Professional Documents
Culture Documents
TABLE OF
CONTENTS
Prefac 3
e
General IELTS Test 5
One
General IELTS Test 39
Two
General IELTS Test 7
Three 5
Transcripts and 111
Keys
Audio
Recordings
Test One Listening Parts CD 1 Tracks
1-4 1-4
Test One Reading CD 1 Tracks
Passages 1-3 5-9
Test One Speaking Parts CD 1 Tracks
1-3 10-12
Test Two Listening Parts CD 2 Tracks
1-4 1-4
Test Two Reading Passages CD 2 Tracks
1-3 5-9
Test Two Speaking Parts CD 2 Tracks
1-3 10-12
Test Three Listening Parts CD 3 Tracks
1-4 1-4
Test Three Reading CD 3 Tracks
Passages 1-3 5-9
Test Three Speaking Parts CD 3 Tracks
1-3 10-12
British Accent – Numbers, Days, CD 4 Tracks
etc. 1-7
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PREFACE
The International English Language Testing System (IELTS) is taken by well over one
million people each year, in over 130 countries. In order to immigrate to many
English-speaking countries, the IELTS must be taken. The purpose of the test is to
provide a standardized base upon which persons can demonstrate their ability to
communicate using the English language.
The IELTS is composed of four sections – Listening, Reading, Writing and Speaking.
Each of these sections tests a different set of the candidate’s English language abilities.
Mastering each of these sections is an integral step in achieving a top score on the
IELTS.
The accents heard on the recordings will be chiefly British. However, you may hear
Australian, Canadian or New Zealander accents occasionally. The differing accents
should not be an obstacle for any test-taker. This book comes with an audio CD
containing British accent recordings of common words, such as days of the week,
months of the year, measurements, currency, and other useful terms.
The test’s four sections together take 2 hours and 45 minutes to complete. The first three
sections are done together, while the speaking section is completed within a week of the
testing date. The listening section is composed of four parts, and contains dialogues,
monologues, lectures and conversations from everyday situations. Students are asked
40 questions based on the four recordings. The reading section is composed of between
four and six parts, in three sections which are taken from newspapers, magazines,
advertisements or journals. Students are asked 40 questions based on the excerpts
given. The writing section is composed of two parts, one of which is a short note, usually
written to a friend, family member, coworker, or acquaintance. The second part asks the
candidate to write a short essay in response to a given question or statement.
Candidates are given 60 minutes to complete the writing section. The speaking section
is composed of three parts, two of which take the form of a conversation, and one which
involves the candidate giving a one to two minute response to a given question. The
speaking section takes between ten and fifteen minutes.
This book is a great tool for students to practise their IELTS skills. The book is composed
of three full-length practice tests, complete answer keys and complete audio transcripts.
The three practice tests contain all of the question types you are likely to see on the
General IELTS. The audio transcripts contain highlighted sections showing where each
answer in the test is taken from. The reading section answers have also been
highlighted in a similar fashion. For the writing and speaking sections, sample
responses have been provided. For the speaking section, audio samples have been
provided as well. This book contains everything you need to do well on the IELTS. If you
are looking to improve your IELTS score, you are in the right place!
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TESTE EXEMPLO 1:
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7
SECTION TIME:
30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so.
Write your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt
all questions. All recordings will be played only once. Write all your answers on the
test paper itself. After the section is over, you will be given ten minutes to transfer
your answers to the given answer sheet. You are not permitted to take this exam
booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into four parts as follows:
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8
Test 1
LISTENING
Questions 1 and 2
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C.
Example:
A Liverpool
B Chester
C London
1 How many football matches has the man played in the league?
A 10
B0
C 40-50
A Midfield
B Goalkeeper
C Striker
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Test 1 9
Questions 3-4
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
Name: Steven 3…………..
Question 5
5 Match the time with the event.
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Question 8
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10
Questions 9-10
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Test 1 11
Questions 11 and 12
A 800
B 3500
C 4300
Questions 13-15
Question 16
A B C
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12
Questions 17-20
Complete the flow chart of events leading to the sinking of the Titanic. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
↓
The Titanic hit the iceberg.
↓
The water tight 18…….… failed.
↓
Many 19………… left the ship half-full.
↓
1523 people die. Most from the freezing cold temperatures of the 20………
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Test 1 13
Question 21
Questions 22-23
Question 24
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14
Question 25-26
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
25The topic must be an event that occurred some time between the years _ and
26What topic would the male student like to write on, but cannot due to assignment
restrictions?
Questions 27-30
27 Robespierre ………………..
28 Rousseau ………………..
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Test 1 15
Questions 31-40
Climate Change
Background Information
century.
Businesses and environmentalists have been at odds with one another, but the emergence
Warmer weather can cause extreme weather patterns. Ice caps could melt, and famine
could occur.
A big negative is that the melting permafrost contains a lot of carbon which will be
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16
Governments from developing nations want developed countries to pay them for causing
Economics
The 36……………………….. of supply and demand has been in charge of economics
Economists wonder when consumer demand for environmental products will surpass
friendly products.
Conclusion
Climate change is going to change our way of life. Who will pay for the necessary
changes in our consumption patterns? With the growing demand for environmentally
friendly goods, it is arguably 39………………. which can best answer this question.
environment.
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Test 1 17
SECTION TIME:
60 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write
your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all
questions. Write all your answers on the answer sheet provided. You are not permitted
to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into three parts as follows:
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18
READING
Read the text below and answer questions 1-8. (Reading Audio – CD1 Track 5)
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Test 1 19
Questions 1-8
Complete the flow chart below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each
answer.
Write your answers in boxes 1-8 on your answer sheet.
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20
Read the text below and answer questions 9-14. (Reading Audio – CD1 Track 6)
A D
Last One Standing Paranormal Studies
(Sunday 7:00 PM) (Monday 8:30 PM)
Who will be crowned champion on the The paranormal investigation team looks
season finale of this award-winning into claims by an 86-year old woman that
reality show? The competition hots up as her house is haunted by her late husband.
Skeptic Nathan McDuffy is on hand to
the contestants are taken to the island of provide logical explanations of the
Guam, where they face challenges from phenomena. Also, the team welcomes a
the restless locals, the weather, and new member, Martha, an expert in
themselves.
B detecting spirits.
The Oncoming Storm E
(Saturday 6:30 PM) Baseline
The continuing adventures of the (Friday 8:00 PM)
renegade time traveler known as Dr. This newsmagazine, now in its 18th year,
Storm. This episode sees him visit the continues to provide cutting-edge
planet Skaro with his companion Amy coverage of current events. On this
Tyler. As usual, not all is right, and the week’s program, reporters investigate
pair must fight off an evil species known claims of corruption in parliament, auto
as the “Consciousness” in order to save dealers who misrepresent the value of
Skaro, and themselves, from destruction. vehicles, and the exploding poppy
industry in Afghanistan.
C
F
Science NOW
A Vampire in Paris
(Wednesday 11:00 PM)
(Tuesday 7:00 PM)
Carl Tyson hosts this late-night popular
Luke is a vampire who has moved to Paris
science program. Topics range from
to find new blood. Standing in his way is
quantum mechanics to the physics of
Channing, who will do anything to stop
swinging a baseball bat, and everything
Luke from seducing the women of Paris
in between.
into his vampirism. Oliver deGroot guest
stars on this week’s episode.
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Test 1 21
Questions 9-14
Look at the six programmes A-F on the previous page and answer questions 9-14.
Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 9-14 on your answer sheet.
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22
Read the text below and answer questions 15-22. (Reading Audio – CD1 Track 7)
When: 8 September
Where: Check-in for all attendees at 10:00 AM on the north side of
the Johnson building (next to the fountain)
Who should All new students. Whether you live off-campus or
attend: on-campus, new student orientation is for you
If the answer is “yes”, then be sure to register for this fun-filled day. This full-day
event is a great opportunity to:
∙ Participate in fun activities with other new students and make new friends. There
are
many prizes to be given away (including a new TV!)
∙ Lunch is provided. Choose from pizza, hamburgers and hot dogs. Vegetarian
options will also be available
∙ Enjoy some great entertainment. Local bands “Forest People”, “The Swings”,
and “Morning Marathon” will be rocking the university all day
∙ Be inspired. Speaking at the opening ceremony will be Griffith Prize and
award-winning author Piers Kendall, whose work with hungry and sick children in
Africa has
encouraged thousands of people to action. There will also be copies of his new
book “A Generation Reborn” given away as draw prizes, and available for
general sale
∙ Peruse the local market set up on the far side of the fountain. In addition to
local artisan pieces for sale, there will also be information kiosks detailing all
the wonderful
ONLINE REGISTRATION
Online registration is now open. The cost is FREE, but you will need your student
number (if you don’t already have one, visit the WSU website) to register. Late
registration is available at 9:00 the morning of the orientation, in the lobby of the 20 / 184
Test 1 23
Questions 15-22
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page ###?
16 WSU Students who do not live at the university are welcome at orientation.
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24
Read the text below and answer questions 23-27. (Reading Audio – CD1 Track 8)
The first step in organizing a team is to gauge interest. Send out an email, put up a
notice on a bulletin board, or just talk to people about it. Collect the contact information
of everyone who expresses interest. Make sure that your contact information is
available to everyone as well, especially if you are going to continue to lead the
organizing effort. Depending on the sport you have chosen to play, you may end up with
more or fewer people than hoped for. If there are too many people signed up, you could
make more than one team, or even your own league if numbers permit. If there are not
enough people, you could ask employees if they have spouses, children, or friends that
would be interested in playing.
Once you have the team set, you need to organize practice times, rules and regulations,
and
each player’s responsibilities to the team. These include supplying equipment, bringing
water to games, and contributing money towards league registration fees or other
associated costs.
The final step is to find a league to play in. This is not difficult in most communities. For
any sport, there are often dozens of different leagues playing out of facilities around the
community. Find the one best suited to your team’s general location, as well as its skill
level. The last thing you want to do is play in a super-competitive league where your
team is losing every game badly. That will build resentment instead of camaraderie.
Playing on a company sports team can be a fun, rewarding experience. You get to
interact on a much more personal level with coworkers, and this can benefit workflow
and business interactions in the workplace. Organizing the team can be challenging
and at times frustrating, but once established, it provides benefits both personally, and
for the company itself.
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Test 1 25
Questions 23-27
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each
answer.
24If you are the lead organizer of a team, what should you make sure is available to all
players?
25If the team is short on players, what are TWO groups of people that could be asked to
play?
26Other than location, what is the most important consideration when looking for a
league?
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26
Questions 28-33
Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
28 Paragraph A
29 Paragraph B
Example Answer
Paragraph C v
30 Paragraph D
31 Paragraph E
32 Paragraph F
33 Paragraph G
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Test 1 27
Read the text below and answer questions 28-40. (Reading Audio – CD1 Track 9)
B The Statue itself is the figure of Libertas, the Roman goddess of freedom. In ancient
Rome, Libertas was widely worshipped, most significantly by emancipated slaves. Not
only did this symbolize the literal emancipation of American slaves after the American
Civil War of the 1860s, it also symbolized the figurative emancipation of European
immigrants, who left the oppressive poverty of 19th century European peasant life for a
fresh start in the land of hope and opportunity.
C The Statue’s crown has seven spikes. These represent the seven seas and seven
continents across which liberty would spread. This is the common interpretation of the
crown’s symbolism. It goes much deeper, however. The seven spikes can be thought of
as the Sun’s rays, illuminating the world with liberty. Indeed, the original name of the
Statue of Liberty is “Liberty Enlightening the World”, so it is easy to see the symbolism
of the Sun. The greatest symbol of the crown is in its origin as a headpiece for the rulers
and monarchs of nations. Both the United States (under British rule) and France began
as monarchies, with the citizens subject to the rule of the king or queen. Both countries
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28
overthrew their oppressors, and established a new monarch – liberty. Thus the statue is
crowned. No king or queen shall rule over the land except freedom and liberty.
D The tablet the Statue holds in its left hand is a book of law, demonstrating the rule of
law in America. The United States is a nation whose founding principles, outlined in the
Constitution and its 27 amendments, represent the supreme law of the land. Every one
of the nation’s laws, rules, and regulations derives from one or more of these “supreme
laws”. The tablet has an inscription of the date of American independence, July 4, 1776,
symbolizing the moment of its emancipation.
E The torch is perhaps the most well-known symbol of the Statue. It represents the light
of freedom showing us the path to liberty. Again, this is obvious in the original name of
the Statue, “Liberty Enlightening the World”. Today, the torch is always illuminated,
making sure we never lose sight of that path. In order to do this, the torch’s flame is
covered in gold to reflect the Sun’s light in the daytime, while it is lit by 16 floodlights at
night. It is never extinguished, symbolizing that the path to liberty will always be visible.
F There are two symbols which are lesser known to the public, but no less important.
These are the feet of the Statue, and what lies at the feet of the statue. Though it is
natural to assume that the Statue is merely standing upon its pedestal, the Statue is in
fact walking. With one foot raised off the ground, the Statue is marching towards
freedom, spreading the light of liberty across the seas and continents. This also
symbolizes that liberty must not be complacent – we must always be vigilant; we must
always move forward. The final major symbol is that of the broken chains which lie at
the Statue’s feet. These represent the chains of enslavement which liberty frees us from.
This may be literal enslavement, but also the figurative enslavement by kings and
queens.
G The Statue of Liberty contains many symbols and representations. The torch
representing the light of freedom; the cast away shackles demonstrating the freedom of
liberty; the feet of the Statue never standing still, always moving forward; the tablet
representing the rule of supreme law. Perhaps most important, however, is the crown
worn by the Statue – never again shall a human being in the United States wear a
crown. The only one deserved of that honour is one far greater than any one human
being – Lady Liberty.
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Test 1 29
Questions 34-37
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
Questions 38-40
A 27 amendments
B founding principles
C rule of law
D Constitution
A the chains
B the book
C the robe
D the spikes of the crown
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30
SECTION TIME:
60 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write
your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all
questions. Write your responses in the answer booklet provided. You are not permitted
to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 2 tasks in this section. You must do both. If you do not meet the minimum
length requirements provided, you will be penalized.
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Test 1 31
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
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32
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend no more than 40 minutes on this task.
Some people prefer to travel around town by car, while others prefer public transit
such as bus, train, or subway.
Discuss both these positions and give your own opinion.
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Test 1 33
SPEAKING
Examiner Questions:
You will have one to two minutes to talk about this topic.
You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say.
You can make notes if you wish.
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Test 1 34
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Listening Total
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Test 1 35
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Reading Total
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36
WRITING ANSWER
SHEET
TASK
1
34 / 184
Test 1 37
35 / 184
38
TASK
2
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Test 1 39
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40
TESTE EXEMPLO 2
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Test 2 41
SECTION TIME:
30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so.
Write your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt
all questions. All recordings will be played only once. Write all your answers on the
test paper itself. After the section is over, you will be given ten minutes to transfer
your answers to the given answer sheet. You are not permitted to take this exam
booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into four parts as follows:
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Section 2 Questions 11-20
Section 3 Questions 21-30
Section 4 Questions 31-40
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42
Test 2
LISTENING
Questions 1-4
Example Answer
City Liverpool
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Test 2 43
Question 5
A. B.
C. D.
Question 6
Match the membership option with its benefit. Write the correct number next to the letter.
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44
Questions 7-10
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
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Test 2 45
Questions 11-12
What are the two provinces directly west and directly east of the province of Alberta?
A Vancouver
B Saskatchewan
C Calgary
D British Columbia
E Regina
Questions 13-14
“One million people” is the number used to describe two groups in the recording. Which
two of these groups does it describe?
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46
Questions 15 and 16
A Wheat
B Oil
C Natural gas
Question 17
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Questions 18-20
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Average winter highs in Calgary reach 18………….. two degrees. Chinook winds can
raise the temperature by up to fifteen degrees Celsius, and can last anywhere from a few
hours to a few 19…………….. Calgary is also one of the driest cities in Canada, as well
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Test 2 47
Question 21
Questions 22-28
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
28………….. - 40%
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48
Question 29
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Question 30
The student’s class ends at 11:30 AM on the day the paper is due. Decide whether a paper
handed in is on time or late.
30 The paper is handed in at 5:00 PM the same day, dropped off at the department office,
with no time stamp received.
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Test 2 49
Questions 31-33
A I, III
B I, II, III, IV
C I, III, IV
A Jurassic
B Late Cretaceous
C Late Triassic
A 12 metres
B 6 metres
C 7 metres
Question 34
called .
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50
Questions 35-40
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Test 2 51
SECTION TIME:
60 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write
your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all
questions. Write all your answers on the answer sheet provided. You are not permitted
to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into three parts as follows:
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52
READING
Read the text below and answer questions 1-8. (Reading Audio – CD2 Track 5)
Do you love working with other people, interacting with them on a daily basis,
helping them improve their job skills? Then a career in human resource
management (HR) could be right for you. These days, HR is a lot more than hiring
and keeping track of employees.
Companies want the best employees, and they want to keep them. It is the job of
HR to ensure that the company hires and retains the best and brightest minds
of today and tomorrow.
A company is only as good as the people in it. As someone in HR, you are in charge
of the “people” aspect of the company. You determine who gets hired, you
determine the training
and benefits they receive, and you determine how they are treated. If you want
influence in a company, HR is the place to be. A career in HR can also lead to even
greater opportunities in upper management. If you want a position which is
upwardly mobile, look no further than HR.
HR is all about getting the most out of people. If this is your strong suit, HR is
perfect for you. In such a career, you will work with employees to maximize their
skills, helping them become the person and employee they want to become.
Always around people, always helping others, always being busy – this is HR. If this
sounds appealing to you, if you are a high-energy, “always on the go” type of person,
you should consider a career in HR.
HR Administrator – You are the first point of contact for HR employees and
companies. You handle the paperwork, contracts, and documents. You may be the
“face” of HR in your company.
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Test 2 53
HR Coordinator – You are the people person. You coordinate the entire hiring
process, from advertising openings, to accepting applications, to interviewing and
hiring candidates.
HR Trainer – You take the new employees and train them to company standards.
You also make sure all employees receive up to date training and support.
HR Manager – You are the strategy master. You may not be seen, but your influence
will be felt. You handle all policies and procedures. You oversee all other HR
employees.
HR Director – You are in charge. You handle the financial aspects of the
department. You must know the ins and outs of the business, as well as its
changing landscape.
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54
Questions 1-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page ###?
8 The HR Director keeps track of who comes in and out of the company building.
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Test 2 55
Read the text below and answer questions 9-14. (Reading Audio – CD2 Track 6)
Now, for the first time, we are offering bundle packages – cable television and internet, all for
one low monthly price. Choose from the options below, give us a call or visit our website, and
get ready to witness the JAZZ difference!
For a limited time, mention this advertisement on the phone, in person, or using the
coupon code “JAZZAD” on our website, and receive a £10 credit towards your first month’s
bill!
JAZZ Cable – trusted since 1957. Visit our website at www.JAZZcable.co.uk, or phone us
toll free at 0800-957-JAZZ.
©JAZZ Cablevision Enterprises 2012
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56
Questions 9-12
A Bronze Package
B Silver Package
C Gold Package
D Bundle Package
Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 9-12 on your answer sheet.
9The most expensive package which does not come with HD programming or internet
Questions 13-14
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each
answer.
13 The added cost of bundling high speed internet with the silver package is £
.
14One of the ways of receiving a £10 credit is to use the code on the website.
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Test 2 57
Read the text below and answer questions 15-21. (Reading Audio – CD2 Track 7)
Class Times: This class meets Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 2:30 to 3:30.
Office Hours: I hold office hours from 1:00-3:00 on Thursdays. You may also email me to
make an appointment. Please do not hesitate to contact me if you have any questions or
concerns.
Website: We use the OK (Online Knowledge) platform for the online portion of the class.
Make sure you have your OK account set up and ready to go by next week. All readings
and other course materials, as well as your marks, will be distributed using OK.
Grading: There will be two essays, two midterms, and a final exam. This is the
Assignment
breakdown of how your final mark will be Date Due
determined: Weighting
First Essay (5-6 pages) 3 October 10%
First Midterm 15 October 15%
Second Midterm 10 November 20%
Final Essay 7 December 20%
Final Exam 18 December 25%
Participation 10%
**Note on Plagiarism: Essays should be your own work and no one else’s. Students found
to have
copied another’s work will be given a failing grade with no warning, and the case will be
submitted to the Dean for further review. This is West Sheffield University’s policy and is
nonnegotiable.
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58
Questions 15-21
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Test 2 59
Read the text below and answer questions 22-27. (Reading Audio – CD2 Track 8)
PARADISE MOUNTAIN –
CLOSER THAN YOU
THINK!
Have you ever dreamt of going to
paradise? Imagine white sand beaches,
brilliant teal- coloured water, exotic
wildlife, and a town with an amazing
nightlife. This paradise is closer than
you think. The place is Paradise
Mountain, Jamaica, and it is waiting
for you.
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60
Questions 22-27
22 The brochure mentions many features of Paradise Island. Which is NOT a feature?
A Great nightlife
B Exotic people
C White-sand seashores
D Teal seas
24 Which of the following is not mentioned as being included in the ticket price?
A Airfare
B Taxis
C Levies
D Hotel room
26 Which two hotels include breakfast and a telephone, but not laundry service?
A Satellite TV
B Safe
C Bathtub
D Phone
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Test 2 61
Read the text below and answer questions 28-40. (Reading Audio – CD2 Track 9)
With the help of an artificial leg, Terry ran his first marathon in August 1979 in Prince
George, BC – he came in dead last, ten minutes behind the closest runner. The
important result, however, was that he could finish. One marathon was not all Terry had
in mind, however; he wanted to run across the country, running the equivalent of a
marathon (42 km) every single day. His mother was doubtful at first. Her sick son wanted
to attempt a feat some felt was practically suicide. But Terry would not relent. He owed it
to those who helped him, and he owed it to those who would battle cancer in the future,
to do his part. On April 12, 1980, in St. John’s, Newfoundland, Terry began.
With his right leg dipped in the Atlantic Ocean, he collected two bottles of water from the
ocean. One was to be a souvenir; the other was to be poured into the Pacific Ocean
upon the completion of his run in Victoria, British Columbia. His goal was to complete the
8,000 km journey, while raising $1 for each Canadian – 24 million dollars. He slept in a
camper van donated by a car company, he ran in shoes donated to him, and he drove
on fuel provided by an oil company. He was accompanied by his friend Doug Alward,
who drove the van as he ran, and cooked the meals for the two. Terry’s brother Darrell
would join them in Nova Scotia.
Response to Terry’s efforts was initially muted. It wasn’t until 900 km (22 days) into the
run that the people of Port Aux Basques, Newfoundland, presented him with $10,000,
which was the first big success of the journey. Difficulties were experienced in Quebec,
as none of the crew spoke French. By the time he arrived in Montreal on June 22, the
Marathon of Hope had received over $200,000 in donations. It was while crossing the
border into Ontario that the fanfare truly began. He met the Prime Minister in Ottawa on
Canada Day, July 1, and met ice hockey superstars Darryl Sittler and Bobby Orr along
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the way. Media attention was non-stop. Donations were ever-increasing. Unfortunately,
Terry’s health was going in the opposite direction.
Terry had raised 1.7 million dollars by the time he got to Thunder Bay. Disappointed he
could not go on, he hoped the people of Canada would see his struggle and be inspired
to donate. He was right. A Canadian television network organized a telethon in Terry’s
honour, and in five hours over ten million dollars was raised. It is a tragic circumstance
that Terry’s fame and influence was peaking just as his health was about to strike
absolute zero.
Less than a year later, in June 1981, Terry succumbed to cancer. A nation mourned his
death. Flags were flown at half-mast by government decree. Prime Minister Pierre
Trudeau observed, “It occurs very rarely in the life of a nation that the courageous spirit
of one person unites all people in the celebration of his life and in the mourning of his
death. We do not think of him as one who was defeated by misfortune, but as one who
inspired us with the example of the triumph of the human spirit over adversity".
Today, Terry’s legacy lives on. Over sixty countries and 3 million people every year
participate in the Terry Fox Run – a fundraiser dedicated to the man who demonstrated
strength of conviction and courage of heart. Terry has over a dozen schools, thirty roads,
a mountain, and an icebreaker ship named after him. He was invested as a Companion
of the Order of Canada – the highest honour a Canadian citizen can receive. Terry was
the youngest recipient in history. He has seven statues erected across Canada.
Memorials stand in St. John’s, at the start of his run, in Victoria at what should have
been the end, and in Thunder Bay where the end came too early. Terry inspired a
generation of Canadians, and continues today to inspire millions of people worldwide.
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Test 2 63
Questions 28-33
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the text for each
answer.
30 How often did Terry Fox plan to run a marathon during his cross-nation journey?
31 While in Quebec, how many people in total lived in the camper van?
32 In which province did Terry Fox receive the most press coverage?
33 What medical problem preceded intense chest pain, sending Terry Fox to the hospital?
Questions 34-36
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 34-36 on your answer sheet.
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Questions 37-40
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Test 2 65
SECTION TIME:
60 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write
your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all
questions. Write your responses in the answer booklet provided. You are not permitted
to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 2 tasks in this section. You must do both. If you do not meet the minimum
length requirements provided, you will be penalized.
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66
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
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Test 2 67
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend no more than 40 minutes on this task.
What are the effects of the trend? Do you believe this is a positive or negative trend for
society?
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SPEAKING
Examiner Questions:
You will have one to two minutes to talk about this topic.
You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say.
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Test 2 69
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Listening Total
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70
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Reading Total
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Test 2 71
WRITING ANSWER
SHEET
TASK
1
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72
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Test 2 73
TASK
2
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74
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Test 2 75
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TESTE EXEMPLO 3
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Test 3 77
SECTION TIME:
30 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write your
name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all questions. All
recordings will be played only once. Write all your answers on the test paper itself. After the
section is over, you will be given ten minutes to transfer your answers to the given answer
sheet. You are not permitted to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into four parts as follows:
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78
Test 3
LISTENING
Questions 1-2
Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C.
Example:
A Half-day
B Full-day
C Full-day plus after school care
A Swiss
B Swedish
C Swazi
A By post
B By e-mail
C Picked up from the school
Question 3
A Vacation
B Work
C Family reasons
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Test 3 79
Question 4
4 Which THREE pieces of information are required to retrieve the child’s personal
education number?
Question 5
Choose the correct letters, A, B, or C.
A Erick
B Eric
C Erik
Questions 6-7
A T56340192
B P56340192
C T56P40192
A Newcastle
B London
C Monterey
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80
Question 8
8 What TWO qualifications do many of the nursery school’s senior staff have?
Questions 9-10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for
each answer.
First day of class: 9…………..
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Test 3 81
Questions 11-13
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Question 14
A B C
Question 15
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
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82
Question 16
A 30%
B 40%
C 3%
Questions 17-20
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
In front of the library, there is a beautiful 17……… Inside the library, the ground floor has
18………. books. The upper floors, however, house over 3,000,000 books. The collection was
built by donations, gifts and university purchases. Additionally, there is a 19……….. area, with
works dating back to 1588. There are many sporting facilities, including the rugby field, which is
home to the rugby team which has won three of the past five 20………….
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Test 3 83
Questions 21-23
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
21 If an Egyptian’s income was 10 000, how much would be given to the pharaoh?
23The second reason for taxes, known as , takes money from the rich and gives it to the poor.
Questions 24-26
Product
A Revenue
B Alcohol
C Redistribution
25………… 24…………
……… …….. D Repricing
E General goods
Subject to Allowed to F Production
26………. go to free
Tax market
Questions 27-29
Which THREE of the following are arguments given in favour of lower taxes?
Write the THREE correct letters, A-F, next to questions 27-29 (in any order).
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Question 30
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Test 3 85
Questions 31-33
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
↓
Studies at the King’s School in Grantham from the age of
31………………… to ……………….
↓
Leaves school, mother attempts to make him a 32………………
↓
1661, on the recommendation of his teachers, admitted to Trinity College in Cambridge. Six
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Questions 34-37
Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-D next to questions 34-37.
A Galileo
B Newton
D Einstein
35 Developed a theory which was thought to “replace” the earlier theory of gravity ……
Questions 38-39
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Telescopes with lenses cannot be built as large as telescopes with mirrors because large lenses
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Test 3 87
Question 40
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Practice Test Candidate Name
Three
SECTION TIME:
60 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write your
name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all questions. Write
all your answers on the answer sheet provided. You are not permitted to take this exam
booklet out of the examination room.
There are 40 questions in this section. They are broken up into three parts as follows:
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Test 3 89
READING
Read the text below and answer questions 1-8. (Reading Audio – CD3 Track 5)
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90
Questions 1-3
Questions 4-8
Look at the seven vehicles, A-G on the previous page and answer questions 4-8.
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 4-8 on your answer sheet.
6 This vehicle received recognition from Car Driver’s Digest, seats four, and has two doors.
7 The vehicle with the highest seating capacity that also has a sunroof.
8 The TWO vehicles which seat four and have two doors.
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Test 3 91
Read the text below and answer questions 9-14. (Reading Audio – CD3 Track 6)
The most common complaint about neighbours is that they are too noisy.
Playing loud music at all times of the day and night can be very annoying for
people who work early in the morning and need to get a good night’s sleep.
After a time, you should confront your neighbour with your concerns. It is very
important to always be calm and relaxed when doing this. Your neighbour is
far more likely to listen to you if you are calm than if you are agitated or angry.
If your neighbour denies that he or she is a problem, then you may show them
your records of their disturbances. Discuss with them that you would not like to
involve the police or a lawyer, but that you are willing to go down that route if
you have to.
If your neighbour is still incompliant, wait for the next incident and phone the
police. If you live in an apartment, give your journal to your landlord and ask for
something to be done about the issue.
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Questions 9-14
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text on page ###?
14 Keeping one’s composure and acting rationally is the best initial course of action.
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Test 3 93
Read the text below and answer questions 15-21. (Reading Audio – CD3 Track 7)
The Australian Food Safety Board, along with the government of Australia, in order to ensure the health
and well-being of its citizens and visitors, has enacted the following regulations and guidelines with
respect to the production, transportation, storage, and handling of food and food products:
1.Hazard control is of paramount importance. Facilities where food products are produced must adhere to
strict regulations with respect to temperature, cleanliness, and upkeep. Any machinery must be routinely
inspected for defects, including non-food related apparatuses. For example, a malfunction in the heating
system of a plant could cause untold damage to people’s health, as well as profits of the company.
There are five main elements of a safe food program – hazard identification and control, monitoring,
corrective action, review, and record keeping. In short, hazards must be identified and controlled,
monitored, fixed, reviewed as to why the hazard became an issue, and the incident must be logged.
2.In order to assure food does not become unsafe or unsuitable for consumption, a standard has been set
requiring food handlers to achieve an academic accreditation in safe food handling practices. It is also
the policy of the Australian Food Safety Board that workers who handle food products must not have any
communicable disease. Food must be kept at appropriate temperatures, kept away from possible
contaminants, and disposed of correctly. Additionally, food handlers must be immediately aware of
manufacturer recalls; it is required by law for manufacturers to have an alert system in place for food
product recalls.
3.The third standard of regulation regards the requirements for food premises, equipment, and transport.
Premises must be clean, have access to plentiful clean water, be well-lit and ventilated, and have a
disposal system in place for garbage and other refuse. Equipment must be easy to clean, and be made of
a material which does not contaminate food products. Food businesses must also be sure to have clean
washroom facilities including hand-washing basins. Vehicles used to transport food must be designed in
such a way that they are easy to clean and sanitise, and they must protect food products from
contamination.
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Questions 15-19
15 What is the most important measure for facilities that produce food products?
16 A faulty heating system can endanger people’s health, as well as damage what?
17 Which of the five safety elements deals with fixing existing problems?
Questions 20-21
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Test 3 95
Read the text below and answer questions 22-27. (Reading Audio – CD3 Track 8)
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Test 2 96
Questions 22-27
23Being allows you to save time on tasks and spend it on your family.
25Scheduling your time is important, but if something is vital, you must for it.
27 is key. You must share time appropriately between work, home, and friends.
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Test 3 97
Read the text below and answer questions 28-40. (Reading Audio – CD3 Track 9)
B.Gold had long been the most coveted metal by many societies. The Lydians
of what is modern-day Turkey were the first to use gold in coinage in
approximately 800 BC. Having the coins themselves made of gold removed
the need for the currency to represent something. It simply was a piece of
gold, and had the corresponding monetary value. The Ancient Greeks further
popularized the use of gold coins. They also used silver and copper coins;
silver was used for medium to large transactions, while copper coins were
the currency of general use for the merchant and the peasant classes.
Shaving of coins, whereby a dishonest person took some of the gold off a
coin with a knife, was a significant problem until the scientist Archimedes
discovered a method which could determine the exact amount of gold in any
sample. From this point on, trade in gold was reliable and safe, which was
one of many reasons for the success and proliferation of the Greek and
Roman empires.
C.Because gold was reserved for high-end transactions, most middle- class
trade was done in copper. When copper became more plentiful, driving the
value of it down, the amount of copper needed for a certain transaction
became physically cumbersome; to carry around several kilograms of copper
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98
coins was not particularly practical. In 10th century China, this led to the
introduction of paper currency. These paper banknotes, or bills, represented
a certain amount of gold, and could be traded for that gold at any time. This
is a system which in modern times is referred to as the “gold standard” – a
system of intrinsically worthless bills which represent an amount of gold. The
problem with this system is that banknote issuers tend to print more money
than they have gold, so that inflation becomes a serious problem. Not unlike
today’s credit cards, societies pay for wars and other expensive endeavours
by simply printing more money, a practice which is wholly unsustainable.
D.Today’s currencies are referred to as fiat currencies. This means that they
do not represent gold or any other physical medium of value. They derive
their worth from what the government says they are worth. The United
States was the last major country to convert from gold-backed currency to
fiat currency, in 1971. While intrinsically worthless money (that is to say the
paper itself has no value) is, on the surface, an unappealing notion,
economic pressures around the world assure that fiat currencies retain their
value. There are exceptions, however. Weimar Germany of the early 20th
century experienced what is called “hyperinflation”, where a currency
rapidly loses its value due to overprinting. In 1918, when Germany
converted to fiat currency, a one Mark banknote was worth one Mark in gold.
Five years later, it took 1,000,000,000,000 (one trillion) Marks in banknotes
to buy one Mark in gold. In the stronger, more peaceful economies of the
modern era, such gross mismanagement of money is practically non-
existent, although inflation continues to be an issue of economic importance
worldwide.
E.Today’s currencies, for the most part, are allowed to float on the open
market. This means that they can be bought and sold as stocks are bought
and sold. Exchange rates are set by the economic pressures of the day, and
these can change markedly from year-to-year. Since the stock market crash
of 2008, for example, the US dollar has diminished in value compared to
other world currencies, most notably the Canadian and Australian dollars.
Due to economic instability in countries such as Greece, the Euro is
experiencing downward pressures as well.
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Test 3 99
Questions 28-34
The text on the previous pages has six paragraphs, A-F.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 28-34 on your answer sheet.
30 Grain-convertible currency.
Questions 35-38
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
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100
Questions 39-40
A Lydians
B Greeks
C Chinese
D Weimar Germany
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Test 3 101
SECTION TIME:
60 MINUTES
INSTRUCTIONS: You must not open the booklet until you are instructed to do so. Write
your name and registration number at the top of the page. You should attempt all
questions. Write your responses in the answer booklet provided. You are not permitted
to take this exam booklet out of the examination room.
There are 2 tasks in this section. You must do both. If you do not meet the minimum
length requirements provided, you will be penalized.
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102
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
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Test 3 103
WRITING TASK 2
You should spend no more than 40 minutes on this task.
What is your opinion of the custom of tipping? What are the positives and negatives?
If you are in a foreign country where tipping is customary, do you believe you should tip,
even if it is not customary in your home country?
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104
SPEAKING
Examiner Questions:
You will have one to two minutes to talk about this topic.
You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say.
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Test 3 105
1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Listening
copyrighted products TotalSolutions
of 2Think1
Inc.
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1 21
2 22
3 23
4 24
5 25
6 26
7 27
8 28
9 29
10 30
11 31
12 32
13 33
14 34
15 35
16 36
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40
Reading Total
104 / 184
Test 3 107
WRITING ANSWER
SHEET
TASK
1
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108
106 / 184
Test 3 109
TASK
2
107 / 184
110
108 / 184
111
109 / 184
112
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Test 1 Key 113
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114
Test 1 Transcripts
(CD1 Track 1)
Narrator: This recording is copyrighted by 2Think1 Solutions Inc. and World ESL
Tutors. You will hear several different recordings, and you will answer questions on what
you hear. There will be time given to read the instructions and questions, and you will be
given a chance to check your work. The recordings will be played only once.
The test is made up of four sections. At the end of the test you will have ten minutes to
transfer your answers to the answer sheet. Now turn to section 1.
Listening Section 1: You will hear a conversation between two men as one of the men
registers for a football league. First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this
question will be played.
Example
Steve: Hello there, I’d like to register for the autumn men’s football league.
Steve: I’d like to play in Chester, though I’d be willing to travel to Liverpool if I had to.
Narrator: The man says he wants to play in Chester, so B has been indicated for you.
Now we shall begin. You should answer the questions as you listen, because you will not
hear the recording a second time. Listen carefully and answer questions 1 to 5.
Questions 1-5
Steve: Hello there, I’d like to register for the autumn men’s football league.
Steve: I’d like to play in Chester, though I’d be willing to travel to Liverpool if I had to.
Joe: Well, we have two spots left open on the team in Chester, and five spots open on the
team in Liverpool. There is a very good chance you would have to try out for the team in
Chester. Are you a good player?
Steve: I consider myself a good player, yes. I have been to a number of the autumn
men’s league games in the past, just as a spectator (1), and I am sure I would have no
trouble fitting in.
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Test 1 Key 115
Joe: Okay good, so we will register you for Chester then. I just need to get some
information from you, starting with your position. Where on the field do you prefer to
play?
Steve: I’m a midfielder (2), although really I can play anywhere aside from goalkeeper.
Joe: Right. Now I need your home address, including your postcode.
Steve: I live in Chester, of course, at 452 King George Avenue. The postcode is MS86
8P4 (4).
Joe: Okay. Now I need your phone number, just a mobile number will do.
Steve: I don’t have a mobile phone right now unfortunately. I can give you my
girlfriend’s number instead?
Joe: Fine. I think that’s all the information I need to gather from you, do you have any
questions?
Steve: Yes, I do have a couple. First, when does the season start?
Joe: The season starts on the 28th of September, although your first game is later I
think, let me check the schedule….yes your first game is October 1st (5) in Liverpool.
Let me make a copy of the schedule for you.
Steve: Thank you. Could you also tell me how long each game is?
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Joe: Each game has two halves, 40 minutes each half. So the game is 80 minutes long.
Steve: That’s a little shorter than in other leagues I’ve played in. Games are usually 90
minutes.
Joe: Yes, our spring and summer leagues are 90 minute games, but our autumn league
has only 80 minute games. I think it has something to do with the poor weather.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 6 to 10.
Questions 6-10
Steve: Okay. Can you tell me how many players are on each team? And I mean on the
whole team, not just the players on the pitch.
Joe: Usually there are five additional players to the 11 on the pitch so there are 16
players on each roster (6). We generally find that to be the perfect number. It allows for
a few players to miss a game, but still allows lots of playing time for each player.
Steve: Yes, playing time is what I was worried about. I don’t want to pay my money and
then sit on the sidelines the whole season. Are there minimum playing time
requirements?
Joe: Yes. Each player has to play a minimum of half a game. So you are guaranteed at
least 40 minutes of playing time per game. (7)
Steve: Wonderful, that puts my mind at ease. Could you tell me what facility we play at
in Chester?
Joe: That information is on the schedule, along with the addresses of all the other
facilities in the league. Here’s your schedule.
Steve: Thank you. Oh good it states we play two streets from my flat (8). How
convenient!
Steve: No I think that’s it. Oh wait, how much does it cost to register?
Joe: It’s going to be 125 pounds for the season (9), including all fees. How would you
like to pay?
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Test 1 Key 117
Narrator: That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD1 Track 2)
Listening Section 2: You will hear a radio presenter interviewing a woman about the
infamous ship “Titanic”. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Questions 11-16
Peter: Good afternoon to all our listeners, and welcome back to “History Now”, a weekly
programme that reflects on subjects of historical influence. Today we are going to speak
with Dr. Andrea Smithson, an historian at the University of Glasgow. Good afternoon
Andrea.
A: I will be talking about one of the most catastrophic events in maritime history – the
sinking of the Titanic.
A: Thanks Peter. The Titanic was an enormous ship – the makers called it “unsinkable”.
From end to end, it measured approximately the length of three football pitches. It had
the capacity to carry over 3,500 passengers as well as the over 800 people on the crew
of the ship (11). Despite its massive size and impressive capacity, the Titanic was able to
cruise at a speed of 40 knots. This was in large part due to the 59,000 horsepower engine.
Just how much is 59,000hp? Well, in literal terms it’s like being pulled by 59,000 horses!
More realistically, it’s the equivalent power of 500 cars.
On the maiden voyage that left Southampton, England on the tenth of April, 1912, there
were 1343 passengers and 885 crew members. There were three different classes of
tickets for those aboard the Titanic. A third class ticket was the lowest level ticket – at
the time it cost between 3 and 8 pounds (12). A second class ticket cost about twelve
pounds. A first class ticket cost anywhere from 30 pounds all the way up to 870 pounds.
In today’s money, 870 pounds is over 20,000 pounds! You may be wondering what the
people in first class were paying for? They had luxurious rooms on the highest decks,
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118
delicious meals for breakfast, lunch and dinner, as well as the finest entertainment
money could buy (13, 14, 15). On the other hand, those in third class slept in cramped
rooms which were quite plain and small, and did not have access to the fine restaurants
and entertainment on the upper decks of the ship.
Now I’d like to tell you about a few lesser known facts about the Titanic. Although there
were four large funnels or “smoke-stacks” on the Titanic (16), only three of them were
functional. One of the funnels was put there just to make the ship look even bigger and
more impressive! The ship carried over 70 tonnes of food for the passengers, including
over 40,000 eggs!
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 17 to 20.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 17 to 20.
Questions 17-20
On the night of the 14th of April 1912, on her maiden voyage, the Titanic hit an iceberg.
About three hours later, early morning the next day, the ship sank. The reasons for the
sinking are numerous. First, the water-tight doors which were supposed to keep water
out didn’t work properly (18). Second, the night of the 14th of April was incredibly calm
on the water. Icebergs are easily spotted when there are waves crashing against them.
On this night, there were no waves (17). The strength of the metal in the Titanic was not
as it should have been. The metal became brittle in the freezing cold and was easily
broken by the iceberg. Another big factor was the inability of the Titanic to turn quickly.
Once the lookouts had spotted the iceberg, the captain ordered the ship turned, but it was
too late. If the ship had been able to turn faster, it would have missed the iceberg.
One of the biggest tragedies about the sinking was that there were not enough life boats
for everyone on the ship. In addition to this, many of the life boats left the sinking
vessel with less than half of the people they were designed to carry (19). For example,
the first life boat off the Titanic left with only 27 of the allotted 65 passengers. This
unfortunate occurrence can be attributed to panic on the part of the passengers and crew.
One can only imagine the sheer terror on board the ship that early morning.
1523 out of the 2228 passengers and crew perished that morning. Most died from the
near-freezing temperature of the Atlantic Ocean (20), others drowned after being
trapped in the lower decks. 705 people lived to tell their story, most of them woman and
children, who were put on the life boats before the grown men were. Because of this, 94
percent of the first-class passenger women and children were saved, while only 14% of
the third class passenger men survived. Overall, 60% of the first class occupants
survived, while only 25% of third class ticket holders lived in the aftermath of this
tragedy.
Narrator: That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
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Test 1 Key 119
(CD1 Track 3)
Now turn to section 3. Take some time to look at questions 21 to 26.
Listening Section 3: You will hear three students organizing a class project.
Questions 21-26
Megan: I just got an email from the professor saying the due date for our European
History group project has been pushed back to Monday.
Anna: Great! That means we’ll have the weekend to work on it.
Evan: I suppose that’s good news, but I don’t really want to be doing homework on my
weekend. I had planned to go away with my girlfriend for some relaxation this weekend.
Megan: I suppose that’s understandable. Maybe we should just have it done by Friday,
the original due date. That gives us today and Thursday to finish it (21).
Anna: We can do that I think. I’m available tomorrow. How about we spend today
planning it, assign tasks to take home with us and do tonight, and then meet tomorrow
and put it all together (22, 23). Does that sound right?
Evan: That doesn’t work too well for me, my afternoon is very busy. I guess I’ll just
have to burn the midnight oil tonight.
Evan: I have a basketball game after school today, and then my favourite football team
plays this evening at 7:00. It’s okay though, I’ll get the work done. Let’s get started on
the planning.
Anna: Alright, so we have to come up with a three paneled poster about a topic in
European History. I already bought the material for the poster so we don’t have to worry
about that.
Megan: Okay we’ll each give you one pound for the poster board.
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Anna: No don’t worry about it, my dad paid for it anyway (24).
Anna: Right then. Since there’s three of us, my idea was that two of us could take care of
the writing part of the project, while one of us could look after the artwork – making the
poster look smart.
Evan: I’ll be happy to do half the writing. What topics are we going to choose?
Anna: Well, the professor said the topic has to be an event that took place somewhere
between 1400 and 1800 (25). So we can’t do either of the world wars.
Evan: That’s too bad. My dad is an expert on the Second World War and he could have
helped me with my part (26). What are we going to do instead?
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 27 to 30.
Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 27 to 30.
Questions 27-30
Megan: I was reading my textbook the other day, and I read some really interesting
information on the French Revolution.
Anna: I know, how about instead of doing a summary of the French Revolution, we write
about some of the people involved instead?
Evan: I like that idea. So who are some of the important people?
Megan: Well, there’s the king, Louis XVI (29) (the sixteenth).
Megan: We should have four people, so you can each write about two people.
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Megan: Okay. So we have four historical figures, each of you are going to write about
two, now we have to decide how much you are going to write. Remember, we have to fill
up a three board poster.
Anna: That’s a good point about the three board poster. Maybe we should do a fifth
person, then we can have two figures on each side with one in the middle.
Evan: Good idea. We can make the middle one really important – we’ll make that one
Napoleon (30). As for a fifth person, how about Voltaire? (28)
Anna. Good. So how about I do the important one on Napoleon and a smaller one on
Robespierre.
Anna: I’d say 200 words each for the small ones, and 450 for the big one on Napoleon.
Evan: I think that sounds about right. What do you think about….(trails off).
Narrator: That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD1 Track 4)
Now turn to section 4. Take some time to look at questions 31 to 40.
Questions 31-40
M1: Hello class. Hope you all had a good weekend. Today we will be talking about
climate change. Life on earth is going to have some adapting to do if climate scientists
are correct with regard to their predictions of the earth’s rising atmospheric temperature.
Humans and animals alike may have to change both their habits and habitats (31). The
average temperature on the Earth’s surface has risen by an estimated one degree
Centigrade in the last 100 years and this trend is continuing at an ever increasing speed.
Until now it seems that business and the environment have met as adversaries, but with
the growing profitability of green products (32) perhaps business can play a positive role
in the fight to save the environment.
There is an ever growing consensus that the cause of climate change can be linked to
human action. To be more specific, environmental change is caused by the emission of
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greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide is chief among these (33). So what’s so bad about
things getting a little warmer you may wonder? Weather patterns could become more
extreme, the polar icecaps could melt, sea levels could rise and incidences of famine due
to drought could also increase. On the other hand, places such as Northern Canada will
likely become more productive for farming (34) and mineral and crude oil extraction.
What isn’t positive about the permafrost melting is that the ice is a carbon sink and when
it melts it releases even more carbon into the atmosphere.
It is clear that humans will have to change their relationship with the earth and its
resources, but the debate remains over who should be leading that change. Advocates of
personal responsibility claim that small personal measures such as changing light bulbs
(35), or riding a bike, can make a significant difference. On the other hand, governments
from developing countries are calling for economic reparations to be paid by developed
nations because, after all, it is the rich who caused most of the environmental damage and
made money from it. The other major group that has profited from our increasing
environmental degradation are corporations.
Business has always been about production and consumption. The invisible hand of
supply and demand (36) has long run our economic system and now there is an ever
growing demand for conservation. The question is, when will consumer demand be
commensurate with green technological advances that allow for environmentally friendly
products to actually be more profitable than those that pollute? One option to speed up
this process is to have governments impose “true cost” taxes (37) on every product that
is sold. This would force prices to include an economic pressure (38) to purchase or use
products that will not cause further environmental degradation or carbon emissions.
There is little doubt that climate change is going to cause a drastic difference to our
environment and way of life. The questions that remain to be asked revolve around how
to solve the climate crisis, and who will pay for the restructuring of our patterns of
consumption that have led to these problems. With the ever growing desire for green
consumer goods, perhaps business can answer some of these questions (39) by
producing environmentally sound products. Even if business has a role to play in saving
the environment, it is clear that we all need to do our part (40).
Narrator: That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
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answers themselves are found in the reading section answer key, found on page 136.
Coin-operated washing machines and dryers are used in public laundromats, as well as
private residences such as apartment buildings. The only major difference between coin
operated laundry and regular laundry is the requirement for individual payment for
each load done (1), usually separate for each of washing and drying. Below are the
appropriate steps that should be taken to successfully navigate a coin-operated laundry
facility.
1.The first step is to have correct change (2). A public laundromat is likely to have a
change machine on hand, but an apartment building is less likely to do so. Laundry
machines will only take certain denominations of change, so don’t show up to a
laundromat with pennies and nickels and expect to do your laundry.
2.The amount of detergent to use is the same as a regular washing machine. If you are
using your own detergent, follow the directions on how much to use in one load (3).
If you purchase detergent from the laundromat, it generally comes in one-load packages
for ease of use.
3.You must now fix the settings on the washing machine’s controls, normally located on
the front of the machine. You can choose from cold, hot, and warm settings, as well as
regular or delicate settings. Cold water should be used for colours (4, 5), as hot water
tends to make colours fade. Hot water is best for getting stains out (6), although pre-
treating stains is always a good idea.
4.Insert the appropriate coins into the machine. They usually go in a sliding tray which is
then pushed into the machine. The cost of a washing machine for one load is typically
around £3, while it costs another £1 or £1.50 to use the dryer. Larger washing machines
which handle bigger loads may cost more to use.
5.While the washing machine’s drum is filling with water, put in your laundry. This
allows the detergent to be evenly distributed. (7) Close the washing machine’s lid, and
wait for it to finish its cycle. Normally, a wash cycle will take an hour to complete. Make
sure to be considerate about using laundry facilities, especially if you live in an apartment
building with limited machines. Always make sure to be there when your laundry is
ready to switch over to the dryer, and when it is done. When you are done with the
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dryer, be sure to take out and clean the lint trap, so that it is ready to use for the
next person’s laundry. (8)
C Science NOW
(Wednesday 23:00) (9)
Carl Tyson hosts this late-night popular science program. Topics range from quantum
mechanics to the physics of swinging a baseball bat, and everything in between. (10)
D Paranormal Studies
(Monday 20:30)
The paranormal investigation team looks into claims by an 86-year old woman that her
house is haunted by her late husband. Skeptic Nathan McDuffy is on hand to provide
logical explanations of the phenomena. Also, the team welcomes a new member, Martha,
an expert in detecting spirits.
E Baseline
(Friday 20:00)
This newsmagazine, now in its 18th year, continues to provide cutting-edge coverage of
current events. On this week’s program, reporters investigate claims of corruption in
parliament, auto dealers who misrepresent the value of vehicles, and the exploding
poppy industry in Afghanistan. (10)
F A Vampire in Paris
(Tuesday 19:00)
Luke is a vampire who has moved to Paris to find new blood. Standing in his way is
Channing, who will do anything to stop Luke from seducing the women of Paris into his
vampirism. Oliver deGroot guest stars on this week’s episode. (14)
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When: 8 September
Where: Check-in for all attendees is at 10:00 AM on the north side of the
Johnson building (next to the fountain) (15)
Who should All new students. Whether you live off-campus or on-campus,
attend: new student orientation is for you (16)
ARE YOU A NEW WEST SHEFFIELD UNIVERSITY (WSU) STUDENT?
If the answer is “yes”, then be sure to register for this fun-filled day. This full-day event
is a great opportunity to:
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Test 1 – Reading Section 3 – Liberty Enlightening the World – Symbolism in the Statue of
Liberty
A A beacon for travelers and immigrants for over 125 years, the Statue of Liberty is an
icon, perhaps the icon, of American freedom. Dedicated in 1886, the Statue was a gift
from the French people, representing their mutual desire and appreciation for freedom
and liberty. The statue was constructed in pieces before being shipped across the
Atlantic Ocean in over 200 crates to Liberty Island in the state of New York. The base of
the monument, however, was constructed on site, and was financed by donations by
American citizens. (28, 34) The statue today appears green, because the copper it is
constructed out of has oxidized. When it was first established, the Statue would have
been a brilliantly shiny copper colour. There are many symbols embedded in the Statue
of Liberty, most of which represent its status as a model of freedom.
B The Statue itself is the figure of Libertas, the Roman goddess of freedom. In ancient
Rome, Libertas was widely worshipped, most significantly by emancipated slaves.
(35) Not only did this symbolize the literal emancipation of American slaves after the
American Civil War of the 1860s, it also symbolized the figurative emancipation of
European immigrants, who left the oppressive poverty of 19th century European peasant
life for a fresh start in the land of hope (29) and opportunity.
C The Statue’s crown (40)has seven spikes. These represent the seven seas and seven
continents across which liberty would spread. This is the common interpretation of the
crown’s symbolism. It goes much deeper, however. The seven spikes can be thought of
as the Sun’s rays, illuminating the world with liberty. Indeed, the original name of the
Statue of Liberty is “Liberty Enlightening the World”, so it is easy to see the symbolism
of the Sun. The greatest symbol of the crown is in its origin as a headpiece for the rulers
and monarchs of nations. Both the United States (under British rule) and France began as
monarchies, with the citizens subject to the rule of the king or queen. Both countries
overthrew their oppressors, and established a new monarch – liberty. Thus the
statue is crowned. No king or queen shall rule over the land except freedom and
liberty. (37)
D The tablet the Statue holds in its left hand is a book of law, (40) demonstrating the rule
of law in America. The United States is a nation whose founding principles, (38)
outlined in the Constitution and its 27 amendments, represent the supreme law of the
land. (30)Every one of the nation’s laws, rules, and regulations derives from one or more
of these “supreme laws”. The tablet has an inscription of the date of American
independence, July 4, 1776, symbolizing the moment of its emancipation.
E The torch is perhaps the most well-known symbol of the Statue. It represents the light
of freedom showing us the path to liberty. Again, this is obvious in the original name of
the Statue, “Liberty Enlightening the World”. Today, the torch is always illuminated,
making sure we never lose sight of that path. (31) In order to do this, the torch’s flame
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is covered in gold to reflect the Sun’s light in the daytime, while it is lit by 16 floodlights
at night. It is never extinguished, symbolizing that the path to liberty will always be
visible.
F There are two symbols which are lesser known to the public, but no less important.
These are the feet of the Statue, and what lies at the feet of the statue. Though it is natural
to assume that the Statue is merely standing upon its pedestal, the Statue is in fact
walking. With one foot raised off the ground, the Statue is marching towards
freedom, (32) spreading the light of liberty across the seas and continents. This also
symbolizes that liberty must not be complacent – we must always be vigilant; we must
always move forward. The final major symbol is that of the broken chains (40) which lie
at the Statue’s feet. These represent the chains of enslavement which liberty frees us
from. (39) This may be literal enslavement, but also the figurative enslavement by kings
and queens.
G The Statue of Liberty contains many symbols and representations. The torch
representing the light of freedom; the cast away shackles demonstrating the freedom of
liberty; the feet of the Statue never standing still, always moving forward; the tablet
representing the rule of supreme law. Perhaps most important, however, is the crown
worn by the Statue – never again shall a human being in the United States wear a
crown. (33) The only one deserved of that honour is one far greater than any one human
being – Lady Liberty.
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Dear John,
I am writing to let you know that I have recently moved from Liverpool to Leeds. Jane
got a wonderful job offer in Leeds that she just couldn’t pass up, and as you know, my
work is mobile, so I can move anywhere needed. Jane is now working in the journalism
department at the university here.
Leeds is wonderful. The people are very kind, the weather is much better than Liverpool,
and there are some great restaurants near our new flat. The downtown area is very bright
and vibrant, with many nice shops which Jane just loves. I’m certainly going to miss
Liverpool, especially the football; although, perhaps I will become a supporter of the
Leeds club!
I also wanted to let you know that Jane and I adopted a child! His name is Nathan, and
he’s from Peru. He’s so wonderful, and so small! You have to come see all of us soon.
We will show you around, and I know you’ll love the city. My new address and phone
number are below. Please give us a call, we’d love to hear from you.
Cheers,
Michael
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WRITING TASK 2
Some people prefer to travel around town by car, while others prefer public transit
such as bus, train, or subway.
Discuss both these positions and give your own opinion.
There are advantages and disadvantages to traveling by car and by public transit. These
can be financial, personal or environmental. Cars are often the most convenient, while
public transit is by far the cheaper option.
Traveling by car has many advantages. First, it is your property, and you can do with it
what you like. Second, it takes you exactly from one point to another. There is no need to
combine bus or train routes, and there is no need to walk anywhere to catch public transit.
You simply walk out of your home to your car and go where you need to. Finally, and
related to my second point, is the time you save driving a car. A 30 minute drive may
take twice as long or more with public transit, taking into account walking to the station,
waiting, taking an indirect route, and stopping for other passengers.
Public transit, as I have noted, is inconvenient and often time consuming. However, it is
cheaper, safer, and much better for the environment. For these reasons, and because I live
in a big city where it is relatively convenient to use, I take public transit. I find it saves
me money, is better for the environment, and I do not mind planning ahead a little bit to
get where I need to be on time.
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S: My name is Slava.
E: Okay Slava, we’re going to start the IELTS speaking section. To begin, I’m going to
ask you a few questions on a general topic. Are you ready to proceed?
S: Yes I am.
E: Okay. Let’s talk about sports. What kind of sports do you enjoy playing?
S: Well, a sport I absolutely love to play is ice hockey. It’s fairly competitive and it keeps
me active and healthy. I also enjoy playing football when the weather is warmer.
E: What are some sports you have never played, and why?
S: One sport I’ve never played is handball. Some of my friends love it, they play it in a
league and watch it on television, but I find it very dull and boring. I prefer faster sports
E: Sure.
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S: I believe people play sports for two main reasons. First, and most importantly I think,
sports are lots of fun. Second, many sports are great exercise. Staying in shape by playing
sports is much more enjoyable than going to the gym, for example.
E: What is the most popular sport in your country? Why do people like this sport?
S: In Russia, I think football is the most popular, although ice hockey is very popular as
well. Both sports are very fast-moving with lots of excitement, which makes them
E: That is the end of part 1. For part 2, I will ask you about a specific topic. You will
have one to two minutes to talk about this topic. You will have one minute to prepare
what you are going to say. You can make notes if you wish. Now we will begin. Describe
S: I’ve had a number of role models in my life. Perhaps my greatest role model was my
father. My dad was an absolutely wonderful man, who inspired me to become the person
I am today. He was a very tall man, and was bald from a very young age. His face was
old and friendly. He worked in a factory for almost fifty years, until he died last year. It
was an honest job, and I think he was always happy, but he wanted more for his children.
His leadership, honesty, integrity and honour are what made him a great role model.
When I was eleven, and our family was going through some tough times with money, my
father found a wallet on the road loaded with cash. The wallet contained about two
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consideration for him. Years later I asked him why. He told me that it was always wrong
to take what does not belong to you, and just because our family could have benefitted
from the money, it was still wrong. This strong morality is what I have learned. My father
is still my inspiration, and that is what makes him my greatest role model.
E: Okay. That is the end of section 2. I will now ask you some specific questions related
to the topic of section 2. We will now begin section 3. What attributes should a role
model have?
E: Certainly.
S: Hmmm…I believe the attributes a role model should possess are honesty, integrity and
kindness. Young people learn from role models and these are the most important
attributes a role model should be teaching children, because these attributes help children
academics, we have school teachers. For sports, we have coaches. For life in general, we
have role models. They are the instructors of important life skills, such as honesty and
integrity.
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S: Yes, I have been a role model to my younger brother. He is seven years younger than
me, so I’ve experienced many events which he comes across and I try to teach him these
lessons.
which reflects their beliefs. For example, a role model who teaches honesty and kindness
must be honest and kind in their everyday life. It is not enough for a role model to say
suppose having role models could be a bad thing, if those role models did not live as they
taught. Additionally, a person who taught bad attributes, such as dishonesty, cheating or
lying, would be a bad role model. Having a person like this in anyone’s life would be
terrible. Having bad role models would be worse than having no role model. However,
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1B 2:09 – 2:18
2A 2:27 – 2:35
5D 3:45 – 3:58
6 16 4:55 – 5:16
8C 5:48 – 5:54
11 C 1:24 – 1:32
12 C 2:08 – 2:19
16 B 3:03 – 3:15
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24 B 2:00 – 2:03
27 A 3:32 – 4:31
28 C 3:32 – 4:31
29 A 3:32 – 4:31
30 B 4:14 – 4:19
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Reading Section
1 load 23 slo-pitch
6 hot water 28 iv
7 evenly distributed 29 x
8 lint 30 vii
9C 31 vi
10 C, E 32 iii
11 B 33 viii
12 A 34 F
13 A 35 F
14 F 36 NG
15 F 37 T
16 T 38 B
17 NG 39 D
18 T 40 C
19 T
20 F
21 F
22 F
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Test 2 Transcripts
(CD2 Track 1)
Narrator: This recording is copyrighted by 2Think1 Solutions Inc. and World ESL
Tutors. You will hear several different recordings, and you will answer questions on what
you hear. There will be time given to read the instructions and questions, and you will be
given a chance to check your work. The recordings will be played only once.
The test is made up of four sections. At the end of the test you will have ten minutes to
transfer your answers to the answer sheet. Now turn to section 1.
Listening Section 1: You will hear a conversation between two men as one of the men
buys a gym membership. First you have some time to look at questions 1 – 5.
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this
question will be played.
Example
Mike: Of course sir. What length of membership are you looking for – we have options
ranging from one month to two years.
Bill: Can I get one for three months? I don’t want to make too much of a commitment.
Mike: Of course.
Narrator: The man says he wants a three month membership, so this answer has been
indicated for you. Now we shall begin. You should answer the questions as you listen,
because you will not hear the recording a second time. Listen carefully and answer
questions 1 to 5.
Questions 1-5
Mike: Of course sir. What length of membership are you looking for – we have options
ranging from one month to two years.
Bill: Can I get one for three months? I don’t want to make too much of a commitment.
Mike: Of course. Before we can get you started on getting into shape, I’m going to need
some personal details from you.
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Bill: Certainly.
Bill: Yes – B A C O N.
Mike: Okay William, now I need your residential address.
Mike: Oh I know that street, my grandmother lived there when I was growing up. The
street name is spelt with an “a” is it not?
Mike: And your telephone numbers, starting with your home number.
Bill: I don’t have a home number (4), just a mobile number. It is 312 77 83 91.
Mike: Fine then. Now do you have any medical issues we should know about, such as
asthma?
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Mike: Now I need to ask you a few questions to find out what type of gym membership
fits your lifestyle the best.
Mike: Oh yes, there are a number of different options. We have our most basic
membership, which allows you to work out on the machines on the main floor of our
town centre facility. Then there is our premium membership which allows members
usage of the machines on the second floor of our town centre facility, as well as access to
our third floor lounge (6C).
Mike: Nothing really, but our gym is extremely busy and often the machines on the
second floor are the only ones available. However as I said, they are only open to our
premium members.
Mike: Our lounge is fantastic. The room is big, about 50 feet by 50 feet, and we have
two large televisions and many comfortable chairs. There is also full bar service and a
complimentary snack bar (5).
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 6 to 10.
Questions 6-10
Bill: That sounds great. Are there any other membership options?
Mike: Yes there is one more. We call it the “premium-plus” membership, and it allows
customers to use any of our gym facilities in the country (6C).
Mike: Well, yes, but we don’t currently operate a gym in Newcastle. We do, however,
operate a total of twenty-two gyms in England, not including this one in Liverpool.
Bill: Twenty-three gyms, that’s impressive (7). What is the price difference between
these memberships?
Mike: Well, at your three month level, the basic membership is 53 pounds, the premium
is 84 pounds (8), and the premium-plus is 95 pounds.
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Mike: Yes, but it’s quite good value for the additional services and location options. .
Bill: I’ll have to think this over a bit before I make a decision.
Mike: Just so you know Bill, we are running a promotion right now – if you sign up
another person along with yourself, we will give both of you premium memberships for
the price of basic memberships.
Bill: Wow, that is a great deal! I wonder who I should ask to join with me. Greg loves to
work out, but he already has a gym membership. I could ask Steve, but he’s so busy with
work all the time. I think I will ask my neighbour Kate (9), she’s been trying to get back
into shape after having her baby last autumn.
Narrator: That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD2 Track 2)
Listening Section 2: You will hear a recording of a travel show about tourism to Calgary,
Canada. First you have some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Questions 11-16
Deborah: Hello, I’m Deborah Sloan, and welcome to Hotspots, the travel show that
highlights great tourist ‘spots’ around the world. Today we have a representative from
Calgary, Canada, who is going to tell us a little about the city.
Robert: Thanks Deborah. Yes, my name is Robert and I’m going to tell you all about the
wonderful city of Calgary.
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Deborah: Sorry, I hate to interrupt Robert, but can you tell me exactly where Calgary is?
I’m sure many of our viewers are wondering.
Robert: Sure. Calgary is the largest city in the province of Alberta, which is the second
most western province in Canada. Alberta lies directly east of the province of British
Columbia (11), of which Vancouver is a very well known tourist destination, and
directly west of the province of Saskatchewan (12), of which Regina is the capital.
Canada is a very big place, and that is shown by just how far Calgary is from many of the
other major Canadian cities. Calgary is over 1000 km from Vancouver, and over 3400 km
from Toronto, Canada’s largest city.
Robert: Yes indeed. Well, let me tell you a little about Calgary. Calgary is a beautiful
city of approximately one million people (13 or 14) situated next to the Rocky
Mountains. It is known most, perhaps, for the world famous Calgary Stampede.
Robert: Yes, and it is held every July in the city. The stampede attracts more than a
million visitors each year (13 or 14) from all over the world. It is referred to as “The
greatest outdoor show on Earth”.
Another fact that Calgary is well known for is oil (15), which was first discovered in the
area in 1902. With the boom in oil prices over the past forty years, Calgary had seen its
population grow from 400,000 in 1971 to over 1,000,000 in 2007. In that time period
Calgary was by far the fastest growing city in Canada.
Many sports fans will know that Calgary was host to the 1988 Winter Olympics (16),
and to this day Calgary remains a winter activity destination, with several world class
facilities dedicated to many winter sports, from bobsled to curling to speed skating and
everything in between. One of Calgary’s biggest icons is its hockey team, the Calgary
Flames, who play in the National Hockey League, or NHL as it’s better known. They
have been one of the more successful teams in the league during their thirty years in
Calgary, even winning the coveted Stanley Cup in 1989.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 17 to 20.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 17 to 20.
Questions 17-20
On the cultural side of things, Calgary boasts a number of festivals during the year,
including a fringe festival, a comedy festival, as well as the Calgary International Film
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Festival. Calgary is also home to numerous theatre companies, as well as the Calgary
Opera, Alberta Ballet and the Calgary Philharmonic Orchestra.
Deborah: Sorry to interrupt again Robert, but this program is called “Hotspots”, so
what’s the weather like in Calgary? I’ve heard it’s cold.
Robert: (laughs) Yes, in the winter it can be quite cold, but in the summer it is also quite
warm, with average summer high temperatures hovering around 23 degrees Celsius
(17). While average winter high temperatures are around minus 2 degrees (18), and
routinely go down to -20. Calgary experiences something quite unique when it comes to
the weather – it has these weather fronts called “Chinook winds”, which can blow
through the city in the winter and temporarily raise the temperature by up to fifteen
degrees Celsius! These Chinook winds can last for anywhere from a few hours to a few
days (19), and they are welcomed with open arms by the people of Calgary. Calgary is
also one of the sunniest cities in Canada (20), as well as one of the driest, which makes
up a lot for the cold weather. Honestly though, if you are looking for a winter getaway to
a “hotspot” as you say, Calgary is not the place to go. But if you are looking for a winter
getaway that includes skiing or snowboarding, or anything else done best in the cold
weather, nobody does it better than Calgary.
Deborah: Thank you Robert, for that fascinating look…. (trails off)
Narrator: That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD2 Track 3)
Listening Section 3: You will hear a student and her professor talking about their class.
Now listen carefully and answer questions 21 to 26.
Questions 21-26
Laura: Thanks a lot for making the time to see me Professor Gorman. As I mentioned in
my email, I’ve been very ill this past week (21), and missing the first week of school is
not a good way to start the term.
P: Indeed, it’s not a very good start at all. But I think you can overcome it. You had a
good grade in my course last term, and I’m sure this absence is just a bump in the road as
far as this term goes. Now, what would you like to discuss?
L: Well, I don’t even have a syllabus, so maybe you could give me one and then we
could go over it in some detail?
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P: Yes that would be sensible Let me grab you a syllabus. (pause) Here you go. As you
see, the class meets each Monday and Thursday (22) from 10:00 to 11:30 in room A313
of the Juliet building (23). Do you know where that is?
L: Yes. The Juliet building is right next to the student union building, correct?
P: Yes that’s right. Okay, so next are my office hours. I hold them each Monday and
Wednesday from 2:30 to 4:00 in the afternoon (24). If these do not work for you, feel
free to send me an email and we can make arrangements to meet at another time. Now
let’s discuss the books you’ll need. As you see on the syllabus, there are two books you’ll
need for this course. You need not purchase either of them however, as there are several
copies of each available in the library.
L: I like keeping my books for future reference, so I would prefer to buy both books. Are
they available in the bookshop?
P: The first one is, but the second one must be purchased from Buster’s Books (26). Do
you know where Buster’s Books is located?
L: Right, I know where that is. Do you know how much the books cost, approximately?
P: I think the one at the university bookshop is about 20 pounds (25), and the one at
Buster’s is about 15 pounds (26). So that’s a total of 35 pounds for the two of them.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 27 to 30.
Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 27 to 30.
Questions 27-30
P: Of course. There are two essays, one midterm exam and one final exam.
P: Yes, but at this level I don’t believe in just having one essay or one final exam
determine your entire mark in a class. I like arranging it so that a student can have a
chance to reflect on their ability and understanding of materials throughout the term.
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L: That makes sense. So what are the percentages associated with each assignment and
exam?
P: The first essay is worth 15%, the second is worth 25% (27); the midterm exam is
worth 20%, and the final exam is worth 40% (28). Would you like to talk about the first
essay? It is due next Friday.
P: Of course. The essay should be approximately 1500 words (29), and the topic must be
chosen from the list.
P: No it’s alright, you only have to notify me if you want to do a topic that is not on the
list.
P: I will accept essays without penalty until midnight after the class it’s due. So yes you
can submit it by email, hand it in during class, or submit it to the department office. If
you submit it to the office, make sure to get a time stamp put on it, so I can be sure the
paper was submitted on time (30). And also, be sure… (trails off)
Narrator: That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD2 Track 4)
Questions 31-40
M: Good evening class, if you are registered for Anthropology 322, you are in the right
place. Today, we will be talking about the most famous of all dinosaurs, Tyrannosaurus
Rex, or “T Rex” as it is commonly referred to. This dinosaur has a fearsome reputation,
mainly due to popular culture films and books. In this class we will be discussing the
facts regarding the Tyrannosaurus Rex, as opposed to its Hollywood depiction.
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Tyrannosaurus Rex lived from approximately 80 to 65 million years ago. Of course the
reason it died out 65 million years ago is the same reason all of the dinosaurs died out
at that time, a massive asteroid which hit the Earth and destroyed almost all life (31).
The period in which the Tyrannosaurus Rex lived is known as the Late Cretaceous
period (32). This reality is in contrast to fictional portrayals which often cast the T Rex as
living in the Jurassic Period. In fact, T Rex did not come to be until 60 million years after
the end of the Jurassic Period.
Tyrannosaurus Rex was a meat eater, but it is not entirely clear whether it killed its own
prey, or if it merely scavenged the prey of other dinosaurs. In our minds we imagine T
Rex fighting to the death with other dinosaurs, but it is not known for sure whether this is
the truth.
Tyrannosaurus Rex was a large dinosaur. Not nearly the largest, mind you, but still large
by any standards of modern day wildlife. The dinosaur’s length was approximately 12
metres, its height could reach six metres (33) and it weighed anywhere between five and
seven tonnes. That weight is the equivalent of about 80 average sized human beings. If
humans had been around back then, we would have been the perfect size for an afternoon
snack!
The location of T Rex fossils discovered is very interesting. They have been found in
western North America, as far south as Texas, and as far north as Alberta, and they have
also been found in eastern Asian, namely in Mongolia. How is this possible? How can
fossils be found in such different regions of the world? The answer is what geologists
call continental drift (34). The continents have not always been in the same location.
They have shifted, and around the time of T Rex, western North America and eastern
Asia were connected. This explains perfectly the discovery of the fossils in the different
locations.
One of the more well known interesting facts about Tyrannosaurus Rex is that it had
extremely short arms (35). They measured only about one metre long, which is very
short when you consider the size of the dinosaur. To put such small arms in perspective,
it would be as if humans had arms that measured only ten centimeters! What use would
they be? Well, that is one of the questions that has led scientists to believe that T Rex
was a scavenger (36) and not a predator. It is very difficult to believe that it could have
been an effective predator with arms being so important for hunting.
Another fact that leads scientists to believe T Rex was a scavenger was its extremely
strong sense of smell. This enabled T Rex to smell carcasses over long distances (37),
giving it a big advantage as a scavenger. On the other side of the argument, T Rex had
very large, serrated teeth, which would have been perfect for tearing through the tough
skin (38) of other dinosaurs. If T Rex was a pure scavenger, it may not have required
such teeth (39). Another interesting point about their teeth was that they were
replaceable (40) over time. Unlike humans, who grow only two sets in a lifetime,
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T Rex’s teeth could be replaced over and over throughout a lifetime. Again, this is
evidence that they were, at least in part, likely predatory.
Narrator: That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
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answers themselves are found in the reading section answer key, found on page 162.
Test 2 – Reading Section 1 – Why a career in human resource management is right for
you
Do you love working with other people, interacting with them on a daily basis, helping
them improve their job skills? Then a career in human resource management (HR)
could be right for you. These days, HR is a lot more than hiring and keeping track
of employees. (1) Companies want the best employees, and they want to keep them. It is
the job of HR to ensure that the company hires and retains the best and brightest minds of
today and tomorrow.
A company is only as good as the people in it. As someone in HR, you are in charge of
the “people” aspect of the company. You determine who gets hired, you determine the
training and benefits they receive, and you determine how they are treated. If you want
influence in a company, HR is the place to be. A career in HR can also lead to even
greater opportunities in upper management. If you want a position which is
upwardly mobile, look no further than HR. (2)
HR is all about getting the most out of people. If this is your strong suit, HR is perfect for
you. In such a career, you will work with employees to maximize their skills, helping
them become the person and employee they want to become.
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Test 2 Key 149
Always around people, always helping others, always being busy – this is HR. (3) If
this sounds appealing to you, if you are a high-energy, “always on the go” type of person,
you should consider a career in HR.
HR Administrator – You are the first point of contact for HR employees and
companies. (5) You handle paperwork, contracts, and documents. You may be the “face”
of HR in your company.
HR Coordinator – You are the people person. You coordinate the entire hiring process,
from advertising openings, to accepting applications, to interviewing and hiring
candidates.
HR Trainer – You take the new employees and train them to company standards. You
also make sure all employees receive up to date training and support.
HR Manager – You are the strategy master. You may not be seen, but your influence
will be felt. (7) You handle all policies and procedures. You oversee all other HR
employees.
HR Director – You are in charge. You handle the financial aspect of the department. You
must know the ins and outs of the business, as well as its changing landscape.
Are you sick of satellite television blackouts? Are you ready for a cheap, reliable
alternative? Welcome to JAZZ Cable – trusted since 1957. For over fifty years we have
been providing consumers with channels they enjoy, customizability they appreciate, and
a low monthly bill they love.
Now, for the first time, we are offering bundle packages – cable television and internet,
all for one low monthly price. Choose from the options below, give us a call or visit our
website, and get ready to witness the JAZZ difference!
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* You may bundle any of the three packages with high speed internet for ONLY £20
more per month. For example, to get our Silver package with high speed internet,
add £20 (13) to the £30 price for a monthly rate of £50. Can you believe this price is SO
LOW? That is the JAZZ difference!
For a limited time, mention this advertisement on the phone, in person, or using the
coupon code “JAZZAD” on our website, and receive a £10 credit towards your first
month’s bill! (14)
JAZZ Cable – trusted since 1957. Visit our website at www.JAZZcable.co.uk, or phone
us toll free at 0800-957-JAZZ.
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Test 2 Key 151
Textbook: There is no textbook. Course materials will be distributed through the course
website.
Class Times: This class meets Monday, Wednesday, and Friday from 2:30 to 3:30.
Office Hours: I hold office hours from 1:00-3:00 on Thursdays. (17) You may also
email me to make an appointment. Please do not hesitate to contact me if you have any
questions or concerns.
Attendance and Preparation: Attendance is not mandatory, but strongly encouraged.
You will get much more out of the class if you are able to attend and actively participate
in the lecture and discussion. Please note that 10% of your mark comes from
participation. Missing a few classes will not affect this grade, but missing a lot of classes
will. Attendance will be taken once a week, on a random day.
Website: We use the OK (Online Knowledge) platform for the online portion of the
class. Make sure you have your OK account set up and ready to go by next week.
(18) All readings and other course materials, as well as your marks, will be distributed
using OK.
Grading: There will be two essays, two midterms, and a final exam. This is the
Assignment Date Due Weighting
breakdown of how your final mark will be determined:
First Essay (5-6 pages) 3 October 10% (19)
First Midterm 15 October 15%
Second Midterm 10 November (20) 20%
Final Essay 7 December 20% (19)
Final Exam 18 December 25%
Participation 10%
**Note on Plagiarism: Essays should be your own work and no one else’s. Students
found to have copied another’s work will be given a failing grade (21) with no
warning, and the case will be submitted to the Dean for further review. This is West
Sheffield University policy and is nonnegotiable.
Have you ever dreamt of going to paradise? Imagine white sand beaches, brilliant teal-
coloured water, exotic wildlife, and a town with an amazing nightlife. (22) This paradise
is closer than you think. The place is Paradise Mountain, Jamaica, and it is waiting for
you.
Why visit Paradise Mountain?
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Unmatched beauty – In our opinion, there is no more beautiful place on the Earth; we
love living here, and we know you will love visiting here.
Unmatched experience – The people of Paradise Mountain are incredibly friendly, and
they will go out of their way to ensure your experience is something you will tell your
friends about over and over again. While you are here, go snorkeling, swim with
dolphins, ride jet-skis in the Caribbean, or just relax on our world-class beaches.
Unmatched service – If there is anything we can do for you while you are visiting, it will
be done. Our hotels are all accredited by the Paradise Mountain Tourism board, and
are guaranteed to provide you with outstanding service. (23) Complaints about
service do not go to the individual hotel, they go to the tourism board, assuring you of a
rapid resolution.
What does all this cost? Less than you might think. Take a look at the packages below.
Hotel Amenities Notes Price
Please note they include seven nights stay (unless otherwise noted), and return
airfare from London, 5 stars, includes
as well as allallapplicable
food, beverages, Concierge
taxes, fees, service
and levies. available;
(24)
excursions, activities. Rooms include Excursions do not include day
The Grand at
satellite TV, spa bathtub, safe,
Paradise getaway to Paradise Island;
laundry service, (26) free long £1399
Mountain (25) Spa bathtub only available
distance telephone (27)
in select rooms
4 stars, includes all food, (26) Excursions not included; (25)
Hotel Paradise beverages. Rooms include satellite Beverages do not include beer, £1199
TV, full bathroom, safe, free local wine, or spirits
telephone (26, 27)
3 stars, includes breakfast, (26) as Meal vouchers for use in
Paradise Inn well as three meal vouchers. Rooms approved restaurants only; Safe
£999
include local television service, safe, located at front desk; Satellite
(six nights)
bathroom with shower, telephone TV costs extra; Excursions not
(26, 27) included (25)
Test 2 – Reading Section 3 – Marathon of Hope – The Incredible Story of Terry Fox
Terry Fox was an ordinary person. A basketball player and runner from Port
Coquitlam, British Columbia, (28) Fox received the news in March 1977 that he had
cancer in his leg and that it would have to be amputated. Devastating news for anyone, in
Terry’s mind he was happy to be alive. He felt he owed his survival to medical
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advances (29) made in the fight against cancer and he resolved to live the rest of his life
not resentful, but thankful.
With the help of an artificial leg, Terry ran his first marathon in August 1979 in Prince
George, BC – he came in dead last, ten minutes behind the closest runner. The important
result, however, was that he could finish. One marathon was not all Terry had in
mind, however; he wanted to run across the country, running the equivalent of a
marathon (42 km) every single day. (30) His mother was doubtful at first. Her sick son
wanted to attempt a feat some felt was practically suicide. But Terry would not relent. He
owed it to those who helped him, and he owed it to those who would battle cancer in the
future, to do his part. On April 12, 1980, in St. John’s, Newfoundland, Terry began.
With his right leg dipped in the Atlantic Ocean, he collected two bottles of water from the
ocean. One was to be a souvenir; the other was to be poured into the Pacific Ocean upon
the completion of his run in Victoria, British Columbia. His goal was to complete the
8,000 km journey, while raising $1 for each Canadian – 24 million dollars. He slept in a
camper van donated by a car company, he ran in shoes donated to him, and he drove on
fuel provided by an oil company. He was accompanied by his friend Doug Alward,
who drove the van as he ran, and cooked meals for the two. Terry’s brother Darrell
would join them in Nova Scotia. (31)
Response to Terry’s efforts was initially muted. It wasn’t until 900 km (22 days) into the
run that the people of Port Aux Basques, Newfoundland, presented him with $10,000,
which was the first big success of the journey. Difficulties were experienced in Quebec,
as none of the crew spoke French. By the time he arrived in Montreal on June 22, the
Marathon of Hope had received over $200,000 in donations. It was while crossing the
border into Ontario that the fanfare truly began. (32) He met the Prime Minister in
Ottawa on Canada Day, July 1, and met ice hockey superstars Darryl Sittler and Bobby
Orr along the way. Media attention was non-stop. Donations were ever-increasing.
Unfortunately, Terry’s health was going in the opposite direction.
Outside of a fundraiser-mandated stop in Montreal, he never took a day off. He had dizzy
spells, shin splints, and cysts on his amputated leg. His endurance was suffering;
exhaustion was setting in. Crowds continued to cheer him on, and they continued to run
beside him and with him. Thunder Bay, Ontario is where it ended. A coughing fit,
followed by intense chest pain, and Terry was forced to go to the hospital. (33) The
cancer had spread to his lungs. September 1, 1980 - the run was over.
Terry had raised 1.7 million dollars by the time he got to Thunder Bay. (34)
Disappointed he could not go on, he hoped the people of Canada would see his
struggle and be inspired to donate. (35) He was right. A Canadian television network
organized a telethon in Terry’s honour, and in five hours over ten million dollars was
raised. It is a tragic circumstance that Terry’s fame and influence was peaking just as
his health was about to strike absolute zero. (36)
Less than a year later, in June 1981, Terry succumbed to cancer. A nation mourned his
death. Flags were flown at half-mast by government decree. (37-40) Prime Minister
Pierre Trudeau observed, “It occurs very rarely in the life of a nation that the courageous
spirit of one person unites all people in the celebration of his life and in the mourning of
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his death. We do not think of him as one who was defeated by misfortune, but as one who
inspired us with the example of the triumph of the human spirit over adversity".
Today, Terry’s legacy lives on. Over sixty countries and 3 million people every year
participate in the Terry Fox Run – a fundraiser dedicated to the man who
demonstrated strength of conviction and courage of heart. (37-40) Terry has over a
dozen schools, thirty roads, a mountain, and an icebreaker ship named after him. He was
invested as a Companion of the Order of Canada – the highest honour a Canadian
citizen can receive. (37-40) Terry was the youngest recipient in history. He has seven
statues erected across Canada. Memorials stand in St. John’s, at the start of his run, in
Victoria at what should have been the end, (37-40) and in Thunder Bay where the end
came too early. Terry inspired a generation of Canadians, and continues today to inspire
millions of people worldwide. Terry Fox was an ordinary person, but an extraordinary
human being.
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Test 2 Key 155
WRITING TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
You need time off work. Write a letter to your boss. In your letter,
Dear Sir,
I’m writing to you to request time off next month. This time off would be very important
to me, as my mother is ill, and I would like to visit her back home in Munich. She has
recently been diagnosed with a rare form of cancer, which is thankfully not fatal, but she
is very sick from the chemotherapy she is currently enduring. I would like to be able to
comfort her in this tough time.
I know that my absence would prove quite difficult for the company, but I believe in my
three years here I have earned the right to a small amount of time off. I have not taken a
single sick day, and I have not previously asked for any time away from work; I hope you
will take this into consideration.
I am hoping to receive two weeks leave, from 14-28 November. I know this is right in the
middle of our busy season, and because of this, I would certainly be willing to take some
work with me to do while I am in Munich.
Regards,
Steven Hofstaeder
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WRITING TASK 2
What are the effects of the trend? Do you believe this is a positive or negative trend for
society?
Social media such as Facebook and Twitter are transforming how we interact with each
other on a day-to-day basis. Social media removes the barriers of long distance, speeds up
the flow of information, but can also have an isolating effect.
Social media brings us closer to each other than ever before. We each have hundreds of
“friends”, the vast majority of which we never interact with, yet we are bombarded by
their daily “updates”. We are, however, able to easily keep in touch with far away friends
and relatives. Someone living across the world is suddenly only as far away as the nearest
internet connection.
Social media also accelerates the flow of information. Social media makes it so a news
story can become known to a large percentage of the population within hours or even
minutes, instead of having to wait for the evening news. People share information with
each other instantly, and readily become a part of discussion groups ranging from politics
to popular television programs.
There is a downside to social media, however. Though we have many “friends”, often we
are stuck in front of a computer screen or on our phones instead of actually interacting
with them in real life. Because we see their updates, photographs, and information every
day, we do not realize the neglect. Social media can also be a dangerous hub of bullying
and torment, an arena which lacks the regulation and consequences of real life.
Overall, I think social media is a positive trend for society. Though social media can be
isolating and cruel, I feel the ability to communicate meaningfully with people far away
and the rapid information flow outweighs the negatives.
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Test 2 Key 157
speaking part of the test for marking purposes. To begin, I’m going to ask you a few
S: Yes I am.
have attended a nursery school and elementary school in Paris. I have gone to four
schools in total.
would choose the elementary school in Paris. I met some of my best friends there, and the
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S: Yes, I do enjoy school. I like seeing my friends and learning new things. I look
forward to the weekends though.
S: My favourite subject is physics. I like learning about how the world works.
S: The schools in France are very similar to those here. The one big difference is that
E: For part 2, I will ask you about a specific topic. You will have one to two minutes to
talk about this topic. You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say. You
can make notes if you wish. Now we will begin. Here is a card with the questions.
show called “Nightwatch”. It is a news show which talks about important issues going on
in France. For example, a recent episode warned us about the dangers of skin cancer.
Especially in the south of France, the number of cases of the condition is exploding.
Shows like “Nightwatch” are valuable because they raise awareness for issues like this.
The show is also very enjoyable because it is so balanced – it presents both sides of the
issue without bias. Another recent episode covered a big court case in Paris. While the
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Test 2 Key 159
newspapers had clearly already decided if the defendant was guilty or innocent,
“Nightwatch” presented both sides of the story while leaving the verdict to the jury and
the court. “Nightwatch” has also won many television awards in France, as well as some
international awards. Additionally, the show comes on each Sunday night at 9:00 PM,
and it makes for a perfect way to end my weekend. I learn a lot from the show, and I feel
better knowing that I’m up to date on the local and world issues going into the coming
E: Okay. That is the end of part 2. I will now ask you some specific questions related to
the topic of part 2. We will now begin part 3. What makes a good television show?
S: I think a good television programme should be interesting, exciting, and should keep
the viewer’s interest. Nobody wants to watch a boring show. A good show should also
S: I don’t watch very much television, but I will watch a show once in a while. I
watch….perhaps ten hours a week. That is far less than a lot of people I know, including
my friends.
try to win prizes. My mother was on a game show and she won a trip to Australia. They
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S: Just to be clear, you are asking me how the internet has influenced television?
E: Yes, exactly.
S: Ummm…well I believe the internet has had two different influences on television
programmes. In one sense, it gives television programmes more viewers because the
internet makes it easy to watch shows whenever a viewer wants to. However in another
sense, fewer people watch the shows on television, which reduces advertising revenue for
television itself. If televisions continue to get better and more desirable, then people will
the same, people may turn more and more to computers and the internet for their
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Test 2 Key 161
6A 3:54 – 5:24
7 23 5:32 – 5:41
8 84 5:49 – 5:51
11 D 1:20 – 1:31
12 B 1:20 – 1:31
15 B 2:17 – 2:23
16 B 2:41 – 2:46
17 23 4:21 – 4:25
21 B 0:47 – 0:51
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162
25 20 2:11 – 2:39
27 25 3:50 – 3:53
30 A 4:32 – 4:50
31 C 1:11 – 1:27
32 B 1:29 – 1:34
33 B 2:21 – 2:23
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Test 2 Key 163
Reading Section
1F 23 A
2T 24 B
3F 25 D
4 NG 26 C
5T 27 D
6F 28 Port Coquitlam
7T 29 medical advances
8 NG 30 everyday
9B 31 three
10 C 32 Ontario
11 D 33 coughing fit
12 A 34 F
13 20 35 C
14 JAZZAD 36 A
16 Arab
17 two
18 next week
19 30
20 10 November
21 failing
22 B
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Test 3 Key 164
Test 3 Transcripts
(CD3 Track 1)
Narrator: This recording is copyrighted by 2Think1 Solutions Inc. and World ESL
Tutors. You will hear several different recordings, and you will answer questions on what
you hear. There will be time given to read the instructions and questions, and you will be
given a chance to check your work. The recordings will be played only once.
The test is made up of four sections. At the end of the test you will have ten minutes to
transfer your answers to the answer sheet. Now turn to section 1.
Listening Section 1: You will hear a conversation between two women as one of the
woman registers her daughter for nursery school. First you have some time to look at
questions 1 – 5.
You will see that there is an example. This time only, the conversation relating to this
question will be played.
Example
Diane: Hello, my name is Diane Jonsson, and I was hoping to register my daughter for
nursery school at Monterey Primary.
Jane: Of course, Ms. Jonsson. Would you like to register your daughter for full-day
nursery school, half-day, or full-day plus after-school care?
Diane: Oh just the half day, I don’t think Matilda could handle a full day away from
home just yet.
Narrator: The woman says she would like to register her daughter for half day nursery
school, so A has been indicated for you. Now we begin. You should answer the questions
as you listen, because you will not hear the recording a second time. Listen carefully and
answer questions 1 to 5.
Questions 1-5
Diane: Hello, my name is Diane Jonsson, and I was hoping to register my daughter for
nursery school at Monterey Primary.
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Test 3 Key 165
Jane: Of course, Ms. Jonsson. Would you like to register your daughter for full-day
nursery school, or half-day, or full-day plus after-school care?
Diane: Oh just the half day, I don’t think Matilda could handle a full day away from
home just yet.
Diane: Yes, let me spell it for you. The first name is Matilda – M-A-T-I-L-D-A. And the
last name is Jonsson, but it is not the common spelling. It is spelt J-O-N-(double S)-O-N.
My husband is Swedish (1), which explains the different spelling.
Diane: Yes, she was an incredible present to get for Christmas. It certainly was the most
memorable Christmas I’ve had.
Jane: Yes I would imagine. Okay, so now I need Matilda’s personal education number,
which you should have received in the post (2) recently.
Jane: It would have come from the Department of Education, and they always post
things in yellow envelopes. You don’t remember seeing a yellow envelope in the post?
Diane: In fact I do, but I didn’t open it, my husband did. He didn’t mention anything
about a personal education number. Now he’s away with work (3) and I won’t be able to
reach him.
Jane: Well, we can retrieve the number. I’m going to need your National Insurance
Number as well as your husband’s. I’m going to need your husband’s name as well (4).
Diane: My husband’s name is Erik, with a “k” instead of a “c” on the end (5). His last
name is Jonsson of course. His National Insurance Number is DF 98 77 45 W and mine is
KL 40 91 15 N.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 6 to 10.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 6 to 10.
Questions 6-10
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Jane: Right. Okay let me see here….alright here is her personal education number. I will
give it to you now so that you can write it down for future reference. It is T56340192 (6).
Jane: Yes, and this letter in front of the number shows what region the child is originally
from. The T in this case refers to Tyne and Wear.
Diane: That would be correct I’d imagine. Matilda was born in Newcastle (7), which of
course is in Tyne and Wear.
Jane: Okay, so we have all the information about Matilda that we need. She is now
registered for half-day nursery school in September. Do you have any questions?
Diane: Yes I do. I was wondering what sort of training your nursery school teachers
have?
Jane: That is a very good question. Each of our teachers has, at a minimum, a two-year
diploma in early childhood education. Many of our senior staff have bachelor’s
degrees (8) in education in addition to the two-year diploma, and our department head,
Ms. Janet Roth, has a post graduate certificate, bachelor’s degree and diploma. Do not
worry, Ms. Jonsson, your daughter Matilda is in very good hands.
Diane: That makes me feel a lot better. Can you tell me when the first day of school is,
and also, will there be an orientation day for new students and parents?
Jane: The first day of class is the fifth of September (9), and yes we do have an
orientation day, it takes place on the third of September, from 9:00 to midday. Parents
and children are strongly encouraged to attend (10).
Narrator: That is the end of section 1. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD3 Track 2)
Listening Section 2: You will hear a recording of a university campus tour. First you have
some time to look at questions 11 to 16.
Questions 11-16
M1: Good afternoon everyone. If you are here for the university campus tour, you are in
the correct place. There are two purposes for this tour. For prospective students, you get
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to see the campus where you may be studying in a few months, and you get to learn some
interesting information which may convince you to look favourably on our university.
For parents, you get to learn what life is like at this university, so you know where you
are sending your kids off to this autumn.
Before we start the tour, I’d like to give you some background information. This
university was originally opened in 1686 (11), although from 1745-1805 it was shut
down due to a lack of funding. The university is composed of 23 buildings which were
built in one of three periods. There were four original buildings in 1686. A dozen more
buildings were constructed in the period from 1805-1815 (12), and the final seven
buildings have been added in the past ten years (13). So there is a fascinating mix of
seventeenth century, nineteenth century, and quite modern architecture. The first building
we are going to look at is called the Prescott Building, named after the university’s first
chancellor, William Chester Prescott. As you can probably tell, this is one of the
university’s original buildings, completed in 1686. The building is actually quite unique
in shape. It is approximately forty metres long, while only eight metres wide. It also has
these interesting circular areas attached to each corner, four of them in all (14). These
four circular areas each house a large bell. None of the bells work today, however.
As we walk in the door, I’d like to point out all of the beautiful Persian carpets on the
floor. These carpets were donated to the university by a former student almost 150 years
ago (15). It is very common for former students who have done well in life to give back
to the university. Some give money, some give land, some give gifts, such as Persian
carpets. One former student even gave the university his pub after he died! By the way,
that pub, which is located at the intersection of Third Street and Pine Avenue, gives
students of the university a 30 percent discount (16). Now if that’s not a selling point for
this university, I don’t know what is! On a serious note, it is our outstanding education
which makes our university a top competitor on the global front.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 17 to 20.
Now listen to the rest of the interview and answer questions 17 to 20.
Questions 17-20
Before we go any further, are there any questions? No? Right then.
Next we’re going to visit the university library. As you see, in front of the library there is
a beautiful fountain (17) which shoots water high up in the air. Once again, the funding
for the fountain came from a former student, in this case a well known artist. It was
constructed just fifteen years ago, at the cost of 50,000 pounds. As we step into the
library, I think what you’ll notice at first is the fact there are no books! (18) Indeed, there
are no books at all on the entire ground floor. On the five upper floors, however, there are
over three million books! The library’s collection has been built over time through
private donations, gifts from former students, as well as university purchases. There is
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also a special collections area, where there are original works dating back to the year
1588 (19).
Next on our itinerary is a visit to the sporting facilities. Here at the university we have
over a dozen different facilities for almost any sport you can imagine, ranging from
football and rugby to tennis and squash, to archery and cricket. Our rugby team has won
the national championship three out of the last five years! (20) As you’ll see on your
left…(trails off)
Narrator: That is the end of section 2. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD3 Track 3)
Listening Section 3: You will hear a public forum discussion between the moderator and
two contributors, Dr. Philip McPhee and Dr. Ron Tatum, both political scientists at the
local university, talking about the nature of taxes in society.
Questions 21-26
Moderator: First of all, I would like to thank Dr. McPhee and Dr. Tatum for taking time
out of their busy lives to spend this evening with us.
Moderator: Dr. McPhee, could you give us a little bit of the history of taxation
Dr. McPhee: Certainly. Taxes have been around almost as long as civilization itself.
There are records of taxes being collected by Egyptian pharaohs approximately 5000
years ago. It was customary to give 20 percent of your production to the pharaoh (21),
and those who evaded taxes were severely punished.
Dr. Tatum: Well, there are essentially three major reasons for taxes. The first, and most
obvious reason is revenue (22). Governments need money, and taxes fulfill this need.
The government then spends this tax revenue on investments that are good for society,
such as health care, schools and roads. Funding the army would fall under this category
as well. The second reason for taxation is for redistribution of wealth (23). In simpler
terms, this means taking money from the rich and giving it to the poor. Many societies do
this out of a belief that it is the responsibility of the government to look after the poorer
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people in society. I’ll let Dr. McPhee talk about the final reason for taxation, called
“repricing”.
Dr. McPhee: Thank you Dr. Tatum. Yes, the third main reason for taxation is called
repricing, and by this we mean changing the price of a product to a different, generally
higher price. This may sound quite strange, but if you bear with me, you’ll see it makes
perfect sense. In general, products are allowed to be priced in a free market (24), that is
to say, whoever can provide goods for the lowest price is the most successful. However,
there are certain types of goods that we don’t allow to go to the free market. In many
countries, these are goods like tobacco and alcohol (25). These goods are subject to a
repricing tax, which is used to discourage people from using the product (26). Also,
these repricing taxes help offset the future medical costs associated with the people who
use tobacco and alcohol excessively.
Narrator: You now have some time to look at questions 27 to 30.
Now listen to the rest of the discussion and answer questions 27 to 30.
Questions 27-30
Dr. Tatum: I am a strong proponent of higher taxes. The reason for this is simply that it
is easier to make money when you already have money. This gives a massive advantage
to those people who may have inherited money or come from rich families. Because
money is so much easier to gain for these people, if used wisely, taxing them seems only
fair and for the greater good. This compensates the poorer sections of society who really
have little or no hope to gain financial success.
Dr. McPhee: I understand Dr. Tatum’s position, but one has to be wary of the fact that
if taxes are too high for businesses, then those businesses will leave the country in
favour of countries with lower taxes (27, 28 or 29). Of course, it would be nice if we
could legislate a worldwide tax structure, but this is simply not attainable. And I’m sure
by the time it becomes attainable, companies will likely have opportunities to leave for
another planet with a more favourable tax structure.(Laughs)
Dr. Tatum: Yes you’re right Dr. McPhee, we must always be mindful of staying
competitive (27, 28 or 29. It is like a tight rope we must walk between compensating
those less fortunate, and being able to stay competitive in the market. Because if we fail
to be competitive, then tax revenue will dry up, resulting in no money at all for the
lower economic classes (27, 28 or 29). So it is an extremely difficult balancing act.
Dr. Tatum: I believe you will see higher taxes in 50 years than there are today (30),
just as we have higher taxes today than 50 years ago. We will need even more money for
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projects like high speed transit, new roads, new technologies. Also, with an aging
population, medical costs could soar in the near future, resulting in higher taxes to
support this health care system.
Dr. McPhee: I think the future will be a lot like the present. Walking the tight rope, as
Dr. Tatum mentioned. Where that takes us I’m not sure. If I had to guess, I’d say higher
taxes (30), for the reasons Dr. Tatum outlined. However another important variable to
consider…(trails off)
Narrator: That is the end of section 3. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
(CD3 Track 4)
Questions 31-40
M1: Today we are going to discuss the life and achievements of the famous English
scientist Sir Isaac Newton. Many consider Newton to be the most brilliant man to have
ever lived, and many consider his achievements the greatest ever achieved by one man.
Newton himself was not so sure, as he famously told his followers: “If I have seen
further, it is by standing on the shoulders of giants”. While it may be true that he built
upon the foundation of scientists before him, he still managed to see further than anyone
else had, and to this day his accomplishments stand the test of time.
Isaac Newton was born in England in 1643. He studied at The King’s School in
Grantham from age 12 to 17 (31). After leaving school, his mother tried to make him
into a farmer (32), but that was not going to be sufficient for young Isaac. A year later in
1661, on the recommendation of one his teachers at The King’s School in Grantham,
Newton was admitted to Trinity College in Cambridge, where he eventually became a
teacher (33) six years later.
Newton is perhaps most famous for his work on gravity. A well-known story says that
Newton realized the nature of gravity while he was sitting under a tree and an apple fell
on his head. This story may or may not be true, but the underlying principle is valuable.
Newton made the astonishing discovery that the same force that makes an apple fall to
the earth also makes the earth revolve around the sun and the moon revolve around the
earth. Until this time, scientists such as Rene Descartes and Gottfried Leibniz had
believed that the planets moved in some sort of matter – something they called an
“ether” (34). Newton demonstrated that no such ether was required. Descartes and
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Test 3 Key 171
Leibniz also had little explanation for why apples fall to the earth. Newton’s theory
accounted for this almost perfectly.
During the 20th century, Newton’s theory came under attack by the German physicist
Albert Einstein, whose theory of relativity was said to replace Newton’s theory of
gravitation (35). This is simply not true. Einstein’s theory is a landmark achievement in
science, but it did not replace Newton’s theory, it merely improved it. To picture this,
think of a smooth ball, perhaps a billiard ball. In this experiment of the mind, Newton
tells us the ball is smooth (36). However, Einstein says the ball has small imperfections –
dents, cuts and scrapes. Who is right? The answer is, both of them. Newton is correct on
a macroscopic scale. When we look at the ball from a distance, the ball is smooth.
However, Einstein is correct as well – the ball does have imperfections. He is correct on a
macroscopic and microscopic scale.
Newton died in March 1727 and his body was laid to rest at Westminster Abbey in
London in a famous above-ground tomb. He was 84.
Narrator: That is the end of section 4. You will now have half a minute to check your
answers.
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answers themselves are found in the reading section answer key, found on page 185.
A
Sterling Steel
$33,800
This is the sports car you’ve always dreamt of. 300 horsepower feeds this beautiful
machine of power and grace. 2012 sports car of the year according to Car Driver’s
Digest, the 2013 model is even better! This two-door convertible seats two comfortably.
B
Sterling Stallion
$29,900
A real man’s truck. Unmatched towing capacity, 380 horsepower, (1) seating for five,
this four-door truck can handle any job with ease. Given the highest safety rating (five
stars) by Car Driver’s Digest, (2, 5) this is a good vehicle for families as well.
C
Sterling Stardust
$17,200 (4)
Our signature sedan. This four-door beauty has been the highest selling car in Australia
since 2006. 180 horsepower, a sunroof, seating for five, and ample trunk space make this
car a natural choice for families. (4)
D
Sterling Striker
$18,950
The Striker is our two-door (6, 8) sports coupe for the practically-minded. Plenty of
room for four people, (6, 8) lots of trunk space, 230 horsepower, and a Car Driver’s
Digest award for best fuel economy in class, as well as a five-star safety rating, (5, 6)
make this car a practical choice for anyone.
E
Sterling Storm
$12,400
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Test 3 Key 173
Those of us on a budget still want a quality, reliable car. This two-door (8) hatchback is
exactly that. Our lowest priced model, this sporty car has a peppy 120 horsepower
engine, (3) a sunroof, and room for four people. (8) Unbelievable fuel economy makes
this car a great choice for young people!
F
Sterling Stanza
$24,600
Our top choice for families, the four-door Stanza is no ordinary minivan. With seating for
eight, a 250 horsepower engine, and a Car Driver’s Digest five-star safety rating, (5)
why would you choose anything else for your family?
G
Sterling Stampede
$32,900
Going off-road? The 2013 Stampede is the right choice. Forget fuel economy, this large
sport utility vehicle is built for power. 370 horsepower, seating for seven, (7) massive
towing capacity, and a sunroof (7) make the Stampede an easy choice for off-roaders,
families, and young people.
The most common complaint about neighbours is that they are too noisy. (9) Playing
loud music at all times of day and night can be very annoying for people who work early
in the morning and need to get a good night’s sleep.
The first step in addressing difficult neighbours is to keep a journal or diary of their
offences. (10) A simple entry might say “Tuesday, 1 AM, apartment filled with people,
walls shaking”.
After a time, you should confront your neighbour with your concerns. It is very important
to always be calm and relaxed when doing this. Your neighbour is far more likely to
listen to you if you are calm than if you are agitated or angry.
If your neighbour denies that he or she is a problem, then you may show them your
records of their disturbances. Discuss with them that you would not like to involve the
police or a lawyer, but that you are willing to go down that route if you have to. (12)
If your neighbour is still incompliant, wait for the next incident and phone the police. If
you live in an apartment, give your journal to your landlord and ask for something to be
done about the issue.
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Difficult neighbours can pose a significant problem. Dealing with them calmly and
rationally is often the best first course of action, (14) but if the neighbours still prove
difficult, often the only measure left is to involve the landlord or the police.
The Australian Food Safety Board, along with the government of Australia, in order to
ensure the health and well-being of its citizens and visitors, has enacted the following
regulations and guidelines with respect to the production, transportation, storage, and
handling of food and food products:
1.Hazard control is of paramount importance. (15) Facilities where food products are
produced must adhere to strict regulations with respect to temperature, cleanliness, and
upkeep. Any machinery must be routinely inspected for defects, including non-food
related apparatuses. For example, a malfunction in the heating system of a plant could
cause untold damage to people’s health, as well as profits of the company. (16) There
are five main elements of a safe food program – hazard identification and control,
monitoring, corrective action, (17) review, and record keeping. In short, hazards must be
identified and controlled, monitored, fixed, (17) reviewed as to why the hazard became
an issue, and the incident must be logged.
2.In order to assure food does not become unsafe or unsuitable for consumption, a
standard has been set requiring food handlers to achieve an academic accreditation
in safe food handling practices. (18) It is also the policy of the Australian Food Safety
Board that workers who handle food products must not have any communicable disease.
Food must be kept at appropriate temperatures, kept away from possible contaminants,
and disposed of correctly. Additionally, food handlers must be immediately aware of
manufacturer recalls; it is required by law for manufacturers to have an alert system
in place for food product recalls. (19, 20)
3.The third standard of regulation regards the requirements for food premises, equipment,
and transport. Premises must be clean, have access to plentiful clean water, be well-lit
(20) and ventilated, and have a disposal system in place for garbage and other refuse.
Equipment must be easy to clean, (20) and be made of a material which does not
contaminate food products. Food businesses must also be sure to have clean washroom
facilities including hand-washing basins. (20) Vehicles used to transport food must be
designed in such a way that they are easy to clean and sanitise, and they must protect
food products from contamination.
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Test 3 Key 175
Here at Sterling Auto Co., we believe time management is vital to a productive work life,
an enjoyable social life, and a rewarding personal life. (22) Juggling obligations can be
a daunting task, but below are some tips that you can use to manage your time, and to do
everything you want in your 24 hours.
Be organized: (23) An unorganized life contains a lot of wasted minutes and hours. Why
waste time compensating for your lack of organization when you could use that time to
spend with your family (23) or to work on a personal project?
Do first things first and don’t procrastinate: Don’t get behind on tasks. If you have a
task that needs completion, do it first. In your head, or preferably on paper, make a list of
things that need doing, and prioritize them. Make it a goal to finish the list in a certain
length of time. It can be worth setting up a personal reward system. (24) For a small
task list, perhaps the reward is a night out with friends. For a list of large projects, the
reward may be a vacation or a new television.
If something is important, make time for it: (25) This may seem obvious, but many
people miss this point. Know what is important to you, and make sure that you make time
for it on a regular basis. Don’t neglect relationships.
Schedule your time: This need not lead to a micro-managed life, but it can be helpful to
keep an updated calendar with everything major that must be done.
Every moment counts: If you are watching television when you really could be doing
something else, do something else. That said, if you want to watch television, go ahead
and watch television! Time management isn’t about not doing certain things which
seem like wastes of time, (26) it is about optimising the time you have. This can
certainly include such diversions as television, reading, or simply sitting idly - most
people require such “down-time” in order to function optimally.
Have a routine: Again, this is not encouraging the micromanagement of your life. But it
is still valuable, especially in certain cases. A morning routine, for instance, can lessen
the amount of time you take to get ready, allowing you to save that time and “spend” it
on either more sleep or more time with your loved ones in the evening.
Balance: (27) Never spend too much of your time on one area of your life. If you’re
spending too much time and effort on work, your social relationships will suffer, not only
because they will be neglected, but also because what time you do spend with friends or
loved ones will be rushed and unfulfilling. It too then turns into a waste of time.
A Currency is the name given to the system of money generally used in a country.
Examples of today’s currencies include the British pound, the American dollar, and the
Euro. Currency, however, has a long history, and its origins can be traced back to the
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cultures of Mesopotamia and Egypt more than 4000 years ago. In these civilizations,
animal-shaped pieces of metal were used as currency. These pieces of metal
represented grain stored in a town granary. A person could, presumably, convert
their money to grain at an established rate. (30) The problem with this system is that
it is severely susceptible to warfare and piracy. (35) If a foreign army takes over a
town’s granary, all of a sudden those pieces of currency are worthless. With these
difficulties in mind, the next innovation in currency was to establish the value of the
currency within the currency itself.
B.Gold had long been the most coveted metal by many societies. The Lydians of what is
modern-day Turkey were the first to use gold in coinage in approximately 800 BC.
Having the coins themselves made of gold removed the need for the currency to
represent something. It simply was a piece of gold, and had the corresponding
monetary value. (31) The Ancient Greeks further popularized the use of gold coins.
They also used silver and copper coins; silver was used for medium to large transactions,
while copper coins were the currency of general use for the merchant and peasant classes.
Shaving of coins, whereby a dishonest person took some of the gold off a coin with a
knife, was a significant problem until the scientist Archimedes discovered a method
which could determine the exact amount of gold in any sample. (36) From this point
on, trade in gold was reliable and safe, (34) which was one of many reasons for the
success and proliferation of the Greek and Roman empires.
C.Because gold was reserved for high-end transactions, most middle-class trade was done
in copper. When copper became more plentiful, driving the value of it down, the amount
of copper needed for a certain transaction became physically cumbersome; to carry
around several kilograms of copper coins was not particularly practical. In 10th century
China, this led to the introduction of paper currency. These paper banknotes, or bills,
represented a certain amount of gold, and could be traded for that gold at any time. This
is a system which in modern times is referred to as the “gold standard” – a system
of intrinsically worthless bills which represent an amount of gold. (29) The problem
with this system is that banknote issuers tend to print more money than they have gold,
so that inflation becomes a serious problem. Not unlike today’s credit cards, societies
pay for wars and other expensive endeavours by simply printing more money, a practice
which is wholly unsustainable.
D.Today’s currencies are referred to as fiat currencies. This means that they do not
represent gold or any other physical medium of value. (38) They derive their worth
from what the government says they are worth. The United States was the last major
country to convert from gold-backed currency to fiat currency, in 1971. While
intrinsically worthless money (that is to say the paper itself has no value) is, on the
surface, an unappealing notion, (28) economic pressures around the world assure that
fiat currencies retain their value. There are exceptions however. Weimar Germany of
the early 20th century experienced what is called “hyperinflation”, where a currency
rapidly loses its value due to overprinting (to finance war costs). (33) In 1918, when
Germany converted to fiat currency, a one Mark banknote was worth one Mark in
gold. Five years later, it took 1,000,000,000,000 (one trillion) Marks in banknotes to
buy one Mark in gold. (39) In the stronger, more peaceful economies of the modern era,
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Test 3 Key 177
E.Today’s currencies, for the most part, are allowed to float on the open market. This
means that they can be bought and sold as stocks are bought and sold. (40)
Exchange rates are set by the economic pressures of the day, and these can change
markedly from year-to-year. (32) Since the stock market crash of 2008, for example,
the US dollar has diminished in value compared to other world currencies, most notably
the Canadian and Australian dollars. Due to economic instability in countries such as
Greece, the Euro is experiencing downward pressures as well.
F.From its humble beginnings as lumps of cheap metal representing amounts of grain, to
gold coins, to the paper fiat currency of the 20th century, money has undergone many
changes through the years. Today, currency is moving towards plastic banknotes,
which have a much longer lifespan and increased durability. Grain, gold, paper, or
plastic, currency has been making banking, trade, and commerce possible for over 4000
years, and will continue to do so for the foreseeable future.
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178
WRITING
WRITING TASK 1
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Test 3 Key 179
WRITING TASK 2
What is your opinion of the custom of tipping? What are the positives and negatives?
If you are in a foreign country where tipping is customary, do you believe you should tip,
even if it is not customary in your home country?
The main negative with tipping is that it is like an extra tax on the product. If a group
pays $100 for a bill, some people believe they should not have to pay an extra $20 on top
of it. They believe the restaurant should pay their staff more money in the first place.
Also, there can be social pressures to tip, which can make for some very uncomfortable
situations.
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speaking part of the test for marking purposes. To begin, I’m going to ask you a few
S: Yes I am.
E: Okay. Let’s talk about the internet. How often do you use the internet?
S: I use the internet very often - every day, at least a few times a day. I couldn’t live
without it.
of the culture.
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Test 3 Key 181
stay in touch with each other, to meet new people, to buy new things and to learn about
the world. The internet makes the world “smaller”, and makes it easier for everybody to
connect.
E: For part 2, I will ask you about a specific topic. You will have one to two minutes to
talk about this topic. You will have one minute to prepare what you are going to say. You
can make notes if you wish. Now we will begin. Here is a card with the questions.
have been best friends ever since. She is a kind and loyal person who would do
absolutely anything for someone she cared about. One funny thing about her is that she
looks exactly like me! She is tall with blond hair, blue eyes and lots of freckles. We both
played football growing up, and usually we were on the same team. We would practise
on our own, and she would try to make me a better player. During high school, we got
into a big fight over a boy, but we ended up realizing that our friendship was not worth
risking over a silly relationship issue. She truly is a wonderful friend. Now that we are
done high school, we are still best friends. We live in different cities, but we talk on the
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phone or on the computer every day. I go to visit her and she comes to visit me, and we
have a great time together. I know that we will stay best friends for a very long time,
E: Okay stop. That is the end of part 2. I will now ask you some specific questions related
to the topic of part 2. We will now begin part 3. What qualities should a friend have?
S: The most important quality I think a friend should have is honesty. If a friend is not
honest, they aren’t really a friend. Other important qualities a friend should have are
E: Of course.
S: Hmmm…in my opinion friends are important because they are people to rely on, talk
to and spend time with. A person without friends is a very lonely person. Friends are
people to do activities with, have fun with and tell stories to. Friends are extremely
S: It definitely is important to have a best friend. A group of friends is nice, but there
needs to be that one person above the others. That friend is the closest, most trustworthy
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Test 3 Key 183
them. It doesn’t really matter what we do as long as we’re spending time together.
E: Are most of your friends from your childhood? Or did you meet them more recently?
S: I have an interesting mix of friends. I met my best friend when I was very young. I met
some of my good friends in elementary school, some in high school and some in
university. I also met a number of friends through different jobs I’ve had. Overall I’d say
E: Do you enjoy making new friends, or do you prefer to spend more time with your
current friends?
S: I enjoy making new friends, but I do prefer spending time with the friends I have now.
If I get a new job, or move somewhere new, I do enjoy meeting people in those settings,
but meeting new friends is not something that I actively try to do.
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1B 2:47 – 2:50
2A 3:08 – 3:14
3B 3:30 – 3:34
5C 3:43 – 3:48
6A 4:36 – 4:54
7A 5:00 – 5:04
13 10 1:49 – 1:53
14 B 2:16 – 2:30
16 A 3:03 – 3:15
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Test 3 Key 185
24 E 2:31 – 2:40
25 B 2:40 – 2:55
26 D 2:40 – 2:55
30 C 5:10 – 5:47
34 C 2:16 – 2:26
35 D 2:42 – 2:52
36 B 3:07 – 3:12
37 A 3:47 – 3:55
40 B 4:40 – 4:51
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Reading Section
1 Stallion 21 B
3 horsepower 23 organized
4C 24 reward
6D 26 waste of time
7G 27 balance
8 D, E (any order) 28 D
9F 29 C
10 T 30 A
11 NG 31 B
12 F 32 E
13 NG 33 D
14 T 34 B
15 hazard control 35 F
16 company profits 36 F
17 corrective action 37 NG
18 food handlers 38 T
19 manufacturers 39 D
20 D 40 B
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