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3.1 Introduction
In the early 20th century, engineers are just concerned with the design,
construction, operation of machine structures, and process. However, as
technological advancement continues to progress, modern engineers are
expected to plan, build, solve problems, manage, and choose the best options
available for innovation.
Thus, as future engineers, you are expected to be a good decision maker not
just with the engineering design but also with the money involved. You
should be able to quantify the benefits and cost relating engineering projects
to determine if your desired option is relevant and saves enough money to
warrant the capital investment. Your role is to choose the best options among
all potential alternatives involved in an engineering project. The discussions
in previous unit, Unit 2 – Money Time Relationship and Equivalence, is the
basic ingredient in helping you choose the best alternative.
In this unit, we will discuss how to compare alternatives on an equal basis for
selecting the wisest alternative from an economic standpoint.
These methods will be discussed in the succeeding section. But, before that, let
us discuss alternatives and its classification.
2 | Engineering Economy 3
3.2 Pre-Assessment
Answer the following questions given below. If the answers will be sent through
online platform always send a CLEAR IMAGE of your answer and use
“CAMSCANNER” if possible. Always KEEP a BACK-UP FILE.
Evaluation Criteria:
3.3 Topics
3.3.1 The Minimum Attractive Rate of Return
The Minimum Attractive Rate of Return (MARR) also known as hurdle rate
is usually a policy issue resolved by the top management of an organization
in view of numerous considerations.
The Minimum Rate of Return (MARR), from the word itself, is the minimum
rate of return that your alternatives should achieve for it to be considered
economically feasible.
2 | Engineering Economy 4
For example, consider the figure below (Figure 3.2), a company has 7
independent potential investment projects (Projects A, B, C, D, E, F, and G).
However, the company has only $600 million available capital to invest.
Since the capital is limited, we need to divide this money to the all worthy
potential investment projects (alternatives) that has greater gain. This
phenomenon is what we call capital rationing. [Gin rarasyon naton an limitado
nga capital ha alternatives na may mas dako an balik ha aton]
The potential investment projects are now arranged in a manner that has
greater annual rate of return (ROR) or profit with least required capital.
Project A is the first on the list since it has a large annual ROR (35%)
and has minimal required capital investment (Approx. $60 million).
Project B is the second on the list since it has 30% annual ROR and
approximately $130 million required capital investment.
Project C is the third on the list since it has 26% annual ROR and
approximately $230 million required capital investment.
Project D and Project E are the fourth and fifth on the list since it has
23% and 19% annual ROR and approximately $90 million and $100
million required capital investment.
Project F and Project G are the sixth and seventh on the list since it has
16% and 14% annual ROR and approximately $90 million and $50
million required capital investment.
2 | Engineering Economy 5
Since our available capital is limited, we can only fund Projects A to E and
reject the remaining investments, Project F and G.
In this case, the MARR by the opportunity cost principle (best rejected
opportunity) is the ROR of the best project that is rejected (Project F) which is
16% annual ROR. Thus, MARR = 16% annual ROR.
3.3.2 Annuity
Before we discuss the different methods of comparison of alternatives, we
need to understand an important concept that would help us in the analysis of
those methods known as annuity.
0 n = number
1 2 3 n-1
of interest
i = Interest Rate per Period periods
Formulas
Future Worth:
*Note that for deferred annuity, the future worth formula is the same with the
ordinary annuity the only difference is the present worth formula.
A = Uniform Amounts
A A A
0 1 2 n
0 1 2 j
i = Interest Rate per Period
Where:
A = Uniform amounts
n = Number of periods (number of payments/deposits)
j = Number of periods before the first annuity
i = Rate of interest per period (payments/deposits)
F = Future Worth
P = Present Worth
Formulas
Future Worth:
Present Worth:
Formulas
Future Worth:
Present Worth:
Where:
A = Uniform amounts
n = Number of periods (number of deposits)
i = Rate of interest per period
F = Future Worth
P = Present Worth
n = 6 years
Required: F
Solution:
3.2.2.4 Perpetuity
Perpetuity is a type of annuity in which the periodic payments continue
indefinitely. Since this type of annuity is unending, the future value
cannot be calculated.
Formulas
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Present Worth:
Where:
A = Uniform amounts
n = Number of periods (number of deposits)
i = Rate of interest per period
P = Present Worth
Example: Perpetuity
6. Daniel wants to retire and receive ₱ 3,000 a month. He wants to pass
this monthly payment to future generations after his death. He can
earn an interest of 8% compounded annually. How much will he need
to set aside to achieve his perpetuity goal?
Given:
A = ₱ 3,000 per month
r = 8%
m = 12 (monthly)
Required: P
Solution:
2 | Engineering Economy 12
F A, i, n
P A, i, n
Deferred Annuity
F A, i, n
P A, i, n, j
Annuity Due
F A, i, n
P A, i, n
Perpetuity
P A, i
Moreover, note that it is useful to memorize the factor functional symbol since
we will be using it in the calculations later.
Note that in PW analysis, you must always compare alternatives with equal
life service. So, before you do any comparison, you have to make sure that the
alternatives being compared has equal life service.
Profit, revenue, salvage value (all inflows to an organization) will be assigned
with positive sign. The costs (outflows) will be assigned with negative sign.
EVALUATION
For one project, if PW 0, it is acceptable
For mutually exclusive (ME) alternatives, select one with the
numerically highest PW, that is, less negative or more positive
For independent alternatives, accept all alternatives with PW 0
2 | Engineering Economy 14
Solution:
Alternative A
₱ 6,000
0 1 2 2 2 2
2 3 4 5
₱ 30,000
The operating cost is per year with the same amount therefore
we are going to use the formula for annuity. (See table 3.2)
The salvage value (scrap value or the value of the asset when it
is no longer usable) has a future worth, thus, we need to convert
it into present worth using the formula for single cash flow. (See
table 3.2).
PW = F (P/F, i%, n) Functional Symbol Notation
Alternative B
₱ 7,000
0 1 2 2 2 2
2 3 4 5
Solution:
Since it will save 30,000 KWh per year, and the electricity cost is ₱10 per
KWh, it will save:
₱ 8,000
0 1 2 2 2 2 2
2 3 4 5 6
₱ 110,000
The PW analysis must always compare alternatives for equal life service (i.e.
alternatives must end at the same time). However, in real life study, not all the
alternatives that is analyzed has equal life. Thus, you need to manipulate the
service life using techniques that will be discussed later so that they would
have equal service life.
Machine A Machine B
2 | Engineering Economy 17
Solution:
Notice that the alternatives being compared have different life. So,
we’ll use the LCM method.
Since the service life of the machines are 3 and 6 its LCM = 6, thus, we
will repurchase Machine A after 3 years. As a result, within the 6 years
there will be two Machine A.
Machine A
₱ 4,000 ₱ 4,000
0 1 2 2 2 2 2
2 3 4 5 6
₱ 20,000 ₱ 20,000
Remember that for PW analysis we need to move all the values in the
cash flow into time zero for it the be in present worth
Cost will be negative and salvage value will be positive. The formula
will be:
The annual cost (AC) is per year with the same amount therefore we
are going to use the formula for annuity. (See table 3.2 for formula).
The repurchase cost has a future worth since we will repurchase after 3
years, thus, we need to convert it into present worth using the formula
for single cash flow. (See table 3.2 for formula).
2 | Engineering Economy 18
The salvage value (SV) (scrap value or the value of the asset when it is
no longer usable) has a future worth, thus, we need to convert it into
present worth using the formula for single cash flow. (See table 3.2 for
formula).
Machine B ₱ 6,000
0 1 2 2 2 2 2
2 3 4 5 6
₱ 30,000
Remember that for PW analysis we need to move all the values in the
cash flow into time zero for it the be in present worth
Cost will be negative and salvage value will be positive. The formula
will be:
The annual cost (AC) is per year with the same amount therefore we
are going to use the formula for annuity. (See table 3.2 for formula).
The salvage value (SV) (scrap value or the value of the asset when it is
no longer usable) has a future worth, thus, we need to convert it into
present worth using the formula for single cash flow. (See table 3.2 for
formula).
10. Compare the machines below using PW analysis at MARR = 10% per
year
Select which machine is better for a study period of 3 years.
Machine A Machine B
First Cost (FC) in 20,000 30,000
Annual Cost (AC) in 9,000 7,000
/yr
Salvage Value (SV) in 4,000 6,000 (after 6 years)
10,000 (after 3
years)
Life in years 3 6
Solution:
Remember that for PW analysis we need to move all the values in the
cash flow into time zero for it the be in present worth
2 | Engineering Economy 20
Machine A
Cost will be negative and salvage value will be positive. The formula
will be:
Machine B
Cost will be negative and salvage value will be positive. The formula
will be:
“FW is exactly like PW analysis except that we should calculate the future
worth”
Computation of this type of analysis is somewhat the same with the present
worth analysis except that instead of comparing the alternatives in its present
worth, we will compare alternatives by its future worth.
EVALUATION
For one project, if FW 0, it is acceptable
For mutually exclusive (ME) alternatives, select one with the
numerically highest FW, that is, less negative or more positive.
For independent alternatives, accept all alternatives with FW 0
11. Two processes can be used for producing a polymer that reduces friction
loss in engines. Process T will have a first cost of ₱ 750,000, an operating
cost of ₱ 60,000 per year, and a salvage value of ₱ 80,000 after its 2-year
life. Process W will have a first cost of ₱ 1,350,000, an operating cost of ₱
25,000 per year, and a ₱ 120,000 salvage value after its 4-year life. Process
W will also require updating at the end of year 2 at a cost of ₱ 90,000.
Which process should be selected on the basis of a future worth analysis
at an interest rate of 12% per year?
Process T Process W
First Cost (FC) in 750,000 1,350,000
Operating Cost (OC) in 60,000 25,000
Solution:
Notice that the alternatives being compared have different life. So, we’ll
use the LCM method.
Since the service life of the machines are 2 and 4 its LCM = 4, thus, we
will repurchase Process T after 2 years and have 2 life cycle of this
process.
0 1 2 2 2
2 3 4
Remember that for FW analysis we need to move all the values in the cash
flow into year 4 for it the be in future worth
Cost will be negative and salvage value will be positive. The formula will be:
Process W ₱ 120,000
0 1 2 2 2
2 3 4
₱ 1,350,000 ₱ 90,000
The Annual worth (AW) value is the annual amount “A” value that we have
discussed so far in the previous section (Annuity, PW analysis, and FW
analysis).
The AW value determined over one life cycle is the AW for all future life
cycles.
Therefore, it is not necessary to use the LCM technique to satisfy the equal-
service requirement.
EVALUATION
One alternative (Single Project): If AW 0, the requested MARR is
met or exceeded and the alternative is economically justified.
Two or more alternatives (ME alternatives): Select the alternative with
the AW that is numerically largest, that is, less negative or more
positive. This indicates a lower AW of cost for cost alternatives or a
larger AW of net cash flows for revenue alternatives.
If the projects are independent, the AW at the MARR is calculated. All
projects with AW 0 are acceptable.
12. A machine has a first cost of ₱ 20,000, an annual operating and maintenance
cost of ₱ 5,000, and a salvage value of ₱ 3,000 after 2 years. Calculate the AW
at i = 10% for (a.) one life cycle (b.) two life cycle.
Solution:
To find the AW, we have to convert all cash flows into annual amount “A”. Since the
annual operating and maintenance cost is already in annual value, we will leave it as
it is.
0 1 2
2
₱ 5,000 ₱ 5,000
₱ 20,000
2 | Engineering Economy 24
0 1 2 3 4
₱ 20,000 ₱ 20,000
Note that we have to move the cash flows in year 2 to present worth (year 0) before we convert
it to annual worth for 4 years. Also, the cost of buying the machine which is ₱ 20,000 will be
subtracted by the salvage value of ₱ 3,000 of the first machine, that will be ₱ 17,000.
Notice that the annual worth of one cycle is also equal to the annual worth of
2 cycles. This proves our previous statement, “AW value determined over
one life cycle is the AW for all future life cycles” holds true.
Machine R Machine S
First Cost (FC) in 250,000 370,000
Operating Cost (OC) in 40,000 50,000
2 | Engineering Economy 25
Solution:
Machine R
Machine S
The equation for CC analysis is derived from the present worth (PW) as life
(n) approaches to infinity:
2 | Engineering Economy 26
1 0
Notice that this formula is the same as perpetuity which we have discussed
in the earlier section.
This formula is useful when you have already an annual worth analysis
such as Example 12 and 13. We would just divide those values by the
interest and we will have the capitalized cost (cc) value.
EVALUATION
Two or more alternatives (ME alternatives): The alternative with a capital
cost that is nearest to zero will represent the more economical one.
14. Find the capitalized cost of the machines in Example 13 (page 50), Machine R
has an whereas Machine S has an . Both
operates at an interest rate of 10% per year.
Solution:
Notice that in the above example problem, the selection is the same whether it is
an AW analysis or a CC analysis.
When you are given an infinite cash flow diagram or a cash flow diagram that
would last “forever”, determination of CC are as follows:
1. Draw a cash flow diagram showing all nonrecurring (one-time) cash
flows and at least two cycles of all recurring (periodic) cash flows.
2. Find the present worth of all nonrecurring amounts. This is their CC
value.
3. Find the A value through one life cycle of all recurring amounts. (This is
the same value in all succeeding life cycles, as explained in Annuity). Add
this to all other uniform amounts (A) occurring in years 1 through
infinity. The result is the total equivalent uniform annual worth (AW).
4. Divide the AW obtained in step 3 by the interest rate i to obtain a CC
value. This is an application of Equation .
5. Add the CC values obtained in steps 2 and 4.
Reminder!
15. Compare the alternatives shown on the basis of their capitalized costs (cc)
using an interest rate of 10% per year.
Alternative M Alternative N
First Cost (FC) in 150,000 800,000
Operating Cost (OC) in 50,000 12,000
Solution:
Alternative N
Notice that Alternative N have an expected life of 5 years. The best technique
to be used here is to find its AW value and divide it by the interest to
determine the CC value.
2 | Engineering Economy 28
Alternative M
Notice that Alternative M have an infinite expected life. The best technique to
be used here is the procedure discussed (page 52).
Step 1: Draw a cash flow diagram showing all nonrecurring (one-time) cash
flows and at least two cycles of all recurring (periodic) cash flows.
₱ 100,000
0 1 2 …
₱ 800,000
Step 2: Find the present worth of all nonrecurring amounts. This is their CC
value.
Non-recurring amount: First Cost (FC) and Salvage Value (SV). FC is already
in its present worth (time = 0). SV will be neglected since the alternative has
infinite life:
Step 3: Find the A value through one life cycle of all recurring amounts. (This
is the same value in all succeeding life cycles, as explained in Annuity). Add this to
all other uniform amounts (A) occurring in years 1 through infinity. The result
is the total equivalent uniform annual worth (AW).
Recurring Amount: Operating Cost (OC), this value is already in annual
amount, and there is no other recurring amount aside from this value. Thus,
Step 4: Divide the AW obtained in step 3 by the interest rate i to obtain a CC value.
This is an application of Equation .
2 | Engineering Economy 29
This also means that it is the interest that makes the present worth or
annual worth of all inflows (receipts, revenues or savings) equal to the
present worth or annual worth of all outflows (cost, disbursements or
expenditures).
For a single alternative, from the lender’s viewpoint, the IRR is not positive
unless:
(1) both receipts and expenses are present in the cash-flow pattern, and
(2) the sum of receipts exceeds the sum of all cash outflows.
2 | Engineering Economy 30
EVALUATION
Solution:
In IRR analysis, the unknown is the interest rate i = IRR, and we need to compare it
with the MARR for decision making. Also, we will set PW=0
Next, use the solve function by clicking the “shift” then “calc”
button.
This may take a while, just wait for the calculator to solve.
The IRR is 0.18155 or 18.155%. Since IRR > MARR, accept the alternative.
Since the IRR method has many drawbacks, the rise of other rate of return
methods emerge to mitigate or address the weakness of IRR. One of these
methods is the external rate of return (ERR) method.
External rate of return (ERR) method introduces an external interest rate (∈) or
an interest outside of the project at which net cash-flow (net cash-flow =
inflow – outflow) generated or required over its life can be reinvested or
borrowed. If this external reinvestment rate, which is usually the firm’s
MARR, happens to equal the project’s IRR, then the ERR method produces a
decision identical to those of the IRR method.
EVALUATION
₱ 3,000
0 1 2 3 4 5
₱ 20,000
Step 1: All net cash outflows are discounted to time zero (the present)
at i=∈=12% per compounding period.
In this step, we are going to determine the PW of all the cash outflows,
remember we use the absolute value.
Step 2: All net cash inflows are compounded to period “n” (the future)
at i=∈=12%
Here we are going to determine the FW (year 5) of all the cash inflows
Since ERR > MARR, 15% > 12%, accept the project.
2 | Engineering Economy 34
In simple terms, the payback period method calculates the number of years
required for the cash inflows to equal the cash outflows.
The payback period (np) is an estimated time for the revenues, savings, and
any other monetary benefits to completely recover the initial investment plus
a stated rate of return (i).
There are two types of payback analysis as determined by the required return:
Simple payback; i = 0%: Also called no return, this is the recovery of
only the initial investment. It ignores the time value of money and all
cash flows that occur after np.
₱ 3,000
0 1 2 3 4 5
₱ 20,000
2 | Engineering Economy 35
Solution:
To determine the value of the payback period, we can use the linear
interpolation method in your calculator using the STAT Mode:
Click SHIFT, then click 1, then click 5 for Reg, then 4 for
2 | Engineering Economy 37
will appear on the screen, move the to the left by clicking the
button shown in the second picture, the result will look like the
third picture.
The answer shows that the simple payback period will be at 3.33
years.
Conventional Formula:
For a single project the calculation of the B/C ratio is the same. To decide
whether the project is economically feasible, refer to the evaluation below.
17. A project has a cashflow diagram shown below. The MARR is 15%.
Compute for the B/C ratio and decide if the project should be
accepted or not.
₱ 8,000
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
₱ 110,000
Solution:
Important!
Make sure that the alternatives being compared passed the initial screening.
That means has a B/C ratio of every alternatives being compared (process we
used for single project) is higher than 1. If the project is lower than 1,
automatically reject the project, and proceed with the calculations for
incremental benefit/cost analysis for the ones that passed in this initial
screening
18. Given the cashflow diagram of two alternatives, select which is better
using the B/C method. MARR = 9%
₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 15,000 ₱ 15,000 ₱ 15,000 ₱ 15,000 ₱ 15,000
0 1 2 3 4 5 0 1 2 3 4 5
Alternative R Alternative S
₱ 20,000 ₱ 35,000
2 | Engineering Economy 41
Solution:
We have to make sure that every alternative passed the initial screening
(B/C > 1 for single project)
Alternative R
₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000 ₱ 7,000
0 1 2 3 4 5
Alternative R
₱ 20,000
Alternative S 0 1 2 3 4 5
Alternative S
₱ 35,000
Step 1: Take the higher first cost MINUS the lower first cost
2 | Engineering Economy 42
In the remaining steps we will find the B/C ratio for Alternative
S-R, this value would be the B/ C and proceed with the
evaluation using the criteria for incremental cost analysis to
know which alternative we should choose.
Alternative S - R
₱ 15,000
Remember!
o It is necessary to use the incremental benefit/cost method
for those alternatives who passed the B/C ratio for single
project (initial screening).
o DO NOT directly compare the B/C for each project
(initial screening) since there are times that even though
the B/C in the initial screening is higher than the other,
its result of B/ C in the incremental benefit/cost
method tells otherwise.