Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Example 1
Raja Private Limited wants to invest in production plant which will cost ₹1,90,000. The cost of
installation will amount to ₹60,000. The increase in working capital will be ₹40,000. The plant is
expected to provide cash inflows before depreciation and taxes of ₹1,00,000 for a period of 5 years
after which it can be sold for ₹50,000. The firm is in tax bracket of 50% and uses straight line
method of depreciation. Calculate all the cash flows associated with the machine.
Solution
In this question following cash flows will be calculated—
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the plant 1,90,000
Add: Installation cost 60,000
Add: Working capital increase/Additional working capital 40,000
Initial cash outflows/outlay 2,90,000
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 6
THERE IS NO CAPITAL LOSS/GAIN BECAUSE BOOK VALUE OF ASSET = SCRAP VALUE OF ASSET = 50000
BOOK VALUE = 190000+60000 - 200000(40000*5) = 50000 = SCRAP VALUE
2. Annual cash inflows (from year 1 to 4)
Cash inflows before depreciation and taxes 1,00,000
Less: Annual depreciation on plant -40,000
Profits before taxes 60,000
Less: Taxes @ 50% -30,000
Profits after taxes 30,000
Add: Annual depreciation on plant (Non-cash expenditure) 40,000
Net cash inflows (from year 1 to 4) 70,000
4. Annual depreciation
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑡 + 𝐼𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑠 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 =
𝑈𝑠𝑒𝑓𝑢𝑙 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑡
1,90,000 + 60,000 − 50,000 2,00,000
⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ₹40,000 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑚
5 5
Example 2
Rameshwaram Private Limited wants to install a production plant costing ₹6,00,000 with an
installation charge of ₹1,50,000. Scrap value of the plant at the end of 10 years will be ₹3,00,000.
Sales for the first year will be ₹22,00,000 and will grow at 5% per annum. The profit after tax
would be 10% of sales and the working capital requirement will be 5% of sales of the next
year. Calculate cash inflows for the plant. Company uses straight line method of the depreciation.
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the plant 6,00,000
Add: Installation cost 1,50,000
Add: Working capital increase (₹22,00,000 × 5%) 1,10,000
Initial cash outflows/outlay 8,60,000
2. Annual depreciation
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑡 + 𝐼𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑠 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 =
𝑈𝑠𝑒𝑓𝑢𝑙 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑛𝑡
AFTER TAX PROFIT 6,00,000 + 1,50,000 − 3,00,000 4,50,000
MEIN DEPRICIATION ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ₹45,000 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑚
MINUS HO CHUKA 10 10
HOGA TO WE HAVE
TO ADD IT BACK 3. Cash inflows
Cash flows after tax but
before depreciation
Profit after Working (Profit after taxes +
taxes (10% Capital Depreciation - Working
Year Sales of sales) Depreciation (Incremental) capital)
1 22,00,000 2,20,000 45,000 5,500 2,59,500
2 23,10,000 2,31,000 45,000 5,775 2,70,225
3 24,25,500 2,42,550 45,000 6,064 2,81,486
4 25,46,775 2,54,678 45,000 6,367 2,93,311
5 26,74,114 2,67,411 45,000 6,685 3,05,726
6 28,07,819 2,80,782 45,000 7,020 3,18,763
7 29,48,210 2,94,821 45,000 7,370 3,32,451
8 30,95,621 3,09,562 45,000 7,739 3,46,823
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 7
9 32,50,402 3,25,040 45,000 8,126 3,61,914
10 34,12,922 3,41,292 45,000 -- *8,56,938
*3,41,292+45,000+1,10,000 (Release of initial working capital)+3,00,000 (Scrap value)+60,646
(Release of incremental working capital See Table 4)
Example 3
Rosa Private Limited is considering to replace a five-year-old machinery the written down value
of which is zero at present. There are two options available—either to update the technology by
spending ₹1,50,000 with economic life of 5 years or to buy a new machine costing ₹3,50,000 the
economic life of which is 5 years. The updated machinery can be sold for ₹30,000 after 5 years and
the new machine will have ₹80,000 scrap value at the end of 5th year. The annual costs of these
machines are as follows—
Particulars Existing (₹) Updated machine (₹) New machine (₹)
Salaries/wages 50,000 40,000 15,000
Manager’s/Supervisor’s Salary 25,000 11,000 8,000
Maintenance 30,000 9,000 3,000
Power 23,000 20,000 17,000
The tax rate is 40%. Assume straight line method of depreciation. Calculate the cash flows under
different options available to the company.
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Particulars Updated machine (₹) New machine (₹)
Cost of machinery 1,50,000 3,50,000
2. Annual depreciation
Updated machine New machine
Example 4
Cost of a machine is ₹1,00,000 and installation charges are 20,000. The machine has a life of 5
years and after it the scrap value will be ₹10,000. Machine can produce 2,000 units per annum from
year 1 to 2 and 3,000 units per annum from year 3 to 5. The product is expected to fetch ₹15 per
unit in the first 3 years and ₹18 per unit in the last 2 years. The operating cost is ₹5,000 per annum
for the first 3 years and ₹8,000 per annum for the last 2 years. Straight line method of depreciation
is being followed by the company and tax rate is 40%. Calculate the cash flows.
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 1,00,000
Add: Installation cost 20,000
Initial cash outflows/outlay 1,20,000
2. Annual depreciation
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒 + 𝐼𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒𝑠 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 =
𝑈𝑠𝑒𝑓𝑢𝑙 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
1,00,000 + 20,000 − 10,000 1,10,000
⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ₹22,000 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑚
5 5
Solution
Estimation of operating cash inflows
Sales 3,00,000
Less: Cost of goods sold -1,50,000
Less: General expenses -50,000
Less: Depreciation -10,000
Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) 90,000
Less: Taxes @ 50% -45,000
Earnings after taxes (EAT) 45,000
Add: Depreciation 10,000
Cash inflows 55,000
Estimation of operating cash inflows (ALTERNATE METHOD) (Click to see the format)
Net profit (Profits after depreciation, interest and tax) 37,500
Add: Depreciation 10,000
Add: Interest (1 − 𝑡) ⇒ [15,000 × (1 − 0.50)] 7,500
Cash inflows 55,000
Decision Rule
Accept/reject criteria
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑃𝑎𝑦 𝐵𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 < 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑃𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑃𝑎𝑦 𝐵𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 > 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑃𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑃𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Capital rationing
Rank the projects from the lowest payback period to the highest and then invest accordingly.
Minimum payback period Rank I
Moderate payback period Rank II
Maximum payback period Rank III
Merits
1. It is simple and easy to compute. This method does not need any complex mathematical
tools to calculate the payback value. This task can be performed without any specialized
knowledge of financial tools.
2. Most of the firms place very high importance on the liquidity. It explains us the time when
the original investment can be recovered and companies can arrange funds accordingly.
3. It can give us very good analysis about the riskiness of the project. The longer the time it
takes to cover the initial investment, riskier is the project. It helps in identifying the risk of
the project on the basis of time framework.
4. Its interpretation is simple to understand. It is simple in reading and understanding it even
by a layman. It talks in the common man’s language.
Demerits
1. This method does not take into account the cash flows occurring after the payback period. It
ignores all these cash flows. For example, consider the case of following two projects which
have the same cost of ₹1,00,000 and the cash flows are given below—
Year Cash Flows (A) Cash Flows (B)
1 25,000 30,000
2 40,000 25,000
3 35,000 45,000
4 10,000 40,000
5 15,000 60,000
Both the projects have an equal payback period which is 3 years. On the basis of payback
criteria both projects are good at the same level. However, we can easily see that the project
B is far better than project A as the cash flows after payback period are high for project B.
Thus, the payback method fails to capture the cash flows after payback period.
2. This method does not consider the timing of the cash flows. All cash flows are of equal
importance whether they occur earlier or later. For example, there are two projects namely
X and Y, both have the equal investment outlay of ₹10,000. The cash flows are given
below—
Year Cash Flows (X) Cash Flows (Y)
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 12
1 1,000 7,000
2 2,000 2,000
3 7,000 1,000
In this case, both the projects have the equal payback period of three years, however, more
money is recovered earlier in the project Y as compared to project X. The money which is
received earlier is better because of time value of money. Under this scenario also, the
payback method falls short of proving a better guide to take the project.
3. It does not take into account the salvage value of the project. Sometimes the value of salvage
is very high and can become an important factor in making a project profitable.
On the basis of above discussion of pros and cons of payback, we can conclude that it is the payback
method despite having some weakness is a useful measure of making investment decision when it is
difficult to forecast the cash flows after two or three years. Forecasting cash flows beyond three
years is very difficult and payback method comes to our rescue to deal with these situations. Also,
when the firm is funds starved, it would like to have the projects which will recover the costs as
early as possible. Payback method gives the answer to this question and helps the management in
making proper investment decision.
Annuity stream CONTSTANT CASH FLOWS IN EVERY YEAR (SAME AMOUNT OF CASH FLOWS)
Following formula is used to compute the payback period in case of annuity stream: OR :
CONVENTIONAL
𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐼𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦 CASH FLOWS
LEARN 𝑃𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 =
𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐹𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
Mixed stream TWO OR MORE THAN 2 YEARS HAVING DIFFERENT CASH FLOWS
In case of mixed stream, the procedure given in the following example is to be followed—
E.g.: Using given cash outflows and cash inflows calculate the payback period—
Year CFAT Cumulative CFAT
0 (70,000) NEGATIVE BECAUSE CASH --
1 6,000 OUTFLOW OR INITIAL 6,000
INVESTMENT IN 0 YEAR
2 12,000 18,000
3 17,000 35,000
4 20,000 55,000
5 20,000 75,000
6 25,000 1,00,000
(70,000 − 55,000) 15,000
𝑃𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = 4 + ⇒4+
20,000 IN FRONT OF YEAR 5 20,000
⇒ 4.75 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑜𝑟 4 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑑 9 𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑠
Decision Rule
Accept/reject criteria
If Project’s 𝐴𝑅𝑅 < 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝐴𝑅𝑅 = 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
If Project’s 𝐴𝑅𝑅 > 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝐴𝑅𝑅 = 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Capital rationing
Rank the projects from the highest ARR to the lowest and then invest accordingly.
Merits
1. It is simple to calculate and understand.
2. Its basis is on accounting data which can be simply accessed from accounts of company.
3. It measures the benefits in percentage which makes it easily comparable and provides an
easy rule to make investment decision.
Demerits
1. The first problem with this method is that it is based on account profit rather than cash
flows. We discussed in earlier section that the objective of financial management is to
maximize the wealth of the shareholders. To attain this goal, the focus must be on the cash
flows rather than on the accounting profits.
2. The other major shortcoming of this method is that it does not take into account the time
value of money. This method treats all cash flows on equal footing, it does not pay attention
to the timing of the cash flow. The amount of cash flow whether received early or late is
given equal importance which is contrary to the concept of time value of money.
3. This method ignores the size of the investment. Sometimes, the accounting rate of return
may be same for various projects but some may involve huge cash flows. Given the size of
investment, the decision cannot simply be taken on the basis of accounting rate of return.
For example, consider the following situation—
Machine Average annual profits Average investment ARR
A 10,000 1,00,000 10%
B 1,500 15,000 10%
C 1,000 10,000 10%
Thus, for all three machines A, B and C, the accounting rate of return is same however,
machine A requires huge cash outlay and the decision cannot be taken solely on the basis of
ARR. The availability of funds is also another concern which should be taken into
consideration while making investment decision.
Meaning
Net present value is simply the Present Value of Cash Inflows of a Project minus the Present Value of
Cash Outflows of the Project.
Decision Rule
Accept/reject criteria
At this stage we select as many assets as possible. Basically, we create a pool of so many assets
which are under consideration. The selection of so many assets does not mean that all of these will
be purchased. We will evaluate the selected assets either under mutually exclusive or capital
rationing criteria.
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑁𝑃𝑉 < 0 = 𝐷𝑜 𝑛𝑜𝑡 𝑠𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑁𝑃𝑉 > 0 = 𝑆𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑡
Capital rationing
When there are many projects but investment is to be made in some projects then they are ranked
according to their profitability. And then investment is made accordingly i.e., from highest
profitability to lowest profitability. It must be noted that those projects are not considered here
which are rejected earlier under the Accept/Reject criterion.
Rank the projects from the highest NPV to the lowest and then invest accordingly.
Maximum NPV Rank I
Moderate NPV Rank II
Minimum NPV Rank III
Merits
1. One of the most necessary advantages of NPV technique is that it takes into consideration
the time value of money. This is the major improvement over the traditional approach to
capital budgeting.
2. It considers cash flows to analyze the proposal rather than the accounting profits. We saw
earlier that the accounting profits do not reflect the true picture of the financial position of
the firm. Accounting profits can be interpreted by using distinct accounting methods. Cash
flows do not suffer from these limitations.
3. Different discount rates can be easily incorporated into the NPV computations. Thus, we can
see the sensitivity of the discount rates on the profitability of the project.
4. This method considers the all the cash flows spreading over the whole life of the project.
5. NPV technique is related to the basic objective of financial management, i.e., maximization of
the wealth of the shareholders. The wealth of the shareholders will be maximized when firm
takes up the project which is generate extra cash flows in present value terms. In order to
answer the question whether a particular project generates value to the shareholders, we
use NPV analysis.
Demerits
1. It is hard to compute as compared to the traditional tools of capital budgeting such as
payback method and ARR method.
Example 6
Cash outflows or price of an asset is ₹30,000. This asset will provide cash flows of ₹10,000 every
year for a period of 5 years. What is the net present value (NPV) of this asset if the discount rate is
10%? On the basis of NPV what decision will you take regarding the purchase of this asset?
Solution
Direct method
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹𝑘𝑂,𝑡 − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹10%,5 − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
1
1−
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 × [ ] − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑘𝑂
1
1−
(1 + 0.10)5
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ₹10,000 × [ ] − ₹30,000
0.10
Alternate method
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑛 𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑂𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ 𝑡
−∑
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 ) (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0
𝑛=5
1
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 × − 𝐶𝑂0
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1
1 1 1
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇1 × + 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇 2 × + 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇3 ×
(1 + 0.10)1 (1 + 0.10)2 (1 + 0.10)3
1 1
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇4 × + 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇5 × − 𝐶𝑂0
(1 + 0.10)4 (1 + 0.10)5
Activity
Complete the PVF table on your own.
Year 5% 10% 15% 20% 25% 30% 35% 40%
0 1.000 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 0.952 0.909 0.870 ? ? ? ? ?
2 0.907 0.826 ? 0.694 ? ? ? ?
3 0.864 0.751 0.658 ? ? ? ? ?
4 0.823 0.683 ? 0.482 ?
5 0.784 0.621 0.497 ? ? 1
6 0.746 ? ? 0.335 ? 𝑃𝑉𝐹𝑘𝑂,𝑡 =
7 0.711 ? 0.376 ? ? (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
8 0.677 ? ? 0.233 ?
Solution
First method
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑛 𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑂𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ − ∑
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡 (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0
𝑛=5
1
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 × − 𝐶𝑂0
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1
1 1 1
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇1 × 1
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇2 × 2
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇3 ×
(1 + 0.10) (1 + 0.10) (1 + 0.10)3
1 1
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇4 × + 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇5 × − 𝐶𝑂0
(1 + 0.10)4 (1 + 0.10)5
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 10,000 × 0.909 + 10,450 × 0.826 + 11,800 × 0.751 + 12,250 × 0.683
+ 16,750 × 0.621 − 50,000
Second method
Year Cash Flows After Tax Present Value Factor at Present Value of Cash
(CFAT) 10% (PVF10%, t)See Note Flows After Tax
1 10,000 0.909 9,090
2 10,450 0.826 8,632
3 11,800 0.751 8,862
4 12,250 0.683 8,367
5 16,750 0.621 10,402
Total present value 45,353
Less: Initial cash outlay -50,000
Net Present Value (NPV) - 4,647
Decision: Since the NPV is negative, so, the asset should not be purchased.
Note: Present value factors can be calculated using the formula—
1
𝑃𝑉𝐹%,𝑛 =
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
1 1 1
𝑃𝑉𝐹10%,1 = = 0.909 𝑃𝑉𝐹10%,2 = = 0.826 𝑃𝑉𝐹10%,3 = = 0.751
(1 + 0.10)1 (1 + 0.10)2 (1 + 0.10)3
1 1
𝑃𝑉𝐹10%,4 = = 0.683 𝑃𝑉𝐹10%,5 = = 0.621
(1 + 0.10)4 (1 + 0.10)5
Example 8
A project involves the following cash flow stream over its life of 5 years:
Initial Investment ₹3,00,000
Cash Inflows:
Year Amount
1 ₹70,000
2 ₹70,000
3 ₹90,000
4 ₹90,000
5 ₹1,10,000
The discount rate may be taken at 12%. Calculate the net present value of the project.
Solution
Year Cash Flows After Tax Present Value Factor at Present Value of
(CFAT) 12% (PVF12%, t)See Note Cash Inflows
1 70,000 0. 893 62,510
2 70,000 0.797 55,790
3 90,000 0.712 64,080
4 90,000 0.636 57,240
5 1,10,000 0.567 62,370
Total present value 3,01,990
Less: Initial cash outlay -3,00,000
Net Present Value (NPV) 1,990
Decision: Since the net present value (NPV) is positive, so, the project shall be undertaken.
Note: Present value factors can be calculated using the formula—
1
𝑃𝑉𝐹%,𝑛 =
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
1 1 1
𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,1 = = 0.893 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,2 = = 0.797 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,3 = = 0.712
(1 + 0.12)1 (1 + 0.12)2 (1 + 0.12)3
1 1
𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,4 = = 0.636 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,5 = = 0.567
(1 + 0.12)4 (1 + 0.12)5
Solution
First method
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑛 𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑂𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ − ∑
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡 (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0
𝑛=6 𝑛=6
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑂𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ 𝑡
−∑
(1 + 0.12) (1 + 0.12)𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0
1 1 1
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = [𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇1 × 1
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇2 × 2
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇3 ×
(1 + 0.12) (1 + 0.12) (1 + 0.12)3
1 1 1
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇4 × + 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇 5 × × 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇 6 ×
(1 + 0.12)4 (1 + 0.12)5 (1 + 0.12)6
1 1
+ 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇6 × + 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇6 × ]
(1 + 0.12)6 (1 + 0.12)6
1 1 1
− [𝐶𝑂0 × 0
+ 𝐶𝑂0 × 0
+ 𝐶𝑂3 × ]
(1 + 0.12) (1 + 0.12) (1 + 0.12)3
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = [1,00,000 × 0.893 + 1,50,000 × 0.797 + 2,00,000 × 0.712 + 2,50,000 × 0.636
+ 3,00,000 × 0.567 + 3,50,000 × 0.507 + 50,000 × 0.507
+ 1,00,000 × 0.507]
− [5,00,000 × 1.000 + 1,00,000 × 1.000 + 1,00,000 × 0.712]
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = [89,300 + 1,19,550 + 1,42,400 + 1,59,000 + 1,70,100 + 1,77,450 + 25,350
+ 50,700] − [5,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 71,200]
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 9,33,850 − 6,71,200
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ₹2,62,650
Decision: Since the NPV is positive, so, the machine should be purchased.
Note−1:
Cash inflows Cash outflows
Year Amount Remarks Year Amount Remarks
0 -- -- 0 5,00,000 Cost of the machine
1 1,00,000 Cash inflows 0 1,00,000 Working capital required
2 1,50,000 Cash inflows 3 1,00,000 Additional investment
3 2,00,000 Cash inflows
4 2,50,000 Cash inflows
5 3,00,000 Cash inflows
6 3,50,000 Cash inflows
6 50,000 Salvage value recovered
6 1,00,000 Working capital released
Second method
Cash inflows Cash outflows
Year Amount Present Value Present Year Amount Present Value Present
Factor at 12% Value of Factors at 12% Value of
(PVF12%, t)See Cash (PVF12%, t) See Cash
Note-2 Inflows Note-2 Outflows
Decision: Since the NPV is positive, so, the machine should be purchased.
Note−2: Present value factors can be calculated using the formula:
1
𝑃𝑉𝐹%,𝑛 =
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
1 1 1
𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,0 = = 1.000 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,1 = = 0.893 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,2 = = 0.797
(1 + 0.12)0 (1 + 0.12)1 (1 + 0.12)2
1 1 1
𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,3 = = 0.712 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,4 = = 0.636 𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,5 = = 0.567
(1 + 0.12)3 (1 + 0.12)4 (1 + 0.12)5
1
𝑃𝑉𝐹12%,6 = = 0.507
(1 + 0.12)6
Decision Rule
Accept/reject criteria
If Project’s 𝑃𝐼 𝑜𝑟 𝐵𝐶 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 < 1: 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
If Project’s 𝑃𝐼 𝑜𝑟 𝐵𝐶 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 > 1: 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Capital rationing
Rank the projects from the highest PI to the lowest and then invest accordingly.
Maximum PI or BC ratio Rank I
Moderate PI or BC ratio Rank II
Minimum PI or BC ratio Rank III
Merits
1. PI method differentiates between cash flows occurring at different points of time and thus,
considers time value of money.
2. PI like NPV is based on cash flows rather than accounting profit.
3. PI also incorporates the riskiness of the project in capital budgeting analysis through use of
an appropriate discount rate.
4. PI tells the present value of cash inflows generated per rupee of cash outflow. It thus, can
identify whether a project would increase firm’s value or shareholder’s wealth.
Demerits
1. It is difficult to compute as compared to the traditional methods of capital budgeting such as
ARR and Payback period method.
2. It requires computation of required rate of return to be used to discount future cash flows.
3. Computations of present values and forecasting of future cash flows is needed.
Meaning
Internal rate of return is that discount rate which equates the present value of the cash
inflows with the present value of the cash outflows. In other words, we can say that Internal
Rate of Return is that rate of discount at which the Net Present Value is Zero. IRR is also called the
marginal efficiency of capital, marginal productivity of capital, yield on investment, time adjusted
rate of return, marginal rate of return, etc.
At this discount rate the following condition is satisfied—
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑁𝑜𝑡𝑒
⇒ 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑁𝑜𝑡𝑒 = 0
⇒ 𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 0
Symbolically,
𝑛 𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑂𝑡
∑ 𝑡
=∑
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 ) (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0
𝑛 𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑂𝑡
⇒∑ 𝑡
−∑ =0
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 ) (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0
⇒ 𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 0
Suppose we put 10% in place of kO and both sides become equal or NPV would be zero. Then this
10% is the internal rate of return.
Note: If cash outflows are there in the zero year only (multiple cash outflows are not there) then
there is no need to calculate the present value of the cash outflows.
Decision Rule
Following rules are used to evaluate the project or machine.
Accept/reject criteria
At this stage we select as many assets as possible. Basically, we create a pool of so many assets
which are under consideration. The selection of so many assets does not mean that all of these will
be purchased. We will evaluate the selected assets under either mutually exclusive or capital
rationing criteria.
𝐼𝑓 𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑡’𝑠 𝐼𝑅𝑅 < 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛 = 𝐷𝑜 𝑛𝑜𝑡 𝑠𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑡’𝑠 𝐼𝑅𝑅 > 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛 = 𝑆𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑡
Capital rationing
When there are many projects but investment is to be made in some projects then they are ranked
according to their profitability. And then investment is made accordingly i.e., from highest
profitability to lowest profitability. It must be noted that those projects are not considered here
which were rejected earlier under the Accept/Reject criterion.
Rank the projects from the highest IRR to the lowest and then invest accordingly. (But we do not
suggest relying solely on the ranks given by the IRR rather one should consider and prefer the
ranking given by the NPV)
Maximum IRR Rank I
Moderate IRR Rank II
Minimum IRR Rank III
Advantages of IRR
1. IRR technique takes into account the time value of money and accordingly different cash
flows are given different importance depending on the time period when they arise.
2. It is related to the wealth maximization objective which is the main aim of modern financial
management. This is because when we accept an investment proposal which has internal
return in excess of cost of capital, this additional return results in the generation of more
wealth to shareholders.
3. This technique is also based on all the cash flows of a project just like NPV. The complete life
of the project is taken into account before any investment decision is made which results in
sound investment decision.
4. IRR uses cash flows to arrive at the rate of return rather than the accounting profits.
Disadvantages of IRR
1. The computation of IRR is tedious and at times it becomes very complex as well.
2. There are some situations when we can have more than one IRR for the project and in some
other situations, we have no IRR value. We will consider these situations.
3. One of the main limitations of IRR is related to the assumption under which it is calculated.
The assumption underlying the computation of IRR is that the amount of cash inflows which
is received in intermediate time period is reinvested at the rate which is equal to the
internal rate of return. This assumption is also called reinvestment rate assumption. It
means if the IRR of project is 20%, company is in a position to invest the intermediate cash
flows at 20% which is not feasible. The firms are able to invest the cash inflows only at the
rate which is available in the market.
Annuity Stream
Step I Calculate the Fake Payback Period (FPBP)—
But so many times it is not possible to locate the exact value of the fake payback
period in the table. The value of the fake payback period lies between two values.
Note down the corresponding percentages to these two values and go to the next
step.
Step III (i) Compute the Present Value and Net Present Value at lower discount rate
(ii) Compute the Present Value and Net Present Value at higher discount rate
Note:
𝑃𝑉 = 𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹𝑟,𝑛
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = (𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹𝑟,𝑛 ) − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
Step IV Now apply the following formula:
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 +
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
× |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
or
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
or
𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝐻𝐷𝑅 − 𝐹𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = HDR
𝐿𝐷𝑅 +- × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝐻𝐷𝑅 − 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝐿𝐷𝑅
(The above formulae are for the linear interpolation)
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑁𝑒𝑡 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐿𝐷𝑅 = 𝐿𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒
𝐻𝐷𝑅 = 𝐻𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑒𝑟 𝐷𝑜𝑠𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑛𝑡 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒
Difference of rates is taken after ignoring the signs.
Mixed Stream
In case of mixed stream as we already have discussed earlier the Trial-and-Error approach shall be
used. In this approach take a percentage and compute the present value of the cash inflows of the
project. If the present value of cash inflows is equal to the present value of cash outflows (or cash
outflows in the zero year) then the percentage taken is the IRR.
But in almost all the cases of the mixed stream we cannot get the single percentage at which the
present value of cash inflows is equal to the present value of the cash outflows (or cash outflows in
the zero year). So, first of all take a percentage and calculate the present value of the cash inflows. If
the present value of cash inflows is less than the present value of the cash outflows (or cash
outflows in the zero year) then reduce the percentage or if the present value of cash inflows is more
than the present value of the cash outflows (or cash outflows in the zero year) then increase the
percentage. Arrive at two percentages in such a way that at one percentage (Lower) the present
value of cash inflows is more than the present value of the cash outflows (or cash outflows in the
zero year) and at another percentage (Higher) the present value of cash inflows is less than the
present value of the cash outflows (or cash outflows in the zero year). VERY
IRR can also be computed using NPV IMPORTANT
Take a percentage and compute the NPV of the project. If at this percentage the NPV is zero then
this is the IRR.
But in almost all the cases of the mixed stream we cannot get the single percentage at which the
NPV is zero. Now take a percentage and calculate the NPV. If the NPV is negative then reduce the
percentage to get a positive NPV and if the NPV is positive then increase the percentage to get a
Example 10
The cost of a machine is ₹37,910. Cash inflows are ₹10,000 per annum for a period of 5 years.
Calculate the IRR.
Solution
Step I: Calculate the Fake Payback Period (FPBP)
𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐼𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 37,910
= = 3.791
𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 10,000
Step II: Now locate the Fake Payback Period which is 3.791 in the Present Value Annuity Factors
Table (see annexure-Table A-4) corresponding to the life of the machine. Corresponding to the life
of the machine (i.e., 5 years) the value of 3.791 is against the 10% in the table. We have successfully
located the value of the fake payback period. So, IRR is 10%.
Note to step II:
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = (𝑆𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹10%,5 ) − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 ⇒ (10,000 × 3.791) − 37,910 = 0.
NPV is zero at 10%, so, the IRR is 10%.
Step III:
Not applicable.
Step IV:
Not applicable.
Example 11
The cost of a machine is ₹3,00,000. Cash inflows are ₹1,00,000 per annum for a period of 5 years.
Calculate the IRR.
Solution
Step I: Calculate the Fake Payback Period (FPBP)
Step II: Now locate the Fake Payback Period which is 3 in the Present Value Annuity Factors
Table (see annexure-Table A-4) corresponding to the life of the machine. Corresponding to the life
of the machine there are two values viz. 3.058 (at 19%) and 2.991 (at 20%). So, the fake payback
period of 3 lies between 3.058 and 2.991 hence, the IRR lies between 20% and 19%. Now proceed
to the next step.
Step III:
(i) Compute the Present Value and Net Present Value at lower discount rate i.e., 19%:
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹𝑘𝑂,𝑡 − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹19%,5 − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
1
1−
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝐼𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 × [ ] − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑖𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑍𝑒𝑟𝑜 𝑌𝑒𝑎𝑟
𝑘𝑂
1
1−
(1 + 0.19)5
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ₹1,00,000 × [ ] − 𝑅𝑠. 3,00,000
0.19
Step IV:
Now apply the following formula to interpolate the IRR:
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
𝑁𝑃𝑉19%
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 19 + ×1
𝑁𝑃𝑉19% − 𝑁𝑃𝑉20%
₹ 5,800
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 19 + ×1
₹5,800 − (−₹900)
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 19 + 0.866
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 19.866
or
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
𝑃𝑉19% − 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦
𝐼𝑅𝑅 (𝑟) = 19 + ×1
𝑃𝑉19% − 𝑃𝑉20%
Example 12
The cost of a machine is ₹3,00,000. Cash inflows are as follows—
Year Amount
1 ₹70,000
2 ₹70,000
3 ₹90,000
4 ₹90,000
5 ₹90,000
Calculate the IRR.
Solution
In this question mixed stream is given, so, trial and error method will be used. Let us calculate the
NPV at the discount rate of 10%.
Year Cash Inflows Present Value Factors at 10% (PVF10%, t) Present Value at 10%
1 70,000 0.909 63,630
2 70,000 0.826 57,820
3 90,000 0.751 67,590
4 90,000 0.683 61,470
5 90,000 0.621 55,890
Total present value 3,06,400
Less: Initial cash outlay -3,00,000
Net Present Value (NPV) 6,400
Since NPV is positive, so, we shall increase the discount rate. Now let us calculate the NPV at the
discount rate of 11%.
Year Cash Inflows Present Value Factors at 11% (PVF11%, t) Present Value at 11%
1 70,000 0.901 63,070
2 70,000 0.812 56,840
3 90,000 0.731 65,790
4 90,000 0.659 59,310
5 90,000 0.593 53,370
Total present value 2,98,380
Less: Initial cash outlay -3,00,000
Net Present Value (NPV) -1,620
Now the NPV is negative at 11% and positive at 10%. It means that the zero NPV lies between
(₹1,620) and ₹6,400 and IRR lies between 11% and 10%. So, there is need to apply the formula for
the interpolation.
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
Example 13
The cost of a machine is ₹42,000. Cash inflows are as follows:
Year Amount
1 ₹12,000
2 ₹12,000
3 ₹14,000
4 ₹15,000
5 ₹16,000
Calculate the IRR.
Solution
In this question mixed stream is given, so, trial and error method will be used. Let us calculate the
NPV at the discount rate of 10%.
Year Cash Inflows Present Value Factors at 10% (PVF10%, t) Present Value at 10%
1 12,000 0.909 10,908
2 12,000 0.826 9,912
3 14,000 0.751 10,514
4 15,000 0.683 10,245
5 16,000 0.621 9,936
Total present value 51,515
Less: Initial cash outlay -42,000
Net Present Value (NPV) 9,515
Since NPV is positive, so, we shall increase the discount rate. Now let us calculate the NPV at the
discount rate of 15%.
Year Cash Inflows Present Value Factors at 15% (PVF15%, t) Present Value at 15%
1 12,000 0.870 10,440
2 12,000 0.756 9,072
3 14,000 0.658 9,212
4 15,000 0.572 8,580
5 16,000 0.497 7,952
Total present value 45,256
Less: Initial cash outlay -42,000
Net Present Value (NPV) 3,256
Since NPV is positive, so, we shall increase the discount rate. Now let us calculate the NPV at the
discount rate of 20%.
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 28
Year Cash Inflows Present Value Factors at 20% (PVF20%, t) Present Value at 20%
1 12,000 0.833 9,996
2 12,000 0.694 8,328
3 14,000 0.579 8,106
4 15,000 0.482 7,230
5 16,000 0.402 6,432
Total present value 40,092
Less: Initial cash outlay -42,000
Net Present Value (NPV) (1,908)
Now the NPV is negative at 20% and positive at 15%. It means that the zero NPV lies between
(₹1,908) and ₹3,256 and IRR lies between 20% and 15%. So, there is need to apply the formula for
the interpolation.
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
𝑁𝑃𝑉15%
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 15 + ×5
𝑁𝑃𝑉15% − 𝑁𝑃𝑉20%
₹3,256
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 15 + ×5
₹3,256 − (−₹1,908)
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 15 + 3.153
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 18.153
or
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
𝑃𝑉15% − 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 15 + ×5
𝑃𝑉15% − 𝑃𝑉20%
45,256 − 42,000
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 15 + ×5
45,256 − 40,092
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 15 + 3.153
𝐼𝑅𝑅 = 18.153
Notes:
1. In Excel® the IRR comes out 18.039%.
2. At 18.153% the NPV is not exactly zero but -114.578. It’s due to the fact that we have taken
15% and 20% to interpolate the answer. If we take 18% and 19% then answer would be
close to 18% (through interpolation it would be 18.038 and NPV would be 0.861) and in
such a case the NPV would be close to zero.
3. At 18% the PV is ₹42,038 (NPV is ₹38) and at 19% the PV is ₹41,043 (NPV is −₹957).
Interpolate the IRR and it will be 18.038.
Decision Rule
Accept/reject criteria
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑁𝑃𝑉 < 0 = 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑁𝑃𝑉 > 0 = 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Capital rationing
Rank the projects from the highest NPV to the lowest and then invest accordingly.
Maximum NPV Rank I
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 29
Moderate NPV Rank II
Minimum NPV Rank III
Example 14
DISCOUNT RATE
Initial outlay: ₹10,000; Life of the project: 5 years; 𝑘𝑂 = 10%; and Cash inflows: ₹4,000 each year
for 5 years. Expected interest rates at which cash inflows will be reinvested—
Year Percent rate of interest
1 6
2 6
3 8
4 8
5 8
Decision Rule
Accept/reject criteria
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑀𝐼𝑅𝑅 < 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛 = 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑀𝐼𝑅𝑅 > 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑅𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛 = 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Capital rationing
Rank the projects from the highest IRR to the lowest and then invest accordingly. (But we do not
suggest relying solely on the ranks given by the IRR rather one should consider and prefer the
ranking given by the NPV)
Maximum MIRR Rank I
Moderate MIRR Rank II
Minimum MIRR Rank III
Merits
1. MIRR overcomes limitations of IRR like IRR’s multiple rates of return in some cases,
difference in ranking according to NPV and IRR in case of mutually exclusive projects.
2. MIRR like NPV & IRR is based on cash flows rather than accounting profit.
3. MIRR also incorporates the riskiness of the project in capital budgeting analysis through use
of an appropriate discount rate.
4. MIRR tells whether a project would increase firm’s value or shareholder’s wealth.
5. MIRR method differentiates between cash flows occurring at different points of time and
thus, considers time value of money.
Demerits
1. It is difficult to compute as compared to other techniques of capital budgeting.
2. It requires computations of required rate of return to be used to discount future cash flows.
3. Needs to compute present values and forecasting of future cash flows.
Procedure to compute MIRR is as follows—
1. Find out the single terminal value (cost of capital will be the rate used to calculate the NPV).
2. Find out the IRR of the proposal using two cash flows i.e., initial investment and the terminal
value.
3. The IRR so arrived at is the MIRR.
Example 15
Mukta Limited is evaluating a proposal having initial investment of ₹20,000. Cash flows
are⎯₹4,000, ₹6,000, ₹7,000, ₹8,000 and ₹8,000 over a period of 5 years. Cost of capital is 10%. Find
out the MIRR?
Solution
Year Cash Compounding factor @ 10% Compounded Modified cash
flows 𝐹𝑉𝐼𝐹𝑟,𝑛 = (1 + 𝑟)𝑛 value @ 10% flows
0 (20,000) -- -- (20,000)
1 4,000 𝐹𝑉𝐼𝐹10%,4 = 1.464 5,856
2 6,000 𝐹𝑉𝐼𝐹10%,3 = 1.331 7,986
3 7,000 𝐹𝑉𝐼𝐹10%,2 = 1.210 8,470
4 8,000 𝐹𝑉𝐼𝐹10%,1 = 1.100 8,800
5 8,000 𝐹𝑉𝐼𝐹10%,0 =1.000 8,000 39,112
Terminal Cash Flows or Modified Cash Flows 39,112
Now there are two cash flows: Initial cash flows⎯₹20,000 and Terminal cash flows⎯₹39,112. Now
calculate IRR using these two cash flows.
𝑃𝑉 𝑎𝑡 14% = (39,112 × 0.519) ⇒ 20,299.13 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑃𝑉 𝑎𝑡 15% = (39,112 × 0.497) ⇒ 19,438.66.
𝑁𝑃𝑉 𝑎𝑡 14% = (39,112 × 0.519) − 20,000 ⇒ 299.13 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑁𝑃𝑉 𝑎𝑡 15% = (39,112 × 0.497) −
20,000 ⇒ −561.336.
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝐶𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑀𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝑟) = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
20,299.13 − 20,000
⇒ 14 + × 1 = 14.35%
20,299.13 − 19,438.66
or
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅
𝑀𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝑟) = 𝐿𝐷𝑅 + × |𝐷𝑖𝑓𝑓𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠|
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐿𝐷𝑅 − 𝑁𝑃𝑉𝐻𝐷𝑅
299.13
⇒ 14 + × 1 = 14.35%
299.13 − (−561.336)
(IRR is 17.15%, NPV @ 10% is ₹4,281 and MIRR is 14.36%)
Note: In Excel® the MIRR comes out 14.356%
Merits
1. It provides a good measure of liquidity of project.
2. Unlike payback period, it considers time value of money.
3. Incorporates riskiness of project through appropriate discount rate.
Demerits
1. It is more difficult to calculate than simple payback period.
2. Requires computation of discount rate, which is a tedious task.
3. Like payback period, it also ignores cash flows occurring after the payback period.
Decision Rule
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝐸𝑅𝑅 > 1 = 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝐸𝑅𝑅 < 1 = 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Decision Rule
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑆𝑅𝑅 > 1 = 𝐴𝑐𝑐𝑒𝑝𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
𝐼𝑓 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡’𝑠 𝑆𝑅𝑅 < 1 = 𝑅𝑒𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡
Examples
• Coca Cola: In the late 80s Coca-Cola applied EVA to its product lines. The analysis
suggested that several of its product lines were unprofitable. Consequently, Coca-Cola
discontinued its investments in businesses such as pasta and wines.
• United States Postal Service (UPS): In 1995, the United States Postal Service (USPS)
adopted the EVA to improve control and productivity. The USPS employs almost $15 billion
in capital, implying at a 12% rate it must earn $180 million just to cover its capital cost.
Different firms adopt EVA for different reasons. (See SPX 1995 Annual Report reprinted in Anthony,
Banker et. al. pp 587)
* Economic Value Added and EVA are trademarks of Stern Stewart & Company.
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 32
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 33
Illustration
Example 16 (Illustration 5)
Calculate ARR and payback period for project A and B using the data given below—
Item Project A Project B
Cost ₹56,125 ₹56,125
Net income after depreciation and taxes—
Year ₹ ₹
1 3,375 11,375
2 5,375 9,375
3 7,375 7,375
4 9,375 5,375
5 11,375 3,375
Depreciation has been charged on straight line method. Life of the both the projects is 5 years.
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2003)
Solution
56,125
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡(𝐴) = ⇒ ₹28,062.50
2
56,125
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡(𝐵) = ⇒ ₹28,062.50
2
7,375
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛(𝐴) = × 100 ⇒ 26.28%
28,062.50
7,375
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛(𝐵) = × 100 ⇒ 26.28%
28,062.50
Example 17 (Illustration 7)
A firm with the cost of capital of 10% is considering two mutually exclusive projects X and Y, details
of which are as follows—
Year Project X Project Y
0 -1,00,000 -1,00,000
Solution
Example 18 (Illustration 8)
East Delhi Company Private Limited is considering the purchase of new manufacturing plants. Two
alternative plants A and B are available, each having the initial outlay of ₹10,00,000 and require
₹50,000 as additional working capital at the end of 1st year. Expected net cash flows are as follows—
Year Plant A Plant B
1 1,00,000 3,00,000
2 3,00,000 4,00,000
3 4,00,000 5,00,000
4 6,00,000 3,00,000
5 4,00,000 2,00,000
Minimum rate of return is 10%. Calculate the profitability of the plants and which plant should be
accepted?
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2013)
Solution
Present value of cash Present value of cash
𝑪𝑶𝒕 𝑪𝑭𝑨𝑻𝒕 outflows inflows
Year A B A B 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟎%,𝒏 A B A B
0 10,00,000 10,00,000 -- -- 1.000 10,00,000 10,00,000 -- --
1 50,000 50,000 1,00,000 3,00,000 0.909 45,450 45,450 90,900 2,72,700
2 -- -- 3,00,000 4,00,000 0.826 -- -- 2,47,800 3,30,400
3 -- -- 4,00,000 5,00,000 0.751 -- -- 3,00,400 3,75,500
4 -- -- 6,00,000 3,00,000 0.683 -- -- 4,09,800 2,04,900
5 -- -- 4,00,000 2,00,000 0.621 -- -- 2,48,400 1,24,200
5 -- -- 50,000 50,000 0.621 -- -- 31,050 31,050
Present value of cash outflows and inflows 10,45,450 10,45,450 13,28,350 13,38,750
𝑁𝑃𝑉 = 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 − 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐴) = 13,28,350 − 10,45,450 = ₹2,82,900
𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐵) = 13,38,750 − 10,45,450 = ₹2,93,300
Decision: Since the NPV of project B is higher, so, it should be accepted.
Example 19 (Illustration 9)
A company is considering as to which of the two mutually exclusive projects it should undertake.
Project ‘A’ costs ₹2,00,000 and project ‘B’ costs ₹2,20,000. Both the projects have the same life of 5
years. The company anticipates a cost of capital of 10% and the after-tax cash flows are ₹80,000;
₹80,000; ₹60,000; ₹60,000 and ₹20,000 for the next 5 years for project ‘A’ and ₹50,000; ₹50,000;
₹60,000; ₹90,000 and ₹90,000 for the next 5 years for project ‘B’. Determine the Payback period
and PI for project ‘A’ and ‘B’. Which project would you recommend?
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2015)
Solution
Solution
In this question replacement is there, so, the incremental cash flows shall be calculated.
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 4,80,000
Less: Scrap value of old machine -1,20,000
Less: Tax savings on loss on sales of old machine (See Note) -12,000
Add: Additional working capital investment 2,00,000
Cash outflows 5,48,000
Note:
Salvage value ₹1,20,000
Book value ₹1,60,000
Loss on sales of machinery ₹40,000
Tax savings on capital loss is ₹12,000 i.e. (𝐶𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 × 𝑇𝑎𝑥 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒) ⇒ (₹40,000 × 0.30)
3. Incremental depreciation
Year
Particulars 1 2 3 4
Depreciation on new machine 80,000 80,000 80,000 80,000
Depreciation on old machine 80,000 80,000 0 0
Incremental depreciation 0 0 80,000 80,000
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 5,00,000
Add: Additional working capital investment 50,000
Cash outflows 5,50,000
2. Cash inflows
Year
Particulars 1 2 3 4 5
Sales (1,00,000 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 × ₹5 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡) 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000
Less: Variable cost (1,00,000 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 × ₹2 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡) -2,00,000 -2,00,000 -2,00,000 -2,00,000 2,00,000
Less: Cash fixed cost -50,000 -50,000 -50,000 -50,000 -50,000
Profits before depreciation and tax 2,50,000 2,50,000 2,50,000 2,50,000 2,50,000
Less: Dep. @ 25% on WDV (See below table 3) -1,25,000 -93,750 -70,312 -52,735 -39,551
Profits before tax 1,25,000 1,56,250 1,79,688 1,97,265 2,10,449
Less: Tax @ 30% -37,500 -46,875 -53,906 -59,180 -63,135
Profits after tax 87,500 1,09,375 1,25,782 1,38,085 1,47,314
Add: Depreciation (See below table 3) 1,25,000 93,750 70,312 52,735 39,551
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 38
Add: Scrap value of new machine at the end of 5th year -- -- -- -- 60,000
Add: Recovery of working capital -- -- -- -- 50,000
Add: Tax savings on capital loss (See below table 4) -- -- -- -- 17,596
Cash inflows 2,12,500 2,03,125 1,96,094 1,90,820 3,14,461
3. Depreciation
Year
Particulars 1 2 3 4 5
Book value at the beginning 5,00,000 3,75,000 2,81,250 2,10,938 1,58,203
Less: Depreciation on machine @ 25% on
-1,25,000 -93,750 -70,312 -52,735 -39,551
written down value
Book value at the end 3,75,000 2,81,250 2,10,938 1,58,023 1,18,652
Example 22
The income statement of PQR Limited for the current year as follows—
Particulars Amount (₹) Amount (₹)
Sales 7,00,000
Less: Costs
Material 2,00,000
Labor 2,50,000
Other operating costs 80,000
Depreciation 70,000 -6,00,000
Earnings before interest and taxes 1,00,000
Less: Tax @ 40% -40,000
Earnings after taxes 60,000
The plant manager proposes to replace an existing machine by another machine costing ₹2,40,000.
The new machine will have 8 years life having no salvage value. It is estimated that the new
machine will reduce the labor cost by ₹50,000 per year. The old machine will realize ₹40,000. The
income statement does not include the depreciation on old machine (the one that is going to be
replaced) as the same had been fully depreciated for tax purposes last year though it will continue
to function; if not replaced, for a few years more. It is believed that there will be no change in other
expenses and revenues of the firm due to its replacement. The company requires an after-tax return
of 12%. The tax rate applicable to the company is 30%. Suggest whether the company should buy
the new machine, assuming that the company follows the straight-line method of depreciation and
the same is allowed for tax purposes.
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2018)
3. Incremental depreciation
Particulars Year 1 to 8
Depreciation on new machine (₹2,40,000/8 years) 30,000
Depreciation on old machine 0
Incremental depreciation 30,000
Note-3: Under “existing” calculation the rate of tax is taken as 40% and under “after replacement” calculation the rate
of tax is assumed to be 30%.
Note-4: Same tax rate (either 30% or 40%) can also be taken under both the situations i.e., “Existing” and “After
replacement”. In case of 30% tax rate, incremental cash inflows will be ₹44,000 per annum (NPV would be ₹6,592) and
in case of 40% tax rate, cash inflows will be ₹42,000 per annum (NPV would be -₹3,344).
year onwards; for the first year and second year, it would be ₹240 lakh and ₹360 lakh respectively.
Depreciation is charged @ 33.33% on the basis of written down value (WDV) method. The rate of
income tax may be taken as 35%. The cost of capital is 15%.
At the end of the third year, an additional investment of ₹100 lakh would be required for the
working capital. The terminal value of fixed assets (sold as scrap) may be taken as 10% and for the
current assets at 100%. Give suggestion to EFG Technology Limited regarding taking up the new
project.
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2018)
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
₹(Lakhs)
Cost of the project 600
Add: Working capital investment 150
Cash outflows 750
2. Cash inflows
Year
Particulars 1 2 3 4 5 6
Production capacity (units in lakhs) 12 12 12 12 12 12
Capacity utilization 33.33% 66.67% 90% 100% 100% 100%
Annual output
(𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 × 4 8 10.8 12 12 12
𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑧𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛)
Annual sales @ ₹200 per unit 800 1,600 2,160 2,400 2,400 2,400
Annual contribution @ 40% of sales 320.00 640.00 864.00 960.00 960.00 960.00
Less: Annual fixed cost (excluding dep.) -240.00 -360.00 480.00 480.00 480.00 480.00
Less: Depreciation (see Table 3 below) -200.00 -133.33 -88.89 -59.26 -39.51 -26.34
Profits before taxes -120.00 146.67 295.11 420.74 440.49 453.66
Less: Tax @ 35% This must be saving because of loss -42.00 -51.33 -103.29 -147.26 -154.17 -158.78
Profits after tax -78.00 95.34 191.82 273.48 286.32 294.88
Add: Depreciation (see Table 3 below) 200.00 133.33 88.89 59.26 39.51 26.34
Add: Working capital recovered -- -- -- -- -- 250.00
Add: Scrap value (10% of cost of project) -- -- -- -- -- 60.00
Less: Tax liab. on gain (See below table 4) -- -- -- -- -- -2.56
Cash inflows 122 228.67 280.71 332.74 325.83 628.66
Example 24
A company is considering computerization of its inventory and billing procedures at a cost of
₹2,00,000. Installation charges are ₹50,000. These outlays will be depreciated on a straight-line
basis to zero book value which will also be its salvage value at the end of its life of 5 years. The new
system will require two Computer specialists with annual salaries of ₹40,000 per person. It is also
estimated that annual maintenance expenses of ₹12,000 will have to be incurred. The new system
will lead to reduced production delays, thus, saving of ₹20,000 annually. It will also help to avoid
stock out costs of ₹25,000 per year. Timely billing will increase inflow by ₹8,000 per year. Six
clerical employees, with annual salaries of ₹20,000 each, will also become redundant. The company
tax rate is 30% and required rate of return is 12%. Evaluate the project. no longer required
What will be your decision if salvage value is taken as ₹30,000 for the purpose of calculating
depreciation, even though the machine will be worthless in terms of resale value after 5 years?
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2019)
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 2,00,000
Add: Installation charges 50,000
Cash outflows 2,50,000
2. Cash inflows
Particulars Year (1 to 5)
Annual salaries (₹40,000 × 2 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑜𝑛𝑠) -80,000
Annual maintenance expenses -12,000
Savings due to reduced production delays 20,000
Avoidance of stock out cost 25,000
Increase in inflow due to timely billing 8,000
Savings of salaries of six clerks (₹20,000 × 6 𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑟𝑘𝑠) 1,20,000
Net savings or profits 81,000
Less: Depreciation (₹2,50,000/5 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠) -50,000
Profits before tax 31,000
Less: Tax at 30% -9,300
Profits after tax 21,700
Add: Depreciation 50,000
Cash inflows 71,700
What will be your decision if salvage value is taken as ₹30,000 for the
purpose of calculating depreciation, even though the machine will be
worthless in terms of resale value after 5 years?
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 2,00,000
Add: Installation charges 50,000
Cash outflows 2,50,000
2. Cash inflows
Particulars Year (1 to 5)
Annual salaries (₹40,000 × 2 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑜𝑛𝑠) -80,000
Annual maintenance expenses -12,000
Savings due to reduced production delays 20,000
Avoidance of stock out cost 25,000
Increase in inflow due to timely billing 8,000
Savings of salaries of six clerks (₹20,000 × 6 𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑟𝑘𝑠) 1,20,000
Net savings or profits 81,000
Less: Depreciation (₹2,50,000 − ₹30,000)/5 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 -44,000
Profits before tax 37,000
Less: tax at 30% -11,100
Profits after tax 25,900
Add: Depreciation 44,000
Cash inflows 69,900
2. Cash inflows
Particulars Year (1 to 5)
Annual salaries (₹40,000 × 2 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑠𝑜𝑛𝑠) -80,000
Annual maintenance expenses -12,000
Savings due to reduced production delays 20,000
Avoidance of stock out cost 25,000
Increase in inflow due to timely billing 8,000
Savings of salaries of six clerks (₹20,000 × 6 𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑟𝑘𝑠) 1,20,000
Net savings or profits 81,000
Less: Depreciation (₹2,50,000 − ₹30,000)/5 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 -44,000
Profits before tax 37,000
Less: tax at 30% -11,100
Profits after tax 25,900
Example 25
Able electronics is considering a proposal to replace a machine which was bought three years ago
for ₹10,00,000. It has a remaining life of 5 years after which it will have no salvage value. But if it is
sold now, it will realize ₹6,00,000. Its maintenance cost is expected to increase by ₹50,000 per
annum from the sixth year of its installation. A new, more efficient machine is available for
₹15,00,000. This machine can be sold for ₹6,00,000 after completing its life of 5 years. This new
machine will lead to increased productivity, thereby increasing the revenue by ₹1,50,000 per
annum. It will also reduce operating expenses by ₹1,00,000 per annum. The company’s tax rate is
50% and cost of capital is 10%. It uses straight line method of depreciation. Advise the company
about the replacement.
What will be your decision if the expected salvage value of the new machine is ₹2,00,000?
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2019)
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 15,00,000
Less: Scrap value of old machine -6,00,000
Less: Tax savings on loss on sales of old machine (See Note) -12,500
Cash outflows 8,87,500
Note:
Salvage value ₹6,00,000
Book value at the end of 3rd year** ₹6,25,000
Loss on sales of machinery ₹25,000
Tax savings on capital loss is ₹12,500 i.e., (𝐶𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 × 𝑇𝑎𝑥 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒) ⇒ (₹25,000 × 0.50)
3. Incremental depreciation
Particulars Year 1 to 5
Depreciation on new machine [(₹15,00,000 − ₹6,00,000)/5 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠] 1,80,000
Depreciation on old machine [(₹10,00,000 − ₹0)/8 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠] -1,25,000
Incremental depreciation 55,000
What will be your decision if the expected salvage value of the new
machine is ₹2,00,000?
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 15,00,000
Less: Scrap value of old machine -6,00,000
Less: Tax savings on gain on sales of old machine (See Note) -12,500
Cash outflows 8,87,500
Note:
Salvage value ₹6,00,000
Book value at the end of 3 year**
rd ₹6,25,000
Loss on sales of machinery ₹25,000
Tax savings on capital loss is ₹12,500 i.e. (𝐶𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 × 𝑇𝑎𝑥 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒) ⇒ (₹25,000 × 0.50)
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine ₹15,00,000
2. Cash inflows
Year 1 to 4 Year 5
Revenue 7,90,000 7,90,000
Less: Operating cost -2,25,000 -2,25,000
Less: Depreciation (₹15,00,000 − ₹3,00,000)/5 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 -2,40,000 -2,40,000
Profits before tax 3,25,000 3,25,000
Less: Tax @ 30% -97,500 -97,500
Profits after tax 2,27,500 2,27,500
Add: Depreciation 2,40,000 2,40,000
Less: Loss of commission income (₹15,000 × 12 𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑡ℎ𝑠) -1,80,000 -1,80,000
Add: Scrap value -- 3,00,000
Net annual cash inflows 2,87,500 5,87,500
4. Profitability index
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝑃𝐼/𝐵𝐶 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 =
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
12,06,537.50
𝑃𝐼/𝐵𝐶 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜 = = 0.8044
15,00,000
Decision: Since the NPV is negative and the PI is less than 1, so, the project should not be accepted.
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 5,00,000
Add: Additional working capital investment 50,000
Cash outflows 5,50,000
2. Cash inflows
Year
Particulars 1 2 3 4 5
Sales (1,00,000 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 × ₹5 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡) 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000 5,00,000
Less: Variable cost -2,00,000 -2,00,000 -2,00,000 -2,00,000 2,00,000
Less: Cash fixed cost -50,000 -50,000 -50,000 -50,000 -50,000
Profits before depreciation and tax 2,50,000 2,50,000 2,50,000 2,50,000 2,50,000
Less: Depreciation @ 25% on written down value -1,25,000 -93,750 -70,312 -52,735 -39,551
Profits before tax 1,25,000 1,56,250 1,79,688 1,97,265 2,10,449
Less: Tax @ 30% -37,500 -46,875 -53,906 -59,180 -63,135
Profits after tax 87,500 1,09,375 1,25,782 1,38,085 1,47,314
Add: Depreciation (See below table 3) 1,25,000 93,750 70,312 52,735 39,551
Add: Scrap value of new machine at the end of 5th year -- -- -- -- 60,000
Add: Recovery of working capital -- -- -- -- 50,000
Add: Tax savings on capital loss (See below table 4) -- -- -- -- 17,596
Cash inflows 2,12,500 2,03,125 1,96,094 1,90,820 3,14,461
3. Depreciation
Year
Particulars 1 2 3 4 5
Book value at the beginning 5,00,000 3,75,000 2,81,250 2,10,938 1,58,203
Less: Depreciation on machine @ 25% on
written down value -1,25,000 -93,750 -70,312 -52,735 -39,551
Book value at the end of the year 3,75,000 2,81,250 2,10,938 1,58,023 1,18,652
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of new plant 20,90,000
Add: Shipping and installation cost 30,000
Add: Initial working capital requirement 80,000
Cash outflows 22,00,000
Solution
1. Cash outflows and inflows (combined)
Year
Particulars 0 1 2 3 4 5
- Capital cost -20,000 -12,000 -- -- -- --
- Investment in working capital -6,000 -8,000 -- -- -- --
+ Projected net profit after dep. -- 10,000 10,000 10,000 10,000 --
+ Depreciation -- 8,000 8,000 8,000 8,000 --
+ Residual value -- -- -- -- 2,000 --
- Payment of tax -- -- -4,000 -4,000 -4,000 -4,800
+ Recovery of working capital -- -- -- -- -- 14,000
Net cash flows -26,000 -2,000 14,000 14,000 16,000 9,200
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 50
2. Calculation of net present value
Year 𝑪𝑭𝒕 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟎%,𝒏 Present value at 10%
0 -26,000 1.000 -26,000
1 -2,000 0.909 -1,818
2 14,000 0.826 11,564
3 14,000 0.751 10,514
4 16,000 0.683 10,928
5 9,200 0.621 5,713
Net Present Value (NPV) 10,901
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of new plant 1,30,000
Less: Scrap value of the old machine -20,000
Cash outflows 1,10,000
2. Incremental depreciation
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑦 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
= ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹28,000
1,30,000 − 18,000
=
4
𝐵𝑜𝑜𝑘 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 24,000
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒 = ⇒= ₹6,000
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 4
Incremental depreciation ₹22,000
Note: Scrap value of old machine at the end of its life is not given in the question.
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machine 3,00,000
Less: Scrap value of old machine -50,000
Less: Tax savings on loss on sales of old machine (See Note) -20,000
Cash outflows 2,30,000
Note:
Salvage value ₹50,000
Book value ₹1,00,000
Loss on sales of machinery ₹50,000
Tax savings on capital loss is ₹20,000 i.e. (𝐶𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑠 × 𝑇𝑎𝑥 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒) ⇒ (₹50,000 × 0.40)
2. Incremental depreciation
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑦 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
= ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹24,000
3,00,000 − 60,000
=
10
𝐵𝑜𝑜𝑘 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒 = ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹10,000
1,00,000
=
10
Incremental depreciation ₹14,000
Note: Scrap value of old machine at the end of its life is not given in the question.
Solution
3. Incremental depreciation
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑦 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
= ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹3,60,000
20,00,000 − 2,00,000
=
5
3. Incremental depreciation
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑦 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
= ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹3,40,000
20,00,000 − 3,00,000
=
5
𝐵𝑜𝑜𝑘 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒 = ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹80,000
4,00,000
=
5
Incremental depreciation ₹2,60,000
Note: Scrap value of old machine at the end of its life is not given in the question.
Solution
3. Incremental depreciation
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 55
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑦 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
= ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹1,00,000
5,00,000 − 0
=
5
𝐵𝑜𝑜𝑘 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒 = ⇒
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 ₹80,000
4,00,000
=
5
Incremental depreciation ₹20,000
Note: Scrap value of old machine at the end of its life is given nil in the question.
(b) Will there be any change in your view if machine ‘X’ has not been
installed and the company has to select any one of the two machines?
In such a case the decision regarding replacement is irrelevant as the machine ‘X’ has not been
installed. The profitability of both the machines shall be compared using NPV and decision of
investment in the best one shall be taken (Mutually exclusive decision).
1. Cash inflows
Particulars Machine ‘X’ Machine ‘Y’
Sales (𝟏, 𝟓𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝒖𝒏𝒊𝒕𝒔 × ₹𝟏𝟐 𝒑𝒆𝒓 𝒖𝒏𝒊𝒕) 18,00,000 18,00,000
Less: Operating costs -4,00,000 -3,60,000
Less: Fixed costs (1,50,000 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 × ₹6 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡) -9,00,000 -9,00,000
Less: Depreciation -80,000 -1,00,000
Profits before tax (Sales – Cost of sales) 4,20,000 4,40,000
Less: Tax @ 40% -1,68,000 -1,76,000
Profits after tax 2,52,000 2,64,000
Add: Depreciation 80,000 1,00,000
Cash inflows 3,32,000 3,64,000
(iv) The relevant cash flows, PB and NPV assuming the machining system
can be sold for ₹50,000 at the end of 5 years when its book value is
supposed to be zero
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machining system 7,50,000
Add: Installation cost 50,000
Cash outflows 8,00,000
(v) The relevant cash flows, PB and NPV assuming that the depreciated
book value of the system upon termination at the end of 5th year will
stood at ₹50,000. However, it will not fetch anything i.e. its sales value
will be zero
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of the machining system 7,50,000
Add: Installation cost 50,000
Cash outflows 8,00,000
4. Payback period
Year 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡 𝐶𝑢𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒 𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡
1 2,99,500 2,99,500
2 2,99,500 5,99,000
3 2,99,500 8,98,500
4 2,99,500 11,98,000
5 3,17,000 15,15,000
(8,00,000 − 5,99,000)
𝑃𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = 2 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 + ⇒ 2.67 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
2,99,500
or
𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐼𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡/𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦 8,00,000
𝑃𝑎𝑦𝑏𝑎𝑐𝑘 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑑 = =
𝐶𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑜𝑟 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 2,99,500
= 2.67 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
Solution
In this question cash inflows are not given rather outflows (cost) are given, so, the viability of the
machines can be assessed using the equivalent annual cost of the machines. Formula of the
calculation of equivalent annual cost is as follows—
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠
𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 = ⇒
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟,𝑛 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹𝑟,𝑛
The machine with lower equivalent annual cost shall be preferred.
Machine ‘A’
Initial outlay 7,50,000
Present value of annual op. cost (₹2,00,000 × 𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹9%,3 ) ⇒ (₹2,00,000 × 2.5313) 5,06,260
Present value of cash outflows 12,56,260
𝑃𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑠ℎ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤𝑠 12,56,260
𝐸𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 = ⇒ 4,96,290
𝑃𝑉𝐴𝐹9%,3 2.5313
Example 36
A project required an initial outlay of ₹20,000. It generates year ending profits of ₹12,000, ₹6,000,
₹4,000, ₹10,000 and ₹10,000 from the end of the first year to the end of fifth year. The required rate
of return is 10% and pays tax at 50% rate. The project has a life of 5 years and is depreciated on
straight line method basis. Assume that the above year ending profits are before depreciation and
tax. You are required to compute—
(i) Payback period
(ii) Average rate of return
(iii) Net present value
Solution
Profits Profits before Profits after Cash flows
before taxes i.e. profits Tax taxes i.e. profits after tax i.e.
dep. and before dep. and @ before taxes- profits after
Year tax Dep. taxes 50% taxes taxes+Dep.
1 12,000 4,000 8,000 4,000 4,000 8,000
2 6,000 4,000 2,000 1,000 1,000 5,000
3 4,000 4,000 -- -- -- 4,000
4 10,000 4,000 6,000 3,000 3,000 7,000
5 10,000 4,000 6,000 3,000 3,000 7,000
𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝐼𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡/𝑂𝑢𝑡𝑙𝑎𝑦 − 𝑆𝑙𝑎𝑣𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 20,000 − 0
𝐷𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 = ⇒ ⇒ 𝑅𝑠. 4,000
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝐿𝑖𝑓𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑗𝑒𝑐𝑡 5
Example 37
A company has to make a choice between two projects A and B. The initial outlay of these projects is
₹2,70,000 and ₹4,80,000 respectively. The scrap value after 5 years ₹10,000 and ₹30,000
respectively. The opportunity cost of capital of the company is 16%. The annual cash flows are as
under—
Year Project A Project B
1 -- 1,20,000
2 60,000 1,68,000
3 2,64,000 1,92,000
4 1,68,000 2,04,000
5 1,78,000 2,10,000
You are required to calculate—
(i) Payback period
(ii) Profitability index
(B. Com Honors, Delhi University, 2013)
Solution
Example 38
A company is considering which of two mutually exclusive projects it should undertake. The finance
director thinks that project with higher net present value should be chosen as both projects have
the same financial outlay and length of life. The company anticipates a cost of capital of 10% and the
net after tax cash flows of the project are as follows—
Year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Project X (2,10,000) 40,000 80,000 90,000 75,000 25,000
Project Y (2,10,000) 2,22,000 10,000 10,000 6,000 6,000
Compute: The NPV and PI of each project and state with reasons which project you would
recommend?
(B. Com Honors, Delhi University, 2011)
Solution
(ii) Decision/Recommendation
We recommend the project A. This has a higher Net Present Value and higher Profitability Index as
compared to B. Since the initial outlay is same, so, both the methods are giving same results. In case
initial outlay is not same then the project with higher Net Present Value should be recommended.
Example 39
A company is considering the replacement of an existing obsolete machine. It is faced with two
alternatives—
(i) Buy machine A which is similar to the existing machine.
(ii) To buy machine B which is more expensive and has higher capacity,
The cash flows after tax at the present level of operations for the two alternatives are as follows—
Year 0 1 2 3 4 5
Machine A (25,00,000) -- 5,00,000 20,00,000 14,00,000 14,00,000
Machine B (40,00,000) 10,00,000 14,00,000 16,00,000 17,00,000 15,00,000
Cost of capital is 10% calculate—
(i) Net present value
(ii) Profitability index
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 63
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2006)
Solution
(ii) Decision/Recommendation
We recommend the machine B. This has a higher Net Present Value as compared to machine A. But
if we compare the Profitability Index then machine A is better. It is because the Profitability Index is
a relative measurement. So, in case of these machines contradictory results are there. In such a case
the results given by Net Present Value method shall be used to accept/reject the proposal as it helps
in achieving the wealth maximization goal.
Example 40
A company has to make a choice between two projects namely A and B. The initial outlay of two
projects is ₹1,35,000 and ₹2,40,000 respectively for A and B. Opportunity cost of capital is 16%. The
annual cash inflows and discounting factors are as under—
Year Project A Project B 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟔%,𝒏
1 -- 60,000 0.862
2 30,000 84,000 0.743
3 1,32,000 96,000 0.641
4 84,000 1,02,000 0.552
5 84,000 90,000 0.476
Calculate the discounted payback period.
(CA PE-II, 2002)
Solution In DISCOUNTED Payback period, we take into account the cumulative PRESENT VALUES
Example 41
Lotus Limited purchased a special machine one year ago at a cost of ₹12,000. At that time the
machine was estimated to have a useful life of 6 years and no scrap value. The annual cash
operating expenses are ₹20,000. A new machine is available in the market which can do the same
job and its annual operating expenses are ₹17,000. The cost of new machine is ₹21,000 and has an
estimated useful life of 5 years with zero scrap value. The old machine can be sold for ₹10,000.
Straight line method of depreciation is in use and tax rate is 40%. Cost of capital is 8%. Compute the
incremental cash inflows.
Solution
1. Initial cash outflows/outlay
Cost of new machine 21,000
Less: Scrap value of old machine -10,000
Add/Less: Tax savings/liability on loss on sales of old machine (See Note) 0
Cash outflows 11,000
Note:
Net Salvage value ₹10,000
Book value (₹12,000-₹2,000 (Dep. of 1 year)) ₹10,000
Profit/Loss on sales of machinery ₹ 0
3. Incremental depreciation
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑛𝑒𝑤 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒
𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑦 − 𝑆𝑐𝑟𝑎𝑝 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 21,000 − 0 ₹4,200
= ⇒=
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 5
𝐵𝑜𝑜𝑘 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑢𝑒 12,000
𝐴𝑛𝑛𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑙𝑑 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒 = ⇒= ₹2,000
𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 6
Incremental depreciation ₹2,200
Note: Scrap value of old machine at the end of its life is given nil in the question.
Example 42
The manager of the Abdullah Limited is contemplating the purchase of new machine to replace a
machine which has been in operation in the factory from the last 5 years. Ignoring interest but
considering tax at 50% of net earnings, suggest which of the two alternatives should be preferred.
The following are the details—
Particulars Old machine New machine
Purchase price ₹40,000 ₹60,000
Estimated useful life 10 years 10 years
Machine running hours per annum 2,000 2,000
Units produced per hour 24 36
Wages per running per hour ₹3 ₹5.25
Power per annum ₹2,000 ₹4,500
Consumable stores per annum ₹6,000 ₹7,500
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 65
All other charges per annum ₹8,000 ₹9,000
Material cost per unit ₹0.50 ₹0.50
Selling price per unit ₹1.25 ₹1.25
Solution
1. Calculation of Units produced
Particulars Old machine New machine
𝑅𝑢𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 𝑅𝑢𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
× 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 × 𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟
Units produced
⇒ 2,000 × 24 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 ⇒ 2,000 × 36 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟
= 48,000 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 = 72,000 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
2. Calculation of profits
Old New
machine machine
Particulars ₹ ₹
Sales (𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 × 𝑆𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑐𝑒 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 ) 60,000 90,000
Less: Cost of sales
Direct material (𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠 × 𝑀𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡) -24,000 -36,000
Wages (𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 × 𝑊𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑠 𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑟𝑢𝑛𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟) -6000 -10,500
Power per annum -2,000 -4,500
Consumable stores per annum -6,000 -7,500
Other charges per annum -8,000 -9,000
Depreciation (𝐶𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒/𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑙𝑖𝑓𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑚𝑎𝑐ℎ𝑖𝑛𝑒) -4,000 -6,000
Profits before tax 10,000 16,500
Less: Tax @ 50% -5,000 -8,250
Profits after tax 5,000 8,250
𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑛𝑖𝑛𝑔𝑠 = ₹8,250 − ₹5,000 ⇒ ₹3,250
𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 = ₹60,000 − ₹40,000 ⇒ ₹20,000
In this question discount rate is not given, so, Average Rate of Return can be used to decide which
machine to purchase.
𝐴𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑁𝑒𝑡 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑖𝑡𝑠 3,250
𝐴𝑅𝑅 = × 100 ⇒ × 100 ⇒ 16.25%
𝐼𝑛𝑐𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝐼𝑛𝑣𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 20,000
Decision: The ARR is positive; it means that the new machine is providing additional benefits. So,
the new machine can be purchased.
Example 43
Blue Diamond is a marketing organization that is considering launch of a product with two different
strategies: Strategy A and Strategy B. It has to choose either of the two strategies. Both the
strategies have initial outlay of ₹20 (2,000 lakhs) crores but have streams of cash inflows. Over the
period of 5 years, the cash flows of the strategies are estimated as follows—
Cash flows in lakhs of rupees
Year Strategy A Strategy B
0 -2,000 -2,000
1 500 1,000
2 850 875
3 550 500
4 650 140
5 400 200
1. Find the NPV of both the strategies at discount rates between 11% and 17% at the intervals
of 2%.
Solution
1. Find the NPV of both the strategies at discount rates between 11% and
17% at the intervals of 2%.
STRATEGY–A
Year Cash PVF @ PVF @ PVF @ PVF PV @ PV @ PV @ PV @
Flows 11% 13% 15% @ 11% 13% 15% 17%
17%
0 -2,000 1 1 1 1 -2,000.00 -2,000.00 -2,000.00 -2,000.00
1 500 0.900 0.885 0.870 0.855 450.45 442.48 434.78 427.35
2 850 0.811 0.783 0.756 0.731 689.88 665.67 642.72 620.94
3 550 0.731 0.693 0.658 0.624 402.16 381.18 361.63 343.40
4 650 0.659 0.613 0.572 0.534 428.18 398.66 371.64 346.87
5 400 0.593 0.543 0.497 0.456 237.38 217.10 198.87 182.44
NPV 208.05 105.09 9.64 -79.00
STRATEGY–B
Year Cash PVF @ PVF @ PVF @ PVF PV @ PV @ PV @ PV @
Flows 11% 13% 15% @ 11% 13% 15% 17%
17%
0 -2,000 1 1 1 1 -2000.00 -2000.00 -2000.00 -2000.00
1 1,000 0.900 0.885 0.870 0.855 900.90 884.96 869.57 854.70
2 875 0.811 0.783 0.756 0.731 710.17 685.25 661.63 639.20
3 500 0.731 0.693 0.658 0.624 365.60 346.53 328.76 312.19
4 140 0.659 0.613 0.572 0.534 92.2223 85.86 80.05 74.71
5 200 0.593 0.543 0.497 0.456 118.69 108.55 99.44 91.22
NPV 187.578 111.15 39.43 -27.98
The RADR calculated above now can be used to calculate the risk adjusted NPV of the project.
Formula to calculate the NPV is—
𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝑡
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝑅𝐴 = ∑ − 𝐶𝑂0
(1 + 𝑘𝑎𝑑 )𝑡
𝑡=1
Where,
𝑁𝑃𝑉𝑅𝐴 = Risk adjusted NPV
𝑡 = Time
𝑛 = Life of the project
𝐶𝐹𝑡 = Cash flows after tax in 𝑡𝑡ℎ period
𝑘𝑎𝑑 = Risk adjusted discount rate
𝐶𝑂0 = Cash outflows in 0 year
Solution
Proposal A
Computation of NPV
Certainty
equivalent Adjusted cash
Cash inflows factors flows Present
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 ) (𝐶𝐸𝑡 × 𝛼𝑡 ) 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟖%,𝒏 value at 8%
0 -3,40,000 1.00 -3,40,000 1.000 -3,40,000
1 1,80,000 0.80 1,44,000 0.926 1,33,344
2 2,00,000 0.70 1,40,000 0.857 1,19,980
3 2,00,000 0.60 1,20,000 0.794 95,280
NPV 8,604
Proposal B
Computation of NPV
Certainty
equivalent Adjusted cash
Cash inflows factors flows Present
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 ) (𝐶𝐸𝑡 × 𝛼𝑡 ) 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟖%,𝒏 value at 8%
0 -3,30,000 1.00 -3,40,000 1.000 -3,30,000
1 1,80,000 0.90 1,6,2000 0.926 1,50,012
2 1,80,000 0.80 1,44,000 0.857 1,23,408
3 2,00,000 0.70 1,40,000 0.794 1,11,160
NPV 54,580
Decision: Since the NPV of proposal B is higher, so, it should be accepted.
Example 2
A company is considering two mutually exclusive projects. The company uses a certainty equivalent
approach. The estimated cash flows and certainty equivalents for each of the projects are as
follows—
Proposal A Proposal B
Expected cash Certainty Expected cash Certainty
inflows equivalent factors inflows equivalent factors
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 ) (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 )
0 -30,000 1.00 -40,000 1.00
1 15,000 0.95 25,000 0.90
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 69
2 18,000 0.85 20,000 0.80
3 20,000 0.70 25,000 0.70
4 20,000 0.65 18,000 0.60
Which project should be accepted, if the required rate of return of the firm is 10%?
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2007)
Solution
Project A
Computation of NPV
Certainty
equivalent Adjusted cash
Cash inflows factors flows Present
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 ) (𝐶𝐸𝑡 × 𝛼𝑡 ) 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟎%,𝒏 value at 8%
0 -30,000 1.00 -30,000 1.000 -30,000
1 15,000 0.95 14,250 0.909 12,953
2 18,000 0.85 15,300 0.826 12,638
3 20,000 0.70 14,000 0.751 10,514
4 20,000 0.65 13,000 0.683 8,879
NPV 14,984
Project B
Computation of NPV
Certainty
equivalent Adjusted cash
Cash inflows factors flows Present
Year (𝐶𝐸𝒕 ) (𝛼𝑡 ) (𝐶𝐸𝑡 × 𝛼𝑡 ) 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟎%,𝒏 value at 8%
0 -40,000 1.00 -40,000 1.000 -40,000
1 25,000 0.90 22,500 0.909 20,453
2 20,000 0.80 16,000 0.826 13,216
3 25,000 0.70 17,500 0.751 13,143
4 18,000 0.60 10,800 0.683 7,376
NPV 14,188
Decision: Since the NPV of project A is higher, so, it should be accepted.
Example 3
XYZ Limited is considering the proposal of buying of the two machines to manufacture a new
product. Each of these machines requires an investment of ₹50,000 and is expected to provide
benefits over a period of 4 years. After the expiry of useful life of machine, the sellers of both the
machines have guaranteed to buy back the machine at ₹5,000. The management of the company use
CE approach to evaluate risky investment. The company’s risk adjusted discount rate is 16% (𝑘𝑎𝑑 )
and risk-free rate is 10% (𝑘𝑅𝑓 ). The expected values of the net cash flows (𝐶𝐸𝑒𝑡 ) with their
certainty equivalents (𝛼𝑡 ) are as follows—
Proposal A Proposal B
Expected cash Certainty Expected cash Certainty
inflows equivalent factors inflows equivalent factors
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 ) (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼𝑡 )
1 30,000 0.8 18,000 0.9
2 30,000 0.7 36,000 0.8
3 30,000 0.6 24,000 0.7
4 30,000 0.5 32,000 0.4
4 5,000 1.0 5,000 1.0
Which machine, should be purchased by the company?
(B. Com. Honors, Delhi University, 2017)
Machine 1
Computation of NPV
Certainty
equivalent Adjusted cash
Cash inflows factors flows Present
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) 𝛼𝑡 (𝐶𝐸𝑡 × 𝛼𝑡 ) 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟎%,𝒏 value at 8%
0 -50,000 1.0 -50,000 1.000 -50,000
1 30,000 0.8 24,000 0.909 21,816
2 30,000 0.7 21,000 0.826 17,346
3 30,000 0.6 18,000 0.751 13,518
4 30,000 0.5 15,000 0.683 10,245
4 5,000 1.0 5,000 0.683 3,415
NPV 16,340
Machine 1
Computation of NPV
Certainty
Cash equivalent Adjusted cash
inflows factors flows Present
Year (𝐶𝐸𝑡 ) (𝛼)𝒕 (𝐶𝐸 𝑡 × 𝛼𝑡 ) 𝑷𝑽𝑭𝟏𝟎%,𝒏 value at 8%
0 -50,000 1.0 -50,000 1.000 -50,000.00
1 18,000 0.9 16,200 0.909 14,725.80
2 36,000 0.8 28,800 0.826 23,788.80
3 24,000 0.7 16,800 0.751 12,616.80
4 32,000 0.4 12,800 0.683 8,742.40
4 5,000 1.0 5,000 0.683 3,415.00
NPV 13,288.80
Decision: Since the NPV of proposal Ai is higher, so, it should be accepted.
Example 4
Sushant Singh Limited gives you the following information related to a project—
Year Cash outflows and cash inflows after taxes
0 -5,00,000
1 3,00,000
2 2,50,000
3 2,50,000
4 2,00,000
5 2,00,000
Cost of capital is 12%, interest rate on government securities is 8% and the risk index is 2.5.
Determine the net present value using risk adjusted discount rate approach and suggest whether
the investment can be made in this project or not.
Solution
Let us calculate the risk adjusted discount rate first—
𝑅𝐴𝐷𝑅(𝑘𝑎𝑑 ) = 𝑘𝑅𝑓 + [𝑅𝑖 × (𝑘𝑂 − 𝑘𝑅𝑓 )] ⇒ 0.08 + [2.5 × (0.12 − 0.08)] = 0.18
Where,
𝑅𝐴𝐷𝑅 = Risk adjusted discount rate
𝑘𝑎𝑑 = Risk adjusted discount rate
𝑘𝑅𝑓 = Risk free discount rate
𝑅𝑖 = Risk index for project
𝑘𝑂 = Overall cost of capital
Now the calculation of net present value will be as follows—
Q. 2.: What are the similarities and dissimilarities between Net Present
Value (NPV) and Internal Rate of Return (IRR)? Which of these
methods will you prefer when they give different ranking of
investment proposals? Why?
Q. 3.: Compare the NPV method with IRR method. What are the steps
involved in the calculation of IRR in case of unequal cash flows?
Similarities
Following are the points of similarities between NPV and IRR—
Dissimilarities
1. Discount rate: Under NPV method, the underlying discount rate is known and is equal to
the opportunity cost of capital as it represents the minimum rate of return required to
accept a project. However, under IRR method, the discount rate is unknown and is
generated (IRR) by trial and error procedure. This IRR equates the present value of outflows
with the present value of cash inflows. Thus, this generated IRR is the rate at which 𝑁𝑃𝑉 =
0.
2. Reinvestment assumption: Though both the methods assume that intermediate cash
inflows are reinvested at discount rates, NPV method assumes that these cash inflows are
reinvested at cost of capital while IRR method assumes the reinvestment at IRR only. The
assumption of NPV is more realistic as it indicates that all proposals earn at least the cost of
capital. However, the unrealistic assumption of IRR is relaxed under its modified version i.e.
Modified Internal Rate of Return (MIRR), wherein the cash flows are assumed to be
reinvested at specified rate of return (generally cost of capital), and hence, the results of
NPV and MIRR always match.
3. Multiple rates: Due to the mathematics inherently involved in IRR, sometimes it may result
in negative or multiple internal rates. It mainly happens in non-conventional investments.
However, this limitation is not suffered by NPV method.
4. Value-additivity principle: NPV of two different proposals can be added like NPV (𝐴 +
𝐵) = 𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐴) + 𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐵). This is known as the principle of value additivity. If NPV of all the
projects are known, then one can calculate the firm’s NPV by simply adding them all up.
However, unlike NPV, IRR of two proposals cannot be added i.e. IRR (𝐴 + 𝐵) ≠ 𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝐴) +
𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝐵). This can be shown with the help of an example—
A B 𝑨+𝑩
Proposal (₹) (₹) (₹)
𝐶0 (16,000) (18,000) (34,000)
𝐶1 8,000 9,000 17,000
𝐶2 7,000 7,500 14,500
𝐶3 6,000 6,500 12,500
NPV at 𝑘 = 15% 194.62 (228.98) (34.36)
IRR 16% 14% 15%
Here,
𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐴) + 𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐵) = 94.62 + (228.98) = (34.36) = 𝑁𝑃𝑉(𝐴 + 𝐵)
𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝐴) + 𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝐵) = 16% + 14% = 30% ≠ 𝐼𝑅𝑅(𝐴 + 𝐵)
Thus, IRR method fails to meet the principle of value-additivity.
Decision making in case of NPV and IRR/Ranking in cash of NPV and IRR
In case of NPV: Project is accepted if the NPV>0 and the project is rejected if the NPV<0.
In case of IRR: Project is selected if the 𝐼𝑅𝑅 > 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛/𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑙/
𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛 and the project is rejected if the 𝐼𝑅𝑅 < 𝑆𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛/
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑝𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑙/𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑒𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑛.
A project with positive 𝑁𝑃𝑉 i.e. 𝑁𝑃𝑉 > 0 always has IRR greater than the discount rate (𝑘). So, both
the methods give the same results at the time of accepting or rejecting a project.
Example
There are two proposals A and B with a life of one year and discount rate is 10%. Calculate the NPV
and IRR.
Cash outflows Cash inflows
Particulars (₹) (₹)
Proposal A 30,000 40,000
Proposal B 20,000 25,000
Solution
10,000 5,000
𝐼𝑅𝑅𝐴 = ⇒ 0.3333 𝐼𝑅𝑅𝐵 = ⇒ 0.25
30,000 20,000
Example
Cash flows of project A Cash flows of project B
Year (₹) (₹)
0 -20,000 -60,000
1 13,000 35,000
2 15,000 45,000
Cost of capital is 10%. Evaluate the projects using NPV and IRR.
Solution
Particulars Project A Project B Higher rank
NPV ₹4,207 ₹8,985 Project B
IRR 25% 20.52% Project A
As per NPV the project B is to be accepted while on the basis of IRR the project A is to be accepted.
The conflict in the results is due to the fact that there is huge difference in the size of two projects.
Project B has high investment, so, its NPV is also high. But IRR is a relative measurement, so, it does
not get affected by the size of the investment. In case of such a conflict the results given by the NPV
are used because NPV method is superior and more in line with the wealth maximization goal.
However, when the firm is suffering from liquidity crunch, it should decide according to Profitability
Index method.
Example
Cash flows
X Y
Year (₹) (₹)
0 -60,000 -60,000
1 50,000 5,000
2 25,000 30,000
3 5,000 55,000
X and Y are mutually exclusive proposals. The company’s required rate of return from such projects
is 10%. Evaluate the proposals using NPV and IRR.
Solution
Particulars Project X Project Y Higher rank
NPV ₹9,855 ₹10,630 Project Y
IRR 22.80% 17.42% Project X
As per NPV the project Y is to be accepted while on the basis of IRR the project X is to be accepted.
The conflict in the results is due to the different timings or pattern of cash inflow of proposal X and
Y. Also, the conflict in ranking arises due to the reinvestment rate assumption. According to NPV
Chapter 5 and 6, Capital Budgeting: 76
method, cash inflows are getting reinvested at 10% while IRR assumes the reinvestment is made at
22.80% and 17.42% for Project X and Project Y respectively.
Since the inherent assumption of reinvestment at generated IRR is absurd and unrealistic, one
should use NPV as a decision criterion under time disparity. Results given by the NPV are also used
because NPV method is superior and more in line with the wealth maximization goal.
Example
Cash flows
A B
Year (₹) (₹)
0 -1,00,000 -1,00,000
1 20,000 1,25,000
2 20,000 --
3 1,20,000 --
A and B are mutually exclusive proposals. Discount rate is 10%. Evaluate the proposals using NPV
and IRR.
Solution
Particulars Project A Project B Higher rank
NPV ₹24,820 ₹13,625 Project A
IRR 20% 25% Project B
As per NPV the project A is to be accepted while on the basis of IRR the project B is to be accepted.
The conflict in the results is due to unequal lives of proposal A and B. Whenever a firm faces life
disparity problem, it is advisable to use EANPV (Equivalent Annual Net Present Value) method to
arrive at a concrete decision. The EANPV method makes projects with unequal lives comparable
and thus, a better approach over NPV in life disparity problems.
Answer
Q. 9.: How do you deal with ‘Sunk Cost’ and ‘Allocated Overheads’ in
analyzing investment decisions?
Answer
While analyzing the investment decisions the sunk cost and allocated overheads are ignored. Let us
explain why—
Sunk cost
Sunk costs are basically past (historical) costs which were incurred in the past and have no
relevance with the particular decision making problem under consideration. These costs were
incurred ears ago before the selection of the current proposal. Neither the acceptance/rejection of
the proposal can affect the sunk cost not sunk cost can affect the current proposal. This is the reason
that these costs should be ignored. For example—fee paid to a marketing consultant to get an idea
about the sales potential of a new product or fee paid to a financial consultant to explore the
possibility of issuing equity shares. In the above case the payment has already been made, so, these
costs are not relevant for deciding whether to accept/reject the proposal.
Allocated overheads
Overheads mean the total of all the indirect expenses. In case of manufacturing concerns these
overheads are distributed or allocate on some logical or equitable basis to different department,
project, and cost centers. Allocated overheads are like sunk costs which were incurred in the past
and have no relevance with the particular decision making problem under consideration. The
reason is whether the project is undertaken or not there will be no impact on the existing amount of
the overheads. So, allocated overheads shall be ignored while making investment decisions.
However, it is important to note that if due to the acceptance of any proposal there is an increase in
the overheads then the increased amount is relevant for taking decision regarding the
acceptance/rejection of the proposal. For example—A new manager or staff is to be appointed for
the new plant then the amount to be paid to the manager or staff is relevant in decision making.
Answer
Answer
Following differences are there between Net Present Value method and Profitability Index method—
Basis of
Net Present Value Method (NPV) Profitability Index Method (PI)
difference
Net present value is the difference
Profitability index is the ratio of present
between the present value of cash
1. Meaning value of cash inflows to the present
inflows and present value of cash
value of cash outflows.
outflows.
2. Absolute or Net present value is an absolute amount Profitability index is a pure number. It is
relative in terms of rupees. a relative measurement.
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡
𝑛
𝐶𝐹𝐴𝑇𝑡
𝑛
𝐶𝑂𝑡 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝐼 ∑𝑛𝑡=1
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡
3. Formula 𝑁𝑃𝑉 = ∑ −∑ 𝑃𝐼 = 𝑜𝑟
(1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡 (1 + 𝑘𝑂 )𝑡 𝑃𝑉 𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑂 ∑𝑛 𝐶𝑂𝑡
𝑡=1 𝑡=0 𝑡−0 (1 + 𝑘 )𝑡
𝑂
4. Decision If net present value is positive then the If the profitability index is more than
making project is accepted. one then the project is accepted.
Net present value can be used in any
Profitability index is particularly useful
5. Use case be it accept/reject, mutually
in case of capital rationing.
exclusive or capital rationing.
Though the basis for the calculation of
Net present value is superior to all other
profitability index is the present value of
6. Superiority methods because it helps in maximizing
cash inflows and cash outflows but it’s
the wealth of the shareholders.
not superior.
7.
Achievement Profitability index may or may not be
Net present value is helpful in achieving
of wealth helpful in achieving the goal of wealth
the goal of wealth maximization.
maximization maximization.
goal
Which one is better/superior and why? or Which is superior ranking criteria, PI or NPV?
Net present value is better as compared to the profitability index because net present value is a
universally accepted method for the evaluation of the capital budgeting proposals. Further, the net
present value method gives an amount in terms of rupees. If this amount is positive then the project
is accepted otherwise not. Whenever it comes to maximize the wealth of the shareholders then net
present value method is considered better because the net present value is the wealth in itself.
Profitability index may or may not help in achieving this objective. On the basis of the comparisons
made above and the discussion we can conclude that net present value method is better as
compared to the profitability index.
Present Value
2 1.716 1.742 1.769 1.796 1.823 1.850 1.877 1.904 1.932 1.960
3 2.248 2.300 2.353 2.406 2.460 2.515 2.571 2.628 2.686 2.744
4 2.945 3.036 3.129 3.224 3.322 3.421 3.523 3.627 3.733 3.842
5 3.858 4.007 4.162 4.320 4.484 4.653 4.826 5.005 5.189 5.378
6 5.054 5.290 5.535 5.789 6.053 6.328 6.612 6.907 7.213 7.530
7 6.621 6.983 7.361 7.758 8.172 8.605 9.058 9.531 10.025 10.541
8 8.673 9.217 9.791 10.395 11.032 11.703 12.410 13.153 13.935 14.758
9 11.362 12.166 13.022 13.930 14.894 15.917 17.001 18.151 19.370 20.661
10 14.884 16.060 17.319 18.666 20.107 21.647 23.292 25.049 26.925 28.925
11 19.498 21.199 23.034 25.012 27.144 29.439 31.910 34.568 37.425 40.496
12 25.542 27.983 30.635 33.516 36.644 40.037 43.717 47.703 52.021 56.694
13 33.460 36.937 40.745 44.912 49.470 54.451 59.892 65.831 72.309 79.371
14 43.833 48.757 54.190 60.182 66.784 74.053 82.052 90.846 100.510 111.120
15 57.421 64.359 72.073 80.644 90.158 100.713 112.411 125.368 139.708 155.568
16 75.221 84.954 95.858 108.063 121.714 136.969 154.003 173.008 194.194 217.795
17 98.540 112.139 127.491 144.804 164.314 186.278 210.984 238.751 269.930 304.913
18 129.087 148.024 169.562 194.038 221.824 253.338 289.048 329.476 375.203 426.879
19 169.104 195.391 225.518 260.011 299.462 344.540 395.996 454.677 521.532 597.630
20 221.527 257.916 299.939 348.414 404.274 468.574 542.514 627.454 724.930 836.683
21 290.200 340.449 398.919 466.875 545.769 637.261 743.245 865.886 1007.653 1171.356
22 380.162 449.393 530.562 625.613 736.789 866.674 1018.245 1194.923 1400.637 1639.898
23 498.012 593.199 705.647 838.321 994.665 1178.677 1394.996 1648.994 1946.885 2295.857
24 652.396 783.023 938.511 1123.350 1342.797 1603.001 1911.145 2275.611 2706.171 3214.200
25 854.638 1033.590 1248.220 1505.289 1812.776 2180.081 2618.268 3140.344 3761.577 4499.880
26 1119.576 1364.339 1660.132 2017.088 2447.248 2964.911 3587.028 4333.674 5228.593 6299.831
27 1466.645 1800.927 2207.976 2702.897 3303.785 4032.279 4914.228 5980.470 7267.744 8819.764
28 1921.305 2377.224 2936.608 3621.882 4460.109 5483.899 6732.493 8253.049 10102.164 12347.670
29 2516.909 3137.935 3905.688 4853.323 6021.148 7458.102 9223.515 11389.208 14042.008 17286.737
30 3297.151 4142.075 5194.566 6503.452 8128.550 10143.019 12636.215 15717.106 19518.391 24201.432
𝑛
𝑃𝑉𝐼𝐹𝑟,𝑛 = (1 + 𝑟)