08/04/2023

Morning

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Memory Based
Answers & Solutions
Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-2

(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

PHYSICS

SECTION - A A
4. Two forces of magnitude A and
act
2
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of the
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
resultant force is equal to
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
A 5A
Choose the correct answer: (1) (2)
2 2
1. For an electron and a proton (mp = 1847 me) with
3A 5A
same de-Broglie wavelength, the ratio of linear (3) (4)
momentum is equal to 2 2

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1847 Answer (2)

(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1847 : 1 A2

Sol. Anet = A2 +
Answer (3) 4
h 5A
Sol.  =
p 2
As p1 = p2  1 = 2 5. An air bubble having volume 1 cm 3 at depth 40 m
2. If the weight of an object on earth’s surface is inside water comes to surface. What will be the
400 N, then weight of the same object at a depth volume of the bubble at the surface?
R (1) 5 cm3 (2) 2 cm3
from surface would be (R is radius of earth)
2 (3) 4 cm3 (4) 3 cm3
(1) 100 N (2) 300 N
Answer (1)
(3) 200 N (4) 250 N
Sol. Initial pressure = P0 + gh
Answer (3)
= 105 + 1000 × 10 × 40
 R /2 
Sol. W  = W  1 −
R 
= 5 × 105

Final pressure = 105
 1
= 400  1 −  = 200 N PV = constant
 2 
 5 × 105 × Vi = 105 × Vf
3. If two particles A and B are projected with speed of
40 m/s and 60 m/s at an angle of 30° and 60° with  Vf = 5 cm3
the horizontal respectively. The ratio of the range of 6. The height of antenna is 98 m. The radius of earth
A to B will be is 6400 km. The area upto which it will transmit
(1) 2:3 (2) 3:2 signal, is

(3) 4 : 9 (4) 2 : 1 (1) 3642 km2 (2) 3942 km2

Answer (3) (3) 11200 km2 (4) 22400 km2
Answer (2)
u12 sin21
g u12 sin21 Sol. r = 2Rh
Sol. = 
u22 sin22 u22 sin22
Area = r2 = 2Rh
g
22
= 2  6400  103  98
3 7
4 2 = 4
=  = 3942.4 × 106 m2
9  3 9
  = 3942.4 km2
 2 

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
7. The graph showing the variation of electric field (E) (1) 4 : 5 (2) 2 : 5
with the distance (r) from the centre of a conducting (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 1
spherical shell is
Answer (1)
Sol. At steady state Req = 6 + 2 + 8 = 16 
(1) (2) 4 1
ibattery = = A
16 4
1
VC1 = 8 = 2V
(3) (4) 4
1 5
VC2 =  10 = V
4 2
Answer (2)
11. If velocity of charged particle has the component
Sol. Einside shell = 0
both in and perpendicular to the direction of
KQ magnetic field then the path traced by the charged
Eoutside shell =
r2 particle will be
8. If mass, radius of cross-section and height of a (1) Circular (2) Straight line
cylinder are (0.4 + 0.01) g, (6 + 0.03) m and height
(3) Cycloid (4) Helical
(8 + 0.04) m. The maximum percentage error in the
measurement of density of cylinder is Answer (4)
(1) 1% (2) 4% Sol. Velocity perpendicular to B will cause circular
(3) 8% (4) 7% motion which parallel to B will cause pitch so
Answer (2) helical motion is the correct answer.
m 1
Sol.  = 12. The dimension of is
r h
2
0 0
  m 2r h  (1) MLT–1 (2) M0LT–2
=  + +
  m r h  (3) ML2T–1 (4) M0L2T–2
= 0.04 Answer (4)
9. An atom of atomic mass 242, having binding energy 1
per nucleon 8.4 MeV, breaks into two atoms of Sol. = (LT −1 )
 0 0
atomic mass 121 each (with binding energy per
nucleon 7.1 MeV). Find the absolute Q-value of the 1
= (L2 T −2 )
reaction 0 0
(1) 150 MeV (2) 314.6 MeV
13. In an LC oscillating circuit with L = 75 mH and
(3) 208.4 MeV (4) 290.8 MeV C = 30 F. The maximum charge of capacitor is
Answer (2) 2.7 × 10–4C. Maximum current through the circuit
Sol. Q-value = 242 [8.4 – 7.1] MeV will be
= 314.6 MeV (1) 0.18 Amp (2) 0.24 Amp
10. What is the ratio of potential difference across C1 (3) 0.72 Amp (4) 0.92 Amp
and C2 at steady state for the given circuit? Answer (1)
1 1 2.7  2.7  10 –9
Sol.  75  10 –3  I 2 = 
2 2 3  10–6
27  9 81
I2 =  10 –2 =  10 –2
75 25
0.9
 I= Amp = 0.18 Amp
5

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

14. The moment of inertia of a semi-circular ring of 17. Two different lenses are used in telescope because
mass M and radius R about an axis passing through (1) Magnification is increased
centre and perpendicular to the plane of ring is
(2) Focal length is increased
(3) More light is captured
(4) Spherical aberration is increased
Answer (1)
Sol. Theoretical.
1 18. The truth table of the given circuit is
(1) MR2 (2) MR2
2
3
(3) 2MR2 (4) MR2
4
Answer (1)
Sol. Distance of mass from centre is same so,
I =  dmR 2 = R 2  dm = MR 2 (1) A B Y (2) A B Y
1 0 1 1 0 1
15. Statement (1): If total energy of a satellite revolving
0 0 0 0 0 0
around earth in circular path is E, then potential
energy of satellite is 2E 1 1 1 1 1 0
Statement (2): Kinetic energy is also twice of total 0 1 1 0 1 1
energy
(3) A B Y (4) A B Y
(1) (1) & (2), both are true
1 0 1 1 0 0
(2) (1) is true, but (2) is false
0 0 1 0 0 0
(3) Both (1) & (2) are false
1 1 1 1 1 0
(4) (1) is false, but (2) is true
0 1 1 0 1 0
Answer (2)
Answer (1)
Gm1m2
Sol. Total energy = –
2r Sol. A B A B Y
Gm1m2 1 0 0 1 1
P·E = –
r 0 0 1 1 0
Gm1m2 1 1 0 0 1
K·E =
2r 0 1 1 0 1
16. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason
19. In a lake of depth 40 m a bubble is at bottom.
(R):
Assuming temperature and density of lake water to
(A): When heat is supplied to a system, be uniform find density of air in bubble. (Assume
temperature increase.
temperature T = 12°C and density water =
(R): Positive work done by the system increases 103 kg/m3)
volume of thermodynamic system.
(1) 16.76 kg/m3 (2) 15.32 kg/m3
(1) Assertion is true, reason is false
(3) 6.33 kg/m3 (4) 45.94 kg/m3
(2) Assertion is false, reason is true
Answer (3)
(3) Both are true and reason is correct explanation
of assertion m
Sol. PV = RT
(4) Both are true and reason is incorrect M
explanation of assertion  PM = RT
Answer (2)
5  105  30  10−3
Sol. When heat is supplied, if work done exceeds  =
8.314  285
increase in internal energy, then T < O.
= 6.33 kg/m3
Also, if volume increases → work done is positive
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
20. A train is moving with a speed of 10 m/s towards a 22. In a long solenoid the magnetic field intensity inside
platform and blows a horn with frequency 400 Hz. the solenoid is equal to 1.6 × 10–3T. If number of
8
Find the frequency heard by a passenger standing turns per unit length on the solenoid is equal to

on the platform. Take speed of sound = 310 m/s.
per cm then current flowing in the solenoid is equal
(1) 405 Hz (2) 425 Hz to ______ Amperes.
(3) 380 Hz (4) 413 Hz Answer (5)
Sol. B = 0nI
Answer (4)
1.6  10 −3  107  
v − v0  I=
Sol. f  = f   800  4 
v − vs 
160
= = 5 Amperes
 310 − 0  32
= 400 
 310 − 10  23. A particle of mass 500 grams is moving with
velocity v = 2t i + 3t 2 j m/s. Then the force on the
4
= (310) Hz ; 413 Hz
3 particle at t = 1 s is i + x j N. Find x.

SECTION - B Answer (3)

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Sol. a = 2 i + 6t j

contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five  F = ma = i + 3t j
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
= i + 3 j N at t = 1.
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
24. Momentum of a particle is increased by 50% by
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
keeping its mass constant. Percentage increase in
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; kinetic energy of particle is
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using Answer (125)
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
p2
the place designated to enter the answer. Sol. K.E. =
2m
21. In the given diagram, find the distance (in cm) pi2
K.E. i =
between 2nd and 3rd image formed left of mirror A. 2m
pf2 2.25 pi2
K.E. f = =
2m 2m
= 2.25 K.E.i
25. An electric dipole with dipole moment 5 cm is
placed in a region with uniform electric field 600 N/C
at angle 90° with the direction of field. The torque
experienced by the dipole (in milli Newton-meters)
is equal to _________.
Answer (12.00) Answer (3)
Sol. Sol.  = p  E = 5 × 10–6 × 600 Nm = 3 × 10–3 Nm

26.
Answer ( )
Sol.
27.
28.
Distance = 26 – 14 29.
= 12 cm 30.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

CHEMISTRY
5. Read the following two statements
SECTION - A
Statement-I : Ionic radius of Li+ is greater than
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Mg++.
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices Statement-II : Lithium and Magnesium can’t form
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. superoxide.
Choose the correct answer: (1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
1. Which of the following elements is most reactive? (2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are
incorrect
(1) Ca (2) Mg
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
(3) Sr (4) K incorrect
Answer (4) (4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
correct
Sol. (K) potassium is most reactive out of the given
Answer (1)
elements.
Sol. Radius of Li+ = 76 pm and that of Mg++ is 72 pm.
2. Consider the following reaction Both Li and Mg are not able to form superoxide due
XeF4 + SbF5 ¾¾® [XeFm ]+n [SbFp ]q- to their small size.

The value of m + n + p + q is 6. Why gypsum is used in cement?

(1) 10 (2) 8 (1) To increase the hydration of the constituents
(3) 6 (4) 11 (2) To give a hard mass
(3) To slow down the process of setting of the
Answer (4)
cement
Sol. (4) To increase the rate of setting of the cement.
Answer (3)
Sol. Gypsum is added to the cement to slow down the
3. The extraction of which one of the following metals process of setting of the cement.
involves concentration of the ore by leaching. 7. Choose the correct product–
(1) Copper (2) Magnesium
(3) Aluminium (4) Potassium
Answer (3)
Sol. Bauxite, (Al2O3×2H2O), the ore of aluminium is
concentrated by leaching by using aq. NaOH (1)
solution at high temperature and high pressure.
4. Consider the reaction
Cu+2 + X– ® Cu2X2 + X2 (2)
Final product X2 will be predominantly.
(1) Cl2
(3)
(2) Br2
(3) I2
(4) All halogens are possible
Answer (3) (4)

Sol. Cu+2 + X– ® Cu2I2 + I2

X2 is therefore I2

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
Answer (2) 9. Which cell representation is correct for the reaction
Sol. LiAlH4 will reduce both carboxylic acid and ester to given below
Alcohol. H2 + 2AgCl ® 2H+ + 2Ag + 2Cl–
8. Which of the following plots correctly represents (1) Pt|H2|HCl||AgCl|Ag
Freundlich adsorption isotherm?
(2) Pt|H2|HCl||AgCl|Pt
(3) Ag|AgCl|HCl|H2|Pt
(4) Pt|AgCl|HCl|H2|Pt
(a) Answer (1)
Sol. Anode : H2 ® 2H+ + 2e–
Cathode : e– + AgCl ® Ag + Cl–
10. Find the value of 'n' in the following redox reaction
IO3- + H+ + nI- ¾¾
® 6I2 + H2O

(b) (1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 9
(4) 5
Answer (1)
(c) Sol. n-factor of IO 3- and I- in the given redox reaction
are 5 and 1 respectively. Therefore, IO 3- and I- will
always react in the molar ratio 1 : 5 to get I2
IO3- + 6H+ + 5I- ¾¾
® 3I2 + 3H2O
To get 6 molar of I2, multiply throughout by 2.
(d)
2IO3- + 12H+ + 10 I- ¾¾
® 6I2 + 6H2O
\ n = 10
11. For an electron and proton with same de-Broglie
(1) a, b (2) a, b, c wavelength, the ratio of linear momentum is equal
(3) a, b, d (4) b, d to
Answer (1) (1) 1 : 2
1 (2) 2 : 1847
x
Sol. = kp n (3) 1 : 1
m
(4) 1847 : 1
Answer (3)
h
Sol. l =
p
As l is same, p is same. \ Ratio is 1 : 1
x 1 12. Which of the following is most stable, diamagnetic
and log = log k + log p
m n and octahedral shaped?
(1) K3[Co(CN)6]
(2) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3
(3) Na3[CoF6]
(4) All have exact equal stability
Answer (1)

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. [Co(CN)6]3– and [Co(H2O)6]3+ are diamagnetic but Which of the following options represent correctly
first one is more stable as D0 is high for first the Br atoms which are more reactive in SN1
complex. mechanism?
13. Select the correct order of electronegativity of the
(1) (A) Br – (a)
elements : B, C, At, S
(1) B > C > S > At (B) Br – (a)
(2) S > C > B > At (C) Br – (a)
(3) C > B > S > At (D) Br – (a)
(4) S > C > At > B
(2) (A) Br – (a)
Answer (4)
Sol. The electronegativity of B (2), C (2.5), At (2.2) & (B) Br – (b)
S (2.58). Hence the order will be S > C > At > B (C) Br – (b)
14. Which of the following has same d-electrons as (D) Br – (a)
chromium in chromyl chloride?
(3) (A) Br – (b)
(1) Fe(III)
(B) Br – (b)
(2) Ni(III)
(3) Mn(VII) (C) Br – (b)

(4) Co(II) (D) Br – (a)

Answer (3) (4) (A) Br – (a)
7+ 0 6+
Sol. Mn as d configuration which is same as Cr in (B) Br – (b)
CrO2Cl2.
(C) Br – (b)
15. Syn gas with Cu as catalyst produces :
(D) Br – (b)
(1) Ethanol
(2) Methanal Answer (2)

(3) Methane
(4) Methanoic acid
Sol. (A)
Answer (2)
Cu
Sol. CO + H2 ¾¾¾ ®HCHO
(B)
Ref: NCERT (Catalysis – Surface chemistry)
16. Consider the following compounds

(C)
(A)

(B) (D)
Hence (2) is correct
17. For the ions: [MnF6]4–, [Fe(CN)6]3– & [Co(NH3)6]3+.
The order of the spin magnetic moment is correct in
(C) which of the following option
(1) [MnF6]4– > [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Fe(CN)6]3–
(2) [Fe(CN6)]3– > [MnF6]4– > [Co(NH3)6]3+
(3) [MnF6]4– > [Fe(CN)6]3– > [Co(NH3)6]3+
(D) (4) [Co(NH3)6]3+ > [Fe(CN)6]3– > [MnF6]–4
Answer (3)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. The unpaired electrons present in the given ions Sol. Option (1) is correct based on the information.
are 5 for [MnF6]–4, 1 for [Fe(CN)6]3– & 0 for 20. Which of the following reagents are used to react
[Co(NH3)6]+3 hence the option 3 is correct with diazonium salt (Ph - N2+ X- ) to get the product
18. Match the column. given against each reagent.
Column-I Column-II (a) HBF4 Ph – F
(b) CuCN/KCN Ph – CN
(A) Neutral FeCl3 (P)
(c) CuCl2/HCl Ph – Cl
(d) Ph – NH2 Ph – N = N – Ph
(B) Iodoform (Q) (1) (a) and (b) (2) (a), (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b) and (d)
Answer (1)
(C) Carbylamine test (R)

(D) CuSO4 + Sodium (S) Sol.

potassium tartarate
(Rochelle’s salt)
(1) A(Q); B(R); C(P); D(S)
(2) A(P); B(R); C(Q); D(S)
(3) A(Q); B(P); C(R); D(S)
SECTION - B
(4) A(Q); B(P); C(S); D(Q)
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section contains
Answer (3)
10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five questions out
Sol. Neutral FeCl3 – Phenol of 10. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical
Iodoform – value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the
second decimal place; e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30,
Carbylamine – 30.27, –27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen virtual
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
CuSO4 + Sodium Potassium tartrate 21. How many factors will contribute to major role in
covalent character of a compound.
(Rochelle’s salt) –
(A) Polarising power of cation
19. Match the Column I and II. (B) Polarisibility of the anion
(C) Distortion caused by cation
(D) Polarisibility of cation
Column I Column II
Answer (03.00)
A. Saccharin 1. Sweetest Sugar
Sol. Polarisibility of cation doesn’t play a major role in
B. Alitame 2. Unstable at covalent character of a compound.
cooking 22.
temperature
C. Aspartame 3. Stable at Cooking
temperature
Calculate final pressure once values are released?
D. Sucralose 4. First Popular (Round off to the nearest integer)
artificial sugar used
Answer (03)
(1) A ®4; B®1; C®2; D®3 Sol. P1V1 + P2V2 + P3V3 = PV
(2) A ®1; B®2; C®3; D®4 2×2+4×3+3×4=P×9
(3) A ®2; B®1; C®4; D®3 28
(4) A ®3; B®2; C®4; D®1 \ P= = 3.11 » 3
9
Answer (1)
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

23. How many statements are correct: Cysteine : HS - CH2 - CH - COOH

|
(1) If there is no relation between rate constant and NH2
temperature, then activation energy is
negative.
Tyrosine :
(2) If the activation energy is zero, rate constant is
temperature independent.
(3) If rate constant increases with increase of Isoleucine :
temperature, activation energy is positive
(4) If rate constant decreases with increase in
temperature, activation energy is negative. Methionine and Cysteine contain sulphur
Answer (3) 25. 0.5 gm of an organic compound with 60%. Carbon
Sol. k = Ae-Ea /RT will produce ______ gm of CO2 upon complete
combustion
Ea
lnk = ln A -
RT Answer (01.10)
Clearly, if Ea = 0, k is temperature 0.5 ´ 0.6
independent Sol. Moles of Carbon =
12
if Ea > 0, k increases with increase
0.5 ´ 0.6
is temperature Moles of CO2 =
12
if Ea < 0, k decreases with increase
in temperature 0.5 ´ 0.6
Mass of CO2 = ´ 44 = 1.1 gm
12
Hence, 2, 3, 4 are correct statements.
24. How many of the following a-amino acids contain 26. How many of the following are not correctly
sulphur? matched?
Lysine ; Methionine; Glutamic acid; Threonine Metals or Ions Maximum
Arginine; Cysteine; Tyrosine; Isoleucine prescribed
concentration
Answer (2) in drinking
Sol. The structures of the given a-amino acids are water (ppm)
A. Zn 1. 5
Lysine : H2N - (CH2 )4 - CH - COOH
| B. F –
2. 10
NH2
C. NO 3- 3. 50
Methionine : H3 C - S - CH2 - CH2 - CH - COOH
| D. 4. > 500
SO 24-
NH2
E. Mn 5. 0.05
Glutamic acid : HOOC - CH2 - CH2 - CH - COOH
| Answer (01.00)
NH2
Sol. Maximum prescribed concentration of F– ion in
Threonine : H3 C - CH- CH - COOH drinking water is 1 ppm. Rest all are correct
| | matches.
OH NH2
27.
Arginine : HN = C - NH - (CH2 )3 - CH- COOH 28.
| |
NH2 NH2 29.
30.
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

MATHEMATICS
= 16800
SECTION - A
3. 7 boys and 5 girls are to be seated around a circular
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
table such that no two girls sits together is
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (1) 126(5!)2 (2) 720(5!)
(3) 720(6!) (4) 720
Choose the correct answer:
1. Shortest distance between lines Answer (1)

x -5 y -3 z -2 x -3 y -2 z -9 Sol. B1, B2, B3, B4, B5, B6, B7

= = and = = is
4 6 4 7 5 6
190 190
(1) (2)
37 756
37 756
(3) (4)
190 190
Answer (2)
Boys can be seated in (7 – 1)! ways = 6!
iˆ jˆ kˆ
! ! Now ways in which no two girls can be seated
Sol. n1 ´ n2 = 4 6 4
together is
7 5 6
6! ´ 7C5 ´ 5!
= 16iˆ + 4 jˆ - 22kˆ
! ! ! ! 6! ´
7!
´ 5!
(a - b ) × (n1 ´ n2 )
d= ! ! 5!2!
| n ´ n2 |
= 126(5!)2

=
( 2iˆ + jˆ - 7kˆ ) × (16iˆ + 4 ˆj - 22kˆ ) 4. Consider the data : x, y, 10, 12, 4, 6, 8, 12. If mean
162 + 42 + (22)2 is 9 and variance is 9.25, then the value of 3x – 2y
is (x > y)
32 + 4 + 154 (1) 25 (2) 1
=
256 + 16 + 484
(3) 24 (4) 13
190
= Answer (1)
756
52 + x + y
2. Consider the word “INDEPENDENCE”. The Sol. 9 =
8
number of words such that all the vowels are
together, is Þ x + y = 20
(1) 16800 (2) 15800 x 2 + y 2 + 100 + 144 + 16 + 36 + 64 + 144
(3) 17900 (4) 14800 9.25 = - 81
8
Answer (1)
Þ 722 = x2 + y2 + 504
Sol. Vowels: I E E E E
Þ x2 + y2 = 218
Consonants: N N N D D P C
(x + y)2 – 2xy = 218
IEEEE 3N, 2D, P, C
Þ xy = 91
8! 5!
Number of required words = ´ \ x = 13, y = 7
3!2! 4!
3x – 2y = 39 – 14

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

= 25 ! !
Þ a b = 260
5. Coefficient independent of x in the expansion of
7
7. If the coefficients of three consecutive terms in the
æ 2 1 ö expansion of (1 + x)n are in the ratio 1 : 5 : 20, then
ç 3 x - 5 ÷ is
è 2x ø the coefficient of the fourth term of the expansion is
5103 (1) 3654
(1)
4
(2) 3658
5293 (3) 3600
(2)
6
(4) 1000
6715
(3) Answer (1)
3
Sol. Given n Cr -1 :
n
Cr : nCr + 1 = 1: 5 : 20
7193
(4)
4 r ! ( n - r )! 1
n!
\ ´ =
Answer (1) ( r - 1)! ( n - r + 1)! n! 5
r
( )
7-r æ -1 ö
7
Sol. Tr + 1 = Cr 3 x 2 r 1
ç 5÷ =
è 2x ø n - r +1 5
r Þ n – r + 1 = 5r
æ -1 ö
= 7Cr 37 - r ç ÷ x14 - 7r
è 2ø n = 6r – 1 …(i)
Þ 14 – 7r = 0 Now,
Þ r=2 n! ( r + 1)! ( n - r - 1)! 5
´ =
\ Coefficient of x is 0
r ! ( n - r )! n! 20
7 1
C2 35 ´ Þ
r +1 1
=
4 n-r 4
7 ´ 6 ´ 35 Þ 4r + 4 = n – r
2 ´ 1´ 4
n = 5r + 4 …(ii)
5103
= By (i) and (ii)
4
5r + 4 = 6r – 1
6. Dot product of two vectors is 12 and cross product
is 4ˆi + 6yˆ + 8kˆ find product of modulus of vectors Þ r=5
and n = 29
(1) 4 35
Now coefficient of fourth term
(2) 2 65
= nC3 = 29C3 = 3654
(3) 5 37
8. The area under the curve of equations: x2 £ y,
(4) 6 37
y £ 8 – x2 and y £ 7, is
Answer (2)
! ! 16
Sol. Let the vectors be a and b (1)
3
! ! !2 !2 ! !
(a ´ b ) ( )
2 2
= a b - a ×b (2) 18
(3) 20
! ! 2
116 + 144 = a b ( )
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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

22 é 1 1ù
(4) A=ê ú
3 ë0 1û
Answer (3) é 1 2ù
A2 = ê ú
Sol : ë 0 1û
é1 3ù
A3 = ê ú
ë 0 1û
é 1 2007 ù
A2007 = ê
ë0 1 úû

é 1 2007 ù
PTQ2007P = PTPA2007PTP = A2007 = ê
ë0 1 úû
Þ a = 1, b = 2007, c = 0, d = 1
Required area = 2 éê ò y dy + ò
ë
4
0 4
7
( )
8 – y dy ùú
û
2a + b + 3c – 4d = 2 × 1 + 2007 + 3 × 0 – 4 × 1
= 2005
é 3 4 3
7ù 10. A bolt manufacturing factory has three products A,
ê 2 (8 – y )2 ú B and C. 50% and 30% of the products are A and
y
= 2ê - ú
ê 3 3 ú B type respectively and remaining are C type. Then
ê 2 2 ú probability that the product A is defective is 4%, that
ë 0 4û
of B is 3% and that of C is 2%. A product is picked
4
=
3
(8 – (1– 8 )) randomly picked and found to be defective, then the
probability that it is type C.
4 4 1
= (15 ) = 20 sq. units (1)
33
(2)
33
3
é 3 1 ù 2 9
(3) (4)
ê ú 33 33
P=ê 2
9. 2 ú , Q = PAP T
ê -1 3ú Answer (1)
ê ú
ë 2 2 û Sol. Product A is 50%, B is 30% and C is 20%

é1 1ù éa b ù Let A1 is the event that product A is selected

A=ê ú , then PTQ2007P = ê ú . Find 2a + b +
ë0 1û ëc d û B1 is the event that product B is selected
3c – 4d. C1 is the event that product C is selected
(1) 2005
and D is the event that product is defective
(2) 2007
then,
(3) 2006
æDö
(4) 2008 P (C1)P ç ÷
æ!D ö è C1 ø
𝑃P"ç ! # ÷==
Answer (1) è C1 ø P ( A )P æ D ö + P (B )P æ D ö + P (C )P æ D ö
"
1 ç ÷ 1 ç ÷ 1 ç ÷
é 3 è A1 ø è B1 ø è C1 ø
1 ù é 3 -1 ù
ê ú ê ú
Sol. P × P T = ê 2 2 ú ê 2 2 ú = é 1 0ù 20
´
2
ê -1 ê ú 100 100
3ú ê 1 3 ú ë0 1û =
ê ú ê ú 50 4 30 3 20 2
ë 2 2 û ë 2 2 û ´ + ´ + ´
100 100 100 100 100 100
Similarly PTP = I
40 4
Now, Q2007 = (PAPT)(PAPT) ..... 2007 times = =
200 + 90 + 40 33
= PA2007PT
11. A has 5 elements and B has 2 elements. The
number of subsets of A × B such that the number
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of elements in subset is more than or equal to 3 and ( x + 1) dx

Sol. I ( x ) = ò
less than 6, is x(1 + xe x )2
(1) 602 (2) 484
e x ( x + 1)
(3) 582 (4) 704 =ò = dx
Answer (3)
xe x (1 + xe x )2

Sol. n(A) = 5, n(B) = 2 Let 1 + xex = t

Þ n(A × B) = 10
Þ ex (1+ x ) dx = dt
Number of subsets having 3 elements = 10
C3
dt 1
=ò = - ln t + + ln(t - 1) + c
Number of subsets having 4 elements = 10C4 (t - 1) t2 t

Number of subsects having 5 elements = 10C5 1

= - ln(1 + xe x ) + + ln( x. e x ) + c
10 x .e x + 1
\ C3 +10 C4 +10 C5
= 120 + 210 + 252 æ xe x ö 1
= ln ç ÷÷ + x +c
ç 1 + xe x
= 582 è ø xe + 1

(1+ 2x )
7
lim (I ( x )) = c = 1
x® ¥
12. Check whether the function f ( x ) = is
2x
æ xe x ö 1
(1) Even \ I ( x ) = ln ç ÷÷ + x +1
ç 1 + xe x
è ø xe + 1
(2) Odd
(3) Neither even nor odd æ e ö 1
I (1) = ln ç ÷ + +1
(4) None of these è 1+ e ø e + 1
Answer (3) 1
= 2+ - ln(1 + e)
e +1
(1 + 2x )
7

Sol. f ( x ) = 14.
2x
15.
(1+ 2 ) = (2 + 1)
7 7
-x x
16.
f ( -x ) =
-x 6x
2 2 17.
\ f(x) is neither even nor odd.
18.
( x + 1) dx
13. Let I(x) = ò x(1 + xe x )2 , then lim I ( x ) = 1. The
x®¥
19.

value of I(1) is 20.

1 SECTION - B
(1) - ln(e + 1) + 1
e +1 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
1
(2) - ln(e + 1) questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
e +1
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
1 correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(3) - ln(e + 1) + 2
e +1 truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
1 e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
(4) +2
e +1 the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
Answer (3) the place designated to enter the answer.

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

n3 ([×] represents greatest integer function) _______.

21. If aa is the maximum value of an = .
n 4 + 147 Answer (56)
Then find a 5p 5p
6 6
8 8
Answer (5) Sol. ò
p p
8[cos ecx ] dx – ò 5[cot x ] dx
p p
n3 6 6
Sol. f ( n ) =
4
n + 147 5p æp
p 3p 5p ö
6 ç4
2 4 6 ÷
( 3n 2 )( n 4 + 147 ) - ( n3 )( 4n3 )
8 8
= ´ 8 ò 1× dx – ´ 5 ò 1dx + ò 0 × dx + ò (–1)dx + ò (–2)dx ÷
ç
p p ç ÷
f ' (n ) =
p p p p 3p
=0 ç
è6
÷
ø
( )
2 6 4 2 4
4
n + 147
64 æ 2p ö 40 æ æ p p ö æ 3p p ö æ 5p 3p ö ö
= – ç – +0–ç – ÷ – 2ç – ÷
f'(n) = 0 p çè 3 ÷ø p è çè 4 6 ÷ø è 4 2 ø è 6 4 ÷ø ø

Þ n = 21 128 40 æ p p 2p ö
= – – –
3 p çè 12 4 12 ÷ø
4 < 21 < 5
128 æ 1 1 1ö
a5 > a4 = – 40 ç – – ÷
3 è 12 4 6 ø
\ for n = 5 the value is maximum 128 æ 1– 3 – 2 ö 128 æ 1ö
= – 40 ç ÷ = – 40 ç – ÷
a=5 3 è 12 ø 3 è 3ø
22. Maximum value n such that (66)! is divisible by 3n 168
=
Answer (31) 3
= 56
Sol. ! 3 is a prime number
1 - cos2 3 x sin3 4 x
é 66 ù é 66 ù é 66 ù é 66 ù 25. If lim ´ = t then [t] is
ê 3 ú + ê 32 ú + ê 33 ú + ê 34 ú + .... x ®0 cos3 4 x (log (1 + 2x )) 5
ë û ë û ë û ë û
22 + 7 + 2 + 0…. (where [.] represents greatest integer fraction)
Answer (18)
= 31
(66)! = (3)31…. 1 - cos2 3 x sin3 4 x
Sol. lim ´
Maximum value of n = 31
x ®0 cos3 4 x (log (1 + 2x ))5
é2 1 0 ù sin2 3 x sin3 4 x
23. If A = êê 1 2 –1úú and |adj(adj(adj(A))| = 16n then lim
x ®0 cos3 (4 x ) (log(1 + 2x ))5
êë0 1 2 úû
sin2 3 x sin3 4 x 2 3
the value of n is . .(3x ) .( 4x )
2 3
Answer (06) (3x ) ( 4x )
lim
x ®0 5
Sol. |A| = 2(5) – 1(2) = 8 æ log(1 + 2 x ) ö
cos3 4 x. ç ÷ ( 2x )5
3 è 2x ø
\ Now |adj(adj(adj(A))| = A (
n –1)
9 ´ 64
= = 18
8
= 8 = 16 6 32

\ 26.
n=6
27.
5p
6
28.
8
( 8[cosecx ] – 5[cot x ] ) dx is
p pò
24. The value of 29.
30.
6

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 JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (08-04-2023)-Morning

q q q

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