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Đề số 23 ôn thi Anh Chuyên vào 10 CNN

Quiz ID: 6461

Question 1 (Question ID: 13-191184)


Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
A. condition
B. option
C. suggestion
D. relation
Question 2 (Question ID: 13-195599)
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
A. scenic
B. extinct
C. decrease
D. coexist
Question 3 (Question ID: 13-211611)
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
A. apathy
B. unanimous
C. catalyst
D. attorney
Question 4 (Question ID: 13-22767)
Choose the word which has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others.
A. soul
B. tournament
C. poultry
D. mould
Question 5 (Question ID: 13-222248)
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
A. encounter
B. hibernate
C. jeopardize
D. castigate

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Question 6 (Question ID: 13-194432)
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
A. intellectual
B. instrumental
C. academic
D. arithmetic
Question 7 (Question ID: 13-211618)
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
A. disaster
B. internship
C. incumbent
D. cathedral
Question 8 (Question ID: 13-35984)
Choose the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress.
A. compulsory
B. mandatory
C. necessary
D. satisfying
Question 9 (Question ID: 13-124739)
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual
meeting in May.
A. politeness
B. rudeness
C. encouragement
D. measurement
Question 10 (Question ID: 13-162879)
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the
century coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling.
A. ensured the success of
B. happened at the same time
C. began to grow rapidly
D. was influenced by

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Question 11 (Question ID: 13-254217)
Choose the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s).
The Minister has tried to cushion the blow somewhat with a cut in taxs to help the citizen
during the pandemic.
A. deteriorate
B. excuse
C. expiate
D. ameliorate
Question 12 (Question ID: 13-147987)
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Polish artist Pawel Kuzinsky creates satirical paintings filled with thought-provoking
messages about the world.
A. inspirational
B. cost-effective
C. discouraging
D. weather-beaten
Question 13 (Question ID: 13-147970)
Choose the OPPOSITE word in meaning to the underlined word in the following questions.
None of her novels lends itself to being made into a film; they just simply lack a coherent
storyline.
A. inapplicable
B. untamable
C. unsuitable
D. inconceivable
Question 14 (Question ID: 13-180820)
Choose the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s).
Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists,
it bordered on the miracle.
A. complexity
B. agility
C. adjustment
D. inflexibility
Question 15 (Question ID: 13-254227)
She had got so accustomed _____ the new system that she could finish her work ahead of time.
A. to using
B. to use
C. to being used
D. to be used

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Question 16 (Question ID: 13-198162)
We would sooner Mr. Manh _____ us the urgent information the other night.
A. sent
B. would have sent
C. had sent
D. send
Question 17 (Question ID: 13-67963)
Being mistaken as a genuine precious artifact, the artificial vase was initially valued ______
$2000.
A. for
B. with
C. at
D. of
Question 18 (Question ID: 13-243466)
The other kids probably _____ on Tim because he's the youngest.
A. break out
B. pick up
C. gang up
D. take on
Question 19 (Question ID: 13-211624)
In spite of working their fingers to the _____, all the staff were made redundant.
A. nail
B. edge
C. flesh
D. bone

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Question 20 (Question ID: 13-202812)
Read the text and choose the best answer to fill in the blanks.
THE BEGINNINGS OF FLIGHT
The story of man's mastery of the air is almost as old as man himself, a puzzle in which the essential
clues were not found until a very late stage. However, to understand this we must first
Q20.1.................... to the time when primitive man hunted for his food, and only birds and insects
flew. We cannot know with any certainty when man first deliberately shaped weapons for throwing,
but that Q20.2.................... of conscious design marked the first step on a road that leads from the
spear and the arrow to the aero-plane and the giant rocket of the present day. It would seem, in fact,
that this Q20.3.................... to throw things is one of the most primitive and deep-seated of our
instincts, appearing in childhood and persist into old age. The more mature ambition to throw things
swiftly and accurately, which is the origin of most outdoor games, probably has its
Q20.4.................... in the ages when the possession of a suitable weapon and the ability to throw it
with force and accuracy Q20.5.................... the difference between eating and starving.
It is significant that such weapons were Q20.6.................... and brought to their final form at an early
stage in history. If we were restricted to the same materials, it is doubtful Q20.7.................... we
could produce better bows and arrows than those that destroyed the armies of the past. The arrow
was the first true weapon capable of maintaining direction over considerable distances. It was
Q20.8.................... centuries before the man himself could fly.

Q20.1. A. turn back B. take back C. go back D. come back

Q20.2. A. deed B. act C. action D. event

Q20.3. A. urge B. encouragement C. emotion D. feeling

Q20.4. A. beginnings B. starts C. roots D. bases

Q20.5. A. meant B. showed C. told D. involved

Q20.6. A. produced B. invented C. imagined D. planned

Q20.7. A. hence B. if C. though D. but

Q20.8. A. to be B. been C. being D. have been

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Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question.
Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after the Earth was formed. Yet another
three billion years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life's
transition from the sea to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the
genesis of life.
What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the
first terrestrial organisms is based on mega fossils-relatively large specimens of essentially whole
plants and animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first
comprehensive mega fossil record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the
sequence of terrestrialization reflected the evolution of modern terrestrial ecosystems. In this view,
primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of continental waters, followed by animals that
fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-eater. Moreover, the mega fossils
suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the boundary between the
Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago. Recently, however,
paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this Silurian-Devonian
geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by putting
the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were
deposited near the shores of the ancient oceans-plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small
animals. In many instances, the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter.
Although they were entombed in the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils
consist of the organic remains of the organism.
These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown
organisms but have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multi-cellular
organisms. Our views about the nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being
revised. And with those revisions come new speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.
Question 21 (Question ID: 13-254752)
What is the first paragraph mainly about?
A. The first kind of animals lived on earth
B. The evolution of life on earth
C. The formation of the earth
D. The changes of the earth over time
Question 22 (Question ID: 13-210198)
The word "drastic" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. widespread
B. radical
C. progressive
D. risky

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Question 23 (Question ID: 13-210199)
According to the theory that the author calls "the traditional view", what was the first form of
life to appear on land?
A. Bacteria
B. Meat-eating animals
C. Plant-eating animals
D. Vascular plants
Question 24 (Question ID: 13-210200)
According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?
A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out.
B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.
C. The megafossils were destroyed by floods.
D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.
Question 25 (Question ID: 13-210202)
What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in paragraph 2?
A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
C. They were discovered by a method that related to the sediments of small animals.
D. They consist of both modern life-forms and ancient life-forms of animals.
Question 26 (Question ID: 13-210204)
The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. rocks
B. shores
C. oceans
D. specimens
Question 27 (Question ID: 13-210206)
Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils are found to have new uses in modern world.
C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained by the recently unearthed fossils.
D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas and early animals were changed.
Question 28 (Question ID: 13-210207)
Which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree with?
A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.
B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.
C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last million years.
D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about
the ages of fossils.

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Question 29 (Question ID: 13-188013)
John is broke, and he is going to borrow some money from Laura.
John: “Have you got any money left?”
Laura: “Unfortunately, _____.”
A. none of all
B. nothing of all
C. not even a few
D. none whatsoever
Question 30 (Question ID: 13-203571)
Little Deon: "This herb smells horrible!"
Mommy: "_____, it will do you a power of good."
A. Be that as it may
B. Come what may
C. How much horrible is it
D. Whatever it smells
Question 31 (Question ID: 13-184316)
Joe and Matt met at a friend’s farewell party.
Joe: "I thought you were too tired."
Matt: "_____ I’ve decided to go. I feel I owe it to him."
A. More of the same
B. All the more
C. One and the same
D. All the same
Question 32 (Question ID: 13-254291)
Waiter: "Hello, I’ll be your waiter today. ______"
John: "Yes. I’ll have orange juice, please."
A. Can I start you off with a beverage?
B. Can I get you off with a beverage?
C. Can I take you off with a beverage?
D. Can I give you off with a beverage?
Question 33 (Question ID: 13-254292)
A: "The company needs a _______ leader if we want to go further in the future."
B: "I totally agree with you."
A. far-reaching
B. narrow-minded
C. forward-thinking
D. stuck-up

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Question 34 (Question ID: 13-147510)
Choose the best way to rearrange the following sentences in order to make a meaningful
conversation.
a. I really like your apartment. It's very spacious.
b. No. I mean it! It's one of the most spacious apartments I've ever seen.
c. Oh, go on! You're just saying that!
d. Well, thanks for saying so. I'm glad you like it.
A. a-d-b-c
B. a-c-b-d
C. b-d-a-c
D. d-a-b-c
Question 35 (Question ID: 13-147504)
Choose the best way to rearrange the following sentences in order to make a meaningful
conversation.
a. Oh, I don't really like that.
b. Did you happen to hear that the USA and Europe have just signed a new trade agreement?
c. I'm absolutely sure. I heard it on the 7 o'clock news.
d. That can't be. Are you certain?
A. b-a-c-d
B. a-d-b-c
C. a-b-d-c
D. b-d-c-a
Question 36 (Question ID: 13-147487)
Choose the best way to rearrange the following sentences in order to make a meaningful
conversation.
a. Gee - uh... I don't know where to begin. What do you want to know?
b. Hmm. That's interesting. Do you enjoy your work?
c. I'm a civil engineer. I design roads and bridges for the city.
d. So, tell me a little more about yourself.
e. Well, let's see... What do you do?
f. Yes. I like it a lot.
A. c-f-b-a-d-e
B. d-a-e-c-b-f
C. a-b-c-e-f-d
D. d-a-e-b-f-c

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Question 37 (Question ID: 13-145142)
Choose the best way to rearrange the following sentences in order to make a meaningful
conversation.
a. That saves a lot of money.
b. How are you doing that?
c. That’s a good deal.
d. I’m trying to stretch my dollars.
e. I bought three pounds of potatoes for a dollar.
f. I started shopping at the dollar store.
A. f-b-a-d-c-e
B. b-a-c-e-f-d
C. a-c-b-d-f-e
D. d-b-f-a-e-c
Question 38 (Question ID: 13-147488)
Choose the best way to rearrange the following sentences in order to make a meaningful
conversation.
a. Don't you remember? It's the blue one with gray and yellow stripes.
b. Hmm. Which one is that?
c. Oh, that one. I know where it is. I'll get it.
d. The one the children gave you.
e. Which one?
f. You should wear your new tie with that jacket.
A. f-e-d-b-a-c
B. f-b-e-d-a-c
C. e-d-a-c-b
D. d-a-e-c-b
Question 39 (Question ID: 13-254900)
Choose the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following question.
Far more devastating for the author than the loss of his house to fire was the destruction of the
sole copy of his latest novel.
A. In his latest book, the author tells of the pain he suffered when he lost his home in a devastating
fire.
B. Even the destruction of his home in the fire was not as hard for the author to hear as the burning
of his new novel's only manuscript.
C. Even more difficult for the author than writing his only book was seeing it destroyed when his
house burnt down.
D. The author was devastated to find his house burnt down with everything in it, among which was
the only manuscript of his latest novel.

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Question 40 (Question ID: 13-254901)
Choose the sentence CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given.
They were being very secretive about what had happened at yesterday's meeting.
A. They told everyone that whatever had happened at the previous meeting was going to be kept
secret.
B. Whatever happened at yesterday’s meeting, it’s obvious that they won’t let it be known by
others.
C. They wouldn’t give out anything about the things that occurred at the meeting the previous day.
D. The contents of the meeting held the previous day were confidential, so they refused to talk
about them.
Question 41 (Question ID: 13-254902)
Choose the sentence CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given.
It is no exaggeration to say that there was not a single person in the audience who was not
moved by the sentimental play.
A. To say that the whole audience was touched by the emotional play is just reflecting the truth.
B. The play was so sentimental that there was hardly anyone in the audience who remained
unaffected.
C. Without exaggeration, the play deeply affected practically the whole audience.
D. Everyone in the audience admitted that they had never seen such a moving play as this.
Question 42 (Question ID: 13-254903)
Choose the sentence CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given.
The manager is quite sure that the volume of business we'll have dealt with by the end of our
first year will exceed the initial estimates.
A. The manager is trying to increase the volume of business we’ll do in our first year in order to
exceed the initial estimates.
B. According to the manager, there is no reason why we should not do more business in our first
year than we had initially set as our target.
C. The manager has no doubt that we’ll have a greater amount of business in our first year than was
expected when we started.
D. Our manager estimates that by the end of the year, we’ll be dealing with a greater amount of
business than was thought at first.

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Question 43 (Question ID: 13-254904)
Choose the sentence CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given.
Some of the football fans began to riot when the referee awarded their rival team a dubious
penalty.
A. A riot was almost started by the football fans when the opposing team was given a questionable
penalty by the referee.
B. Although their team had been awarded a dubious penalty decision, some of the football fans still
tided to start a riot.
C. A number of football fans found the referee’s penalty decision to the rival team so dubious that
they protested violently.
D. The referee granted a doubtful penalty to the opposing team, so some of the football fans started
to riot.
Question 44 (Question ID: 13-254905)
Choose the sentence that best combines this pair of sentences.
We were promised by the travel agent about the facilities at the hotel when we made our
reservations. When we arrived, it barely had any of them.
A. We were hoping to use as many facilities as we could at the hotel as, according to the travel
agent, there were plenty there.
B. We expected, as we had been promised by the travel agent, that there would be many facilities at
the hotel, but there were none.
C. None of the facilities at the hotel that the travel agent had promised us while booking our holiday
were actually what we had been led to believe.
D. The facilities the travel agent promised us while booking our holiday were practically non-
existent at the hotel.
Question 45 (Question ID: 13-254906)
Choose the sentence that best combines this pair of sentences.
In summer in India, the heat is the most intensive in the plains. However, it lessens as you
move up into the mountains.
A. The extreme heat of the Indian plains in the summer decreases as you move toward the
mountains.
B. The extreme heat of the summer in India becomes cooler as you go up into the mountains from
the plains.
C. The intensity of Indian summer heat depends on whether you are in the plains or in the
mountains.
D. The heat in the plains of India, in the summer, is less intensive than the heat you will find in the
mountains.

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Question 46 (Question ID: 13-254907)
Choose the sentence that best combines this pair of sentences.
Ethiopia was isolated from the rest of the world for centuries by both enemies and geography.
Therefore, it has retained unique traditions.
A. Cut off for hundreds of years from other civilizations by both enemies and the landscape,
Ethiopia has kept traditions found nowhere else in the world.
B. Ethiopia has traditions quite different from those found elsewhere because its hostile geography
has not allowed it to develop the way the rest of the world did.
C. Because Ethiopia had so many enemies in their land for hundreds of years, it has developed and
kept a number of customs found nowhere else on earth.
D. Ethiopia has customs and traditions found nowhere else in the world because no one has been
able to go there for such a long time.
Question 47 (Question ID: 13-254908)
Choose the sentence that best combines this pair of sentences.
In the past, Orange County used to be full of orange groves. Now, there are mainly housing
tracts due to urban sprawl.
A. Because of urban development in Orange County, there are mostly houses now where there
used to be orchards of orange trees.
B. It was very upsetting when Orange County allowed the building companies to cut down the
orange trees and build tracts of houses.
C. Orange County got its name from all the orange groves that used to be there; but now, due to
urban sprawl, all you can see are housing tracts.
D. Because of urban sprawl, Orange County was forced to cut down all of its orange groves in
order to build houses.
Question 48 (Question ID: 13-254909)
Choose the sentence that best combines this pair of sentences.
CFCs were used in aerosols, refrigerators and solvents. It also made a dangerous hole in the
ozone layer over Antarctica.
A. Aerosols, refrigerators and solvents contain CFCs, and these substances have caused several
holes in the ozone layer, the most dangerous being over Antarctica.
B. It has been found that the CFCs in aerosols, refrigerators and solvents affected the ozone layer
over Antarctica more than anywhere else.
C. The dangerous hole in the ozone layer over Antarctica was caused by the use of CFCs, which
was found in aerosols, refrigerators and solvents.
D. Aerosols, refrigerators and solvents produced CFCs, which led to the ozone layer over
Antarctica being dangerously damaged.

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Read the passage and choose the correct answer.
(1)__________. Victims of bullying reported poor mental and physical health, more symptoms of
anxiety, depression; feeling sad, being lonely; vomiting; sleep disturbance; nightmares; body ache; a
headache; abdominal pain, and frequent illnesses. (2)__________, depression, violent behavior,
and substance abuse are among the most mediated factors between bullying and suicide.
(3)__________, peer victimization and low academic performance are often correlated because
children who are chronically victimized experience negative emotional and psychological outcomes.
(4)___________. A recent study among primary school children revealed that verbal bullying
among female students was associated with poor academic performance on writing skills. Physical
bullying is likely to degrade students’ performance on numeracy, and writing for both males and
females. (5)___________, temporary victimization can seriously impaired students’ academic
performance and achievement.
Question 49 (Question ID: 13-164865)
Choose the correct answer for (1)
A. Scientific research proved that bullies have been influenced physically, mentally and
academically when engaging in those activities
B. Scientific research indicated that experiencing bullying has short and long-term physical,
psychological, emotional and academic impact on both victims and perpetrators
C. Scientific research presented that only the bullying incidents only affect victims regarding
emotional and physical health as well as academic results
D. Scientific research analyzed the physical, psychological, emotional and academic impact of
bullies on the children and their families
Question 50 (Question ID: 13-254820)
Choose the correct answer for (2)
A. More seriously
B. More simply
C. More probably
D. More necessarily
Question 51 (Question ID: 13-164866)
Choose the correct answer for (3)
A. However
B. Apart from this
C. As a matter of fact
D. Meanwhile

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Question 52 (Question ID: 13-164867)
Choose the correct answer for (4)
A. Students become less intelligent in the classroom, resulting in poor academic results.
B. The victims find it difficult to stay engaged in the tests, leading to low scores in the exams.
C. Bullying prevents students from spending enough time studying, resulting in poor exam scores.
D. It can inhibit their engagement in the classroom, thus affecting their academic achievement.
Question 53 (Question ID: 13-164868)
Choose the correct answer for (5)
A. Although many students suffer from chronic bully
B. Although chronic bully affects a large number of victims
C. Although there is a small proportion of students experiencing bully
D. Although small percentages of students are chronic victims of bullying

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Đáp án (Answer Key)
Quiz ID: 6461

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Question 1. C Question 2. A
Question 3. D Question 4. B
Question 5. A Question 6. D
Question 7. B Question 8. A
Question 9. B Question 10. B
Question 11. D Question 12. C
Question 13. C Question 14. D
Question 15. A Question 16. C
Question 17. C Question 18. C
Question 19. D Question 20.
20.1 C 20.2 B 20.3 A 20.4 C
20.5 A 20.6 A 20.7 B 20.8 A
Question 21. B Question 22. B
Question 23. D Question 24. B
Question 25. C Question 26. D
Question 27. A Question 28. A
Question 29. D Question 30. A
Question 31. D Question 32. A
Question 33. C Question 34. B
Question 35. D Question 36. B
Question 37. D Question 38. A
Question 39. B Question 40. C
Question 41. A Question 42. C
Question 43. D Question 44. D
Question 45. B Question 46. A
Question 47. A Question 48. C
Question 49. B Question 50. A
Question 51. B Question 52. D

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Question 53. D

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