General Nav - 2020: Scanned With Camscanner

GENERAL NAV - 2020
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Scanned with CamScanner

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INSTRUMENTATION - 2020
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5. The gyro's weight.

6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings.
The combination of correct statements is?
a. 1,3,4.
b. 1,2,3,4,5,6.
c. 2, 5, 6.
d. 1,3,4,6.
7. The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilized compass system are?
a. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is
maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference direction is
maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
c. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained in
this direction by an erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
automatic erecting system.
8. A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on?
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a. An artificial horizon
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b. A directional gyro unit.

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c. A turn indicator.
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d. A gyro-magnetic indicator.
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9. When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the
following on a classic artificial horizon?
a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.
b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.
c. Attitude and bank correct.
d. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
10. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes
the following on a classic artificial horizon?
a. Too much nose-up and bank too high.
b. Too much nose-up and bank too low.
c. Attitude and bank correct.
d. Too much nose-up and bank correct.
11. Note: in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro are determined by the number of gimbal
rings it comprises. Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential
part. It uses a gyroscope with?
a. Two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continuously maintained to local vertical by
an automatic erecting system.
b. Two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is
maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
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c. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an

automatic erecting system.
d. One degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to the
location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
12. A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from?

a. A direct reading magnetic compass.
b. The flight director.
c. The flux valve.
d. The air-data-computer.
13. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with?

a. 1 degree of freedom.
b. 3 degrees of freedom.
c. 2 degrees of freedom.
d. 0 degree of freedom.
14. The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:
1. Rotation of Earth.
2. Aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. Lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
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4. North change.
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5. Mechanical defects.
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Chose the combination with true statements only?

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a. 2, 3, 5.
b. 1, 2,3, 5.
c. 3,4, 5.
d. 1,2,4,5.
15. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in measuring the?
a. Angular velocity of the aircraft.
b. Yaw rate of the aircraft.
c. Pitch rate of the aircraft.
d. Roll rate of the aircraft.
16. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin
axis is?
a. An artificial horizon.
b. A turn indicator.
c. A fluxgate compass.
d. A directional gyro.
17. When, in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the left and the ball on the right,
the aircraft is?
a. Turning left with too much bank.
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b. Turning right with not enough bank.

c. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning left with not enough bank.
18. When, in flight, the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the right and the ball on the left,
the aircraft is?
19. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle and ball indicator are on the right, the aircraft is?
b. Turning left with not enough bank.
d. Turning right with not enough bank.
20. When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left, the aircraft is?
a. Turning right with too much bank.
c. Turning left with too much bank.
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21. On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates?
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a. Needle to the left, ball to the left.

b. Needle in the middle, ball to the right.
c. Needle in the middle, ball to the left.
d. Needle to the left, ball to the right.
22. The rate-of-turn is the?

a. Pitch rate in a turn.
b. Change-of-heading rate of the aircraft.
c. Yaw rate in a turn aircraft.
d. Speed in a turn.
23. In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate of turn consists for?

a. High bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate.
b. High bank angles, in measuring the roll rate.
c. Low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate.
d. Low bank angles, in measuring the roll rate.
24. In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is?

a. Proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.
b. Independent to the aircraft true airspeed.
c. Proportional to the aircraft weight.
d. Inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed.
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25. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin
axis is?
a. A directional gyro.
b. An artificial horizon.
c. A turn indicator
d. A flux gate compass.
26. An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a horizontal spin
axis is a?
a. Fluxgate compass.
b. Directional gyro.
c. Turn indicator.
d. Gyro-magnetic compass.
27. The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?
a. 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
b. 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.
c. 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.
d. 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
28. When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the pilot observes the
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following on a classic artificial horizon?

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a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

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b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.

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c. Too much nose-up and bank too low

d. Attitude and bank correct.
29. On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates?
a. Needle in the middle, ball to left.
b. Needle to the right, ball to left.
c. Needle to the right, ball to right.
d. Needle to the middle, ball to right.
30. The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro with?
a. 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
b. 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis.
c. I degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis.
d. 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis.
31. Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates?
a. Too high pitch-up and too low banking.
b. Too high pitch-up and correct banking.
c. Attitude and banking correct.
d. Too high pitch up and too high banking.
32. The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor?

a. Causes the directional gyro unit to precess.
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b. Causes the heading indicator to precess.

c. Feeds the error detector system.
d. Is fed by the the flux valve.
33. The heading information originating from the gyro-magnetic compass flux valve is sent to the?
a. Error detector.
b. Erector system.
c. Heading indicator.
d. Amplifier.
34. The input signal of the amplifier of the gyro-magnetic compass resetting device originates from
the?
a. Directional gyro erection device.
b. Error detector.
c. Flux valve.
d. Directional gyro unit.
35. A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in?
1. An inertial attitude unit.

2. An automatic pilot.
3. A stabilizing servo system.
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4. An inertial navigation system.

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5. A rate-of-turn indicator.
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a. 1,4.
b. 1,2,3,4,5.
c. 2,3,5.
d. 2,3,4.
36. Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn
indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument; when it is associated with an attitude
indicator it indicates?
1. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis.

2. The bank of the aircraft.
3. The direction of the aircraft turn.
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real vertical.
a. 3, 4.
b. 2,4.
c. 1,3.
d. 1, 2.
37. The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of?
a. A bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft.
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b. An apparent weight and an apparent vertical.

c. Too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring.
d. The aircraft's track over the earth.
38. The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds?
a. A torque motor on the sensitive axis.
b. 2 torque motors arranged horizontally.
c. A leveling erection torque motor.
d. A nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring.
39. The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour?
a. In the latitude 30°.
b. In the latitude 45 °.
c. On the equator.
d. On the North pole.
40. Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro?

a. Consumes a lot of power.
b. Has a longer life cycle.
c. Is influenced by temperature.
d. Has a fairly long starting cycle.
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41. The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is?
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a. 2.
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b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 1.
42. A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn depends upon:
1. Bank angle.
2. Aeroplane speed.
3. Aeroplane weight.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is?
a. 1, 2, and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 2 and 3.
43. During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the artificial horizon
results in the horizon bar indicating a?
a. Nose-down attitude.
b. Constant attitude.
c. Nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude.
d. Nose-up attitude.
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44. Heading information given by a gyro platform., is given by a gyro at?

a. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis.
b. 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.
c. 1 degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis.
d. 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis.
45. Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", the error due to the earth rotation make
the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude of 45° N, this reference turns
by?
a. 15°/hour to the right.
b. 7.5°/hour to the right.
c. 7.5°/hour to the left.
d. 10.5°/hour to the right.
46. The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which is due to the
movement of the aircraft. This error?
a. Is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track.
b. Shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to turn
at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere.
c. Is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average latitude of the
flight.
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d. Is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected.

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47. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on?

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a. Artificial horizon.
b. A directional gyro.
c. A turn indicator.
d. A gyro-magnetic compass.
48. The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is?
a. 180°/hour.
b. 5°/hour.
c. 15°/hour.
d. 90° /hour.
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ATTITUDE
1. How many degrees of freedom and what is the spin axis of an attitude indicator?
a. Local earth vertical two degrees of freedom.
b. Aircraft lateral axis two degrees of freedom.
c. Aircraft horizontal axis one degree of freedom.
d. aircraft longitudinal axis three degrees of freedom.
2. What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

a. Climb due to pendulous vanes.
b. No climb.
c. Descent due to pendulous vanes.
d. Correct pitch and bank at all times.
3. What will a classic artificial horizon indicate when turning through 90 degrees at constant
attitude and bank angle?
a. Correct bank angle and attitude.
b. Too much bank and too much nose up attitude.
c. Too little bank and too little nose up attitude.
d. Too little bank and too much nose up attitude.
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4. An Al has?
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a. One degree of freedom and a lateral spin axis.

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b. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

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c. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.

d. One degree of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
5. How will a basic Al respond if an aircraft performs a 270 degree turn at constant bank angle and
ROT?
a. Nose up and bank.
b. Nose down and bank.
c. Nose level and bank.
d. Correct bank and pitch.
6. Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

a. EICAS/ECAM primary display
b. EFIS ND.
c. EFIS PFD.
d. All of the above.
7. When turning through 90° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial horizon
indicate?
a. Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
b. Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c. Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d. Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
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8. When turning through 270° at constant AOB and pitch attitude, what will a classic artificial
horizon indicate?
a. Too much nose up and too little bank angle.
b. Too much nose up and too much bank angle.
c. Too little nose up and too little bank angle.
d. Too little nose up and too much bank angle.
9. An artificial horizon has?

a. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.
b. Two degrees of freedom and a longitudinal spin axis.
c. Two degrees of freedom and a lateral spin axis.
d. No degrees of freedom because it is earth tied.
10. The latitude nut .......... an artificial horizon?

a. Compensates for transport error.
b. Is not fitted to.
c. Compensates for latitude error.
d. Compensates for earth rate errors.
11. The gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

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b. Prevent precession of the gyro.

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c. Erect the gyro.

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d. Provide signals to the autopilot.
12. Classic artificial horizon indications turning through 180° at constant AOB?
a. Nose up and AOB too low.
b. Nose up and AOB too high.
c. Nose up and correct AOB.
d. Pitch attitude and AOB correct.
13. An artificial horizon has ......... degrees of freedom in the ....... axis?
a. Two vertical.
b. Two horizontal.
c. One vertical.
d. One horizontal.
14. Which or the following properties are possessed by a standby artificial horizon?
1. Independent power supply.
2. Integral gyro.
3. Remote (external) gyro.
4. Used only in emergencies.
5. At least one per pilot in JAR 25 aircraft.
a. 1, 2.
b. 2, 3.
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c. 3, 4.
d. 4, 5.
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15. If an aircraft turns through 270° at a constant rate of turn and AOB, the indications on its classic
artificial horizon will be?
a. Bank left nose up.
b. Bank right nose up.
c. Wings level nose up.
d. AOB and pitch attitude correct.
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TURN/SLIP
1. The ball in a serviceable slip indicator is ....... by ...... and ...... lndicate/s the state of slip?
a. Held central Gravity Does not always.
b. Positioned Acceleration Does not always.
c. Held central Gravity Always.
d. Positioned Acceleration Always.
2. The turn indicator is affected by?
1. AOB.
2. Airspeed.
3. Weight.
4. Altitude.
a. 1,2.
b. 2,3.
c. 3,4.
d. 4,5.
3. A turn indicator used in conjunction with an attitude indicator will show?

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1. Turn direction.
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2. Rate of turn,
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3. Angular velocity about the true vertical axis.

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4. Angular velocity about the aircraft vertical axis.

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5. Angular velocity about the longitudinal axis.
a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 2, 4.
d. 2, 3, 5.
4. ROT indications are?

a. Proportional to TAS.
b. Proportional to CAS.
c. Proportional to mass.
d. Proportional to EAS.
5. A turn indicator has?

1. A horizontal spin axis.
2. A vertical spin axis.
3. One degree of freedom.
4. Two degrees of freedom.
5. A spin axis tied to the yawing plane of the aircraft.
6. A gravity erecting unit.
a. 1, 3.
b. 1, 5.
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c. 3, 5.
d. 4, 6.
6. When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft
is?
a. Turning right with insufficient bank.
b. Turning right with too much bank.
d. Turning left with insufficient bank.
7. When both the needle and ball of a turn and slip indicator are displaced to the right the aircraft
is?
a. Turning right with too much TAS.
b. Turning right with insufficient TAS.
c. Turning left with too much TAS.
d. Turning left with insufficient TAS.
8. When the needle is displaced right and the ball displaced left, in a turn and slip indicator, the
aircraft is?
a. Turning right with insufficient bank.
b. Turning left with too much bank.
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c. Turning left with insufficient TAS.

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d. Turning right with too much bank.

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9. The turn needle indicates ....... in a slightly banked turn?

a. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
b. Angular acceleration about the vertical axis.
c. Angular velocity about the lateral axis.
d. Yaw displacement.
10. A rate 1 turn at 120 kts requires?

a. 10° AOB.
b. 20° AOB.
c. 30° AOB.
d. 40° AOB.
11. The correct turn and slip indications when turning right on the ground are?
a. Needle and ball right
b. Needle and ball left.
c. Needle right and ball left
d. Needle left and ball right
12. ROT indications depend on?

1. Airspeed.
2. Mass.
3. AOB.
a. 1, 2.
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b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 3.
d. I, 2, 3.
13. For a rate one turn at 150 Kts the AOB must be?
a. 22°.
b. 33°.
c. 44°.
d. 55°.
14. Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to arrest the van,
whilst side slipping down track with the wings held level by the ailerons. What will the turn and
slip indicator show in this condition.
a. Both needle and ball central.
b. Both needle and ball right.
c. Both needle and ball left.
d. Needle left and ball right.
15. Following a left engine failure the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft uses rudder to oppose yaw and
keep the aircraft on heading, whilst using bank to prevent side slip. What will the turn and slip
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indicator show?
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a. Both needle and ball central.

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b. Both needle and ball right.

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c. Both needle and ball left.

d. Needle central and ball right.
16. What will be the immediate turn and slip indications when a left engine fails in climbing flight.
a. Needle and ball left.
b. Needle and ball right.
c. Needle left and ball right.
d. Needle right and ball left.
17. What does it indicate if both the needle and ball in a turn and slip indicator move out to the
right?
a. Turning right with too much bank.
b. Turning right with too little bank.
d. Turning left with too little bank.
18. When turning at constant bank angle the rate of turn is?
a. Determined by weight and TAS.
b. Determined by weight.
c. Determined by TAS.
d. Determined only by AofA.
19. What factors affect the turn indicator?

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1. Aof A.
2. AOB.
3. TAS.
4. Weight.
a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 2, 3.
d. 3, 4.
20. What are the essential properties of a turn indicator?
1. Two degrees of freedom.

2. One degree of freedom.
3. Horizontal spin axis.
4. Vertical spin axis.
5. Longitudinal spin axis.
a. 1,2.
b. 2, 3.
c. 3, 4.
d. 2, 5.
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21. What angle of bank would give a rate 1 turn at 120 Kts?
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a. 10 degrees.
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b. 14 degrees.
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c. 18 degrees.
d. 22 degrees.
22. What does it indicate when the turn needle is out to the left and the ball out to the right?
a. Right turn with too much bank.
b. Right turn with too little bank.
c. Left turn with too much bank.
d. Left turn with too little bank.
23. What should a turn and slip indicator show in a right turn on the ground?
a. Needle left and ball left.
b. Needle left and ball right.
c. Needle right and ball left.
d. Needle right and ball right.
24. What will the turn needle indicate in a slightly banked turn?
a. Yaw rate.
b. Roll Rate.
c. Pitch rate.
d. Angular velocity about the vertical axis.
25. What corrective action is required if the ball is out to the right in a left turn?
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a. More right ruder.

b. More left rudder.
c. More right bank.
d. More left bank.
26. If both the ball and needle are out to the left in a turn, the ball can be centralized by?
a. Pushing the right rudder bar forward.
b. Increasing left bank.
c. Decreasing TAS.
d. Increasing TAS.
27. How should the turn and slip indicator respond in a right turn when taxiing?
a. Needle left and ball left.
b. Needle left and ball right.
c. Needle right and ball right.
d. Needle right and ball left.
28. For a coordinated rate 1 right turn at 250 Kts TAS, the correct AOB is approximately?
a. 32 degrees.
b. 23 degrees.
c. 16 degrees.
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d. 25 degrees.
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29. If the turn indicator needle is out to the right and the ball is out to the left, it indicates?
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a. A left turn with too much bank.

b. A left turn with too little bank.
c. A right turn with too much bank.
d. A right turn with too little bank.
30. What angle of bank is required to conduct a balanced rate 1 turn in an aircraft at 125 kts TAS at a
mass of 55000 Kg?
a. 15.5 degrees.
b. 17.5 degrees.
c. 19.5 degrees.
d. 21.5 degrees.
31. If the mass of the aircraft in question 34 above, was decreased to 45000 Kg?
a. It would increase the required AOB.
b. It would decrease the required AOB.
c. It would not affect the required AOB, but less power would be required.
d. It would not affect the required AOB but more power would be required.
32. The correct indications when taxiing to the left are?

a. Needle right, ball right.
b. Needle right, ball centre.
c. Needle left, ball left
d. Needle left, ball right.
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33. If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball left in a banked turn, the aircraft is .........
and the required corrective action is ........ ?
a. Skidding push left pedal forward.
b. Skidding push right pedal forward.
c. Slipping push left pedal forward.
d. Slipping push right pedal forward.
34. If the turn and slip indicator shows needle left and ball right in a banked turn, the aircraft is .........
and the required corrective action is .......... ?
35. If the turn and slip indicator shows needle right and ball right in a banked turn, the aircraft is .......
and the required corrective action is ......... ?
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COMPASS
1. The centre of gravity of the compass rose of a direct reading magnetic compass lies below the
pivot point to reduce the influence of the:
a. Magnetic inclination.
b. Magnetic variation.
c. Parallax error.
d. Position error.
2. Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to magnetism is correct?
a. Hard iron magnetism is of a non-permanent nature and soft iron magnetism is of a permanent
nature.
b. Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a permanent nature.
c. Hard iron magnetism is of a permanent nature and soft iron magnetism is of a non-permanent
nature.
d. Both hard and soft iron magnetism are of a non-permanent nature.
3. A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?

a. Soft iron.
b. Hard iron.
c. Aluminum.
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d. Soft iron effect hard iron, and hard iron.

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4. The purpose of the torque motor in a gyro stabilized magnetic compass is to?
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a. Precess the directional gyro.

b. Adjust the Selsyn stator.
c. Calibrate the pointer.
d. Convert flux valve electrical output into pointer movement.
5. When landing on a northerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass indicate?

a. A westerly turn.
b. An easterly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Rapidly increasing oscillations.
6. Magnetic heading can be calculated from true heading using?

a. A compass and a map indicating isogonal lines.
b. A compass and a calibration card.
c. A calculator and a deviation card.
d. A compass and a deviation card.
7. A direct reading compass will not be affected by?

a. Ferrous metals.
b. Transformers.
c. Magnetic fields.
d. Non-ferrous metals.
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8. The purpose of a compass swing is to?

a. Align the lubber lines with true north.
b. Confirm the accuracy of the Schuler tuning.
c. Align compass north with magnetic north.
d. Align compass north with true north.
9. When landing in a southerly direction a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
a. Easterly turn.
b. Westerly turn.
c. No turn.
10. Permanent magnetism in aircraft is caused by?

a. The hammering of rivets during construction.
b. Large changes in latitude.
c. Large changes in longitude.
d. Strong electrical fields and lightning strikes.
11. A magnetic compass must be swung?

a. After long term changes in latitude.
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b. After long term changes in longitude.

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c. Short term changes in longitude.

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d. Change of base airfield.

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12. The greatest cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?
a. Turning.
b. Latitude changes.
c. Parallax.
d. Changes in magnetic deviation.
13. The sensitivity of a magnetic compass can be affected by?

a. The H component of the earth's magnetic field.
b. The Z component of the earth's magnetic field.
c. Both of the above.
d. None of the above.
14. When cruising on a westerly heading a direct reading magnetic compass will indicate?
a. Northerly turn.
b. Southerly turn.
c. No turn.
15. When taking-off on a calm day on heading of 45° in the northern hemisphere, the compass will
indicate ....... If the Held is on an agonic line?
a. 45°.
b. More than 45°.
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c. Less than 45°.

d. 45° only if the wings are level.
16. The flux gate of a gyro magnetic compass transmits data to?
a. The error detector.
b. The amplifier.
c. The erecting system.
d. The annunciator.
17. Magnetic heading can be found from true heading using?

a. A compass and a map showing isoclinal lines.
b. A compass and a map showing isogonal lines.
c. A compass and compass calibration chart.
d. A compass and deviation card.
18. In a remote indicating magnetic compass the flux valve?

a. Uses a DC power supply.
b. Uses an AC power supply.
c. Requires no power supply because it uses its own self-exciter unit.
d. Is manufactured from perm-alloy steel.
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19. The output of the flux valve is fed to the?

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a. Feed back loop.

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b. Compass card.
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c. Amplifier.
d. Error detector.
20. What is the strength of the H component of the earth's magnetic field (in micro teslas) at the
North pole?
a. 0.
b. 10.
c. 16.
d. 23.
21. A direct reading magnetic compass will be affected by?

1. Adjacent electrical equipment
2. Ferrous metals.
3. Non-ferrous metals.
a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 3,4.
22. Upon landing on a northerly heading a DRMC will indicate?

a. A turn to the east.
b. A turn to the west.
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c. No turn.
d. Oscillations about north.
23. The principal cause of errors in a direct reading magnetic compass is?
a. Latitude.
b. Magnetic deviation.
c. Parallax.
d. Turning.
24. The function of the torque motor in a gyro stabilized magnetic compass is to?
a. Move the Selsyn stators.
b. Move the heading pointer.
c. Process the directional gyro.
d. Receive the input from the flux valve.
25. Errors in direct reading magnetic compasses can be caused by?

a. Turns through 90 degrees East and 270 degrees west.
b. Accelerations on east/west headings.
c. Crosswinds when on east/west headings.
d. Parallax.
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26. In an aircraft taking-off on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, what will its DRMC
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indicate?
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a. Southerly turn.
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b. Northerly turn.
c. Oscillations about west.
d. No turn.
27. To what does the flux valve of a gyro magnetic compass transmit information?
a. Erecting system
b. Error detector.
c. Amplifier.
d. Heading indicator card.
28. The purpose of a compass swing is to?

a. Align compass north with true north.
b. Align compass north with magnetic north.
c. Align true north with the lubber line.
d. Draw up a compass correction card.
29. From what does the flux valve in a RlMC get its power supply?
a. DC busbar.
b. AC busbar.
c. Internal self-exciter system.
d. It does not require one because it is made of perm-alloy material.
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30. A runway in the northern hemisphere is on an agonic line and heading 045 degrees. If an aircraft
with zero compass deviation takes off in still air, what will the northerly turning errors be?
a. The compass will remain on 045.
b. The compass will move to less than 045.
c. The compass will move to more than 045.
d. If the wings remain level the compass will remain on 045.
31. In order to convert true heading into magnetic heading a compass card and ..... are required?
a. Deviation card.
b. Error card.
c. Map with isogonal lines.
d. Map with isogonal lines.
32. What will the DRMC indicate when an aircraft lands in a southerly direction in the southern
hemisphere?
a. Westerly turn.
b. Easterly turn.
c. No turn.
d. Oscillations about north.
33. To improve the horizontality of a compass, the magnet assembly is suspended from a point?
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a. On the centre line of the magnet.

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b. Below the centre of gravity.

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c. Above the centre of gravity.

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d. Varying with magnetic latitude.
34. A DRMC can be affected by?

a. Hard iron.
b. Mild iron.
c. Soft iron.
d. Northerly accelerations.
35. The maximum gyro drift rate due to earth rate is?
a. 5 degrees per hour.
b. 15 degrees per hour.
c. 90 degrees per hour.
d. 180 degrees per hour.
36. At what DRMC heading is roll out required when conducting a turn from southwest to south-east
at 45 degrees north?
a. 115 degrees.
b. 135 degrees.
c. 140 degrees.
d. 145 degrees.
37. At what point on the earth would earth rate wander and transport wander be zero?
a. North pole.
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b. Equator.
c. South pole.
d. 45 degrees north and south.
38. From what does a gyro magnetic compass torque motor obtain its information?
a. Error detector.
b. Flux valve.
c. Amplifier
d. Rotor gimbal tilt unit.
39. What is the maximum drift error that can be sensed by an uncompensated DGI?
a. 5 degrees per hour.
b. 10 degrees per hour.
c. 15 degrees per hour.
d. 20 degrees per hour.
40. Magnetic dip angle at the south pole is?

a. Zero.
b. 45 degrees.
c. 60 degrees.
d. 90 degrees.
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41. Earth rotation at 45 degrees north will cause the spin axis of a directional gyro to move?
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a. 7.6 degrees clockwise.

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b. 6.7 degrees anti-clockwise.

c. 10.6 degrees clockwise.
d. 10.6 degrees anti-clockwise.
42. The DRMC in an aircraft accelerating for take-off on a runway with QDM 45 degrees, in the
northern hemisphere, will indicate?
a. 45 degrees.
b. More than 45 degrees.
c. Less than 45 degrees.
d. 45 degrees as long as the wings are level
43. When turning right through 90 degrees to north, in the northern hemisphere, roll out should be
conducted on a heading of?
a. 10 degrees.
b. 20 degrees.
c. 330 degrees.
d. 350 degrees.
44. A magnetic compass must be swung after?

a. A short term change in latitude.
b. Long term change in latitude.
c. Short term change in longitude.
d. Long term change in longitude.
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45. To what is the output of the flux valve in a remote indicating compass initially fed?
a. Amplifier.
b. Gyro precessing torque motor.
c. Error detector.
d. Indicator.
46. When turning from SE to SW at 50 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?
a. 180 degrees.
b. 210 degrees.
c. 225 degrees.
d. 245 degrees.
47. When turning from SW to SE at 45 degrees north, the roll out should occur at?
a. 115 degrees.
b. 135 degrees.
c. 140 degrees.
d. 150 degrees.
48. What will the compass indicate as an aircraft lands and decelerates on a westerly heading on the
magnetic equator?
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a. Turn to south.
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b. Turn to west.
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c. Oscillations.
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d. No turn.
49. If the ADF pointer indicates 270 degrees when the RMI rose is stuck at 075 degrees, what is the
relative bearing of the beacon?
a. 290 degrees.
b. 110 degrees.
c. 195 degrees.
d. It cannot be determined from this information.
SO. What are the errors in a DGI?

1. Transport wander.
2. Earth rate.
3. Heading errors when banking and pitching,
4. Mechanical imperfections.
a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1,2,4.
c. 2,3,4.
d. All of the above.
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INS/IRS
1. An inertial reference and navigation system is a "strapdown" system when:

a. Gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform.
b. The gyroscopes and the accelerometers are part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure.
c. Only the gyros and not the accelerometers are part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure.
d. The gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference.
B
2. The principle of the schuler pendulum is used in the design of a:
a. Directional gyro control system.
b. Stabilised platform inertial system.
c. Strapdown inertial system.
d. Artificial horizon control system. B
3. The operating the principle of an inertial system consist of:

a. Measuring the acceleration, speed and position of the aircraft.
b. Measuring earth rotation and performing integrations to elaborate the ground speed and
position.
c. Measuring the accelerations of the aircraft and performing integrations to elaborate the ground
speed and position.
d. Measuring the position of the aircraft and performing integration to elaborate the ground
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speed and acceleration. c

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4. In an inertial navigation system, to know the distance travelled:

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a. Integrating once the speed in time is sufficient.

b. It is necessary to integrate once the speed in time, and to know the initial speed only.
c. It is necessary to integrate once the speed in time, and to know the initial position only.
d. It is necessary to integrate once the speed in time, and to know the initial speed and initial
position. A
5. To know the instantaneous speed from the acceleration:

a. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time, and to know the initial speed only.
b. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time is sufficient.
c. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time, and to know the initial position only.
d. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration once in time, and to know the initial speed and the
initial position. A
6. To know the instantaneous position from the acceleration:

a. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time, and to know the initial speed and the
initial position.
b. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time is sufficient.
c. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time, and to know the initial position only.
d. It is necessary to integrate the acceleration twice in time, and to know the initial speed only.
A
7. The position error of a stand-alone inertial system, is approximately:

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a. 0.01 to 0.2 nm per hour.

b. 0.5 to 2 nm per hour.
c. 8 to 10 nm per hour.
d. 6 to 8 nm per hour. B
8. The output data of an IRS include:

1. Attitude.
2. Altitude.
3. Present position (lat, long).
4. Static air temperature.
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 3, 4.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 1, 2, 3. B
9. If the acceleration of an aircraft is zero, its velocity:

a. Will increase.
b. Will decrease.
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c. Is always zero.
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d. Is constant. D
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10. The alignment of an inertial system can be successfully performed:

a. When the aircraft is stationary.
b. In all phases of flight outside areas of turbulence.
c. In all phases of flight.
d. When the aircraft is taxiing. A
11. The time for a normal alignment (not a quick alignment) of an inertial system is:
a. 1 to 2 minutes.
b. 3 to 10 minutes.
c. 15 to 20 minutes.
d. Less than 1 minute. B

1. Present position.
2. Total pressure.
3. Static temperature.
4. True heading.
a. 1, 2, 4.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 1,3. c
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13. In an inertial navigation system, the integration process makes a:

a. Time multiplication.
b. Time division.
c. Distance multiplication.
d. Distance division. A

1. Satellites status.
2. Altitude.
3. Drift angle.
4. Present position (lat/long).
The combination that regrouping all of the correct statements is:
a. 2, 4.
b. 3.4.
c. 1, 3, 4.
d. 4. B
15. Considering a stabilised platform system:

1. The rate gyros and the accelerometers are mounted on the same platform.
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2. The rate gyros and accelerometers are mounted on separate platforms.

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3. The principle of operation requires at least 2 rate gyros.

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4. The principle of operation requires at least 2 accelerometers.

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The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a. 2, 3.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 2, 4. c
16. In inertial navigation systems, the integration process:

1. Amounts to making a time decision.
2. Amounts to making a time multiplication.
3. Enable to get accelerations from positions.
4. Enable to get position from accelerations.
a. 2, 4.
b. 2, 3.
c. 1, 4.
d. 1, 3. A
17. The output data from an IRS include:

1. Angle of attack.
2. Altitude.
3. Groundspeed.
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a. 3.
b. 2.
c. 1, 3.
d. 1, 2. A
18. The output data from an IRS include:

1. Number of satellites tracked.
2. Mach number.
3. Ground speed.
4. True track.
a. 1, 4.
b. 3, 4.
c. 1, 2, 3, 4.
d. 2, 3. B
19. To obtain instantaneous speed from the accelerometers, it is necessary to:

1. Integrate once the acceleration in time.
2. Know the initial position.
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3. Know the initial speed.

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The combination that regroups all of the corrects statements is:

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a. 1, 2.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 2, 3.
d. 1. B
20. In an inertial navigation system, the principle used to obtain position is:
1. Single integration of acceleration according to time.
2. Double integration of acceleration according to time.
3. Single integration of speed according to time.
4. Double integration of speed according to time.
a. 1.
b. 2 or 3.
c. 3.
d. 1 and 4. B
21. To obtain instantaneous position from the accelerometers, it is necessary to:

1. Integrate twice the acceleration in time.
2. Know the initial position.
3. Know the initial speed.
The combination that regroups all of the corrects statements is:

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a. 1, 2, 3.
b. 1.
c. 1, 2.
d. 1, 3. A
22. Considering a strapdown inertial system, the operating principle requires at least:
a. 3 laser gyros and 2 accelerometers.
b. 2 laser gyros and 3 accelerometers.
c. 2 laser gyros and 2 accelerometers.
d. 3 laser gyros and 3 accelerometers. D
23. Compared with a stabilised platform inertial system, a strapdown inertial system:
1. Has a longer alignment phase in time.
2. Has a shorter alignment phase in time.
3. Is more reliable in time.
4. Is less reliable in time.
a. 2, 3.
b. 1, 3.
c. 1, 4.
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d. 2, 4. A
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24. A strapdown inertial consists of:

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a. Gyroscopes attached to the aircraft chassis and accelerometers, which are not.
b. Accelerometers attached to the aircraft chassis and gyroscopes, which are not.
c. A platform attached to the aircraft chassis and which includes gyroscopes and accelerometers.
d. A platforms free of the aircraft chassis and which includes gyroscopes and accelerometers. C
25. In an inertial navigation system, integrating once the speed give:

a. A distance travelled.
b. A position.
c. An instantaneous acceleration.
d. An average acceleration. A
26. An inertial Navigation system (INS) is

a. A self contained system, which operates without signals from the ground.
b. A system, which operates on the Doppler principle.
c. A hyperbolic navigation system.
d. A radio navigation system. A
27. The alignment phase of a gyro-stabilised platform consists of:

a. Levelling the platform and determining its orientation.
b. Aligning the platform axis with the aircraft axis (pitch, yaw and roll).
c. Aligning the platform axis with the aircraft pitch axis only.
d. Aligning the platform axis with the aircraft roll axis only. A
INSTRUMENTATION - 2020 1
PITOT STATICS
1. Concerning the pitot static system, the static pressure error:

a. Is a direct effect of blockage of the static ports.
b. Is a direct effect of heating of the static ports.
c. Affects the alternate static source only.
d. Is caused by disturbed airflow around the static ports.
2. The alternate static source of a light non-pressurised aeroplane is located in the flight deck. When
used the altimeter:
a. Tends to over read.
b. Tens to under read.
c. Is blocked.
d. Indicates zero.
3. The alternate static source of a light non-pressurised aircraft is located in the flight deck. When it
is used, the static pressure sensed is likely to be:
a. Lower than ambient pressure if QNH is greater than 1013 hPa.
b. Lower than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
c. Higher than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
d. Higher than ambient pressure if QNH is greater than 1013 hPa.
4. The total pressure head comprises a mast which moves its port to a distance from the aircraft
skin in order.
a. To not disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraft.
b. To locate it outside the boundary layer.
c. To protect it from icing.
d. To make it easily accessible during maintenance.
5. The open ended tube parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft senses the:
a. Total pressure.
b. Static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure.
d. Total pressure plus'static pressure.
6. Concerning the pitot and static system, the static pressure error varies according to:
1. Altimeter setting.
2. Speed.
3. Angle of attack.
a. 2 and 3.
b. 1 and 2.
c. 1, 2 and 3.
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d. 1 and 3.
7. The alternative static sources is used:

a. To compensate the hysteresis of the aneroid capsule.
b. To compensate the static pressure error.
c. When the drain holes freeze.
d. When the static ports become blocked.
8. In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter?
a. Over reads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.
b. Keep on providing reliable reading in all situations.
c. Under reads the altitude.
d. Over reads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct information
during symmetric flight.
9. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and another
altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal?
a. At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
b. There will be no difference between them if air data computer (ADC) is functioning normally.
c. ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.
d. At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
10. In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, there is an
ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static pressure intake?
a. Breaking the rate-of climb indicator glass window.
b. Slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin.
c. Descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible.
d. Calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
instruments.
11. The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed casing. The pressures
in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively?
a. (i) Static pressure (ii) Total pressure.
b. (i) Vacuum (or very low pressure) (ii) Static pressure.
c. (i) Static pressure at time t (ii) Static pressure at time mt - t.
d. (i) Total pressure (ii) Static pressure.
12. The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10" atmosphere is?

a. 781.85 hPa.
b. 942.13 hPa.
c. 1013.25 hPa.
d. 644.41 hPa.
13. The QNH is by definition the value of the?

a. Altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the location
for which it is provided.
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b. Atmosphere pressure at the level of the ground over flown by the aircraft.
c. Altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the location for
which it is given.
d. Atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
14. During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the
airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed?
a. Decreases abruptly toward zero.
b. Increases steadily.
c. Increases abruptly toward VNE.
d. Decreases steadily.
15. With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in
descent a?
a. Increasing speed.
b. Fluctuating speed.
c. Decreasing speed.
d. Constant speed.
16. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total pressure probe
inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent and finds that the indicated
airspeed?
a. Increases steadily.
b. Decreases abruptly towards zero.
c. Decreases steadily.
d. Increases abruptly towards VNE.
17. The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected varies
substantially with the?
a. Static temperature.
b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Deformation of the aneroid capsule.
d. Aircraft altitude.
18. The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding?

a. In standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
b. In ambient atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
c. In standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point.
d. In ambient atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps.
19. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a?
a. Correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b. Bi-metallic strip.
c. Return spring.
d. Second calibrated port.
20. The density altitude is?

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a. The altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the actual density of
the atmosphere.
b. The temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
standard temperature.
c. The pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point.
21. On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the?

a. Standard altitude.
b. Pressure altitude.
c. Density altitude.
d. Temperature altitude.
22. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a descent the
instruments will?
a. Read zero.
b. Continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage.
c. Under-read.
d. Over-read.
23. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument will?
a. Continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.
b. Under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
blocked .
c. Over-read.
d. Gradually return to zero.
24. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will?
a. Gradually indicate zero.
b. Under-read.
c. Indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale.
d. Continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
25. A leak in the pitot pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would cause
it to?
a. Under-read.
b. Over-read.
c. Over read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
d. Under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
26. The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the?
a. Total pressure plus static pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Total pressure.
d. Static pressure.
27. The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pilot tube directly supplies?
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a. The total pressure.

b. The static pressure.
c. The total pressure and the static pressure.
d. The dynamic pressure.
28. The error in altimeter reading caused by the variation of the static pressure near the source is
known as?
a. Position pressure error.
b. Barometric error.
c. Instrument error.
d. Hysteresis effect.
29. A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the
airspeed indicator to?
a. Read a little high.
b. Read a little low.
c. Freeze at zero.
d. Read like an altimeter.
30. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following instruments(s)?
a. Altimeter indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
b. Airspeed indicator only.
c. Altimeter only.
d. Vertical speed indicator only.
31. Given: Ts is the static temperature (SAT).

Tt Is the total temperature (TAT).
Kr is the recovery coefficient.
M is the Mach number.
The total temperature can be expressed approximately by the formula?
a. Tt = Ts(l-0.2 M 2 ).
b. Tt = Ts(l+0.2 kr.M 2 ).
c. Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 kr.M 2 ).
d. Tt = Ts(l+0.2 M 2 ).
32. The altimeter is fed by?

a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure.
33. The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by?

a. Differential pressure.
b. Static pressure.
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d. Total pressure.
34. The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is baesd on the measurements of the
rate of change of?
a. Kinetic pressure.
b. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure.
35. If the static vents in an un-pressurized aircraft become blocked?

a. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the altimeter to function.
b. Breaking or opening the windows will enable the ASI to function.
c. Breaking the front glass will enable the altimeter to function.
d. Only instruments fed from an ADC will function.
36. Which of the following is correct?

a. Ptat = Pstat + Poyn.
b. Pitot = Poyn - Pstat,
C. Poyn =PTot - Pitot,

d. Pitot = PTot + Poyn,
37. Entering ground effect is likely to?

a. Decrease static pressure but increase pitot pressure.
b. Decrease pitot pressure but increase static pressure.
c. Increase position errors.
d. Decrease position errors.
38. If the pitot tube leaks and the pitot drains are blocked in an unpressurised aircraft?
a. The ASI will over indicate.
b. The ASI will under indicate.
c. The altimeter will under indicate.
d. The altimeter will over indicate.
39. If the static tube and drains become blocked?

a. The ASI will under indicate.
b. The ASI will over indicate.
c. The ASI will under or over indicate depending on altitude.
d. The ASI will indicate zero.
40. If the static tube and drains become blocked?

a. The altimeter will under indicate.
b. The altimeter will indicate zero.
c. The altimeter will over indicate.
d. The altimeter will under or over indicate depending on altitude.
41. The output data from the ADC are used by:
1. Transponder.
7
2. EFIS.
3. Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS).
a. 2,3.
b. 1,3.
c. 1,2,3.
d. 1,2.
42. The ADC uses the following parameters as input data:

a. Mach number, barometric altitude, CAS.
b. TAS, barometric altitude, TAT.
c. Static pressure, total pressure, TAT.
d. Total pressure, static pressure, TAT, EGT.
43. The ADC uses the following parameters as input data:

a. Static pressure, total air pressure, total air temperature.
b. TAS, CAS, altitude, total air temperature.
c. Static pressure, total pressure only.
d. TAS, altitude, vertical sped, SAT.
44. The data output from an ADC include.

1. Barometric altitude.
2. Mach number.
3. CAS.
4. TAS.
5. SAT.
a. 1,4.
b. 1,3,5.
c. 1,2,3,4,5.
d. 2,3,4.
45. An Air Data Computer (ADC)?

a. Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to provide
correct altitude reporting.
b. Transformers air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in instruments.
c. Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source is
blocked.
d. Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct
altitude and speed information.
46. In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from?

a. The differences between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage.
8
b. Measurements of outside air temperature (OAT).

c. Measurements of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back.
d. Measurements of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the fuselage.
47. The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are?
1. Positions/pressure error correction.
2. Hysteresis error correction.
3. Remote data transmission capability.
4. Capability to feed data at a larger number of instruments simultaneously.
a. 1,2,3,4.
b. 1,2,3.
c. 1,3,4.
48. What advantages are provided by an ADC, compared to traditional pitot static systems?
1. Instruments lag is reduced or eliminated .
2. Positions error is automatically correct for.
3. Compressibility error is automatically corrected for.
4. A large number of instruments can be fed from one ADC.
5. It provides emergency altimeter following main system failure.
a. (1), (3), (4), (5).

b. (1), (2), (3), (4).
c. (2), (3), (4), (5).
49. From where does the ADC obtain its altitude data?
a. Barometric information from the static pressure ports.
b. Barometric pressure from the pitot probe.
c. The difference between pitot and static pressures.
d. The time take for a radio signal to rebound from the earth.
SO. What inputs are fed to the ADC?

1. AOA.
2. TAT.
3. OAT.
4. Dynamic pressure.
5. Static pressure.
6. Total pressure.
7. AC electrical power.
8. Autopilot commands.
a. (1), (2), (4), (5), (7).

b. (1), (2), (4), (5), (7).
c. (1), (2), (5), (6), (7).
9
ALT
1. The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error varies according to:
a. TAS and altimeter setting.
b. TAS and OAT.
c. Angle of attack and OAT.
d. TAS and angle of attack.
2. The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error results from:
a. Incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbance of airflow around the static ports.
b. Imperfect elasticity of the aneroid capsule.
c. Friction inside the instruments.
d. Cabin pressure slightly lower than outside air pressure due to airflow over the fuselage.
3. The servo-assisted altimeter is more accurate than a simple altimeter because the small
movements of:
a. The pointers are detected by a very sensitive electro-magnetic pick-off.
b. The capsules are detected by a very sensitive electro-magnetic pick-off.
c. The capsules are not taken into account.
d. The capsules are inhibited.
4. The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the?

a. Time passed at a given altitude.
b. Mach number of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft altitude.
d. Static temperature.
5. When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will?
a. Under read.
b. Be just as correct as before.
c. Show the actual height above ground.
d. Over read.
6. At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must not exceed?
a. +/-60 feet.
b. +/-75 feet.
c. +/-30 feet.
d. +/-70 feet.
7. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the atmosphere
layers below the aircraft are cold is?
a. Equal to the standard altitude.
b. Lower than the real altitude .
c. The same as the real altitude.
d. Higher than the real altitude.
8. The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to?

10
a. Allow damping of the measurements in the unit.

b. Reduce the hysteresis effect.
c. Reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
d. Inform the crew of a failure of the instruments.
9. The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a
slope of 3 degrees, indicates?
a. -300 ft/min.
b. -150 ft/min.
c. -250 ft/min.
d. -500 ft/min.
10. The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all atmosphere layers
below the aircraft are warm is?
a. Equal to the standard altitude.
b. Higher than the real altitude.
c. The same as the real altitude.
d. Lower than the real altitude.
11. The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than the simple
pressure altimeter is the use of?
a. A sub-scale logarithmic function.
b. An induction pick-off device.
c. More effective temperature compensating leaf springs.
d. Combination of counters/pointers.
12. What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each
of the fuselage, but the left one is blocked?
a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.
13. From what is true altitude derived?

a. Pressure altitude.
b. Density altitude.
c. Temperature altitude.
d. Difference between total pressure and static pressure.
14. What is QNH?

a. Ambient pressure at the airfield.
b. Sea level pressure based on ambient pressure at the airfield.
c. Sea level pressure
d. Sea level pressure in the ISA.
15. What is QNH?

a. Ambient pressure at msl.
11
b. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain an indication of zero on the runway.
c. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain a reading of the pressure altitude of
the runway.
d. The pressure to be set on the altimeter subscale to obtain density altitude when on the runway.
16. What is the true altitude of an aircraft if its altimeter indicated 16000 ft when the ambient
temperature was -30° C?
a. 15200 ft.
b. 15400 ft.
c. 16200 ft.
d. 16400 ft.
17. What will happen to the indicated altitude if an aircraft in level flight passes into a warner air
mass?
a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not change.
d. Remain constant only if above the tropopause.
18. What is density altitude?

a. Pressure altitude corrected for ambient temperature.
b. True altitude.
c. Pressure altitude corrected for density changes.
d. True altitude corrected for density changes.
19. What will happen if an aircraft has two altimeters, one of which is compensated for position
error, whilst the other is not?
a. One will over read at high airspeeds.
b. One will under read at high airspeeds.
c. One will under read close to the ground.
d. The ADC will compensate automatically, so both with read correctly.
20. Why are vibrators sometimes fitted in altimeters?

a. Overcome friction.
b. Overcome inertia.
c. Overcome hysteresis.
d. Reduce lag.
21. What will happen to altimeter indication if an aircraft in level flight enters a cold front?
a. Over indication.
b. Under indication.
c. No change.
d. No change above the tropopause.
22. A barometric altimeter comprises of?

a. An aneroid capsule sensing static pressure.
b. An aneroid capsule sensing pitot pressure .
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c. A differential capsule sensing pitot and static pressures.

d. A bellows sensing temperature and static pressure .
23. If pressure altitude is 30000 ft, indicated TAT is -10, mach number is 0.82, what is the density
altitude?
a. 31000 ft.
b. 30472 ft.
c. 30573 ft.
d. 30674 ft.
24. If QNH is 999 hPa, what is the pressure altitude at an elevation of 25000 ft?
a. 25100 ft.
b. 25200 ft.
c. 25300 ft.
d. 25400 ft.
25. If pressure altitude is 22800 ft, at an elevation of 22000 ft, what is QNH?
a. 985 hPa.
b. 976 hPa.
c. 1034 hPa.
d. 1026 hPa.
26. If field elevation is 4000 ft amsl and QNH is 900 mb, what is the pressure altitude?
a. 7390.
b. 6390.
c. 610.
d. 5540.
27. If field elevation is 3500 ft amsl and QFE is 1020 mb, what is the pressure altitude?
a. 210.
b. -210.
c. 3710.
d. 3290.
28. If pressure altitude is 3700 ft amsl and QNH is 1000 mb. What is field elevation?
a. 3310
b. 3210.
c. 390.
d. 490.
29. Density altitude is?

a. The altitude at which the existing density would occur in ISA.
b. The density at which the existing temperature would occur in the ISA.
c. The elevation at which the existing density would occur in the ISA.
d. The pressure altitude corrected for density deviation.
13
30. The pressure altitude of the field can be found by?

a. Setting QNH on the altimeter subscale.
b. Setting QFE on the altimeter subscale.
c. Setting 1013 mb on the altimeter subscale.
d. From an ADC only.
31. If field pressure altitude is 5000 ft amsl and OAT is 25°(, what is the density altitude?
a. 5000 + 118(25 - (15 - (5 x 1.98))) = 7348.2 ft.
b. 5000 - 118(25 - (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 4988.2 ft.
c. 5000 + 118(25 + (15 - (5 x 1.98))) = 8551.8 ft.
d. 5000 - 118(25 + (15 + (5 x 1.98))) = 10888.2 ft.
32. If QFE is 1022 hPa what Is the pressure altitude of the field?
a. 270 ft amsl.
b. -270 ft amsl.
c. 30660 ft amsl.
d. 500 ft amsl.
33. If QNH is 1000 hPa and field elevation is 4500 ft amsl, what is QFE?
a. 850 hPa.
b. 163 hPa.
c. -850 hPa.
d. 900 hPa .
34. Pressure altitude is?

a. The altitude above sea level.
b. The altimeter indication when QFE is set on the sub-scale.
c. The altimeter indication when QNH is set on the subscale.
d. The altimeter indication when 1013.25 hPa is set on the sub-scale.
35. Which of the following cause air density to decrease?

a. Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, increasing temperature.
b. Increasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature.
c. Increasing humidity, decreasing altitude, increasing temperature.
d. decreasing humidity, increasing altitude, decreasing temperature.
36. If QNH changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa this will?
a. Increase field elevation.
b. Decrease field elevation.
c. Not affect field elevation.
d. Decrease QFE.
37. If QFE changes from 1013 hPa to 1022 hPa will?

a. Increase field elevation.
b. Not affect QNH.
c. Increase QNH.
d. Decrease QN H.
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38. At pressure altitude increases?

a. Temperature decreases.
b. Temperature increases.
c. Temperature increases then remains constant.
d. Temperature decreases then remains constant.
39. At a fixed pressure altitude increases in temperature will?

a. Decreases density but increases density altitude.
b. Decrease density altitude.
c. Not density altitude.
d. Increase density but decrease density altitude.
40. What will happen to the altimeter reading in a right sideslip, if an aircraft has a static vent at each
side of the fuselage, but the right one is blocked?
a. Over read.
b. Under read.
c. No change.
d. Depends on altitude.
41. What will a cabin altimeter read with QFE set.

a. The same as with QNH set.
b. Height AGL.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Field elevation when on the runway.
42. The altimeter of an aircraft with a static pressure source on each side of the fuselage will ....... if
one becomes blocked?
a. Over read when side slipping.
b. Over read when side slipping towards the blocked source.
c. Over read when side slipping towards the clear source.
d. Under read when side slipping.
43. A servo altimeter is .... It employs an electrical pick-off?

a. More accurate because ....... .
b. Less accurate because ........ ..
c. Less reliable because .......... ..
d. More reliable because ........ ..
44. What will happen to the altimeter reading if an aircraft flying at a fixed heading meets a colder
air mass?
a. Read less than true altitude.
b. Read more than true altitude.
c. Read zero.
d. Reading will not be affected
45. What is the true altitude of an aircraft flying at 16000 ft indicated altitude with an OAT of -16
degrees C?
15
a. 13200 ft.
b. 14200 ft.
c. 16050 ft.
d. 16200 ft.
46. From where does the ADC obtain altitude data?

a. Radio altitude.
b. OAT sources.
c. Barometric altitude source.
d. Dynamic minus total pressure.
47. True altitude is obtained from ...... on board an aircraft?

a. Density altitude.
b. Temperature altitude.
c. Pressure altitude.
d. International standard altitude.
48. What is density altitude?

a. Pressure altitude corrected for density.
b. Temperature altitude corrected for density.
c. Temperature altitude corrected for pressure.
d. Pressure altitude corrected for temperature.
49. How will altimeter reading be affected if the layers of air below an aircraft are colder than the
standard temperature?
a. Read true altitude, only the air above matters.
b. Read zero.
c. Read higher than true.
d. Read lower than true.
SO. How will altimeter reading be affected if the static vent pipe becomes blocked?
a. Read true altitude, only the air above matters.
b. Reading will freeze.
c. Read higher than true.
d. Read lower than true.
16
RADIO ALTIMETERS
1. During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication
of the true?
a. Height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.
b. Height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
c. Height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
d. Altitude of the aircraft.
2. For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the?
a. Height indication is removed.
b. DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds.
c. DH lamp flashes red.
d. Audio warning signal sounds.
3. A radio altimeter can be defined as a?

a. Ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
b. Ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
c. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft.
d. Self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.
4. The data supplied by a radio altimeter?

a. Indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
b. Concerns only the decision height.
c. Is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
d. Is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.
5. The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is?

a. 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
b. 5 GHz.
c. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
d. 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
6. Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band?
a. HF (High Frequency).
b. UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
c. SHF (Super High Frequency).
d. VLF (Very Low Frequency).
7. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on?

a. Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
b. A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
c. Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d. Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
8. In low altitude radio altimeters height measurement (above ground) is based upon?
a. A triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted
and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
b. A frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave
17
and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.

c. A pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a
circular scanning screen.
d. A wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is
measured.
9. The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the?
a. Weather radar.
b. Primary radar.
c. Radio altimeter.
d. High altitude radio altimeter.
10. A radio altimeter is?

a. Aircraft based and indicates true altitude.
b. Aircraft based and indicates pressure altitude.
c. Aircraft based and indicates true height
d. Ground based and employ microwaves.
11. Radio altimeters are based on the principle of?

a. Frequency modulated carrier wave.
b. Pulse modulated carrier wave.
c. Amplitude modulated carrier wave.
d. Continuous wave.
12. For the landing configuration a radio altimeter indicates?

a. Height of the aircraft above the ground.
b. Height of the flight deck above the ground.
c. Height of the main wheel above the ground.
d. Altitude.
13. Low altitude radio altimeters operate on the .......... wavelength?

a. Metric.
b. Decimetric.
c. Centi metric.
d. Millimetric.
14. If there is a fault in the system the radalt display will?

a. Needle will disappear and an alarm flag will appear, possibly accompanied by an audio warning.
b. Freeze.
c. Turn red and activate an aural warning.
d. Turn red and activate visual and aural warnings.
15. A radio altimeter measures?

a. True Altitude.
c. Height above sea level.
d. Height above the ground or water over which the aircraft is flying.
16. A RADALT provides?

a. Radio altitude.
18
c. Density altitude.
d. Height above terrain.
17. The failure of the radio altimeter would cause?

a. Loss of pressure altitude data.
b. Loss of density altitude data.
c. Loss of altitude data.
d. Loss of height data.
18. A radio altimeter has a maximum effective height because?

a. At greater heights the signal will be too weak.
b. At greater heights the signal will be undetectable.
c. At greater heights the signal will be absorbed by moisture in the air.
d. At greater heights signal from different modulation cycles will overlap.
19. Radio altimeters work on the principal of?

a. Frequency modulation.
b. Amplitude modulation.
c. Pulse modulation.
d. Pulse and amplitude modulation.
20. Radio altimeters employ?

a. FM.
b. AM.
c. Pulsed FM.
d. Pulse modulation.
21. Radio altimeters are accurate only within the height range?
a. Zero to 50 ft.
b. Zero to 500 ft.
c. 50 ft to 2700 ft.
d. Zero ft to 2500 ft.
19
VSI
1. The alternate static source in a light non-pressurised aircraft is in the flight deck. As the alternate
source is opened, the vertical indicator may:
a. Indicate a high rate of descent.
b. Indicate a slight momentary descent.
c. Indicate a momentary climb.
d. Be blocked.
2. If the pitot pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too low when climbing.
b. The VSI will be too low when descending.
c. The VSI will not be affected.
d. The VSI will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.
3. If the static pipe becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when descending.
b. The VSI indication will be too high when accelerating.
c. The VSI indication will be too low when climbing or descending.
d. The VSI indication will be unaffected.
4. VSI lag is reduced by?

a. Two dashpots responding to acceleration.
b. Two return springs.
c. Bi-metallic strips.
d. Electronic systems.
5. If the choke in the VSI becomes partly blocked?

a. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing.
b. The VSI indication will be too low when descending.
c. The VSI indication will be too high at all times.
d. The VSI indication will be too high when climbing or descending.
6. The correct action to be taken when the static vent blocks on an unpressurised aircraft is to?
a. Break the VSI glass.
b. Use the standby static source.
c. Calculate ROC using mathematically.
d. Open a window to equalize pressures.
7. AVSI?
a. Produces an output proportional to ambient pressure.
b. Measures the difference between total pressure and static pressure.
c. Measures the difference between the pressure inside and outside a capsule.
d. Measures only dynamic pressure.
8. As an aircraft moves close to the ground during a landing the VSI might?
a. Become inaccurate due to ground effect.
b. Become inaccurate due to turbulence.
c. Stick due to loss of pitot source.
20
d. Become inaccurate due to aircraft attitude changes.
9. What should the VSI indicate when an aircraft on a 3 degree glide slope is flying at 100 Kts TAS?
a. 224 fpm descent
b. 324 fpm descent.
c. 424 fpm descent.
d. 524 fpm descent.
10. The response rate of a VSI can be improved by fitting a?

a. Accelerometer system.
b. Choke system.
c. Bi-metalic compensator.
d. Return spring.
21
ASI
1. In case of static port blockage, the airspeed indicator:

a. Over reads in a climb and under reads in a descent.
b. Under reads in a descent only.
c. Under reads in a climb and over reads in a descent.
d. Over reads in a climb only.
2. The alternate static source of a light non-pressurised aeroplane is located in the flight deck. When
used:
a. The airspeed indicator tends to under read.
b. The airspeed indicator tends to over read.
c. It has no influence on airspeed indicator reading.
d. The airspeed indicator indicates a consistent decreasing speed.
3. Given:
Pt= total pressure:
Ps = static pressure:
Pd= dynamic pressure:
The airspeed indicator measures:
a. Ps- pt.
b. Pt- pd.
c. Pd - ps.
d. Pt- ps.
4. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator of light propeller aircraft are:
a. VSI and VNO.
b. VSI and VMO.
c. VSO and VNE.
d. VSI and VNE.
5. On the airspeed indicator of a twin engine aeroplane, the blue radial line corresponds to:
a. Best single engine rate of climb.
b. Single engine holding speed.
c. Minimum ground control speed.
d. VNE.
6. What does the "barber's pole" used on some ASl's indicate?

a. MMo,
b. VNE,
c. TAS.
d. Temperature and VMo,
7. What speed is VNo?

a. That which may only be exceeded with caution and in still air.
b. That which may never be exceeded.
c. That which may be exceeded only in emergencies.
d. The maximum at which fully control deflection is possible without overstressing the aircraft
structure.
22
8. From what is VMo calculated?

a. TAS.
b. EAS.
c. CAS
d. RAS.
9. What will be the effect if the drain hole and pitot tapping in a pitot probe are blocked, whilst the
static source remains open?
a. The ASI will respond to changes in pressure altitude only.
b. The ASI will not respond.
c. The ASI will under read at all speeds.
d. The ASI will over read when accelerating, decelerating, climbing or descending.
10. What do the upper and lower limits of the yellow arc on an ASI represent?
a. VNE and VNo,
b. VNo and VNE,
c. VMo and VNE,
d. VNo and VMo,
11. If the pitot source and drain become blocked by ice when in cruise flight, how will the ASI
respond when descending?
a. It will under read.
b. It will over read.
c. It will read zero in all conditions.
d. It will remain fixed at the reading at which it became blocked.
12. At msl in the ISA?

a. CAS = TAS.
b. IAS TAS.=
c. IAS = EAS.
d. CAS < TAS.
13. In an ASI system, what does the pitot probe measure?

a. Total pressure.
b. Dynamic pressure.
c. Static pressure.
d. Ambient pressure.
14. What does the blue line on a twin engine piston aircraft ASI indicate?
a. VxsE ,
b. VNo,
c. VNE,
d. VvsE,
15. What are indicated by the lower and upper ends of the white arc on an ASI?
a. Vs, and VFE,
b. Vso and V FE,
c. VFE and V FO,
d. VsE and VNE,
23
16. VFEis the?

a. Maximum speed at which the aircraft is permitted to fly with its flaps extended .
b. Maximum speed at which the flaps can be extended or retracted.
c. The minimum speed for flaps up flight.
d. The maximum speed for flaps up flight.
17. What will be the effect on the ASI if the pitot tube of an unpressurised aircraft is fractured and
the pitot drain is blocked?
a. It will over read.
b. It will under read.
c. It will give a constant reading.
d. It will read zero at all speeds.
18. At any given weight or altitude, an aircraft will always lift-off at the same?
a. CAS.
b. TAS.
c. Ground speed.
d. EAS.
19. CAS is?

a. EAS corrected for position error and compressibility error.
b. IAS corrected for position error and instrument error.
c. TAS corrected for instrument error and ram effect.
d. IAS corrected for density error and position error.
20. When descending from FL400 and attempting to maintain maximum groundspeed, airspeed will
be limited by?
a. VNE then VMo,
b. VNo then VNE,
c. MMo then VMo,
d. VMo then MMo,
21. What will happen to TAS when descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase.
c. Remain constant.
d. Decrease then increase.
22. When descending through an inversion at constant TAS?

a. Mach number increases.
b. Mach number decreases.
c. Mach number remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.
23. When climbing through an inversion at constant TAS?

24
d. CAS increases.
24. When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. Mach number increases.
d. TAS decreases.
25. When descending through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
c. TAS remains constant.
d. CAS decreases.
26. When climbing through an inversion at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. LSS decreases.
d. TAS increases.
27. When descending through an inversion at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
d. Mach number increases.
28. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant TAS?

d. CAS decreases.
29. When descending through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

d. TAS increases.
30. When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

d. TAS decreases.
31. When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant mach number?

a. CAS increases.
b. CAS decreases.
c. CAS remains constant.
d. TAS decreases.
25

a. LSS increases.
b. LSS decreases.
c. LSS remains constant.
d. TAS increases.
33. When climbing through an isothermal layer at constant CAS?

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
d. Mach number decreases.

a. TAS increases.
b. TAS decreases.
d. Mach number increases.
35. If pressure remains constant as temperature increases?

a. Density will increase, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to increase.
b. Density will increase, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to decrease.
c. Density will decrease, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to increase.
d. Density will decrease, causing the CAS : TAS ratio to decrease.

a. The IAS reading will be too low when climbing.
b. The IAS reading will be too low when descending.
c. The IAS reading will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS reading will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

a. The IAS will be too high when descending.
b. The IAS will be too high when accelerating.
c. The IAS will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when accelerating.

a. The IAS and ROC will be too low when climbing.
b. The IAS and ROC will be too low when descending.
c. The IAS and ROC will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when descending and too high when climbing.

a. The IAS will be too high when descending at constant IAS.
b. The IAS will be too high when accelerating at constant altitude.
c. The IAS will be too low at all times.
d. The IAS will be too low when accelerating at constant altitude.
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AIRSPEEDS
1. Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature results in:
a. Lower TAS because air density decreases.
b. Higher TAS because air density decreases.
c. Higher TAS because air density increases.
d. Lower TAS because air density increases.
2. The EAS is obtained from the CAS by correcting for:

a. Instruments error.
b. Compressibility error.
c. Density error.
d . Position error.
3. When climbing at a constant CAS in standard atmosphere:

a. TAS decreases.
b. TAS remains constant.
c. TAS increases.
d. TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause.
4. During a climb at a constant CAS below the tropopause in the standard atmosphere:
a. The Mach number and the speed of sound decrease.
b. The Mach number decreases and the speed of sound increases.
c. The Mach number increases and the speed of sound decreases.
d. The Mach number and all sped of sound increase.
5. During a descent at constant CAS below the tropopause in standard atmosphere:

a. Mach number and TAS decrease.
b. Mach number and TAS increase.
c. Mach number and decreases and TAS increases.
d. Mach number and increases and TAS decreases.
6. The CAS is obtained from the IAS by correcting for the following errors:
1. Position .
2. Compressibility.
3. Instruments.
4. Density.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is :
a. 1, 3.
b. 3.
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4 .
7. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational
speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In
27
order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any
time of the descent. He will be limited?
a. By the MMO.
b. By the VMO in still air.
c. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level.
d. Initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level.
8. In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is?
a. Lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
b. Equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
c. Independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
d. Higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
9. With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the
same?
a. Calibrated airspeed.
b. Ground speed.
c. True airspeed.
d. Equivalent airspeed.
10. The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed (IAS)?
a. A compressibility and density correction.
b. An instrument and position/pressure error correction.
c. An antenna and compressibility correction.
d. An instrument and density correction.
11. The velocity maximum operating (VMO) is a speed expressed in?

a. True airspeed (TAS).
b. Computed airspeed (COAS).
c. Calibrated airspeed (CAS).
d. Equivalent airspeed (EAS).
12. The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
b. VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
c. VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit.
13. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VSl for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VSl for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit.
c. VSl for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
d. VSO for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit.
14. The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are?

a. VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
b. VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
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c. VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
d. VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
15. During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)?
a. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
b. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
c. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
d. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.
16. VLE is the maximum?

a. Speed authorized in flight.
b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
d. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
17. VLO is the maximum?

a. Speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
b. Flight speed with landing gear down.
c. Speed with flaps extended in a given position.
d. Cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
18. VNE is the maximum speed?

a. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected .
b. With flaps extended in landing position .
c. Which must never be exceeded.
d. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
19. VNO is the maximum speed?

a. Which must never be exceeded.
b. At which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
c. With flaps extended in landing position.
d. Not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
20. For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient temperature will
result in a?
a. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
b. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density.
d. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density.
21. When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA conditions, the
Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate .
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.
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22. If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40° C, the local speed of sound is?
a. 686 kt.
b. 596 kt.
c. 247 kt.
d. 307 kt.
23. When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True
Airspeed (TAS) will?
a. Decrease.
b. Increase at a linear rate.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase at an exponential rate.
24. In a steady climb with the auto-throttle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total
temperature remains constant, the Mach number?
a. Decreases.
b. Remains constant.
c. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard
temperature.
d. Increases.
25. The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and color marks. The
blue line corresponds to the?
a. Maximum speed in operations, or VMO .
b. Optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy.
c. Speed not to be exceeded, or VNE.
d. Minimum control speed, or VMC.
26. The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white hatched pointer.
This pointer indicates the?
a. Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box, versus temperature.
b. Speed indicated on the auto-throttle control box versus altitude.
c. Maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude.
d. Maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature.
27. VFE is the maximum speed?

a. At which the flaps can be operated.
b. With the flaps extended in take-off position.
c. With the flaps extended in a given position.
d. With the flaps extended in landing position.
28. An airplane is in steady descent. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the
total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?
a. Remains constant.
b. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if above.
c. Increases.
d. Decreases.
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29. An aeroplane is in steady descent below the tropopause in the ISA. The auto-throttle maintains a
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number?
a. Increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.
d. Remains constant.
30. An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The auto-throttle maintains a constant Mach number. If the
total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed?
a. Decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases.
d. Remains constant.
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MACH
1. If OAT increases whilst maintaining constant CAS and flight level:

a. TAS decreases.
b. TAS remains constant.
d. Mach number decreases.
2. If OAT decreases while maintaining constant CAS and flight level:

b. TAS increases.
d. TAS remains constant.
3. The Mach meter is subject to position error. This error varies according to:
1. Angle of attack.
2. OAT.
3. TAS.
The combination regrouping all of the correct option is:
a. 1, 3.
b. 3.
c. 1.
d. 1, 2, 3.
4. The Mach meter is subject to position error. This error results from:
a. Incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbance of airflow around the pitot tube or the static
ports.
b. Imperfect elasticity of the aneroid capsule.
c. Incorrect altimeter setting.
d. Non standard atmosphere conditions.
5. The Mach number is subject to position errors. The value of this error varies according to:
a. OATonly.
b. TAS and OAT.
c. TAS only.
d. TAS and angle of attack.
6. An aeroplane is flying at FL140, with a CAS of 260 knots in standard conditions. The mach number
is:
a. 0.53.
b. 0.41.
c. 0.43.
d. 0.51.
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7. An aeroplane is flying at FL300 with a TAS of 470 knots in standard conditions. The Mach number
is:
a. 0.83.
b. 0.53.
c. 0.80.
d. 0.82.
8. The Mach meter is subject to position errors. This error concerns:

a. Alternate static sources only.
b. Static ports only.
c. Pitot tubes only.
d. Pitot tubes and static ports.
9. How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft is flying at constant CAS at FL270 when it
experiences a reduction in OAT?
a. No change.
b. Increase.
c. Decrease.
d. Increase or decrease depending on TAT.
10. What is the LSS at 30000 ft if ambient temperature is -40° C?

a. 579 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 584 Kts.
d. 594 Kts.
11. Which of the following best defines Mach number?

a. The ratio of TAS:LSS.
b. The ratio of LSS :TAS.
c. The ratio of CAS:LSS.
d. The ratio of ambient density to that at msl in the ISA.
12. A mach meter comprises of?

a. A combination of ASI and altimeter.
b. A combination of VSI and altimeter.
c. An ASI with its scale marked in mach numbers.
d. An altimeter with its scale marked in mach numbers.
13. What is the LSS at 40000 ft in the ISA?

a. 542 Kts.
b. 660 Kts.
c. 573 Kts.
d. 550 Kts.
14. How will mach meter indication vary in a constant CAS climb?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
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c. Increase then remain constant.

d. remain constant.
15. What is the LSS at msl ISA?

a. 600 Kts
b. 550 Kts.
c. 750 Kts.
d. 661 Kts.
16. Mach meter indications?

a. Vary with airspeed and temperature.
b. Vary only with airspeed.
c. Vary only with temperature.
d. Vary with density and altitude.
17. How will mach meter indication respond if an aircraft passes through a cold front when flying at
constant CAS and altitude?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant
d. Increase or decrease depending on altitude.
18. How will the mach meter respond in a constant CAS climb if the static source becomes blocked?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
d. Increase or decrease depending on airspeed.
19. How will the mach meter respond in a constant TAS climb if the static source becomes blocked?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
20. How will the mach meter respond in a constant mach number climb if the static source becomes
blocked?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant.
21. The indications on a mach meter are independent of?

a. Dynamic pressure.
b. Ambient temperature .
c. Static pressure.
d. Total pressure
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22. What happens to mach meter indication in a constant RAS climb?

a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Increases then remains constant.
d. Increases unless in an inversion or isothermal layer.
23. What would happen if the static pipe became detached from the back of a mach meter in a
pressurised aircraft at high altitude?
a. Under read.
b. Over read.
c. No effect
d. Under read or over read depending on temperature.
24. If an aircraft climbs at constant TAS from FL 200 to FL 400 the mach meter indication will?
a. Increase.
b. Decrease.
c. Increase then remain constant.
d. Decrease then remain constant.
25. A mach meter is made up of ?

a. An altimeter with a density capsule.
b. An ASI with an altitude capsule.
c. A VSI with a modified scale .
d. An ASI with a modified scale.
26. VMo is calculated based on?

a. TAS.
b. RAS.
c. CAS.
d. EAS.
27. Mach number is the ratio of?

a. IAS:TAS.
b. CAS :LSS.
c. TAS :LSS.
d. RAS:TAS.
28. If the static source becomes blocked the mach meter will ......... as an aircraft climbs?
a. Over indicate.
b. Under indicate.
c. Not indicate.
d. Freeze.
29. If temperature decreases when flying at constant CAS at FL 200, the mach meter indication will
...... and the true mach number will .... ?
a. Increase increase.
b. Decrease decrease.
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c. Not change not change.

d. Not change increase.
30. Mach meter indications?

a. Are temperature related.
b. Increase with temperature.
c. Decrease with temperature.
d. Are independent of temperature.
31. The speed of sound at ISA msl is?

a. 550 Kts.
b. 560 Kts.
c. 660 Kts.
d. 670 kts.
32. If ambient temperature is -10° C, what is the mach number when TAS is 594 Kts?
a. 0.5M.
b. 0.75M.
c. 0.94M.
d. l.5M.
33. The speed of sound at 25000 ft ISA is?

a. 600 Kts.
b. 602 Kts.
c. 604 kts.
d. 606 Kts.
34. What is true mach number of 25000 ft ISA if the TAS is 500 kts?
a. 0.75M.
b. 0.83M.
c. 0.90M.
d. 0.93M.
35. A mach meter indicates mach number based on the ratio of?
a. Static pressure to pitot pressure.
b. Pitot pressure to static pressure.
c. Dynamic pressure to static pressure.
d. Static pressure to dynamic pressure.
36. What happens to TAT when an aircraft descends at constant indicated mach number?
a. Increases.
b. Decreases.
c. Remain constant.
d. Remains constant then increases.
37. What is actually measured by a mach meter?

a. Pitot pressure.
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b. The ratio of (pitot pressure - static pressure): static pressure.

c. The ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure.
d. The ratio of (static pressure+ pitot pressure) : pitot pressure.
38. Mach meter indications are derived from?

a. (PT - Ps)/PT,
b. (Ps - PT)/Ps.
c. (PT - Ps)/Ps.
d. (Ps - PT)/PT,
39. A mach meter compares?

a. (Pr Ps) to PT,
b. (Ps - PT) to Ps.
c. (PT - Ps) to Ps.
d. (Ps - PT) to PT,
40. What does mach number represent?

a. The CAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.
b. The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft.
c. The TAS of an aircraft as a fraction of the local speed of sound.
d. The local speed of sound as a fraction of the CAS of an aircraft.
41. When climbing at constant mach number below the tropopause in the ISA, the CAS will?
a. Increase .
b. Decrease.
c. Remain constant
d. Decrease then remain constant.
42. When descending at constant CAS, if temperature remains constant the indicated mach number
will?
a. Remain constant
b. Increase.
c. Decrease.
d. Increase exponentially.
43. What should the mach meter indicate when flying at 500 kts TAS at FL250. if the ambient
temperature is -30° C?
a. 0.52M.
b. 0.62M.
c. 0.72M.
d. 0.82M
RADIO NAV -2020
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7. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-down may be
flown?
a. VHF radio
b. VOR
c. None
d. VOR/DME
8. Which of the following is an advantage of ground/OF (VDF) let-down?

a. It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
b. It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
c. It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
d. It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the aircraft
or on the ground
9. In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to
fix an aircraft's position?
a. On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary
b. When contacting ATC to join controlled airspace from the open FIR
c. When declaring an emergency on any frequency
d. When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
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10. What is a VDF referenced to?

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a. Relative bearing to the aircraft.

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b. True north at the aircraft.

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c. Magnetic north at the station.

d. Magnetic north at the aircraft.
11. A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 nm. By what factor should the transmitter power
be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 nm?
a. Four.
b. Eight.
c. Two.
d. Six.
12. VDF is the abbreviation for?

a. VDF Direction Finder.
b. Very Direction Finder.
c. Very High Frequency Deviation Finding Station.
d. VHF Direction Finder.
13. To provide with the position of the aircraft in the absence of radar, ATC must have at its disposal
at least?
a. Two VDFs at different locations, able to take bearings simultaneously on the transmitted
frequency.
b. Three VDFs at different locations, able to take bearings simultaneously on different frequencies.
c. Two co-located VDFs, able to take bearing simultaneously on the transmitted frequency.
d. One VDF able to take bearing simultaneously on different frequencies.
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14. Range of VDF depends on?

1. Line of sight formula.
2. Power of transmitter.
3. Intervening high ground.
The combination regrouping all of the correct statements is?
a. 2.
b. 1,2and3
c. 1 and 2.
d. 1 and 3.
15. One of the uses of the VDF is providing aircraft with?

a. Ground speed.
b. Homing.
c. Altitude.
d. Heading.
16. A VDF may be used?

a. To provide the ATC controller with bearings of aircraft in the absence of radar.
b. In emergency type situations when the aircraft is unable to transmit on VHF.
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c. In combination with radar to solve a 180 degree ambiguity.

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d. In lieu of ILS for precision approach purposes.

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17. What is the effect of multipath signals (coming from the same aircraft) at the Ground VHF
Direction Finder Station?
a. It reduces the range at which the ground VDF Direction Finder station receives signals from the
aircraft.
b. Regardless of the differences in distance travelled by these signals, it results in their extinction
of the signals at the Ground VHF Direction Finder station.
c. It may result in an increase in the distance at which Ground Direction Finder station receive
signals from the aircraft, if the Ground Station is situated in the skip zone.
d. They may result in bearing errors.
18. In flight, a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by?
a. Speaking louder.
b. Flying out of clouds.
c. Increasing altitude.
d. Decreasing altitude.
19. An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of zero. If the
magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing?
a. Right drift.
b. Left drift.
c. Zero drift.
d. A wind from the west.
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20. Given:
Compass heading 270°.

Deviation 2°W.
Variation 30°E.
Relative bearing of VDF station from the aircraft 316°.
What is the QDR?
a. 044°
b. 226°
c. 046°
d. 224°
21. VDF measures the bearing of the aircraft with?

a. Reference to the aircraft relative bearing.
b. Reference to the true and magnetic north at the station.
c. Reference to the true and magnetic north at the aircraft.
d. Reference to the magnetic north at the aircraft.
22. The VDF Class B bearing is accurate to within?

a. +/- 1 degrees.
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+/- 5 degrees.
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+/- 3 degrees.
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d. +/- 2 degrees.
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23. When would VDF be used for a position fix?

a. When declaring an emergency on 121.5 MHz.
b. When the aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency.
c. When first talking to an FIR on crossing an international boundary.
d. When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace.
24. What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted on order that a VDF let-down may be
flown?
a. VOR/DME.
b. VHF Radio.
c. None.
d. VOR.
25. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF let-down?
a. None.
b. VOR.
c. VOR/DME.
d. VHF Radio.
26. The minimum airborne equipment for operation of a VHF Direction Finder is a?
a. VHF Transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
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b. VHF Compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.

c. Cathode ray tube.
d. VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
27. Ground direction finding at aerodromes utilizes which frequencies?

a. VHF at civil aerodromes, VHF at military aerodromes.
b. VHF at civil aerodromes, UHF at military aerodromes.
c. UHF at civil aerodromes, VHF at military aerodromes.
d. UHF at civil aerodromes, UHF at military aerodromes.
28. The range at which you can obtain a VDF bearing can be influenced by?
a. Intensity of ionization.
b. Surface type.
c. Aircraft height.
d. Time of day.
29. What is the purpose of a ground direction finder?

a. To map airfields.
b. To aid ground movements.
c. To aid pilot navigation.
d. To assist planners in the construction of airfield approaches.
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30. Which of the following affects VDF range?

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a. Coastal refraction.
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b. The height of the transmitter and the receiver.

c. The strength of the pilot's voice when transmitting.
d. Sky wave propagation.
31. Abnormal long ranges may be experienced on VDF channels, caused by?
a. Efficient VDF antennas.
b. Intermodulation with signals on frequencies close to the one being used by the VDF station.
c. Super refraction of the signals in the atmosphere.
d. The VDF station using a relay station for communication to the aircraft.
32. In VDF service the report "QDR 235, Class C" means?
a. The Magnetic bearing from the aircraft to the station is 235 +/- 10 degrees.
b. The Magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft 235 +/-15 degrees.
c. The true bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/-10 degrees.
d. The Magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft is 235 +/-10 degrees.
33. Which Q code would give a magnetic heading to steer (in nil wind) to a VDF station?
a. QDM.
b. QDR.
c. QUJ.
d. QTE.
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34. You intercept a QDM with a right crosswind component. Is your intercept heading greater or
smaller than it would be without wind influence?
a. Greater.
b. Smaller.
c. Remains the same.
d. Not enough information to give an answer.
35. If a ground D/F controller passes a bearing thus: "your true bearing is 256 degrees, class Alpha."
This means?
a. QTE accurate to+/- 2 degrees.
b. QTE accurate to+/- 5 degrees.
c. QDR accurate +/- 2 degrees.
d. QUK accurate+/- 3 degrees.
36. What is QTE?

a. Magnetic track to the station.
b. Magnetic track from the station.
c. True track from the station.
d. True track to the station.
37. Which of the following statements regarding VHF Direction Finding (VDF) is most accurate?
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a. It is simple and only requires a VHF radio on the ground.

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b. It is simple and requires a VHF radio and direction finding equipment in the aeroplane.
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c. It is simple and requires a VHF radio on the ground and in the aeroplane.
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d. It uses line of sight propagation.
38. With reference to ground DF, the controller can refuse to give a bearing if?
a. The requesting aircraft is not from a consenting country.
b. The pilot does not use the prescribed terminology.
c. Conditions are poor and bearing do not fall the station's classifications limits.
d. None of the above.
39. An aircraft receives a class A true bearing from a VDF station. This is?
a. QTE accurate to+/- 2 degrees.
b. QUJ accurate to+/- 2 degrees.
c. QUJ accurate to+/- 5 degrees.
d. QTE accurate to+/- 5 degrees.
40. At a height of 5000 feet you might expect to receive a VHF signal, from a transmitter located at
sea level, at a range of?
a. 88.4 nm.
b. 88.4 km.
c. 70.7 nm.
d. 200 km.
41. A Class B bearing has accuracy limits of plus or minus?

a. 2 degrees
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b. 3 degrees.
c. 5 degrees.
d. 7 degrees.
42. VDF for aeronautical use provides service in the frequency range?
a. 108 to 118 MHz.
b. 108 to 136 MHz.
c. 118 to 136 MHz.
d. 130 to 300 MHz.
43. In flight a pilot can improve the range of his transmission with a VDF operator by?
a. Increasing altitude.
b. Decreasing altitude.
c. Speaking louder.
d. Flying out of clouds.
44. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a VDF station?
a. QNH.
b. QTE.
c. QDR.
d. QDM.
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ADF
1. A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the transmitter power
be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
a. Six.
b. Eight.
c. Two.
d. Four.
2. Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors from NDB
transmissions, is due to:
a. Skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk.
b. Interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB.
c. Static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band.
d. The effect of the Aurora Borealis.
3. Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are
caused by:
a. Skywave/ground wave contamination.
b. Signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces.
A
c. Signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring.

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d. Misalignment of the loop aerial.

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4. An aeroplane is tracking away from an NDB maintaining track 020 degrees with 5 degrees
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starboard (right) drift. The relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a bearing of?
a. 185 degrees relative.
b. 175 degrees relative.
c. 180 degrees relative.
d. 015 degrees relative.
5. What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 365 kHz?

a. 8.2 m.
b. 82 m.
c. 822 m.
d. 8200 m.
6. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
a. Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night.
b. Frequency drift at the ground station.
c. Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day.
d. Mutual interference between aircraft aerials.
7. There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both propagations, the
extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water will be?
a. The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°.
17
b. Greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland.

c. The same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°.
d. Greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland.
8. Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are maximum
when the NDB is:
a. Inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.
b. Near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles.
c. Inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles.
d. Near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle.
9. An aeroplane is tracking towards an NDB maintaining track 120 degrees with 15 degrees
starboard (right) drift. The relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a nearing of?

a. 800 m
b. 8000 m
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c. 8 m
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d. 80 m
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11. An aeroplane is tracking away from an NDB maintaining track 120 degrees with 15 degrees
starboard (right) drift. The relative bearing indicator (RBI) should indicate a bearing of?
12. ADF bearing by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should be accurate to
within a maximum error of:
a. +/-2°.
b. +/-5°.
c. +/-10°.
d. +/-2.5°.
13. Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
a. 200-1750
b. 255-455
c. 300- 3000
d. 200- 2000
14. In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

a. Signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials.
b. Sense aerial must be tuned separately.
18
c. Mode selector should be switched to 'loop'.

d. BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'.
15. Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
a. Static interference - station interference - latitude error.
b. Height error- station interference - mountain effect.
c. Coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect.
d. Static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system.
16. Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF
bearings?
a. Coastal effect.
b. Quadrantal error.
c. Precipitation interference.
d. Local thunderstorm activity.
17. The BFO selector or an ADF receiver is used to:

a. Hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal.
b. Stop loop rotation.
c. Hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON.
d. Find the loop 'null' position.
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18. An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is:
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a. Omnidirectional.
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b. Bi-lobal circular.
c. A cardioid balanced at 30 Hz.
d. A beam rotating at 30 Hz.
19. What actually happens in the ADF receiver when the BFO position is selected?
a. The BFO circuit is activated.
b. The BFO circuit imposes a tone onto the carrier wave to make the NDB's ident audible.
c. The BFO is activated, and the receiver accepts only AlA modulated signals.
d. The BFO circuit oscillates at an increased frequency in order to allow identification of A2A
ND B's.
20. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316 degrees from an aircraft, Given: Compass heading 270.
Deviation = 2W. Variation at the aircraft = 30E. Variation at the station = 28E. Calculate the true
bearing of the NDB from the aircraft?
a. 072 degrees.
b. 252 degrees.
c. 074 degrees.
d. 254 degrees.
21. A VOR and an NDB are co-located. An aircraft equipped with an RMI is flying away from the
beacons on a radial of 090 degrees through an area where magnetic variation is changing rapidly.
Which statement is correct?
a. The VOR needle moves, the ADF needle does not.
19
b. Both VOR and ADF needles move.

c. Neither the VOR nor the NDB needles move.
d. The ADF needle moves, the VOR needle does not.
22. An NDB is on a relative bearing of 316 degrees from the aircraft. Given: Compass heading 265
degrees. At aircraft Deviation = 3 W. Variation = 36E. At station Variation = 34E. Calculate the true
bearing of the NDB from the aircraft?
a. 254 degrees.
b. 252 degrees.
c. 074 degrees.
d. 072 degrees.

a. 8 m.
b. 8000 m.
c. 80 m.
d. 800 m.
24. Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
a. Frequency drift at the ground station.
b. Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night.
A
AN
c. Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day.

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d. Mutual interference between aircraft aerials.

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25. You are on a magnetic heading of 055 degrees, and your ADF indicates a relative bearing of 325
degrees. The QDM is?
a. 020 degrees.
b. 235 degrees.
c. 200 degrees.
d. 055 degrees.
26. Given: W/V (T) = 230/20 kts. Variation= GE. TAS = 80 kts. What relative bearing from an NDB
should be maintained in order to achieve an outbound course of 257(M) from overhead the
beacon?
a. 008 degrees.
b. 352 degrees.
c. 172 degrees.
d. 188 degrees.
27. On the QDR of 075 degrees, (in the vicinity of the station) with magnetic heading of 295 degrees,
the relative bearing n the ADF indicator is?
a. 040 degrees.
b. 220 degrees.
c. 320 degrees.
d. 140 degrees.
20
28. A VOR and an NDB are co-located. You cross the VOR radial of 240 on a heading of 360 (M). In the
vicinity of the station you should read an ADF bearing of?
a. 300
b. 120
c. 240
d. 60
29. What does ADF stand for?

a. Automatic Direction Finding.
b. Airport Direction Finding.
c. Airborne Direction Finding.
d. Aeroplane Direction Finding.
30. The quadrantal error of an ADF?

a. Is caused by the refraction from the aircraft's fuselage and is compensated for.
b. Is caused by interference from sky waves.
c. Is caused by aircraft magnetism and varies with the deviation as shown on the deviation table.
d. May be caused by interference of VO Rs within range of the ADF receiver and cannot be
compensated for.
31. Night effect in an ADF may cause?

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a. Noise in the received EM-wave, which hardly will be noticed by the pilots looking at the RMI.
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b. Fluctuating indications of the needle on the rim.

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c. A constant error in the indicated heading.

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d. No bearing error because of the built-in compensator unit.
32. The reading of the RMI bearing is 300 degrees. At the tip of the needle. The magnetic variation at
the DR position is 24W, the magnetic variation at the NDB is 22W and deviation is -2 degrees. The
compass heading is 020 degrees. The true bearing is?
a. 294 degrees.
b. 094 degrees.
c. 272 degrees.
d. 274 degrees.
33. With regard to the range of NDBs and the accuracy of the bearing they provide it can be stated
that in general at night?
a. The range increases and the accuracy decreases.
b. The range and the accuracy both decreases.
c. The range and the accuracy both increases.
d. The range decreases and the accuracy increases.
34. Which statements with respect to the range of an NDB?

a. With propagation over sea the range will be greater than the range with propagation over land.
b. In order to double the range of an NDB, the transmission power should be increased by a factor
of 16.
c. The range depends on the altitude of the aircraft.
21
d. During the night the range of an NDB will decrease due to the interference of the direct and
earth reflected waves.
35. Allocated frequencies for NDB are?

a. 19 Hz to 17500 Hz.
b. 1.90 kHz to 17.50 kHz.
c. 190 kHz to 1750 kHz.
d. 1900 kHz to 17500 KHz.
36. ADF is the abbreviation for?

a. Automatic Direction Finder.
b. Automatic Direction Finder.
c. Airport Direction Finder.
d. Airport direction Finding.
37. The ADF indication in the cockpit is a?

a. True bearing on an RMI.
b. Relative bearing on an RMI.
c. Relative bearing on a fixed card.
d. Magnetic heading on a fixed card indicator.
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38. NDB is the abbreviation for?

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a. Non Directional Beacon.

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b. Night Directional Beacon.

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c. Non Directional Bearing.

d. Navigation Director Beacon.
39. Concerning ADF and NDB?

a. NDB is a locator and ADF is an en route nav-aid.
b. ADF is a ground equipment and NDB can be a ground equipment or an airborne equipment.
c. ADF is a civilian equipment whereas NDB is a military equipment used by civilians too.
d. NDB is a ground equipment, and ADF is an airborne equipment.
40. What causes the so called "night effect"?

a. A change in the direction of the plane of the polarisation due to reflection in the ionosphere.
b. The difference in velocity of the EM waves over land and over sea at night.
c. The absence of the surface wave at distances larger than the skip distance.
d. Interference between the ground and space waves.
41. Which statements about the errors and effect on NDB radio signals is correct?
a. Shore line effects may cause a huge bearing error due to reflection of the radio signals onto
steep coasts.
b. Lightning during atmospheric disturbances may cause a reduction of the signal strength that
may result in only slight bearing errors.
c. Night effect is a result of interference of the surface wave and the space wave causing a
reduction is range.
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d. The mountain effect is caused by reflections onto steep slopes of mountainous terrain which
may cause big error in the bearing.
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VOR
1. A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N,

010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at Bis 15°W, the aircraft is on
VOR radial:
a. 195°.
b. 190°.
c. 185°.
d. 180°.
2. An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearing of NDBs and VORs to true bearing
the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
a. NDB: beacon position. VOR: beacon position.
b. NDB: beacon position. VOR: aircraft position.
c. NDB: aircraft position. VOR: beacon position.
d. NDB: aircraft position. VOR: aircraft position.
3. An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the equator. Where
the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 8°E.
The aircraft is on VOR radial?

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a. 255°
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b. 278°
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c. 262°
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d. 285°
4. Given:
Magnetic heading 280°.
VOR radial 090°.
What bearing should be selected on the Omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR
deviation needle with a "TO" indication?
a. 270°
b. 280°
c. 100°
d. 090°
5. A VOR is sited at position S8°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 32°W.
An aircraft is located at position S6°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals 28°W.
The aircraft is on VOR radial?
a. 208
b. 212
c. 360
d. 180
24
6. The principle used in VOR bearing measurements is:

a. Phase comparison
b. Envelope matching
c. Beat frequency discrimination
d. Difference in depth of modulation

020°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 15°W and at Bis 20°W, the aircraft is on
VOR radial:
a. 195°
b. 175°
c. 185°
d. 180°
8. A radial is the ...... (i) bearing .... (ii) a VOR ground station?
a. Magnetic To.
b. Relative From.
c. Magnetic From.
d. True From.
9. Tuned to a VOR station, with OBS needle central, the instrument reads 140 degrees with FROM
A
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indicated. Relative to the VOR station the receiver is in the?

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a. Northwest sector.
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b. Northeast or Southeast sector, depending on the heading of the aircraft when the reading is
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taken.
c. Southwest sector.
d. Southeast sector.
10. The VOR to obtain CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) indications in the correct sense when tracking
towards a VOR on radial 255 degrees, the pilot should set on the OBS (Omni bearing selector)?
a. 075 degrees with TO indicated.
b. 235 degrees with FROM indicated.
c. 055 degrees with FROM indicated.
d. 235 Degrees with TO indicated.
11. In order to obtain CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) indications in the correct sense when tracking
towards a VOR on radial 235 degrees, the pilot should set on the OBS (Omni bearing selector)?
a. 235 degrees with FROM indicated.
b. 055 degrees with TO indicated.
c. 055 degrees with FROM indicated.
d. 235 degrees with TO indicated.
020°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 15°E and at Bis 20°E, the aircraft is on
VOR radial:
a. 165°
b. 195°
25
c. 160°
d. 180°
13. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 250 NM represents a width of:
a. 2.0 NM.
b. 2.5 NM.
c. 4.4 NM.
d. 3.0 NM.
14. The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 300 NM represents a width of:
a. 5.2 NM.
b. 4.0 NM.
c. 4.5 NM.
d. 3.0 NM.
15. The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 180° out of phase on
magnetic:
a. East.
b. West.
c. North.
d. South.
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magnetic:
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a. West.
b. East.
c. South.
d. North.
17. Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?

a. UHF.
b. VHF.
c. SHF.
d. HF.
18. Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:

a. Static interference.
b. Night effect.
c. Uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces.
d. Quadrantal error.
19. If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors could be
caused by:
a. Interference from other transmitter.
b. Noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter.
c. Sky wave interference from the same transmitter.
d. Sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency.
26
20. An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a deviation indicator
where 1 dot= 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line of the instrument will
represents the limits of the airway boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
a. 1.5.
b. 1.15.
c. 1.7.
d. 2.5.
21. The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are in phase on magnetic:
a. East.
b. North.
c. South.
d. West.
22. An airway 12 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of
plus or minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart
for the transmitter is approximately?
a. 50 NM.
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b. 165 NM.
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c. 210 NM.
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d. 124 NM.
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23. An aeroplane flying on a heading of 280 degrees magnetic is on a bearing of 180 degrees
magnetic from of VOR.
The bearing to the VOR that should be selected on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the
VOR/ILS deviation needle is?
a. 360.
b. 270.
c. 180.
d. 90.
24. An aeroplane flying on a heading of 280 degrees magnetic is on a bearing of 180 degrees
magnetic from of VOR.
The bearing from the VOR that should be selected on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the
VOR/ILS deviation needle is?
a. 90.
b. 180.
c. 270.
d. 360.
25. Given:
VOR station N66° E025°, variation 20°E:
27
Estimated position of an aircraft NS6° E025°, variation 25°E.

What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
a. 160°.
b. 345°.
c. 165°.
d. 195°.
26. An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant bearing accuracy of
plus or minus 5.5°.
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the airway limits the maximum distance apart
for the transmitter is approximately?
a. 50 NM.
b. 105 NM.
c. 165 NM.
d. 210 NM.
27. What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to
have the same morse code identifier?
a. 2000 m.
b. 60 m.
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c. 300 m.
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d. 600 m.
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28. In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic variation:
a. At the aircraft location.
b. At the VOR.
c. At the halfway point between the aircraft and the station.
d. At both the VOR and aircraft.
29. An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to obtain correct
sense indications, the deviation indicator should be set to:
a. 064° with the FROM flag showing.
b. 064° with the TO flag showing.
c. 244° with the FROM flag showing.
d. 244° with the TO flag showing.
30. Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of a
conventional VOR is correct?
a. The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates.
b. The rotation of the variable signal at a rate 30 times per second gives it the characteristics of a
30 Hz amplitude modulation.
c. The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the
allocated frequency each time it rotates.
d. The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal.
28
31. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals from a VOR
facility sited at mean sea level is:
a. 190 NM.
b. 230 NM.
c. 170 NM.
d. 151 NM.
32. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

a. Rhumb line track.
b. Line of constant bearing.
c. Great circle track.
d. Constant magnetic track.
33. A VOR and NDB are co-located. An aeroplane fitted with an RMI is flying away from the beacons
on a radial of 090 degrees. The variation is changing rapidly.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. The ADF needle will not move, but the VOR needle will move as the variation changes.
b. The VOR needle will not move, but the ADF needle will move as the variation changes.
c. both the VOR needle and the ADF needle will move as the variation changes.
d. Neither the VOR needle nor the ADF needle will move.
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magnetic:
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a. South.
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b. East.
c. West.
d. North.
35. An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with the full left
deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground station?
a. SW.
b. NW.
c. SE.
d. NE.
36. An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range of a
serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
a. 10° or more.
b. Less than 10°.
c. 1.5° or more.
d. 2.5 or more.
37. An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector (OBS) reads: 330
The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are 'fly':
a. Left with 'TO' showing.
b. Right with 'TO' showing.
c. Right with 'FROM' showing.
29
d. Left with 'FROM' showing.
38. Given:
Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.
On what radial Is the aircraft?
a. 85.
b. 265.
c. 95.
d. 275.
39. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is:

a. 108 to 111.95 MHz.
b. 108 to 117.95 MHz.
c. 118 to 135.95 MHz.
d. 108 to 135.95 MHz.
40. If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR station will be:
a. 030°.
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b. 330°.
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c. 210°.
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d. 150°.
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41. The captain of an aircraft flying at FLlOO wishes to obtain weather information at the destination
airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range will it be possible to obtain
this information?
a. 123 km.
b. 12.3 NM.
c. 125 NM.
d. 1230 km.
42. You are on a compass heading of 090 degrees on the 255 radial from a VOR. You set the course
190 degrees on your OBS. The deviation bar will show?
a. Full scale deflection right with a "FROM" indication.
b. Full scale deflection left with a "TO" indication.
c. Full scale deflection right with a "TO" indication.
d. Full scale deflection left with a "FROM" indication.
43. In order to measure the radial from a VOR, the aircraft receiver?
a. Measures the phase difference between the reference phase end the variable phase of the
signal.
b. Measure the time difference between sending the interrogation signal and receiving the
transporter signal.
c. Uses the pulse technique to determine the radial.
30
44. An OBS is set to 048 with a TO flag showing. The VOR deviation bar is showing full right
deflection. Approximately what radial are you on?
a. 058 degrees.
b. 238 degrees.
c. 218 degrees.
d. 038 degrees.
45. The OBS is set to 235 degrees. "TO" appears in the window. The needle is close to half scale left
deflection. The VOR radial is approximately?
a. 230 degrees.
b. 060 degrees.
c. 240 degrees.
d. 050 degrees.
46. Your aircraft is heading 075(M). The OBS is set to 025. The VOR indications are "TO" with the
needle showing right deflection. Relative to the station, you are situated in a quadrant defined by
the radials?
a. 025 degrees and 115 degrees.
b. 205 degrees and 295 degrees.
c. 295 degrees and 025 degrees.
d. 115 degrees and 205 degrees.
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47. Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is elected to 090 degrees. From/To indicator
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indicates "TO". CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. On what radial is the aircraft?
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a. 85.
b. 95.
c. 275.
d. 265.
48. The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL 230 can receive signals from a VOR
facility sited at MSL is?
a. 190 nm.
b. 170 nm.
c. 230 nm.
d. 151 nm.
49. Two aircraft are located on (arbitrary) different radials but at equal distances from a VOR station.
Which statement is true?
a. At a certain moment of time the phase of the reference signals is equal and the phases of the
variable signals is equal for both.
b. At a certain moment of time, both the phase of the reference signals and the phase of the
variable signals are equals for the both aircraft.
c. At a certain moment of time, both the phase of the reference signals and the phase of the
variable signals are unequal for both aircraft.
d. At a certain moment of time the phase of the reference signals is equal and the phases of the
variable signals is unequal for both.
31
SO. Unless otherwise specified a radial is?

a. The magnetic great circle direction from the beacon.
b. The true great circle direction from the beacon.
c. The magnetic great circle direction to the beacon.
d. The true great circle direction to the beacon.
51. In the VOR receiver the radial is determined by measurement of the?

a. Time difference between the reception of the variable signal and the reference signal.
b. Doppler shift on the reference signal.
c. Phase of the variable signal.
d. Phase difference between the variable signal and the reference signa
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RADIO NAVIGATION - 2020 2
Basic principle a. MF.

b. LF.
c. HF.
1. The emission characteristics A3E describe? d. VHF.
a. ILS.
b. VOR. 9. The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelength?
c. HF communications. a. Decimetric.
d. VHF communication. b. Metric.
c. Hectometric.
2. Electromagnetic waves travel at? d. Centimetric.
a. The speed of sound.
b. 300 000 metres per second. 10. What is the wavelength of the ILS Localiser signal?
c. The speed of light. a. Myriametric.
d. 162 000 miles per hour. b. Metric.
c. Hectometric.
3. In regard to radio what does the term frequency mean? d. Centimetric.
a. The number of waveform in one hour.
b. The number of complete waveform passing a point in one second. 11. Frequency is define as the?
c. The speed of radio waves in metres per second. a. Number of complete cycles recurring in one unit of time.
d. The length of a complete waveform in metres. b. Distance between a crest and a crest.
c. Number of complete cycles recurring in ten units of time.
4. The Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) uses the following wavelength? d. Distance from axis to peak value.
a. Metric.
b. Decimetric. 12. A radio facility on a wavelength of 2.22 cm. The facility could be Operating on a frequency of ?
c. Centimetric. a. VDF, 135 MHz.
d. Hectometric or kilometric. b. DME, 1350 MHz.
c. Doppler 13500 MHz.
5. According to ICAO Annex 10, in which frequency band(s) does a locator transmit? d. Radio Altimeter 13500 kHz.
a. HF.
b. LF/MF. 13. The Marker beacons use the following wavelength?
c. HF/VHF. a. Myriametric.
d. MF/HF. b. Metric.
c. Hectometric.
6. The VHF Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths? d. Centimetric.
a. Hectometric.
b. Decimetric. 14. The Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelength?
c. Metric. a. Myriametric.
d. Centimetric. b. Metric.
c. Hectometric.
7. The frequency band for the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) is? d. Centimetric.
a. Hectometric.
b. Decimetric. 15. The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter (RADALT) uses the following wavelengths?
c. Metric. a. Decimetric.
d. Centimetric. b. Metric.
c. Myriametric.
8. A transmission of RF energy at a wavelength of 18 metres is in which frequency band? d. Centimetric.

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General Nav - 2020: Scanned With Camscanner

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GENERAL NAV - 2020

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

Scanned with CamScanner

5. The gyro's weight.

The combination of correct statements is?

b. A directional gyro unit.

c. One degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an

12. A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from?

13. A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with?

Chose the combination with true statements only?

b. Turning right with not enough bank.

d. Turning left with not enough bank.

a. Needle to the left, ball to the left.

22. The rate-of-turn is the?

23. In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate of turn consists for?

24. In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is?

following on a classic artificial horizon?

a. Too much nose-up and bank correct.

b. Too much nose-up and bank too high.

c. Too much nose-up and bank too low

32. The gyro-magnetic compass torque motor?

b. Causes the heading indicator to precess.

35. A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in?

1. An inertial attitude unit.

4. An inertial navigation system.

The combination of correct statements is?

1. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis.

The combination of correct statements is?

b. An apparent weight and an apparent vertical.

40. Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro?

The combination regrouping the correct statements is?

44. Heading information given by a gyro platform., is given by a gyro at?

d. Is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected.

47. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on?

2. What would be the indication on an attitude indicator in a right turn?

a. One degree of freedom and a lateral spin axis.

b. Two degrees of freedom and a vertical spin axis.

c. Two degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis.

6. Aircraft attitude is indicated on?

9. An artificial horizon has?

10. The latitude nut .......... an artificial horizon?

11. The gravity sensing unit in an artificial horizon is used to?

a. Prevent tilting of the gyro.