unionization rate for which of the following groups is the
highest?
a. manufacturing workers
b. government workers
c. managers
d. private-industry workers
A
In organizations, leadership can be exerted
a. by many people, as well as managers.
b. only by the top two levels of management.
c. only on permanent assignments.
d. by people with or without leadership capability.
c
In contrast to management, leadership
a. is more scientific.
b. relies more on planning and controlling.
c. involves many approaches to persuasion.
d. relies on universal skills.
d
Team members must identify with the leader in order for the leader to exercise
_________ power.
a. reward
b. coercive
c. legitimate
d. referent
d
A key aspect of leading by example is for the leader to
a. set high goals for group members.
b. be assertive with group members.
c. appeal to the rationality of group members
d. show a consistency between thoughts and words.
b
Leading by values is similar to influencing people through
a. giving them rewards for good deeds.
b. the organization culture.
c. being assertive.
d. exchange of favors.
c
When a leader empowers employees, the leader accepts them as
a. part of his or her zone of indifference.
b. workers with higher rank than himself or herself.
c. partners in decision making.
d. leaders by example.
a
Mitch exercises self-leadership when he
a. leads himself to accomplish a difficult but important task.
b. asks for a raise outside of a performance evaluation meeting.
c. gets coworkers to recommend him for a promotion.
d. encourages coworkers to perform well.
d
A recommended way for the leader to encourage self-leadership is to
a. threaten to punish workers who do not practice self-leadership.
b. practice micromanagement.
c. avoid workers so they will have to work on their own.
d. set an example of self-leadership by making work enjoyable.
b
A major characteristic of high achieving leaders is that they are
a. somewhat indifferent about the technology around them.
b. passionate about their work.
c. low on achievement motivation.
d. medium with respect to emotional intelligence.
a
For best results, the leader should combine self-confidence with
a. humility.
b. arrogance.
c. dishonesty.
d. a little sarcasm.
b
Under a policy of open-book management, workers are
a. expected to be totally honest with management.
b.exposed to financial details of the firm.
c. empowered to set their own wage rates.
d. expected to manage the financial aspects of their organizational units.
a
Feedback is considered very important as a way of
a. influencing behavior.
b. developing charisma.
c. manipulating team members.
d. exerting coercive power.
c
Which one of the following is the least likely to be an effective leadership behavior?
a. giving and receiving frequent feedback
b. setting high performance standards for group members
c. being the opposite of a servant leader
d. quick recovery from setbacks
a
A major part of effective crisis leadership is for the leader to
a. present a plan for working out of the crisis.
b. point blame for the crisis in the right direction.
c. be excitable and angry.
d. delay decision making until a study of the crisis is completed.
b
A major aspect of being a consensus leader is to
a. retain considerable decision-making authority.
b. hold group discussions before making a decision.
c. confer with group members individually.
d. take a vote before making a final decision.
a
Soliciting suggestions for business improvement from front-line employees is an
example of____________ leadership.
a. participative
b. rational
c. authoritarian
d. charismatic
b
According to the Leadership Grid, which style of leadership leads to trust and respect?
a. authoritarian management.
b. sound management.
c. extraverted management.
d. crisis management
b
In Situational Leadership II, leaders adapt their behavior to the level of __________ and
_________ of a particular subordinate on a given task.
a. intelligence, personality
b.competence, commitment
c. goals, motives
d. knowledge, experience
c
According to the Situational II model, the Coaching leadership style should be matched
with which type of group member
a.enthusiastic beginner
b. self-reliant achiever
c. disillusioned learner
d. capable but cautious performer
c
A notable characteristic of an entrepreneurial leader is a(n)
a. patient, plodding approach to problems.
b. passion for hierarchy and bureaucracy.
c. exceptional degree of enthusiasm.
d. exceptional degree of pessimism.
a
A study of the leadership styles of about 3,900 leaders found that leaders who achieved
the best results,
a. changed their style to fit the situation.
b. stayed with one effective style in different situations.
c. were more authoritarian in the morning than in the afternoon.
d. systematically used the five different Leadership Grid styles
a
A major result of the characteristics of transformational and charismatic leaders is that
they are able to
a. inspire group members.
b. intimidate group members.
c. get coworkers to support each other.
d. get group members to compete against one another.
d
A recommendation for developing charisma is to
a. be laid back and aloof.
b. encourage people to lead themselves.
c. keep emotions under tight control.
d. smile frequently, even when not happy.
c
Shadowing as a mentoring technique involves
a. the mentor providing frequent feedback to the person mentored.
b. having a series of mentors.
c. observing the mentor by following him or her around.
d. showing considerable respect for the mentor in meetings.
b
An example of a leadership skill would be
a. extraversion.
b. motivating others.
c. emotional stability.
d. conscientiousness.
a
Employee commitment often comes about as a consequence of
a. being well motivated over time.
b. threats of punishment.
c. being motivated for a single task.
d. having the appropriate job skills.
a
Stock options give the people granted the option the opportunity to
a. purchase stock at a later date at a price established now.
b. share directly in the profits of the firm.
c. purchase company stock anytime at a specific discount.
d. purchase stock of any company through online trading.
a
Gainsharing is
a. a program allowing employees to participate financially in the productivity gains they
achieved.
b. the same as stock options.
c. a type of empowerment.
d. a management style.
a
Praising workers for good performance is a type of
a. informal recognition..
b. formal recognition.
c. valence
d. management
a
The achievement need refers to
a. finding joy in accomplishment for its own sake.
b. improving employee retention.
c. forming friendships.
d. increasing employee turnover.
a
Having pride in your work is considered to be a(n)
a. internal motivator.
b. external motivator.
c. weak motivator.
d. feeling that occurs mostly early in one's career
a
A potential problem with relying on goals to motivate workers is that
a. they might use unethical means to attain goals.
b. they might receive praise from a supervisor.
c. they might receive a sense of satisfaction from a job well done.
d. it might lead to turnover.
b
A goal is most likely to improve performance when it is
a. relatively easy.
b. specific rather than general.
c. not used to evaluate performance.
d. not linked to rewards.
b
Luis, a commercial real estate agent, says "I'm almost sure that if I close this deal the
company will give me a bonus." Luis is demonstrating a high
a. EP expectancy.
b. PO instrumentality.
c. valence.
d. need for affiliation.
b
A team leader wants Kristin, a customer-service representative, to keep up her fine
record of resolving customer complaints. The team leader should compliment Kristin
a. at the end of every workday.
b. every so often when she resolves a tough problem.
c. even when she is unable to resolve a tough problem.
d. each Monday through Thursday, but not on Friday.
b
Which one of the following statements best fits the category of a superordinate goal at
the manufacturer of latex gloves?
a. "Let's find a way to cut back on skin rashes from wearing our gloves."
b. "The purpose of our latex gloves is to save lives."
c. "Let's exceed last year's sales by 20 percent this year."
d. "Let's diversify into foot protectors."
b
An accurate example of a cross-cultural difference in rewards is that
a. most Asian workers want public recognition.
b. workers from a poor country might prefer a practical reward.
c. Italian workers prefer gift certificates to stores like Wal-Mart.
d. Chinese women who sell beauty products dislike tangible rewards.
b
Job satisfiers or motivators, according to the two-factor theory, relate to the
a. financial bonuses associated with the job.
b. content of the job.
c. working conditions surrounding the job.
d. benefits associated with the job.
b
A recommended way for a manager to motivate through pride is to
a. offer financial incentives for displays of pride.
b. celebrate attaining small goals as much as attaining the major goal.
c. celebrate attaining the major goal, and pay little attention to small goals.
d. distribute T-shirts, hats, and cups that read, "I am proud."
c
Which of the following job factors is most accurately classified as a dissatisfier?
a. opportunity for advancement
b. recognition for good work
c. working conditions
d. responsibility
c
The need for risk taking and thrill seeking
a. almost always has negative consequences for the employer.
b. is ill-suited for the high technology era.
c. can find constructive outlets on the job.
d. lies close to the bottom of the need hierarchy
c
The employee motivation program at Dollar General illustrates that
a. people who work in discount stores demand luxury prizes.
b. only financial motivators are effective.
c. with even modest rewards, positive reinforcement can help a company attain its
goals.
d. the most effective rewards are low-priced merchandise.
c
A factor contributing today to the relevance of the need hierarchy is that
a. job security has reached new heights in recent years.
b. money is no longer a significant motivator.
c. so many workers have to worry about satisfying basic needs.
d. many companies sponsor programs of self-actualization.
c
The final group of needs in Maslow's need hierarchy is
a. physiological needs.
b. esteem needs.
c. self-actualizing needs.
d. social needs.
c
People who justify such high executive compensation say the large payments are
necessary
a. to attract and retain top talent.
b. to keep the executives motivated.
c. both a & b
d. to use profit sharing.
d
According to recent evidence about employee engagement, most American workers are
a. so engaged in their work they risk becoming alcoholics.
b. usually engaged in their work for the first four hours of the day.
c. so unengaged in their work they are a liability to their employer.
d. not fully engaged in their work.
d
Which one of the following job factors is considered important for motivating the young
generation of workers?
a. close monitoring of work such as through time clocks
b. limited vacations
c. minimizing feedback
d. loads of responsibility
d
Laboratory supervisor Sasha, is attempting to use the Pygmalion effect when she says
to her group,
a. "We will soon be implementing a bonus system."
b. "Who in this lab is not smart enough to do his or her job?"
c. "We may not have the best lab group in the company, but we do try."
d. "I know that we will exceed our quota of useful ideas this year."
d
Drives or needs are hardwired into our brains include the:
a. drive to acquire scare goods.
b. drive to bond.
c. drive to comprehend.
d. all of the choices
d
A thrust in linking pay to performance is to attempt to link pay to
a. performance as good as the employee's best year.
b. team rather than individual performance.
c. how long the employee has been with the firm.
d. performance that supports the business strategy.
a
A sophisticated recognition program would attempt to give recognition rewards to
activities that
a. are tied to corporate objectives.
b. contribute to team spirit.
c. help a person get promoted. d. make the manager look good.
b
An important consequence of reward and recognition programs is that they
a. create less need for competitive base salaries.
b. improve employee retention.
c. decrease employee loyalty.
d. increase employee turnover.
c
An example of an intrinsic reward would be
a. recognition for a job well done.
b. praise from a supervisor.
c. a sense of satisfaction from a job well done.
d. a bonus for high-quality work.
a
To improve the valence of a reward for employees, a manager would have to
a. understand what rewards are the most important for employees.
b. increase the link between effort and performance.
c. increase the link between performance and rewar
d. introduce financial incentives.
b
A major reason that employee stock-ownership plans are motivational is that employees
a. receive recognition for purchasing stock.
b. become part owners of a firm.
c. automatically become part of a gainsharing program.
d. take over management of the firm.
d
A major criticism of financial incentives is that they
a. create too much of a focus on internal rewards.
b. encourage too much emphasis on teamwork.
c. decrease productivity in the short and long run.
d. create a focus on rewards instead of the joy of accomplishment
a
George wants to cut down on the excessive amount of office politics in the distribution
center he manages, so he is advised to
a. engage in open communication more frequently.
b. practice more favoritism.
c. increase the amount of territorial games.
d. become more unpredictable himself.
a
Company blogs are used to communicate
a. both upwards and downwards.
b. upwards only.
c. downwards only.
d. sideways only.
a
The study of meaning in language forms is called
a. semantics.
b. noise.
c. non-verbal communication.
d. interference.
b
The purpose of an informative confrontation is to confront the
a. lack of feedback in a message.
b. discrepancies in a person's message.
c. difference in tone between an oral and a written message.
d. reality that filtering of messages is commonplace.
b
Chance encounters between managers and employees work well as a(n)
a. formal communication channel.
b. informal communication channel.
c. substitute for management by walking around.
d. substitute for a bulletin board.
b
Communication is the process of
a. sending messages.
b. exchanging information.
c. listening and observing.
d. influencing others.
b
Teams in organizations emphasize ____ communication.
a. downward
b. horizontal
c. upward
d. diagonal
b
The general purpose of nonverbal communication is to
a. get through to people who have difficulty receiving verbal messages.
b. express the feeling behind a message.
c. control the reactions of the receiver.
d. repeat what was expressed verbally.
b
The Web log or blog is frequently used by companies as a
a. informal communication channel.
b. formal communication channel.
c. form of nonverbal communication.
d. form of lateral communication
c
Organizational politics refers to
a. informal approaches to gaining power
b. advantage through means other than merit or luck.
c. both a & b
d. huddling
c
The purpose of huddling in communication is to
a. hug the meeting participants.
b. deliberate for a long time before making a decision.
c. have a fast-paced action-oriented meeting.
d. participate in a sport to decrease the tension.
c
Which one of the following is not recommended as a way of having more productive
meetings?
a. Ensure that all follow-up action is assigned and recorded.
b. Encourage critical feedback and commentary.
c. Resolve as many small issues as possible at the meeting.
d. Strive for wide participation.
c
A major purpose of knowledge management is to
a. have line departments do most of the training.
b. keep employees up to date on new technology.
c. make good use of knowledge to generate business value.
d. prevent older workers from becoming obsolete.
c
A learning organization
a. modifies its behavior to reflect new knowledge and new insights.
b. is skilled at creating, acquiring, and transferring knowledge.
c. both a & b
d. approaches each problem with a completely new start.
d
A major purpose of defensive communication is to
a. overcome communications barriers.
b. prevent others from blaming you for mistakes.
c. get even with other workers.
d. protect one's self-esteem.
d
Aspects of nonverbal communication include
a. hand and body gestures.
b. voice quality.
c. body placement.
d. all of the choices
d
Which one of the following is an example of downward communication?
a. open-door policy
b. complaint program
c. town-hall meeting
d. a message from the CEO sent to all employees
d
Sylvia is gathering her thoughts to send a message to a difficult customer. She is going
through the process of
a. transmitting.
b. using nonverbal communication.
c. decoding.
d. encoding.
d
The purpose of a spin measure is to
a. make a rumor go out of control.
b. get listeners dizzy with information overload.
c. hold back news until the timing is right.
d. cover up bad news by stretching for the positive aspect.
d
To implement overcoming communication barriers by uniting with a common
vocabulary, the manager must first
a. hire only employees with the same native tongue.
b. convert from a hierarchical to a team structure.
c. develop a computer network for the organization.
d. identify the core work of a business.
d
Jane is in a meeting with Jack. She is engaging in metacommunications when she says
to Jack,
a. "Stop talking, and start listening. I dislike a blabber mouth."
b. "Please read my lips."
c. "Stop being so defensive when I talk to you."
d. "I'm in a rush today, so I may appear a little impatient during our conversation."
d
A recommended way for company management to combat rumors is to
a. fire the person who started the rumor.
b. deny that the rumor has any truth at all.
c. start an even more interesting rumor.
d. enhance formal communication about the topic.
d
To use informal networks,
a. focus on issues important to the organization.
b. establish community goals and deliverables.
c. set high management expectations.
d. all of the choices
d
Negative political tactics include
a. playing territorial games.
b. being unpredictable.
c. backstabbing
d. all of the choices.
d
A frequent communication barrier in using voice mail is leaving messages that are
a. spoken so slowly the receiver hangs up.
b. so hostile the receiver does not respond.
c. so embellished the receiver does not understand..
d. too poorly articulated to understand.
b
Communication is the process of
a. sending messages.
b. exchanging information.
c. listening and observing.
d. influencing others.
d
Sylvia is gathering her thoughts to send a message to a difficult customer. She is
going through the process of
a. transmitting.
b. using nonverbal communication.
c. decoding.
d. encoding.
b
The general purpose of nonverbal communication is to
a. get through to people who have difficulty receiving verbal messages.
b. express the feeling behind a message.
c. control the reactions of the receiver.
d. repeat what was expressed verbally.
d
The idea of a kinesthetic connection as part of nonverbal communication is to
a. prevent others from invading your territorial space.
b. mimic the behavior of another person to establish rapport.
c. establish your superiority.
d. relate better to your audience.
b
The Web log or blog is frequently used by companies as a
a. informal communication channel.
b. formal communication channel.
c. form of nonverbal communication.
d. form of lateral communication.
d
Which one of the following is an example of downward communication?
a. open-door policy
b. complaint program
c. town-hall meeting
d. a message from the CEO sent to all employees
b
Teams in organizations emphasize _______________ communication.
a. downward
b. horizontal
c. upward
d. diagonal
a
Company blogs are used to communicate
a. both upwards and downwards.
b. upwards only.
c. downwards only.
d. sideways only.
a
Finance manager Clarissa consults with coworkers when she needs to accomplish a
difficult task. So she is engaging in
a. operational networking.
b. strategic networking.
c. personal networking.
d. chance encounters.
b
Chance encounters between managers and employees work well as a(n)
a. formal communication channel.
b. informal communication channel.
c. substitute for management by walking around.
d. substitute for a bulletin board.
d
A recommended way for company management to combat rumors is to
a. fire the person who started the rumor.
b. deny that the rumor has any truth at all.
c. start an even more interesting rumor.
d. enhance formal communication about the topic.
b
A major characteristics of a learning organization is one that
a. avoids repeating the same mistake.
b. offers tuition-refund for job-related courses.
c. has a full-staffed training department.
d. approaches each problem with a completely new start.
c
A major purpose of knowledge management is to
a. have line departments do most of the training.
b. keep employees up to date on new technology.
c. make good use of knowledge to generate business value.
d. prevent older workers from becoming obsolete.
d
A major purpose of defensive communication is to
a. overcome communications barriers.
b. prevent others from blaming you for mistakes.
c. get even with other workers.
d. protect one's self-esteem.
c
The use of jargon in communication
a. should be eliminated even with members of the in-group.
b. tends to create defensive communication among work group members.
c. can help build relationships with coworkers.
d. should be confined to informal communications.
d
A frequent communication barrier in using voice mail is leaving messages
that are
a. spoken so slowly the receiver hangs up.
b. so hostile the receiver does not respond.
c. so embellished the receiver does not understand..
d. too poorly articulated to understand.
b
The purpose of an informative confrontation is to confront the
a. lack of feedback in a message.
b. discrepancies in a person's message.
c. difference in tone between an oral and a written message.
d. reality that filtering of messages is commonplace.
d
The purpose of a spin measure is to
a. make a rumor go out of control.
b. get listeners dizzy with information overload.
c. hold back news until the timing is right.
d. cover up bad news by stretching for the positive aspect.
d
To implement overcoming communication barriers by uniting with a common
vocabulary, the manager must first
a. hire only employees with the same native tongue.
b. convert from a hierarchical to a team structure.
c. develop a computer network for the organization.
d. identify the core work of a business.
d
Jane is in a meeting with Jack. She is engaging in metacommunications when she
says to Jack,
a. "Stop talking, and start listening. I dislike a blabber mouth."
b. "Please read my lips."
c. "Stop being so defensive when I talk to you."
d. "I'm in a rush today, so I may appear a little impatient during our
conversation."
c
Which one of the following is not recommended as a way of having more
productive meetings?
a. Strive for consensus, not total acceptance.
b. Encourage critical feedback and commentary.
c. Resolve as many small issues as possible at the meeting.
d. Strive for wide participation.
c
The purpose of huddling in communication is to
a. hug the meeting participants.
b. deliberate for a long time before making a decision.
c. have a fast-paced action-oriented meeting.
d. participate in a sport to decrease the tension.
B
Today's managers have to rely more on personal influence and less on
hierarchy, so the meaning of organizational politics has become
a. less favorable.
b. more favorable.
c. synonymous with backstabbing.
d. similar to that of the meaning of bureaucracy.
d
Which of the following is considered to be the most negative political
tactic?
a. Asking satisfied customers to contact your boss.
b. Sending thank-you notes to large numbers of people.
c. Developing power contacts.
d. Being unpredictable.
a
George wants to cut down on the excessive amount of office politics in the
distribution center he manages, so he is advised to
a. engage in open communication more frequently.
b. practice more favoritism.
c. increase the amount of territorial games.
d. become more unpredictable himself.
d
A distinguishing characteristic of a team (in contrast to a group) is that
a. the members are engaged in collective effort.
b. the members recognize they are a special type of group.
c. outsiders are not welcome.
d. its members have complementary skills.
d
A self-managed work team is responsible for
a. inspecting the quality of other work teams.
b. setting its own compensation.
c. a portion of a work process that delivers a product to a customer.
d. an entire work process that delivers a product to a customer
c
The enriching aspect of working in a team is that team members
a. usually decide on their own compensation.
b. rotate job assignments.
c. have broadened responsibility.
d. alternate between individual and group assignments.
c
A key advantage of a project structure is that it
a. does not require skilled workers.
b. does not require resources from the larger organization.
c. encourages identification with the project.
d. leads to stable assignments for project members.
a
You are a member of a group given the three-week assignment of finding a
company to take operate your company's photocopying and printing operations. You are
most likely a member of a
a. task force.
b. matrix structure.
c. project team.
d. top-management team.
c
A study with cross-functional teams suggested that some team members
a. attempt to sabotage the productivity.
b. become bored readily.
c. do not have the right interpersonal skills to collaborate.
d. drop out quickly.
b
A crew is identified primarily by the
a. number of people working together.
b. technology it handles.
c. spirit of teamwork displayed.
d. hierarchy within the group.
d
One form of top-management team is when
a. the labor union is represented on the board of directors.
b. executives share power equally with team leaders.
c. the CEO position is rotated regularly.
d. two or more top-level managers share authority equally.
c
A common form of power sharing at the top of the organization is for separate
people to occupy the positions of
a. executive vice president of human resources and CEO.
b. executive vice president of finance and CEO.
c. chairperson and CEO.
d. chairperson and COO (chief operating officer).
d
With virtual teams, managers have to trust that people will
a. fill in their time sheets correctly.
b. check in with their supervisor at the end of each day.
c. arrive at the home office on time.
d. perform well without direct supervision.
d
To accomplish its work, videoconferencing would be the most important for a
a. top-management team.
b. cross-functional team.
c. crew.
d. virtual team.
a
Which one of the following is a characteristic of an effective work group?
a. independent (rather than interdependent) tasks and rewards
b. a feeling of empowerment
c. inexperienced rather than experienced workers
d. improvising on work processes and procedures
b
Cultural diversity within a group tends to enhance creativity because
a. shyness within the group is reduced.
b. different points of view are expressed.
c. conflict is minimized.
d. the group operates without a formal leader.
a
A concern noted about too much trust within the work group is that
a. the members might not monitor each others' work carefully enough.
b. higher-level management might become suspicious.
c. group productivity might suffer.
d. group emotional intelligence is likely to decrease.
b
The shakedown period of group development is referred to as the
__________ stage.
a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
c
Group cohesiveness and commitment begin to develop during the ____
stage of group development.
a. forming
b. storming
c. norming
d. performing
b
A recommended managerial action for enhancing teamwork is to
a. practice micromanagement at every opportunity.
b. emphasize the urgent purpose facing the group.
c. discourage the use of jargon.
d. use an authoritarian leadership style.
c
A major reason that NASA sends astronauts to wilderness training is that
a. wilderness training is conducted on a terrain resembling the moon.
b. most astronauts cannot sit still for classroom training.
c. teamwork is critical for accomplishing their mission and survival.
d. most astronauts are naturally loners rather than team players.
a
The CEO of one company wants to hire a team of capable people all at once so
the company can quickly enter a new business. So the CEO engages in a(n)
a. lift out.
b. group polarization.
c. groupthink.
d. outdoor training.
c
A team is least likely to be a useful form of organization under which one of the
following conditions?
a. speed is important
b. the organization faces a complex and rapidly changing environment
c. work processes are best handled by one functional group
d. when innovation and learning have high priority
b
Chris is assigned to a product development team. Whenever there is heavy work
to do, Chris creates an excuse about having other more urgent work. The situation
with Chris illustrates which potential problem with group effort?
a. group polarization
b. social loafing
c. groupthink
d. the risky shift
c
An accountability problem noted with groups is that they
a. poorly document their accomplishments.
b. poorly document their failures.
c. are often given credit for success but rarely blamed for failures.
d. are often blamed for failures but rarely given credit for success
d
Conflict stemming from different factions within groups often occurs because
a. people dislike working with people from the same company.
b. the company uses performance bonuses.
c. group polarization has taken place.
d. representatives from two merged companies are assigned to the group.
c
When experiencing task conflict, team members are likely to
a. point out each other's personal faults.
b. engage in personality clashes.
c. critically examine alternative solutions to problems.
d. try to outsmart each others intellectually.
a
The collaboration style of conflict resolution emphasizes
a. achieving win-win solutions.
b. appeasing the other side.
c. indifference to the outcome of conflict.
d. power struggles as a way of winning.
b
A major consequence of information technology on the daily work of
managers is that they
a. have more services from assistants than previously.
b. perform considerable clerical work that was done previously by assistants.
c. have many fewer messages to deal with.
d. spend much more time on the telephone.
a
WiFi (wireless fidelity) increases the value of laptop computers because
a. the Internet can be accessed even when telephone line connections are not
available.
b. managers know immediately whether field workers are using their laptops.
c. WiFi increases the memory of laptops.
d. laptops last longer when WiFi is applied.
c
In terms of increasing productivity, information technology has made it easier
for organizations to
a. make their hierarchies steeper.
b. add more staff.
c. thin the number of employees.
d. charge more for commodities (basic products where the brand is not key).
d
In the virtual office, employees
a. work without a team leader.
b. complete one task before moving on to another.
c. are all part-time or temporary workers.
d. coordinate their activities although physically separate.
a
A major purpose of a company intranet is to
a. serve as a Web site for company use only.
b. keep customers informed of price changes.
c. monitor employee use of the Internet.
d. sell products and services by E-commerce.
b
Wendy sets up a pass-protected Web page so work associates can provide input on
problems facing the company. The technical name for Wendy's Web page is a
a. personal digital assistant.
b. wiki.
c. domain name.
d. surveillance tool.
b
Which one of the following has not been a positive consequence of information
technology on the manager's job?
a. gaining competitive advantage for the organization
b. increased face-to-face contact with other workers
c. enhanced communication and coordination
d. quick access to vast information
a
An example of e-leadership would be for the team leader to
a. set up a chat room to deal with an important work issue.
b. have a luncheon buffet for team members.
c. visit workers at their home when they are ill.
d. established a forced-ranking system within the group.
b
As a manager, you are engaged in e-leadership when you
a. purchase office supplies online.
b. supervise members of a virtual team.
c. get the group to buy and sell on eBay.
d. spend a good portion of your time performing information technology tasks.
d
Information technology has improved business models in the sense that
a. companies now have a clearer analysis of which ventures will be profitable.
b. internal operations can be overhauled.
c. profit margins increase because of efficiencies in shipping.
d. the business can be conducted in new ways such as selling direct
a
E-commerce has been a substantial asset to small enterprises because the Internet
a. makes it easier for small businesses to compete with large firms.
b. has strong controls against fraud.
c. enables small firms to borrow money at very low cost.
d. grants more Web sites to small than larger firms.
c
A major impact the Internet has had on business is to
a. prompt more customers to visit retail stores.
b. increase the number of sales representatives calling on accounts.
c. increase the visibility of complaints about many business firms.
d. make it easier for companies to sell products with high profit margins
a
The point of an electronic employee self-service system is that employees
a. carry out activities for themselves that required staff assistance in the
past.
b. conduct their own performance appraisals.
c. prepare their own meals at lunchtime or other breaks.
d. type their own correspondence.
c
A person labeled as a computer goof-off
a. sabotages company files.
b. takes naps while pretending to be working at the computer.
c. spends too much time at the computer doing unimportant work.
d. blames computer problems for not getting work accomplished
b
A concern about customer service in the information technology era is
that the service
a. is so rapid it is difficult to follow.
b. has decreased in quality because it is so complex.
c. requires too much human interaction.
d. is only good at high technology firms.
a
The majority of business conducted on the Internet is between
a. firms, or B2B.
b. consumers and retailers.
c. teenagers and retailers.
d. small businesses and large businesses.
b
A major consequence of e-commerce for purchasing is that
a. comparison shopping is much more difficult.
b. more products are bought and sold over the Internet.
c. many sellers impose a surcharge for online purchases.
d. smaller companies have less opportunity to display their products.
b
The biggest beneficiaries of the Internet revolution have been
a. companies selling online exclusively.
b. well-established companies who integrate the Internet into their
current business.
c. companies that carry virtually no inventory.
d. start ups with links to major Web sites.
c
One of the key reasons that the Internet enhances globalization is that
a. computer components can be made inexpensively overseas.
b. music can be downloaded anywhere in the world.
c. rapid communication with business partners around the world is feasible.
d. you can download for free language translators from the Internet.
d
"Living with increased visibility" refers to the fact that in the Internet
age
a. the government demands more information from companies.
b. most employee recruiting is done over the Internet.
c. newspapers are more likely to publish scandals involving Internet firms.
d. positive and negative comments about the company can readily be posted on the
Internet.
a
The fact that Nissan used information technology to help unify the production of
knobs for its vehicles illustrates best how information technology
a. improves work processes.
b. combats the flat world.
c. increases the visibility of companies.
d. integrates the new economy with the old economy.
d
A company involved in data mining probably wants to
a. find new ways of squeezing profits out of old products.
b. outsource its IT function.
c. form a strategic alliance with a mining company.
d. make additional use of information already on hand.
b
An example of the type of finding generated by data mining would be a company
discovering that
a. the average customer age is 36.5 years.
b. customers who purchase car polish also tend to purchase fluorescent bulbs.
c. full-time employed adults tend to shop more in the evening and on weekends.
d. discounted merchandise sells more quickly than full-price merchandise.
a
Which one of the following is the least likely to contribute to the
success of an e-business?
a. minimize the opportunity for customers to telephone the company.
b. reveal very little information to customers about the progress of
their orders.
c. develop a global presence.
d. decide whether to be bricks or clicks.
d
An effective call center for an E-business
a. allows customers to use e-mail and the telephone at the same time.
b. limits calls to normal working hours.
c. virtually eliminates telephone contact with customers.
d. allows customers to follow up by telephone.
b
The purpose of a preventive (or pre-control) is to prevent
a. existing problems from escalating.
b. problems caused by a deviation from performance.
c . feedback controls from creating damage.
d. quality standards from being too demanding.
a
An example of a feedback control is a(n)
a. financial report.
b. quality specification.
c. in-process inspection of parts.
d. a field visit by top-level management.
d
A control system begins with
a. measuring performance.
b. agreeing on accuracy of measurement needed.
c. agreeing on who will use the measurements.
d. setting appropriate performance standards.
a
In its technical meaning, a budget is a plan for
a. allocating resources.
b. spending money.
c. saving money.
d. developing financial strategy.
d
Office manager Gus has spent all his annual money for paper towels, so he requests
that until the end of the budget cycle, employees bring their own paper towels to the
office. What type of budget does Gus most likely have?
a. pro-forma
b. master
c. flexible
d. fixed
a
Dunkin' Donuts franchise manager Julie estimates how much her three stores will take
in next year, as well as how much she will spend. Julie is most likely preparing which
type of budget?
a. revenue and expense
b. capital expenditure
c. cash
d. production
b
Which of the following is a recommended technique for preparing a sensible budget?
a. Budget liberally for income, and conservatively for expenses.
b. Budget conservatively for income and liberally for expenses.
c. Do not allow for wiggle room.
d. Go light in terms of basing budgets on historical information
c
In calculating the profit margin, net income is
a. subtracted from cost of goods sold.
b. added to profits.
c. divided by sales.
d. subtracted from sales.
a
The financial ratio, revenue per employee is often used as a(n)
a. measure of productivity.
b. measure of return on capital.
c. index of growth potential.
d. index of bankruptcy potential.
c
The EVA (economic value added) is a guide to estimating how much a company earns
in comparison to
a. competitive firms.
b. a stock index such as the Dow Jones industrial average.
c. the cost of capital.
d. the average return on government bonds.
b
The financial measure of net debt evaluates how much a company owes after taking
into account
a. the effects of inflation on debt.
b. money on hand that could be used to eliminate debt.
c. the amount of debt that could be refinanced.
d. how much debt could be eliminated by declaring bankruptcy.
c
A major purpose of a pro-forma earnings statement is to exclude
a. salaries paid to non-productive employees.
b. kickbacks paid to the company by large customers
c. one-time charges not related to future earnings.
d. operating costs.
a
The basic purpose of measuring cash flow is to estimate how much
a. net cash a company has during a given period.
b. money customers owe a company.
c. time is left before a company goes bankrupt.
d. return stockholders can expect during a given period.
a
Cash from (or used in) operating activities is the
a. heart of cash flow.
b. cash paid to outsiders such as banks or stockholders.
c. cash received from selling stock or assets.
d. cash at the beginning and end of the period covered.
b
The executive team at Midas Muffler and Brake decides to publish a statement of
its available cash that subtracts from the cash, the planned investments in new shops
and new technology. The statement can best be labeled a measure of
a. pro-forma earnings
b. free cash flow.
c. EBITDA (earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation, and amortization.
d. EVA (economic value added)
d
Which one of the following is not one of the perspectives of the balanced scorecard?
a. financial
b. customer service
c. learning and growth
d. cost controls
a
Under a balanced scorecard system, compensation is based on
a. achieving all the factors in the balanced scorecard.
b. financial goals and customer service goals.
c. financial goals and internal process goals.
d. learning and growth goals and internal process goals.
b
An important use of activity-based costing is to estimate the
a. fixed and variable costs necessary to deliver a product or service.
b. amount of resources consumed in producing a product or service.
c. balanced scorecard for a firm.
d. cycle time for delivering a product or service.
a
The cost per unit of output equals
a. total cost divided by total output.
b. total output divided by total cost.
c. cost of raw material divided by cost of human resources.
d. balanced scoreboard divided by activity based costing.
b
An example of intellectual capital is the
a. money invested in a mainframe computer.
b. brainpower of a company's product development team.
c. money invested in advertising in trade journals.
d. accounts receivables for services.
d
The purpose of an Acceptable Usage Policy is to define for employees
a. times of the day when computer surfing is acceptable.
b. conditions under which they will be searched for carrying company property.
c. times of the day when they will be computer monitored.
d. appropriate an inappropriate use of company resources.
c
The control information provided by an information system is
a. usually outdated when it arrives.
b. based on activities that take place outside the company.
c. virtually unlimited.
d. quite restricted in scope.
c
Under a system of computer-aided monitoring of work,
a. top management tracks the progress of field units.
b. coworkers check on each other's performance.
c. the productivity of workers is tracked continuously.
d. deviations in performance are translated directly into reductions in pay.
c
A meaningful control is one that measures
a. something easy to understand.
b. an activity with a high degree of reliability.
c. an important aspect of good performance.
d. employee potential as well as current performance.
a
A cost-effective control system
a. provides a satisfactory return on investment.
b. provides financial penalties for departments that exceed budget.
c. eliminates the need for hiring outside consultants.
d. approaches being totally automated.
a
Job performance is considered ineffective when it
a. falls below an accepted standard.
b. leads to employee dismissal.
c. emphasizes quantity more than quality.
d. must be controlled by management.
c
Employee deviancy centers on such problems as
a. low intelligence and fatigue.
b. substandard performance and disloyalty.
c. stealing, cheating, and substance abuse.
d. back pain and sexually transmitted diseases.
a
Priscilla displays low organizational citizenship behavior when she
a. discovers a leaking faucet in the break lounge but does not report it.
b. votes only in national elections.
c. votes only in local elections.
d. holds open the door for a senior citizen.
d
A study found that workers low in organizational citizenship behavior
a. refused to contribute to charities through payroll deduction.
b. spent too much time in community activities during working hours.
c. tended to be the most productive workers.
d. tended to engage in counterproductive workplace behavior.
b
A major contributing factor to performance problems among night-shift workers is that
they suffer from
a. acute hunger pangs.
b. mental lapses.
c. nightmares on the job.
d. job burnout.
d
A consultant observed that an explosive sexual harassment case usually
a. has a domino effect leading to more cases of sexual harassment.
b. encourages other types of deviant behavior on the job.
c. increases productivity temporarily because of the excitement.
d. decreases productivity temporarily because of gossip and distraction.
b
The core of the control model for managing ineffective performers is
a. disciplining workers for substandard performance.
b. problem identification and problem solving.
c. motivating ineffective performs to do better.
d. making clear the sanctions for substandard performance.
a
A recommended confrontation technique is for the manager to
a. communicate care and concern.
b. threaten the worker's job security.
c. make two nice comments for every negative one.
d. appear angry and worried.
a
When referring employees to the EAP, the supervisor should focus on
a. workplace problems created by the employee.
b. the employee's personal deficiencies.
c. the employee's most recent performance appraisal.
d. the wide range of services offered by the EAP.
b
Employee performance is likely to return to an unacceptable level when the
employee
a. escapes from job pressures.
b. faces heavy job pressures.
c. is transferred.
d. receives a promotion.
a
Two business psychologists cited in the management text claim that good coaching
a. is simply good management.
b. cannot be done by managers.
c. should not be part of a manger's responsibility.
d. should be the responsibility of top-level management only.
a
The recommended time to give negative feedback about poor performance is
a. close in time to the incident of poor performance.
b. immediately after regular working hours.
c. just before the start of the workday.
d. as part of the annual performance evaluation.
c
Showing empathy for an employee stems naturally from
a. giving advice.
b. imposing progressive discipline.
c. active listening
d. asking closed-end questions.
a
A good question in coaching employees helps them
a. understand their need for development.
b. recognize that they are wrong.
c. understand that the manager is just doing his or her job.
d. recognize the precise nature of performance standards.
c
A recommended way of giving advice is to
a. promise a reward for following the advice.
b. promise a punishment for not following the advice.
c. ask an insightful question.
d. send an e-mail message to the person.
b
Lester, a credit analyst, is caught selling illegal drugs to co-workers. He will most likely
receive
a. progressive discipline.
b. summary discipline.
c. corrective discipline.
d. a referral to the EAP.
d
A modern development in employee discipline is for
a. employees to discipline themselves.
b. a committee to take over the discipline.
c. have zero tolerance for mistakes.
d. the team to carry out some of the discipline.
a
The final step in progressive discipline is
a. discharge.
b. a visit to the EAP.
c. suspension.
d. appeal.
c
A core principle of discipline and punishment is for the manager to
a. make clear his or her analysis of the worker's personal weaknesses.
b. focus on the person, not the unsatisfactory performance.
c. focus on unsatisfactory performance, not the person.
d. ignore the first two offenses.
d
Employees who believe in a just world are likely to
a. think that punishment is unjust.
b. take an active role in punishing coworkers.
c. demand due process when they have been punished.
d. accept punishment when they have performed poorly.
c
A survey of managers found that an important contribution of punishment is to
a. downsize an organization in a natural way.
b. prevent employees from becoming too complacent
c. help employees learn from others.
d. get even with restrictive labor union agreements.
a
The passive-aggressive worker will typically express anger by
a. doing nothing when action should be taken.
b. complaining frequently to the supervisor and co-workers.
c. verbal abuse.
d. physical abuse.
d
Which of the following is the most recommended approach to dealing with a difficult
employee?
a. Avoid humor about the problem being caused.
b. Judge the person quickly
c. Explain the importance of teamwork.
d. Stand fast and do not make unwarranted concessions.
b
A recommended way of dealing with a difficult person is to
a. lower his or her self-confidence by starting with a difficult
assignment.
b. boost his or her self-confidence by starting with an easy assignment.
c. mock his or her difficult behavior with negative humor.
d. make whatever concessions are necessary to get him or her back on
track.
c
To do a more effective job of firing an employee, it is recommended that the manager
a. base the firing on second-hand information.
b. be indirect in language to keep the employee off-guard.
c. not conduct the termination session while angry.
d. use e-mail instead of personal contact to avoid dealing with anger
d
A personal mission statement boosts work habits and time management
because
a. the mission statement has a built-in to-do list.
b. achieving your mission statement counts toward your performance
evaluation.
c. mission statements are usually well organized.
d. without a personal mission statement, you have nothing to plan and
act for.
a
A recommended starting point in improving personal productivity is to
a. clean up your work area and sort out what tasks need doing.
b. streamline your work.
c. work at a steady pace.
d. achieve peak performance.
a
The major end product of streamlining work is a
a. reduction in low-value work.
b. revised "to do" list.
c. faster approach to work.
d. longer cycle time.
c
Information technology specialist Marcy engages in true work streamlining when
she
a. stops working one weekends.
b. works faster than her coworkers.
c. eliminates sending a few unnecessary reports.
d. has the memory on her notebook computer upgraded.
b
The purpose of a performance cue is to help the individual know
a. when it is time to begin work.
b what items to concentrate on when under pressure.
c. the return on invested energy from a given task.
d. how well he or she is performing the task.
c
Concentrating on high-output tasks is an application of
a. perfectionism.
b. the law of diminishing returns.
c. the Pareto Principle.
d. Gantt chart
c
The number one time waster for most people is
a. the Pareto Principle.
b. failure to delegate.
c. procrastination.
d. failure to assign priorities.
d
Which one of the following is most likely to be a time waster?
a. making use of bits of time
b. doing the same task in batches
c. leaving routine messages on voice mail after hours
d. being a perfectionist
b
A major problem with interruptions when performing intellectually
demanding work is that
a. creativity is killed for the rest of the workday.
b. people often lose momentum, and must launch themselves again.
c. the typical worker will take about an hour to get back on track.
d. the typical worker then loses interest in the task at hand.
c
Martha, one of your coworkers, walks into your cubicle unannounced to discuss
the Winter Olympics. Her interruption is technically classified as a(n)
a. break.
b. distraction.
c. intrusion.
d. discrepancy.
d
During a period of peak performance, the worker
a. ignores small details about the job.
b. does whatever is necessary to please the boss.
c. acts temporarily like a Type A personality.
d. is totally absorbed in the task.
d
A key feature of a productivity-boosting nap is that the person naps
a. right next to the computer.
b. for about one and one-half hours.
c. during meetings, yet keeping the eyes open.
d. for a brief time period during the workday.
b
A big part of the productivity advantage offered by meditation is that it helps you
a. fantasize about reaching your career goals.
b. concentrate and focus.
c. obtain an objective viewpoint on your problems.
d. prioritize the tasks facing you.
a
Luke, an industrial sales representative, works smarter not harder when he
a. carefully plans his customer visits to reduce travel time.
b. offers kickbacks to major customers.
c. adds five hours to his weekly work schedule.
d. asks his boss for a raise so he can work fewer hours.
d
Which of the following is a recommended technique for reducing and controlling
procrastination?
a. Avoid doing something uncomfortable or frightening.
b. Avoid investing energy into charting your progress.
c. Post messages reminding you that you are a terrible procrastinator.
d. Break the task down into smaller units.
a
A person experiences job stress when he or she
a. perceives that a threat cannot be dealt with readily.
b. faces a demanding work schedule.
c. faces competition.
d. overcomes an environmental threat.
a
Job burnout results from
a. exposure to chronic job stressors.
b. individual sources of stress.
c. sudden exposure to job stressors.
d. too much excitement on the job.
a
Which one of the following is a major symptom of burnout?
a. losing a sense of the basic purpose and fulfillment in one's work
b. frequent headaches
c. a desire to verbally abuse coworkers
d. the occasional frantic bursts of energy
b
Which one of the following is the most significant contributor to job stress?
a. Type B personality
b. work overload
c. nervous co-workers
d. job burnout
d
The job demand-job control model explains that workers will experience the most
stress under the condition of
a. high control, low job demands.
b. high control, high job demands.
c. low control, low job demands.
d. low control, high job demands.
d
Work-family conflict generally arises because the individual has to
a. work longer hours than expected.
b. pay more bills than expected.
c. accept a cut in health benefits.
d. perform multiple roles.
a
Workers are the most likely to suffer from attention deficit trait when they
a. are bombarded with simultaneous and competing messages.
b. are tempted to visit recreational Web sites during working hours.
c. participate in a program of behavior modification.
d. work through lunch hour.
c
Retail sales associate Jody is likely to experience emotional labor when
she has to
a. work weekends and holidays
b. choose between working and taking care of personal responsibilities.
c. smile at and be polite toward rude customers.
d. express to her supervisor how she really feels about her job
c
A useful method of escaping stress is to identify your work skills, and
then
a. learn a new set of skills.
b. find work demanding a different set of skills.
c. find work to match those skills.
d. demand more skill-based pay.
b
Using the freeze-frame technique to combat stress, you
a. see your problem as a movie, not a still photo.
b. see your problem as a still photo, not a movie.
c. bring as many terrifying thoughts to the surface as possible.
d. think of a highly logical and analytical solution to your problem.
a
Management focuses on
a. continuous improvement of the status quo.
b. change that compels a group to innovate.
c. eliciting cooperation and teamwork.
d. having a vision
d
Empowerment as a leadership technique
a. works better in some cultures than in others.
b. works in all cultures.
c. works to the extent that cultural values support power sharing.
d. both a & c
c
Situational Leadership II explains that effective leadership depends on two independent
behaviors:
a. delegating and empowering
b. trusting and believing
c. supporting and directing.
d. directing and coaching
d
Transformations take place when the transformational leader
a. raises awareness of the importance of certain rewards.
b. helps people go beyond a focus on minor satisfactions.
c. gets people to look beyond self-interest.
d. all of the choices.
a
Charismatic leaders are able to
a. inspire others.
b. intimidate group members.
c. get coworkers to support each other.
d. get group members to compete against one another.
d
To developing charisma,
a. be laid back and aloof.
b. have low self-efficacy.
c. keep emotions under tight control.
d. make everybody feel important.
d
Positive approaches to cost cutting include
a. videoconferencing to cut travel costs
b. investing in new printers to cut inkjet cartridges costs.
c. keeping sales expenses at or below 10 percent of sales.
d. all of the choices
c
A caution about cost cutting is that it can lead to
a. low morale and lower quality goods and services.
b. the image of a cheap company
c. both a & b
d. increase the cost of supplies
d
Computer-aided monitoring is used for
a. data-loss prevention.
b. recording an employee's efficiency.
c. monitoring quality
d. all of the choices
a
Computer-aided monitoring of work raises concerns about
a. privacy issues.
b. supply issues
c. return-on-investment.
d. profit loss.
d
Factors contributing to ineffective performance include
a. insufficient mental ability and education.
b. low motivation and loafing.
c. emotional problems or personality disorder.
d. all of the choices
d
Managerial actions and techniques for ineffective performers include
a. close supervision
b. coaching
c. transfer
d. all of the choices
a
Corrective discipline
a. allows employees to correct their behavior before punishment is applied.
b. is the immediate discharge of an employee.
c. is part of a performance review.
d. results in firing.
a
Just punishment informs employees that
a. certain types of misconduct will not be tolerated.
b. they will be discharged.
c. they will be transferred.
d. they will be retrained.
c
To deal with a difficult employee,
a. listen and then confront or respond.
b. give recognition and attention.
c. both a & b
d. give in to all demands.