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    5 6181507311123563296

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    Sanna Faculty of Law The M.S.University of Baroda Internal Test-2018 Subject: Family Law I EF Hi Semester of First Year LL.B. (Gen) Day & Date: Friday, 23° February, 2018 Max. Marks: 30 ‘Timings:2.00 PM to 2.45PM Note All questions aré compulsory. ii, Each question carries one mark. iii. There is no negative marking, iv. Figures in the right side in bold indicates the marks, v. For multiple choices eneirele the correct option. Sign. of the Jr. Supervisor: _ Sig. of the Examiner: Marks obtained: “out of 30. To be filled in by the candidates: Roll no: ‘Name (In block letters): A- Mulitple choice question- (Encirele the most appropriate option from the options given below the questions/statements) (5 marks) 1. Which of the following is an ancient souree of Hindu Law? ‘A. Equity, Justice and Good conscience B. Precedent C. Digests and Commentaries D. all of the above 2. The word ‘Smuriti’ means ‘A. what has been heard what has been written ‘what has been remembered ‘what has been discussed gop 3. The period of Dharmasutras is usually reckoned to be between— A. 1000-400 BC B, 4000 -1000 BC C. 200 t0 800 AD D. 80010200 BC 4. Which ofthe following Smriti deals only with vyavahara ie. Rules of procedure and pleadings? A. Manusmriti B. Yajnavalkya smeiti C. Narada stmriti D. Hata smriti 5. Which of the following is a requirement of a valid custom? ‘A. custom should be atleast 100 years old B. custom should written systematically C. custom should be certain D. custom should be declared by the government be 6. Which of the following members are considered to be members of joint family? father and male descendents upto three generations faler, mother and brothers of fathor and sons upto two generations father, Hineal male descendents upto any generations alongwith wives of coparceners and unmarried daughters father and all those children of father who are working with father isa joint family business DO@> 7. Which of the following are the powers of Karta? A. Karta can alienate the joint family property for his personal purpose B. Karta can refer a dispute relating to joint family property to arbitration C. Karta can spend the money of the property arbitrarily D. Karta can start a new joint family business even without the consent of all coparceners 5. The earning of a coparcener who has become a doctor from the funds of joint family is his separate property as per ains of Learning Act, 1930 B, Hindu Succession Act, 1956 CC. Mitakshara School D. Dayabhaga School 9, Dayabhaga coparvenery consist of - A. brothers, nephews and nieces B. father, sons and nephews C. daughter, widow of a coparcener and mother D. grandfather, grandsons and uncles 10. Which of the following form of marriage is approved form of marriage? A. Prajaptya B.Gandharava C.Paishach D.All of the above 11. Which of the following condition is required at a time for conducting a valid Hindu Marriage? A.Age B.Unsoundness of Mind C.Bigamy DAI of the above 12, In case of Judicial Separation, for how many years the party should have deserted the petitioner? A Zyears B.3 Years, C.5 Years D. T years 13, Which of these is a kind of Legal Cruelty? A, Conviction for 10 years or more B. Verbal abuse or insults, C. Desertion D. All of the above 14, In order to constitute desertion, which of the following fact should be established? A.The deserting spouse must have agreed for separation B. The desertion must have been with eause C. The spouse must have terminated or parted joint living. D.AII of the Above. 15.1 in case of Judicial separation which of the following situation is valid A. The marriage is dissolved B. The husband and wife continue to have the same status but they are hot bound to live together, C. It would be obtigatory for them to live together daughters D. Ifeither spouses marries during the period of judicial ‘scparation, he or she would be not be liable for the offence of bigamy. B, Fill in the Blanks (05 Marks 1. The identity of author who composed smnritiis unknown, 2. The Mitakshara School is based on the commentary written by 5+ Daughters have been considered as eoparceners by virtue of Hindu Succession Act which is amended in the year, i 4, is a narrow body of persons within a joint family ty as per 5 C. State whether the following statements are True or False? | 7 Property acquired with the aid of joint family funds is called as __ property, 05 Marks ‘The object ofthe Judicial separation isto see whether there is eny possiblity for a spouse to live together again peacefully, Prior othe Amendment in se. 13 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1976 a single act of voluntary sexual intercourse with any person other than his or her spouse was not a ground for divorce. Under Sapinds relationship before the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the bride should not fall within 7 degrees from fathers Side and 3 degrees from the mother’s side, 4+ Withdrawal from the society is valid cause to get a decree for restitution of conjugal rights. 5+ Incase of presumption of death where the other prt is not being heard ofa being alive fora petiod of 5 ' ‘years by person who would naturally have heard of him/her, D. Match the following. 05 Marks } j | eher party is suffering from unsoundness ~ [A. a condition fora valid Hindu Manage of mind continuously is a ground for 2. Parties not within the degrees of Prohibited | B. Divorce > Relationship 3. Ifone spouse by words and conducts compels | C. Section 13D to other to quit the matrimonial home is 4. Divorce by Mutual Consent D. Constructive Desertion 3. Cruelty, E. Mitakshara School of Law F. Voidable Marriage G. Section 13(1) (ia) a J @ ,G > @ © ) f Faculty of Law ‘The M.S.University of Baroda Internal Test-2018 Subject: Family Law IL Semester of First Year LL.B. (Gen) Day & Date: Friday, 13° March.2018 Max. Marks: 30 Timings:1:00-1:45PM Notes: i, All questions are compulsory. ji, Each question carries one mark. ili, There is nonegative marking . Figures in the right side in bold indicates the marks. y. For multiple choices eneirele the correct option. Sign. of the Jr. Supervisor: Sign, of the Examiner: i out of 30 Tp De filled in by the candidates: Roll no: Name (In block letters): ‘A- Multiple choice question- (Bneirele the most appropriate option from the options given below the questions/statements) (15 marks) 41. Which of the following is an unapproved form of marriage? A. Brahma Form B. Daiva Form C. Arsha Form D. Gandharava Form 2, Under the Mitakshara which of the following person could act as a guardian? A. Father B. Nephew C. Sister in Law DNone of the above ~ 3. Under the sub-section (1) of the Section 9, the husband or the wife may get a decree for restitution or conjugal rights, where the wife or husband may have A. Cruelty B. has withdrawn from the society of the other without reasonable cause C. Adultery D. None of The above 4. Before the amendment in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 this ‘Ground was not available for the decree of judicial of Separation and it wes a ground for only for Divorce? A, Renuneiation of World B. Cruelty . Leprosy D. None of the Above. S.Which of the following is not a ground for divorce? ‘A. Legal Cruelty B, Bither party is suffering from Venereal Disease. C. Cruelty D. Adultery 6. If Bither Spouse maities duriig the period of Judicial Separation, He or she would be liable for the offence A. Adultery B. Bigamy C.No offence, as the parties are in the stage of Judicial Separations D. None of the Above 7, Which of the following is an amendment to the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955. A. The act confers legitimacy to children bom of Void and Voidable wedlocks so as to enable them inherit proper of their parents B. Introduction of New Section 13-B, divorce by Mutual Consent C. Introduction of Section 21-B with a view to expedite the Trail of petition made under the Act. D. A new Section 23-A, with a view to give relief to the divorce and other proceedings. 8.Which of these is not a kind of Legal Cruelty? A. Refusal to speak B, Refusal to have Children C. Desertion D. None of the Above 9. fone Spouse by words and conducts compels the other fo quit the matrimonial home the former will be guilty of desertion though the later has physically separated from the other, this is true inthe caseof_—__ A. Desertion. B. Constructive Desertion C. Bigamy D. None of the above 10, In case of Divorce, for how many years the party should have deserted the respondent? A. 2ycars B. 3 Years C. 5 Years D. Tyears 11. In which case did the court held that the in most cases evidence is circumstantial and the circumstance under every probability must lead to a conclusion of illicit Cohabitation. A. Suvrai v. Saraswathi B. Russel v. Russel . Colman v. Colman D. Puspha v. Radhesyam 12, Which ofthe following is ground for judicial separation? A. A single act of sexual intercourse outside the marital relationship B. Bither party is suffering fiom leprosy for2 years . Living in Adultery . none ofthe above 13. Divorce by Mutual Consent is dealt under ABB B.I3A c.13() D. None of the Above | | t | || 14. Under Sec, 13(1-A) the 2 grounds which include () non-compliance with decree of restitution of conjugal rights and (i) Omission to resume cohabitation for a period of 1 year after the decree of Judicial separation is dealt under which © theory? A. Break Down Theory B, Fault Theory C. Violates Theory D. All of the above 15, Under Sapinda relationship before the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 the bride should not fall from Father's side A3 B.4 C6 D7 B Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer: in_______ degrees 5 Marks L _ is considered to be the primary and paramount source of Hindu Law, 2, Mitakshara School is divided into 3. Sapratibandha Daya means 4, Right of Partition is a right of a_ 5. Property acquired by partition is considered to be C. State whether the following statements are True or False: 1, Manusmriti consist of 18 chapters, sub-schools. ___heritage. property. 5 Marks 2. Special laws for ‘Hindus’ were legislated after India attained independence. 3. Dayabhaga Schoo! is prevalent in all parts of our country except Bengal. ( —) 4, Hindu joint family and composite family are two different types of family. ( +) 5.Sons have no right in the self acquired property of father. ( ) D. Mateh the following with the most appropriate answer: 5 Marks Dharmashastra B 1 | Yagnavalkya Smruti ‘a [Modern Source of Hindu Law 2 [Precedent ~— |b __ [Property devolves by Survivorship 3 | Mitakshara School ¢ | Manager of Hindu Joint family 2 fe Senooleteeiee _[¢ _ [Manag Bu Joint ently te 3 Faculty of Law ‘The MS. University of Baroda Internal Test-2018 Subject: Constitutional Law II Second Semester First Year of LL.B. (General) Day & Date: 24th February 2018 Max. Marks: 30 ‘Timings: 2:00 pm to 2:45 pm Notes: i, All questions are compulsory. ii, Bach question carries one mark. ili. There is no negative marking. - iv, Figures in the right side in bold indicates the marks. v. For multiple choices eneirele the correct option, Sign. of the Jr. Supervisor: Sign. of the Examiner: Marks obtained: out of 30 ‘To be filled in by the candidates: Roll no: Name (In block letters): A. Answer the question with the given Multiple Choices (15 marks) 1. The Parliament of India can legislate on the state subject a) When a matter becomes of national importance _¢) in case of emergency b) To give effect to an international agreement 4) All of the above 2. Indian Constittion embodies the parliamentary form of government because, a) The President, the head of the executive is answerable to Parliament. b) The Prime Minister, the head of the Cabinet is accountable to Parliament ©) The Council of Ministers is responsible to Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha 4) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha 3. The structure of Indian Constitution is a) federal in form and unitary in spirit b) unitary ©) unitary in form and federal in spirit d) purely federal | 4, President can nominate 12 members to which House a) Lok Sabha b) Rajya Sabha ©)Bither Housed) None of the above 5. Which of the following deals with amendment of the Indian Constitution? a) Article 362 b) Article 368 ) Article 370 4) Article 367 6. According to Constitution of India, the executive power of the Union is vested in a) President b) Parliament c) Prime Minister —_) Chief Justice in India 7. President is required to exercise his power with a) Aid and advice of Chief Justice of India ¢) aid and advice of Council of Ministers b) Aid and advice of Cabinet of Ministers d) aid and advice of Prime Minister 8. The President can be removed by a) Impeachment ©) Termination b) Prime Minister 4) None of the above 9, In which case has the Supreme Court held that Parliament had no power to amend Part III of Indian Constitution? a) Maneka Gandhi v, UOI Case b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab c) Sajan Singh v. State of Rajasthan 4d) None of these 10. In which of the following case it was held that Parliament has power to amend any part of the Constitution but the basic structure of constitution cannot be abrogated or destroyed? a) Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain b) S.R.Bommai v. Union of Indai c) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala d) Minerva Mill v. Union of India 1. President of India can be impeached for a) violation of constitution b) violation of International obligation ©) Violation of legal rights <) none of the above 13. The President has power to grant pardons under a) Article 70 b) Article 71 ) Article 72 OB 14, No person shall be eligible for election as President unless, he a) is a Citizen of India b) has completed the age of 35 years ) is qualified for election as 2 member of the Lok Sabha d) All of the above 20 of a8 15. The Ordinance making power of the President is embodied in a) Art. 123 b) Art.213 co) Art.124 dd) Art.214 B. TRUE/FALSE S Marks 16. Residuary Powers are vested in the Parliament __ Hl 17. Article 169 can be amended by simple majority 18. Article 105 deals with power, privileges of the Houses of Parliament and committees, 19. The non-member cannot be appointed as a Minister. 20. A person who has held office as President shall not be eligible for re-election to that office, C. Fill in the blanks 5 Marks 21. Any amendment that seeks to make any change in the representation of States in Parliament shall be required to be ratified by the Legislature of ‘not less than of the States of resolution to that effect-passed by those Legislatures. 22. Constitutional Amendment inserted clauses (4) and (6) in Article 368. 23. Procedures for of the President are enshrined under Article 61 of the Constitution of India. 24.Article deals with the composition of the Council of States. 25 Schedule was inserted by First Constitutional Amendment. D. Match the following 26) Constitutional Amendment 27) Keshavanand Bharti Case 28) Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu 29) Blection of President 30) Keshav Singh 26. ) 27. ) 28.( ) 29. 30.( ) (marks) a) Fundamental Rights Case b) Article 54 ©) Article 368 4d) Legislative Privileges ©) Ani-Defection Law Faculty of Law ‘The M.S.University of Baroda Internal Re-Test-2018 Subject: Constitutional Law IL Second Semester First Year of LL.B. (General) Day & Date: 14 March 2017 Max. Marks: 30 Timings: 1:00 to 1:45 pm ii, Each question carries one mark. iii, There is no negative marking, iv. Figures in the right side in bold indicates the marks. y. For multiple choices encircle the correct option. Sign. ofthe Jr. Supervisor: Sign. of the Examiner: Marks obtained: ___out of 30 To be filled in by the candidat Roll no: Name (in block letiers): A. Answer the question with the given Multiple Choices f (15 marks) 1. The Parliament of India consists of the and two Houses. a) Prime Minister b) President ¢)Governor— d) Alll of the above 2. The two Houses of the Parliament are known as Council of, and the House of the People. a) Representatives b) Ministers c) States.) None of the above 3. A person shalll not be qualified to be a member of the House of the People unless he is not less tha years of age. a) 35 )30 os 18 4, Indian Constitution embodies the form of Government. a) Presidential _ _)Parliamentary-—¢) Oligarehy_d) None of the above 5. The of India can legislate on the state subject when the matter becomes fnational importance. a) President b)Prime Minister) Parliament) Cabinet 6. Article ____ provides with the powers, privileges of the Houses of Parliament and its members. a) 105 by106 107 4) 108 7. Article 109 provides for Special procedure in respect of Bills a) Money Bills _b) Appropriation Bills c) Both of the above d) None of the above i | } 10. IL, 12, M4. 15. ‘The__ power of the Union is vested in the President, a) Legislative b) Judicial —_¢) Executive d) All of the above ‘The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament ) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States ¢) Both of the above d) None of the above No person shall be eligible for election as President unless he a) Isa citizen of India b)_ Has completed the age of thirty-five years ¢) Is qualified for election as a member of the House of the People d) All of the above President before entering upon his office, makes and subscribes an oath or affirmation in the presence of a) Vice-President b) Prime Minister ©) Cabinet 4) Chief Justice of India Which of the following doctrine was first invoked in Golaknath case? 8) Prospective overruling »b) Eclipse c) Pith and substance d) None of the above _ Nothing in article 13 applies to any Constitutional Amendment made under a) Article 365 b) Article 366 ©) Article 368 4) Article 369 Which ofthe following amendment shall also require to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolution to that effect passed by those Legislatures before the Bill taking provision for such amendment is presented to the President for assent. a) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule b) Article $4 ©) Article 162 4) Allof the above Jn which case has the Supreme Court struck down Para 7 of the Anti-Defection Act? a) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI Case b) Kihota v. Zachilhu ©) Selvi d)None of these TRUE/FALSE 5 Marks ‘An amendment of the Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of @ bill in Lok Sabha Article 169 cannot be amended by simple majori sssste 18. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list provided it isin interest | of minority, 19. The validity of Constitutional 17° Amendment was challenged in Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan, 20. In Indira Nehru Gandhi vs. Raj Narain the 39" Constitutional Amendment was declared constitutional C. Fill in the blanks 5 Marks 21. Procedures for impeachment of President are enshrined under Article _ 2. Size of Mi ries has been added by ‘Amendment, 23. The President of India shall hold office for a term of years from the date on which he enters upon his office. 24. The Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or ant provision of the Constitution, 25. Article provides Council of Ministers to aid and advice the President. D. Match the following (5 marks) 26) Ninth Schedule a) India 21) Indira Nehru Gandhi b) Election Case 28) Keshav Singh ©) Fist Constitutional Amendment 29) Parliamentary Form d) Article 72 30) President's power to grant pardons ©) Legislative Privileges 26 (CEE re Heer s 27.( BC) 29.( 30.( i i | | | | FACULTY OF LAW Second Sem, LL.B. (GENERAL) MID SEMESTER RE- EXAMINATION (Feb 2018) Property Laws and Easement Day & Date: Monday, 26" February 2018 Maximum marks: 30 Time: 02:00 pam. to 02:45 p.m. Ali questions are compulsory. ii. There is no negative marking. Note: Signature of Supervisor Signature of Examiner Name of the Candidate: Exam Seat Number or Roll Number: A. Choose the correct alternative: [15] 1) Transfer of property act 1882 is not applicable to a) Punjab b) Haryana ) Madras 4) Delhi 2). Before the commencement of TPA 1882, the transfer of immovable property in India were governed by the a a) indian registration act 1908 b} Indian contract act 1872 ¢) Principles of English law and Equity d} Sale of goods Act 1880 3) The transfer of Property act 1882 came into force from. a] 17" Feb, 1882 b) 27" Feb, 1882 ¢) 17" March, 1882 ) duly, 1882 44), Within the meaning of provision of TPA 1882, the immovable property does not include: a) Standing timber and grass bb) Standing timber, crops and cash ce} Only grass d) Standing timber, crops and grass 5) Under the provisions of 'PA 1882, an easement cannot be transferred apart from the dominant heritage a) The statements true 'b)_ The statement is partly true ) Thestatementis false @)_ None of the above Under the TPA 1882, where a writing Is not expressly required by law: a} The transfer of property may be made without writin bb). Transfer can be made by writing only then ©). Transfer can be made by execution only 4) None of the above Forattestation____witnesses are required 2) Minimum 2 6) 7) b). Minimum one Maximum 2 4) Maximum 3 8) Actionable daim is a) Unsecured money debt b) Secured debt Secured with possession of movable property 4) Secured with possession of immovable property 9) Transfer of property is defined in TPA 1882 under a) Sec10 b) Secs ©) Seca ) Secé 10) Agiftis made to Ram with a condition that if within one year ofthe gift Ram does not set fire to Shyam’s house, the house shall be given to Raju. This condition on gift is a) Valid b). Void but gifts valid ©) Void and gifts also void 4) Valid and giftis also valid : 11) The rule against perpetuity is provided in sec of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 au b) 15 0 16 au 12) Under the provisions of transfer of property act 1882, the unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer for his benefit: a) Upon his birth 'b) From the day of conception ©} On attaining majority 4) 7 days after his birth 13) In case of transfer of property under TPA 1882, ifthe ulterior dispasition is not valid then a) The prior disposition isnot affected by it 'b) The prior disposition is affected by Tt The whole transfer becomes void 4d), None of the above 114) Under sec 35 of TPA 1882, where a person professes to transfer property over which he has no tight to transfer and as the part of same transaction confers any benefit on the owner of property then the owner has a) Right to confirm only 'b)_ Right to refuse ony ) Right to elect ¢)_ Right to coOmpensation only 15) Which of the following property cannot transferred under TPA 1882: a). Spes-successionis b) tand ) Apple tree 4). Benefits out of immovable property Fill in the blanks: (16 to 20) {05} 16) A transfers property to B for life and after his death to C and D, equally to be divided between them or to the survivors of them. C dies during the life time of B. at 8's death the property passes to__ : 417) Rule against. __says that transfer of the property making property inalienable for indefinite period cannot be made. SESE means transaction in which property is transferred to one person for consideration paid or provided by another person. 419) Alets field to B ata rent of Rs. 50, and then transfers the field to C. & having no notice of the transfer, in good faith pays the rent to A. Bis Aliable/ not tiable) 20} A condition which precedes the transfer of property is called a 18) State whether following statements are true or false: (21 to 25) (05) 21) Where the interest transferred is vested, the transferee gets thatinterest immediately. (_} 22) Salary of public officer can be transferred under TPA 1882. { 23) Sec 10 declares condition to be void when it absolutely restrains alienation. ( 24) Ifa person having no authority agrees to transfer an immovable property, he is estopped from denying the transfer when he subsequently acquires such authority. (—_). 25) Owner of immovabie property can transfer partial interest to one and absolute interest to another in same property under TPA 1882. ( ) Mateh the following pairs: (26 to 30) (05) 2é}doctrine of acceleration alsec35 27)Ostensible owner bjsec18, 26 28)doctrine of election 29}doctrine of cyprus [Bojdoctrine of accumulation [26- J 227- J [28- ] [29- ] B0- ] OREO FACULTY OF LAW SECOND SEMESTER LL.B. (GENERAL) MID SEMESTER RE- EXAMINATION (MARCH 2018) PROPERTY LAW AND EASEMENT Day & Date: Thursday, 15* March, 2018 Maximum marks: 30 ‘Time: 01:00 p.m, to 1:45 P.M. Note: All questions are compulsory. ii, There is no negative marking. Signature of Supervisor Signature of Examiner ‘Name of the Candidate: Exam Seat Number or Roll Number: A. Choose the correct alternative: _ (15) 1) If transfer made from insolvency, forfeiture or sale in execution of a decree. what it is called as? a) Transfer by will b) Transfer by operation of law c) Transfer by act of parties @) None of above 2) Document is not necessary if value of immovable property is... a) Less than Rs. 1000 'b) Less than Rs. 10000 ©) Less than Rs. 100 d) Less than Rs. 100000 3) Condition in a deed which resteains the alienation of property is a) Valid b) Void ©) Voidable d) None of the above 4) Condition restraining absolute alienation is void. is an exception. a) Lease b) Mortgage cece co} Sale a) exchange 5) A vested interest is by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession, a) Defeated b) Not defeated ©) Forfeited d) Not forfeited 6) Under the provisions of section 6 ofthe Transfer of Property Act, 1882, a mere right of re-entry for breach of a condition subsequent cannot be transferred to anyone except ‘the owner of the property affected thereby 8) the statement is true bj the statement is false ¢) the statement js partly true @) None of the above. 7) ‘The term transfer under the transfer of property act refers to a) Partly or whole transfer b) Absolute or conditional transfer ©) Contingent transfer 4) Botha and b 8) Provision of longer period in the matter of accumulation of property under section 17 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 amounts to a) 18 years ) 20 years ©) 25 years d) 22 years | i 1 1 | \ | | 4) In the context of contingent interest in case of happening of a uncertain event or ifs specified uncertain event shall not happen, such person acquires a contingent interest in the property. Such interest 4) becomes vested interest in the former case, onthe happening of the event, in the later, when the happening of event becomes impossible ) does not become vested interest «) vested interest does not depend upon happening or not happening of event d) None of the above. 10) X marries to ¥ but in case she dies in his lifetime, he would transfer the property to Z. X and ¥ perish together, under circamstances which make it impossible o probe that she died before him. The disposition of property in favour of Z: a) does not take effect b) takes effect ©) disposition is subject to another contract &) None of the above. LI) A transfer a garden to B for he life, with a proviso that, i case B cuts down a certain ‘wood, the transfer shall cease to have any effect. B cuts down the wood. Decide the case in the light of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 8) B loses his life interest in the firm pCO ORES | + Se a ARR IE IE »b) B docs not lose his life interest in the firm ¢) no such provision is made under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 4) None of the above. 12) gives his flat to B on condi 2) Condition precedent ) Condition subsequent ¢) Collateral condition 4) Void condition 13) A transfers to B an estate to which C is entitled and as part of sa coal mine. C has right to a) Election 1b) Redemption ©) Surrender @) Claim 14) Which ofthe following cannot be transferred under transfer of property act? a) Mere right of entry b) Land ©). Things rooted in earth 4) Things embedded in earth 15) Transfer of property is defined under omni] a) Sec4 b) Sec ©) See6 ition that he shall marry A’s daughter C. this condition is sme transaction gives C B. State whether following statements are true or false: (21 to 25) 16) Transfer of property act 1882 was passed by third law commission. ( ifa 17) Transfer of property is defined in see 4 of TP act 1882. ( ) ( ae 18)A benefit which arses out of land is immovable property. the 19) The Transfer of Property Act has territorial limitations. ( 20) When a property is transferred for the benefit of public, the transfer is void under rule against perpetuity. ( ) C. _ Fillin the blanks: (16 to 20) (05, 21),_____wimnesses are required for Attestation under the transfer of property Act 2)'Nemo dat quod non habet’ means: 23)Sec.35 of TP Act deals with 24) Transfer of property to idol (isis not) debt secured by mortgage of property, hypothecation transfer under TP Act. atain the 25) A claim to any debt other than @ orpledge iscalled__— D. Match the following pairs: (26 to 30) (051 Answers: [26) Doctrine of Election a) Sec 13 27) Transfer in favour of unborn b) Sec 25 person 28) __Benami transactions 0) Sec 14 29)__Rule of perpetuil d) Sec 4 30)__ Conditional transfer e) Sec35 [26- ] (27- ] [29- ] Bo- UE I Faculty of Law The M.S. University of Baroda Internal Test-2018 Subject: Administrative Law Tind Sem. First LL.B. Day & Date: Tuoad ey, 254] 2/NY Time: 2400 N= 2,145 Pr Max. Marks: 30: Notes: i. All questions are compulsory. Each question carries one mark. iii, There is no negative marking. iv. Figures in the tight side in bold indicates the marks, v. For multiple choices encirele the correct option. Sign. of the Jr. Supervisor: 7 Sign. of the Examiner: Marks obtained: out of 30 To be filled in by the candidates: Roll no: Name (In block letters): 2 > Multiple Choice Questions (encircle the correct alternatives) 15 marks |. The Definition given by Sir Ivor Jennings lays entite emphasis on, (a) Powers of the administration (©) Organisation, power and duties to the exclusion ofthe manner of their exercise (©) Organisation, power and duties of the administration (d) Discretionary power in the hands of administration 2 Administrative law primarily concern itself with the official which may be... (a) Rule making action a (b) Rule decision action (©) Rule application action (4) All of these 3. The study of administrative law is... (@) An end in itself (b) Not an end in itself but means to an end (©) Division of power (@) Independent exercise of power 4. Who ofthe following jurist said that king must be under God and Law and thus vindicated the supremacy of law over the pretensions of the executives... Page 1 of 4 | | | | | Who of the following jurist said that “No person should be made to suffer in body or deprived ol (a) Edward Coke (b) Ivor Jennings (©) Dicey (@) Hobes In which of the following case some of the judges constituting the majority the rule of law considered as an aspect of the doctrine of basic structure of the constitution which even plenary power of Parliament cannot reach to amend... (2) ADM y, Shivkant Shukla (b) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain (©) KesavanandaBharati v State of Kerala (@) P. Sambamurthy v. State of A.P. ;. In which of the following sense the concept of Rule of Law represent an ethical code | exercise of public power in any country. | (a) Formalistic sense : (b) Ideological sense (©) Realistic sense (@ None of these ‘The term Rute of Law is used in contradiction to. (@) Autocracy (b) Rule in accordance with law (©) Faimess in exercise of power (d) Rule of man his property except for a breach of law established in the ordinary legal manner before ordinary courts of the land... (2) Dicey (b) Baward Coke (©) Kenneth Culp Davis (@) Prof UpendraBaxi Locke’s discontinuous legislative power include... (a) General rule making power called into action from time to time and not continuously (b) General rule making power (©) Special rule making power (a) Exceptional legislative power ule of law ‘thich ever 1 code for i ot deprived o et before th usly Page 2.of a 10. According to theory of separation of powers which of the following is/are formulation of structural classification of governmental powers; (@) One organ of the government should not interfere with any other orgaa of the government (b) The same person should not form part of more than one of the three organs of the government (©) One organ of the government should not exereise the functions assigned to any other organ, @ Allofthese 11, A situation where power is given to fix the date for the enforcement of an act or grant exemptions from the Act or to fix prices, which of the following term is used.. (a) Rule (b) Order (c) Scheme (@ Regulations 12, The Court has upheld the taxing powers to the administrative author provided... (@ The policy of the taxing statute has been clearly laid down (b) The Act is conferring such power after utmost care (©) The Act conferring such power are specific (a) Such power is subject to judicial review 13. Where the power delegated does not include power to do certain things, itis. (2) Exceptional delegation (b) Positive delegation (©) Negative delegation (@ Subordinate legislation : 14, Laying down the policy of the law and enacting thet policy into a binding rule of conduct is... (@) Essential legislative power (b) Ancillary power (©) Ancillary power which can be delegated (4) Ancillary power which cannot be delegated 15. In which of the following case the Federal court held that “the power of extension with modification is unconstitutional delegation of legislative power because it is an essential legislative act. (@) Rv. Burah : (b) JatindraNath Gupta v, Province of Bihar (©) Edward Mills v. State of Ajmer (@) Rajoarian Singh v. Chairman, Patna Admn. Committee Page 3 of 4 ae | | | | > State whether following statements are TRUE or FALSE: 05 Marks 16, Where crisis legislation is needed to meet emergent situations, administrative rule making is a necessity 17. According to Dicey’s formulation, administrative law relates to that portion of a nation’s legal system which determines the legal status and liabilities ofall state offi 18, Droit Administrati is associated with the name of Nepoleon Bonaparte 19. The Rule of Law is a static concept, 20. The doctrine of separation of power is traceable to Locke and Montesquieu ____ Match the Following Pars: 05 Marks 21. Power corrupt and absolute power (a) Prof UpendraBaxi Corrupt absolutely 22. Rule of Law (b) must be used for the purpose For which it is conferred i 23. Where limits of delegation are clearly (©) Prof. A.V. Dicey | Defined in the enabling Act | 24. Administrative discretion (@ aims to prevent discrimination \ 25. Administrative law is pathology of (© positive delegation of rule Powers making Answers: 212223 eee > Fillin the Blanks: 05 Marks 26, Power of judicial review is part of of the Indian Constitution, 27. The rules made by semi-governmental authorities established under the acts of legislatures is known as 28 defines that administrative law as law relating to administration 29. is derived from the French phrase la principle de legalite. 30. Rule of Law is reflected in of the Indian Constitution. Page 4 of 4 aaa 05 Mark raking is ‘on’s legal 05 Marks: ige 4 of 4 aro mel Faculty of Law The M.S. University of Baroda Additional Internal Test-2018 Subject: Administrative Law Second Semester of First Year of LL.B. (General) Day & Date: Friday, 16" March 2018 Max. Marks: 30 Timings: 1.00 p.m. to 1.45 p.m ‘Notes; i, All Questioners Compulsory. Bach question carries one Mark. ‘There is No negative marking. 4v. Figures in the right side in botd indicates the marks. ¥. For multiple choices encirele the correct option, Sign. Of the Je. Superviso Sigh. Of the Examin Name of student, Roll number___Marks obtained:_out of 30 1. Administrative law includes the study of .. (2) The existing principles (b) The development of certain new principles (6) Reasonableness and fairness (@) Allofthese 2. Administrative law is pathology of powers... (@ Sir Ivor Jeenings () A.V. Dicey (6) Prof. UpendraBaxi (@) Kenneth Culp Davis, Who said that “Administrative law is @ law that concerns the powers and procedure of administrative agencies, including the law governing judicial review of administrative ation? (@) AV. Dicey (b) Kenneth Culp Davis, (© Sir Ivor Jeenings (@ Holland - 4, Administrative law is a by-product of. @ Autocratic form of government (6) Democratic form of government (©) Intensive form of government (€) Presidential form of government 5. Who of the following jurist seid that the constitutional law describes the various organs of ‘government at rest, while administrative law deseribes them in motion.... (@ Maitland (&) Jennings (©) Holland (@ AV. Dicey 6. Which of te following Acts contain an appointed day clause under which the power is delegated to the executive to appoint a day forthe Act to comé into operation? @) Dispensing and suspending Acts (b) Extension and application of Act (©) Alteration Acts (@) Enabling Act | | | 7. In which of the following Acis power is given to administrative agencies to make rules to elaborate some principles laid down in the Act? (a) Penalty for violation Acts (b) Approving and sanctioning Acts (©) Taxing Acts (@) Supplementary Acts 8. The Committee on Ministers’ powers distinguished which of the following two types of parliamentary delegation? (a) Normal delegation (b) Authority based cla (©) Exceptional delegation (€) Both (2) and (©) 9. Under which of the following power the Supreme Court and High Court can test the lation? constitutionality of delegated I (a) Appellate jurisdiction (©) Advisory jurisdiction (©) Judicial review (@ None of these 10. In.which of the following case Supreme Court held that power of parliament to amend the constitution is subject to basic structure of the constitution? (a) JatindraNath Gupta v. Province of Bibar (6) KeshvanandBhattiv, State of Kerala (©) Indira Neha Gandhi v. Raj Naraian (@) Rv. Burah 1. In which of the following case Supreme Court held that doctrine of separation of powers is not a part ofthe Indian Constitution? (a) JatindraNath Gupta v. Province of Bihar (b) R. v. Burah (6) Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical Works Ltd. (@) St-Johns Teachers Training Institute v. National Couneil for Teacher Education 12. In clarify the provisions of the statue Acts, power is delegated to the administrative authority tO. {a) Extend the life of the Act (b) Extend the operation of the Act (c) Issue interpretations on various provisions of enabling Act (a) Approve the ruled made by other specified authority 13, The question of constitutionality came before the Privy Council in the famous ease of... (@) R.v. Burah (b) Agricultural Market Committee v. Shalimar Chemical works Led (6) Keshvanand Bharati v. State of Kereta (@) Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain y's formulation of the concept of rule of law contains... (a) Absence of discretionary power in the hands of the government officials (b) No person should be made to suffer in body or deprived of his property except for a breach of law (©) Rights of the people must flow from the customs and traditions of the people recognised by the courts in the administration of justice (@ Allo these 15. Which ofthe following jurist said that “when the legislative and executive powers are united in the same person or in the same body of Magistrates, there can be no liberty, because apprehensions may aris, lest the same monarch or senate should enact tyrannical laws, 10 execute them in a tyrannical manner? @ Aristotle (b) Locke (©) Montesquiew (A) Dicey ‘State whether following statementsare TRUE or FALSE: 16. Droit administrative does not represent principles and rules laid down by the Fretich parliament__ 17. Administrative Law is branch of private law. 18, The study of administrative law is not an end in itself but a means to an end 19. The Rule of Law is the supreme manifestation of human civilizations and culture 20, According to Bhagvad Gita “Law is the king of kings" Match the following pai 21. Administrative law primarily concer with (a) one of the reasons forthe growth of ‘Administrative process 22. Checking abuse of administrative power (b) Kenneth Culp Davis, 23. Power corrupt and absolute power (©) Offical action Corrupts absolutely 7 24. Administrative law concems the (@ AN. Dicey Powers and procedure of administrative Agencies Hi 25, Inadequacy of the traditional type of courts _(c) one of the basic rioks of the foundation Of any administrative law Fill in the blanks by using appropriate word/s: 26, In France, gan be defined as a body of rules. 27. The term rule of law is derived from the French phrase 28. The doctrine separation of powers is traceable to 29. Indian Constitution has accepted separation of powers in 30. Where crisis legislation is needed to meet emergent situation, is necessity. | 1 | | | | Faculty of Law ‘The M.S. University of Baroda Internal test 2018 Subject: Environmental Law-I If Semester of L.L.B (Special) Day and Date: Tuesday 28 February 2018 Max Marks: 30 ‘Timings : 02:00 noon to 02:45 p.m. Note: I. All questions are compulsory UL. Each question carries One Mark IIL There is no Negative marking. IV. Figures in the right side in bold indicates the marks. Y. For Multiple Choices Eneirele the correct option. Sign. Of the Jr. Supervisor: Sign of the Examiner Marks obtained out of 30 Name of Student Roll No, A. Multiple choice question (Encirele the most appropriate option from the given questions/statements below) 1. “Hazardous Substance” means any substance or preparation which, by reasons of its chemical or physico-chemical properties is liable to cause harm to (a) human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism (b) Only human beings (©) Only micro-organism (@) None of these 2. Badkal Lake and Suraj Kund Mining activity was banned because of (2) Scientific Mining (b) Unscientific Mining (©) Water pollution created in Badkal lake (4) Water pollution create in Suraj Kund 3. The absolute liability for harm caused to the environment extends not only to compensate the Vietims of pollution but also to the cost of restoring the environmental degradation known as principle of (2) Pollutant Pays (b) Peoples pay for pollution (©) Poliuter pays (@)all these above 4. Guidelines for supply of non-contaminated matter- The drinking water supplied in the city of ‘Agra was highly polluted and contaminated and unfit for human consumption etc. It was stated in which case. | L (@) M.C. Mehta vs Union of India k. (&) D.K. Joshi Chief Secretory, state of U.P. and others h (©) Murli S. Deora vs Union of India | (@ None of these | 5. Open space and public parks are necessary to (@) Maintain ecology (b) Reduce Notice pollution (© Both (@) and (b) (A) None of these 6. In Tehri Dam Project case~N. D. Jayel and another vs Union of India, it was held that is Fundamental Right under Article 21. @ Right to Know (b) Right to Speech (© Right to Health (@ None of these 7. The Central Government may make rules for (2) The standards of quality of ait, water or soil for vatious areas and purposes (©) The procedures and safeguards for the handling of hazardous substances i (©) Both (a) and (b) (None of these ‘ 8. Under Section 14 of Environment Protection Act 1986 Reports of Government Analysts may be used as ; (@ Only in special cases Evidence of the Facts . (0) Only analysis document (©) Evidence of the Facts @ None of these 9. Whoever fails to comply with or contravenes any of the provisions of ‘environment 7 Protection Act, shall punishable with : (a) Imprisonment may extend to seven years or with fine which extend to one lakh or both (©) Imprisonment may extend to two years or with fine which extend-to one lakh or both (c) Imprisonment may extend to five years or with fine which extend to two lakhs or both (@) Imprisonment may extend to five years or with fine which extend to one lakh or both 10. In which ofthe following case a writ petition was field claiming damages for the vietims of the gas leakage from the plant of shree ram food fertilizers Industries (@ Bhopal Gas Disaster Case (0)M. C. Mehta vs Union of India a (6) Matli S Deora vs Union of India i (ON. D. Jayal and others vs Union of India city of Saas IL. In M. C. Mehta v/s Union of India, has held that it is the duty of the Central Government to introduce compulsory teaching of lessons at least for in a week on protection and improvement of natural environment. ; (a) One Hour (b) Six Hours (©) Three Hours (@) Four Hours 12. Smoking is injurious to health and may affect the health of smokers but there is no reason that the health of should be injuriously affected. (@) Passive Smokers (b) Chain Smokers : i (©) Daily Smokers (@) None of above 13, Under section 16 of Environment Protection Act where any offence committed by a company who shail be liable? (a}Every person who at the time offence was committed, was directly in charge of and j ' was responsible to the company for the conduct of the business of the company (b) The company shall be deemed to guilty of the offence (©) Both (a) and (b) (@ Not {a} or 14. In the case of M. C. Mehta v/s Kamal Nath and others the Supreme Court held that pollution isa @) Civil wrong (©) Criminal wrong (© Both (a) and (b) (@ No offence 5. In which court a Public Interest Lit of India. : | (@) Supreme Court tion can be filed, under Article 226 of the constitution (®) High Court (©) Both (a) and (b) (@) None of above B. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer : at 1. “Protection and improvenient of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life of the country” is for The state as per article 48 (A). in the environment of any t | 2. As per sec 2 (¢) of environment protection act "Environmental Pollution” means the presence 3 3. The concept behind the Environment Protection Act taken from the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held at in June, 1972 4, The closer of the brick kiln within 20 km radius Distance of The Taj Mahal with certain directions. This case is known as. 5. Narmad Bachavo andolan case : Construction of, dam will result of ecological imbalance is not correct. C, State whether the following statement are true or false : 1. It shall not be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment Including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures: Coe: 2. The right to live in pollution free environment as a part of fundamental right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution. ( ) 3. Freedom of speech under article 19 (1)(a) does not include freedom to use loud speakers of sound amplifiers. Thus, noise pollution caused by the loud speakers can be controlled under article 19 (1) (a) of the constitution. ) 4. The Environment (Protection) Act is applicable to whole of India except Jammu & Kashmir. It came into force on November 19, 1986. 5. The 24th amendment to the Constitution was brought about in.the year 1976, Two new Aiticles were inserted: Art48-A and Art.51-A(g). ( ) D. Match the Following : 1. | MAC. Mehia vs. Union of India| a, | The victim of pollution are entitled fo compensation 1999 %,_| Akhil Bharat Gauseva Sangh vs |b.” Broadcasting Information films about environmental state of A, P. ____|__| protection” 3. | Rajiv ranjan singh alias allan | c. | State Pollution Control Boards permitted o prescribe singh vs State of Bihar and higher standered than those mentioned in the rules of others. environmental protecton but not lower. ___| Stalin and others vs The chair | d, | Indiscriminate of mining of lime is environmental person, Bhimavaram Municipal hazard council and others 5. | Kinkaridevi ys State of ¢. | The construction of Slaughter house should no allowed Himachal Pradesh ‘which causes lange scale pollution (de) ) @. ) «&@ ) 6 ) 4 vesult ment i i Faculty of Law ‘The M.S. University of Baroda Re-Intemal test 2018 Subject: Environmental Law-1 TI Semester of L.L.B (Special) Day and Date: Saturday 17 March 2018 Max Marks: 30 ‘Timings : 01:00pm to 01:45 p.m. Note: I. All questions are compulsory I. Each question cartes One Mark IL There is no Negative marking, IV. Figures inthe right side in bold indicates the marks. ', For Multiple Choices Rneirele the correct option. Sign. Of the Jr. Supervisor: Sign of the Examiner Maiks obtained out of 30 Name of Student Roll No A. Multiple choice question (Encircle the most appropriate option from the given questions/statements below) 1. Storage of chlorine for disinfection of drinking water was in (a) A. Suseela and others v/s Union of India and others. (b) M. C, Mehta vs Union of India (€) Mutli 8. Deora w/s Union of India (d) None of these 2. As per Environment Protection Act Subject to the provision of section 11(4) the person taking the sample under section 11(1) shall (2) In the presence of the occupier or his agent or person collect sample for analysis (©) In the presence of agent of the occupier collect sample for analysis (©) Collect sample for analysis with permission of occupier (@ None of these 3. As per Environment Protection Act the Central Government may be notification in the Official Gazette (a) Establish one ot more environmental laboratories (b) Recognise one or more laboratories or institutes as environmental laboratory (c) Establish one or more environmental laboratories only in Smart City (@) (A) and (B) 4. Interpretation was regarding to provisions of environment protection was in Case, (a) M. C. Mehta vs Union of India (b) V. Shankar Reddy v/s State of Andhra. (c) Murli S. Deora vs Union of India @ None of these - The Indian Judiciary is Pro-environment, A pro-environment interpretation remarked by the Supren yurt in, = cs (2) Satika Case (b) Tehti Dam Project Case (©) Sardar Sarovar Case (@ None of these ‘6. Any document purporting a report signed by a Government _ may be used as a evidence ‘ofthe facts stated therein any proceeding under this Act. (@) Analyst (®) Scientist (©) Supervisor (@) None of these 1. The Environment Protection Act has the following objective/s (a) Protection of Environment (b) Improvement of environment () Prevention of hazards to human beings @ All of these Cause the sample to the placed in The container which shall marked and sealed end shall also be signed by (@) The person taking the sample (b) the occupier or his agent (€) The agent of occupier (@) The person taking the sample and the occupier or his agent 9. The Bhurelal Committee was established for {@) Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority forthe National Capital Region (6) Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority for the State Capital Region (©) (@) and (b) (@ None of these 10. In M. C. Mehta and Union of India 1992, & PIL was filed for information films about environment protection information to be spread in (@) Only in National language (b) Only in regional languages (©) All national and regional languages (@ None of these 11. In M. C. Mehta v/s Union of India, has held that it is the duty of the Central Government to. introduce | compulsory teaching of lessons at least for one hour ina. ‘on protection and improvement of natural environment. (a) Week (b) 2 weeks (©) 10 days (@) Month | | i 2. Taj Trapezium Pollution Case ordered the closure of brick kilns within____kilometers radius of T ‘Mahal with certain directions. 3 (a) 15 (b) 25 (©) 20 (@10 “13. The presumption that constuction of Sardar Sarovar Dam will result in ecological imbalance is not correct (a}Narmada Bachao Andolan v. Union of India and others (b) Tehri Dam Project Case (©) Both (2) and (b) (@ Not (a) or &) |. The principle of purposive interpretation of the environment provisions has been recognized by the Supreme Court was in (a) Bangalore Medical Trust Case (b) M. C. Mehta vs Union of India (©) V. Shankar Reddy v/s State of Andhra (@ Muri S. Deora v/s Union of India 15. Where an offence under The Environment Protection Act has been committed by any Department of Government. (a) The Head of the Depniment shall be deemed to be guilty (b) No one shall be deemed to be guilty (c) The Head of the Department and state Govt. shall be deemed to be guilty (@) None of above B. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate answer : 1 Article 48-A of the Constitution is 2. Whoever fails to comply with or contravenes any of the provisions of this Act, or the rules made or orders or directions issued thereunder, shall, in respect of each such failure or contravention, be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to years 3. The Environment Protection Act extends to the 4, means any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment wis 2 of Environment Protection Act. 5. As per Article 51-A(g) in Pact IV-A. duties says that “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures.”, | | C. State whether the following statement are true or false : ai ‘ofthe mates referred to in section 3, (_ ) 2. The concept behind the Environment Protection Act taken from the United Nations Conference on tht Human Environment held at Stockholm in July, 1972 3. Article 21 says that ‘no person s! procedure established by law”, T water.( ) 4. The Environment (Protection © 1986 came into force on November 19, 1987.(_) 5. The 42%! amendment to the Constitution was brought about in the year 1976, Two new Articles were inserted: Art.48-A and Art.51-A‘). ( im D. Match the Following : -The Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, make rules in respect of all or ar r M.C. Mebia v/s Union of tndia (1988) a,_| Section M,C. Mehta v/s Union of India b, | Section 4 Appointment of officers and their powers & Fonotions. | c, | Films about envionment protection infomaation M.C. Mehia v/s Kamal Nath and others” d. | Part of fundamental right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution ‘The right to live in pollution fice environment e, | Tort against the community £_| The dangerous pollution of water of river ganga ‘ Faculty of Law ‘The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda Internal Test - 2017 Second Semester First Year LL.B Subject: Administrative Law © Day & Date: 20" Feb. 2017 Max. Marks: 30 Marks ‘ ‘Time: 2.00 to 2.45 p.m. Notes: i, All questions are compulsory. Hi 4 Each question carries one mark There is no negative marking iv. Figures inthe right side in bold indicates the marks. y. For multiple choices encircle the correct option. ~ sign. Of the Jr. Supervisor: Sign. Of the Examiner: Seat No: Marks obtained: _out of 30 Name (In block letters): Encircle the appropriate option: ‘To answer the multiple choice questions please put ““” on the correct option: 1. Who of the following define administrative Law is a law that concems the powers and procedure of administrative agencies including the law governing judicial review of administrative action. (@) Sit Avor Jennings (b) Dicey _(¢) Kenneth Culp Davis (@) Aristotle 2. Sir Ivor Jennings defines administrative law (@) Law relating to administration (b) it dctermines the organization, powers and the duties of administrative authorities (6) stody of existing principles and development of certain new principles (@ both (a) and (b) 3. Which of the following is/are bricks of the foundation of any administrative law? (2) To check abuse of administrative power (6) to protect citizens from unauthorized encroachment on their rights and interest (6) to provide special treatment to certain mass (@) both (a) and (b) 4. Who of the following jurist said that administrative law relates to that portion of a nation’s legal system which determines the legal status and liabilities of all state official... (a) Dicey (6) Kenneth Culp Davis (¢) Sir Avor Jennings (D) Prof. Upendra Baxi ULTY OF LAW LUBRARY WEPSITY OF BARODA Match the following pairs: 27. Docttine of Separation of powers (a) Tribunal des Conflicts 28. Rule of Law (b) Droit administratif 29. Body of rules which determine the (c) Edward Coke is originator of Organization and the duties of this concept Public administration and regulate Relations of the administration with ‘The citizen of the state 30. Conflict of jurisdiction between ordinary (@) Traceable to Aristotle Courts and administrative courts are Decided by the agency Ans: 27 28 2. 30, Faculty of Law The M.S.University of Baroda Internal RE Test-2017 Subject: Administrative Law lind Semester of First Year LL.B. (Gen) Day & Date: 16” February, 2017 ‘Max. Marks: 30. Timings: 12.00 a.m. to 11.45 a.m Notes: i. All questions are compulsory. i, Each question carries one mark. iii, There is no negative marking iv, Figures ‘in the right side in bold indicates the marks. v. For multiple choices encircle the correct option. of Sign. of the Jr. Supervisor: ‘Sign. of the Examiner: Marks obtained: out of 30: — To be filled in by the candidates: I~ Roll no: 7 Name (In block letters): 1. Who of the following jurist define that Administrative Law is a law relating to administration.. (a) Kenneth Culp Davis, (b) Aristotle (c} Dicey (d) Sie Wvor Jennings 2. The Study of Administrative Law Is. {a} Not an end itself {b) but means to an end (c) position and power (d) both (a) and (b) 3. Which of the following jurist define that Administrative Law is pathology of powers... (a) Prof. Upendra Baxi (b) Dicey (c)Sirlvor Jennings (d) Aristotle 4, Administrative law concern with the... + (a) organaisation _(b) Parliament and its powers _(c) Powers of administrative and quasi-administrative agencies _—_(d) All of these 5, The Term Rule of Law is used in contradiction to. (2) Rule of man {b) Rule according to law (c)Autocracy (4) fairness ‘6 Contingent legislation is covered under... 4 a {2} Authority base classification of delegated legislation {b} Nature base classification of delegated legislation (c) Title base classification of delegated legislation {d)" Purpose base classification of delegated legislation 7. Laprinciple de legalite is associated with. {2) Doctrine of separation of powers _(b) Rule of Law (c) delegated legislation (d) arbitrariness ‘8. Recognition of a cardinal principle of demacratic government as opposed to arbitrary and ‘autocratic government is first principle of... (2) Edward Coke's Rule of Law (b) Hobe’s Rule of Law (c) Dicey's Rule of Law (d) Loke’s Rule of law FACULTY OF 1 4 LIBRARY THE M.S. Unie S052 OF BARODA WaDODARA. ” Se ee ee 9. Which of the following is\are leading to the growth of administrative rule making ? (a) Where crisis legislation is need to meet emergent situation {b) Innocence in technical skill on the part of legistature (co) Where government action involves discretion i.e. Expensation of public utility services {d) All of these 20. In France, which of the following is considerd as body of rules which determine the Organisation ‘And duties of public administration and regulates the relation of the administration with the citizens of the state... (a) Droit administrative (b) separation of powers (c) doctrine of pith and substance (4) 11, tn which of the following case majority judges of the Supreme Court opined that Rule of Law is an aspect of doctrine of basic structure of the Constitution... {a} Sheela Barse v. State of Maharashtra (b} Kesaananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (c) R.D. Shetty v. Intemational Air Port Authority of India 12. Locke's discontinuous legislative power include.. (2) Administrave rule making -{b) legislative power only {) general rule making power called into action from time to time (€) quasi-judicial power 13. If the enabling Act is ultra vires the constitution... (a) Administrative rule making can be set aside by the Court of law (b) Administrative rule making cannot be set aside by the court of law on this ground (c) Administrative rule making is separate from (a) Enabling Act 14. Which of the following falls under exception delegation? (@) Power to amend Acts of parliament {b) Power to make rules without being challenged in a court of law (6) Power to legislate on matters of principle (d) All of these | 45, Who of the following jurist said that “No person should be made to suffer in body or deprived of this property except for a breach of law established in the ordinary legal manner before the ‘ordinary courts of the land as part of Rule of Law? {a) Edward Coke (b) Hobes (c) Dicey (d) Aristotle irmess 16. Administrative Law is a law like Property Law or Contract Law 17, The doctrine of Rule of Law support arbitrariness, 18. The Formulation of Theory of separation of powers that one organs of the government ‘Should not interfere with any other organ of the government, ACULTY 6° Lavi LIBRARY THE M.S. Us BARODA VaDODARA. nee b 419. Principle of freedom, equality, non-discrimination, fraternity, accountability and Non-arbitariness is part of Rule of Law and applies universally, 20. Dicey oppose the vesting of discretionary powers in the hands of government official_ Fill in the blanks by using appropriate word: 21, According to Dicey the rights of the people must flow from the customs and of the People recognized by the courts in the administration of justice. 22. Rule of Law aims to prevent_ 23. In Ministerial action the administrative agency is under an tocomply. 24, Administrative Law is by-product of form of government 25. Power of judicial review is part of, of the Indian Constitution. Match the following pars: 26. Rule decision action {a) associated with the name of Napoleon Bonaparte 27. Administrative discretion 28, Droit administrative 29, Rule of Law {b) known as quasi judicial action {clis traceable to Aristotle (d)is to be used for the purpose for which itis confer 30. Doctrine of Separation of powers (e} aims to prevent arbitrary exercise of powers Answers: (26)____(27)__(28)_(29)__ (80)____ FACULTY THE M.S. Gia, vaDoDARA. SASRARY Ur BARODA oe alae lalate caiiioied eso Faculty of Law The M. S, University of Baroda Internal Test February 2017 Subject: Environmental Law TI Semester of First Year LL.B, (General) Day & Date: 21/2/2017 Max. Marks: 30 Timings:2:00 to 2:45 p.m. Notes: i, All questions are compulsory. ii, Each question carries one mark. iii, There is no negative marking, iv. Figures in the right side in botd indicates the marks. v. For multiple choices encircle the correct option. Sign.of the Jr. Supervisor: —_ Sign, of the Examiner: Marks obtained: out of 30 ‘To be filled in by the candidates: Roll no: Name (In block ietters): A) Multiple Choice Questions (Marks 15) 1. Components of Environment can be described as 2. Abiotie Component . Energy Component b. Biotic Component All of the above 2. The term pollution is derived from the latin word a. Pollutant Pollutionel b. Pollutioner: 4d. Pollutionem 3, Animprovement in human well being that allows us tommeet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs is called a. Environmental Protection _¢. Globalisation b. Sustainable Development _d. None of the above ‘4, Nomliving component includes a. lithosphere Atmosphere b. Hydrosphere 4. All of the above aes gee 5, Which of the following's not an objective of Environment Protection? a. Balancing eco system achievement of sustainable development b. Curb poverty 4. punishment of the polluter. 6. Which of the following is not responsible for environmental pollution ? a. Population Cc Industrialization b. Unplanned urbanization d, None of the above 7. Environment includes a. Natural environment both (aj and (b) b. Man -made environment d. None of the above 8 Which of the following remedy is available in case of environmental pollution ? a. Civil ¢. Other b. Criminal d. All of the above, 9. Easements Act provides descriptive right to pollute air or water, itis. | a. An absolute right Not an absolute right b. Conditional right unconditional right 10. According to the UN Councit on environmental quality, is the inter dependence of non livings and livings a. Eco system b. Ecology Environment 4. None of the above 11. Eco System services include a. Purification of water and irc, Maintenance of bio diversity b. Generation of soil fertility d. Allo the above 12. In which of the following case a writ petition was filed claiming damages for the victims of the Gas leakage from the plant of Shree Ram Foods Fertilizers industries a. Murll S Deora Vs Union of india .N. 0. Jayal and another Vs Union, of india b.-M.CMetha Vs Union of India 4. Bhopal Gas Disaster Case 13. Which of the following Article of Constitution of India states that it shall be the duty of every citizen of india to protect and improve the natural environment? a. Article S1A cArticle 21 b. Article 48 A. d.Article 19 14, In view of Article___of the Constitution of india, whenever there is violation of fundamental right, any person can approach the Court for an appropriate remedy. a. Article 32 Article 21 : b. Article 48. d. Article 14 15, In which of the following case Supreme Court has directed to relocate industries because of the industrialization pollution was affecting Taj Mahal? a. Taj Trapezium Case Muri S. Deora b. Vollore Citizens Welfare Forum v. UO! d. N. D. Jayal v. UOE Mark True or False: 16, Energy component of Environment includes solar energy, geo-chemical energy, hydro clectrical energy ete. that helps maintaining the real life of organisms. 17. Environment awareness among the people is not an objective of Environment Protection. 18. “Pollution” means any substance or activity capable to damage or injury lowering the environmental quality 19, The growth of uncontrolled population is the most responsible factor for environmental problem. 20. According to the Supreme Court, Environmental ustice could be achieved only if we drift away from the principle of anthropocentric to ecocentric. Fill in the blanks: a ‘means a study of organisms in relation to the environment. 22, According:to the universe consists of five important elements. 2B. ‘means the presence in the environment of any environmental pollutant. 24. doctrine is meant that all humans have equitable access to natural resources treating all resources as property and life 25, Natural resources are held by the State as. of the public. “Match the following: 26, Muti S. Deora asa ~~ # Tehri Dam Project case 27. N.D, Jayal v. UO1 B. Polluter must pay 28, Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. UO! C. Passive smokers and Art. 21 29. M,C. Mehta v. UO! D. Doon valley case 30, Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. St.of U.P. E. Vehicular Pollution case (26-_Jte7-__),(28-__,(29-__3,80-__) FACULTY CF -IBRARY THE M.S, UREE® "0? OF BARODA VADODARA. 4 Faculty of Law ‘TheM. S. University of Baroda Internal Retest March 2017 Subject: Environmental Law II Semester of First Year LL.B. (General) Max. Marks: 30 Day & Date: Friday 17" March 2017 ‘Timings: 11:00 to 11:45 Notes: i. All questions are compulsory. ii, Each question carries one mark. iii, There is no negative marking. iv, Figures in the right side in bold indicates the marks. xy, For multiple choices encircle the correct option. Sign.of the Jr. Supervisor: __ Sign. of the Examiner: Marks obtained: ___out of 30 To be filled in by the candidates: Roll no: é Name (In block letters): (Marks 15) 'A) Multiple Choice Questions 4. Which of the following section under The Environment (Protection) Act,1986 refers Power to give directions? a, Section 3 «Section 4 b. Section 5 d. Section 6 2. Which of the following case refers Tehri Dam Project Case? ‘a. MurliS. Deora v. Uol «Sterlite Industries (india) Ltd. v. Uot b. M.C. Mehta v. Uol 4.N.D. Jayal and Another v. Uot le access to 3. Which of the following doctrine is meant to ensure that all humans have equitabl natural resources as property and lif. 2. Trust doctrine «. Public doctrine b. PublicTrust doctrine ¢. None of the above ‘4. Which ofthe following isnot included in non-tving component? ‘a. lithosphere component « Energy component b. Hydrosphere component 6, Atmosphere component | i | | 5. Broadly, Environment can be divided into i | a. Natural Environment Both (a) and (b) b. Man-made Environment d. None of the above | | 6. The expression which connotes one or more members of a numerous I class, having the common interest may defend or sue on behalf of themselves and all the | other members of the class. | a. Class action ¢. Common action : |. b. Action d. None of the above ___means a person who has control over the affairs of the factory or the 7 promises 2. Occupier Manager b. Owner 4d. None of the above 8. Which of the following remedy is available in case of e a Cwil «Other b. Criminal 4. All of the above. oe, 9. In which of the following case a writ petition was filed claiming damages for the victims of the Gas leakage from the plant of Shree Ram Foods Fertilizers Industries a. Bhopal Gas Disaster Case ‘M,C Metha Vs Union of India b.N.D. Jayal and another Vs Union

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