09/06/2022 @® CODE-A Aakash An Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-t 10008, Ph.011-47623456 FINAL TEST SERIES for NEET-2022 MM : 720 Test -2 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mins. Topics covered Physics: Laws of motion, Work, Energy and Power, System of Particles and Rotational Motion. Chemistry : Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, States of Matter: Gases and Liquids, ‘Thermodynamics. Botany = Plant Kingdom, Morphology of Flowering Plants. Zoology = Structural organization in Animals: Animal Tissues and Animal Morphology. Instructions ()) There are two sections in each subject, .6. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. (ji) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks. (ili) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle, (iv) Mark should be dark and completely fll the circle. (v) Dark only one circle for each entry. (vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only. (vil) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. Choose the correct answer SECTION-A Tmv 1, Acticket ball of mass 100 g has an inital velocity (1) Ime Qe ie@+3i)m/s and a fal veloety (8) iow (6) 1imw ¥=+2i+3})m/s after being hit by bat. The | 3, Sand is being dropped gently on a conveyor belt change in momentum (in kg mis) ofthe ball is at the rate of 2 kgls. The force necessary to keep 4) 08}a123 «oes the belt moving with a constant velocity of 10 mis (1) 40.97+12}) (2) -(0.47 +067) ‘wil be (3) -(41+6)) (4) Zero (1) 10N 2. A particle of mass _m is moving along a (2) 40N liney = x +7 with a velocity v, The angular @) 20N momentum of the particle about origin will be (AI quantities are in SI units.) (4) Zero (ay©) CLICK HERE TO JOIN CHANNELTest-2 (Code-A) 4, If trolley accelerates horizontally with acceleration «a, then bob is displaced backward from its initia vertical position by an angle 30° in equilibrium w.r. trolley as shown in figure. The value of a in terms of gis aft Le ao (2) Bq g @% Initially both blocks A and B in the system shown, below are in equilibrium. If string between A and Bis cut, then acceleration of block A just after cut wil be (pulley and strings are ideal) (1) g upward (2) g downward (3) 2g downward (4) Zero ‘An ‘H’ shaped body is made by joining three similar rods each of length L and mass m as shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the body about an axis XX" is x 3 x 2mi2 5 tz oe (2) mut > aml? (3) amu? ame 7 10. " Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Centre of mass of a body must lie outside the body (2) Centre of mass of a body may lie inside the body (8) Friction is necessary for a body in pure rolling motion over a surface (ban an) ‘moved by the man relative to ground is, a (2) (3) Ir ale SIP ale 3 ‘A man is hanging from the free end of a light rope. The mass of man is 60 kg and the maximum tension the rope can bear is 800 N. Maximum acceleration of man with which he can climb up the rope is (Take g = 10 mis*) (1) 5.26 ms? (2) 9.8ms? (3) 3.33ms? (4) 6.67 ms? A thin, circular wire of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with angular speed «. There is a ‘small bead on the wire. The angle made by radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertically downward direction for w= ,|2%, is (Neglect friction) (yor @) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60° Areference frame attached to the earth (1) Cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is revolving round the sun (2) Cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is rotating about its own axis (3) Is an inertial frame because Newton's laws are applicable in this frame (4) Both (1) and (2) (2)Final Test Si 12. 13. 14. 16. for NEET-2022 ‘A person wants to raise a block lying on the ground to a height h by two ways as shown in the figure. In both cases, if the time required is same, then force exerted by man is (Pulley and strings are ideal) @ ii) (1) More in case-(i) (2) More in case-(ii) (3) Same in both cases (4) Data is insufficient ‘A uniform rod of length 2! and mass 4m is released to rotate about hinged end ‘A’ in vertical plane as shown in figure. The magnitude of initial angular acceleration of rod is (Hinge) ——— el —<———— 1% 49 (1) 5) (2) 3I 39 89 ®% 4 “ St A ball is projected at the lowest position of a ‘smooth vertical tube as shown in the figure. The minimum speed at the lowest point, so that the ball just reaches at point ‘P, is wy, v (2) JéaR (1) ¥5gR (3) BR (4) Jor A block of mass ‘m’ is placed over a smooth inclined plane fixed inside a lift moving upward with constant speed 'V. Power developed by the normal reaction on block by inclined plane from the frame of lift is v 16. 17 18. Test-2 (Code-A) (2) mgcoso.v (4) Zero (1), mgvsino (3) mgv A particle of mass m is moving on a straight line such that its velocity changes with distance x travelled as _v = kvx, where k is a positive constant. The work done by net force on the particle during first t second is mkt? mkt 4 2) cy me @ m ™ (a) mat A hollow sphere of radius 'R’ and mass ‘m' rolls (not purely) on smooth horizontal ground, towards a smooth vertical wall. If it strikes the wall elastically then magnitude of angular momentum of sphere just after strike about the point of contact on the ground is 1 sig @) 3m (8) Snmgk 4) A body is moving along a straight line, starting from rest with constant power. The diagram which correctly represent displacement-time (s-t) curve of its motion is mR st s! “ @) 04 —_———+t 0 t s 1 @) 4) Lo fe i ———si he —_§er (@)Test-2 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 19. 20, 24 22. ‘A.uniform rod of mass M and length L has its one: end tied with a massless string of length L and from the other end of the string, itis rotated in a horizontal circle as shown in figure, The torque needed to increase the angular speed of the rod Uniformly from zero to « in time tis L Meo Meo 4 2) ® 3t ® 12t Teo amo 3) 4) @ @ ‘A mass of 2 kg is moving with a speed of 2 mis on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a massless of spring constant K = 200 Nim. The maximum compression of the spring will be K = 200 Nim zig} |ovovr (1) 10cm (2) 10V3em (3) 20m (4) 100V3em ‘A.uniform ring of mass 2.0 kg and radius 0.5 mis, initially at rest on a horizontal frictionless surface. Four forces of equal magnitude F = 1.0 N are applied simultaneously along the four sides of an square ABCD with its vertices on the circumference of the ring as shown in figure. Angular acceleration of the ring at the shown instant is (1) 2 rads? (2) t rads? (3) 3y2 rads? (4) 2V2 rad s* ‘A ting is in pure rolling on a horizontal surface. is the centre of ring, M and N are two points on the ring as shown in figure. Let vjy, Yy and Vo be the magnitude of velocities of points respectively, then which of the following option is conact me Cex) 23. 24, 25. vy = Vy > Yo > Yn a (2) (3) (4) Both (1) and (2) A uniform chain AB of mass m and length / is placed with one end A at the highest point of hemisphere of radius R. If the bottom of hemisphere is taken as zero potential energy level, then potential energy of chain is r aR) Given 1-2 \ 2) Ag iB (1) mgR @) ma @ ) 4798 Position of a particle of mass 1 kg varies according to the equation x(t) =(2 mis) +(3 mis?)t? + (5 mvs*) 5 (where fs in s). The force acting on the body at time t= 1 sis (1) 36N (2) 134N (3) 66N (4) 30N ‘A raindrop falling from a height h above the ‘ground attains the terminal velocity when it has fallen through a height dn The diagrams shown in figure, which correctly shows the change in speed of the drop during its fall up to ground is a) (2) (3) (4) (4)Final Test Si 26. 27. 28. 29. 30, for NEET-2022 A rocket with a lift-off mass 30000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration 4.9 m s*. The initial force due to ejecting fuel is (g = 9.8 ms) (1) 444 KN (2) 294 kN (3) 300 kN (4) 500 kN Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are placed ‘on smooth horizontal surface as shown in figure. If an impulse is given to 4 kg block and block starts moving with velocity of 15 mis eastwards, then the velocity of centre of mass of the two block system at that instant is N 5 2kg 4kg (1) 10 m/s Eastward (2) 8 m/s Eastward (3) Sm/s Eastward (4) 16 m/s Westward Consider inelastic collision of a ball with ground If ball is released from a height h, then total time in which ball finally comes to rest is [Coefficient of restitution is e] [1+e) [2h OfeNs [1+e] [h 9 [te GM ‘A uniform circular disc of radius R placed on a rough horizontal surface has initially a velocity vo and an angular velocity «9 as shown in the figure. I the disc comes to rest after moving some distance in direction of vo, then “2 Ro, Vo 1 1 (2) 1 m3 @) 3 o> (42 A ball is projected from ground with some speed at an angle from the horizontal. The power of force of gravity for the ball during journey is (1) Positive (2) Negative (3) Ihitaly postive and then negative (4) Initially negative and then positive 3t 32, 33, 34, 36, Test-2 (Code-A) A particle initially at rest starts its motion with uniform acceleration. Graph between kinetic, ‘energy and displacement of the particle is. (1) Straight line (2) Symmetric parabola (3) Asymmetric parabola (4) Etiptical There is a uniform rectangular lamina made up from a uniform sheet, Mass of lamina is m and its length and breadth are 3/ and 2/ respectively, Moment of inertia of this lamina about an axis passing through the centre of lamina and perpendicular to its plane, will be SmI? 24mi? G 2) ) a4 Tm? 13mi? 3 a 4 wa ‘Two blocks A and B are pushed against the wall with the force F as shown in the figure. The wall is smooth but surfaces of A and B in contact with each other are rough. Which of the following is true for the system of blocks to be at rest against the wall? rE wall (1) F should be equal to the weight of A and (2) F should be more than the weight of A and B (3) F should be three time the weight of A and B (4) System cannot be in equilibrium ‘rigid body has translational as well as rotational motion, f force couple is applied on the object then, which of the following quantity remains unchanged due to the force couple? (1) Rotational kinetic energy (2) Translational kinetic energy (3) Total kinetic energy (4) Angular momentum about centre of mass ‘A wheel starts from rest under application of torque which gives it an angular acceleration @ = 2t—F for first two seconds after which « Angular velocity of wheel after 2 seconds is (a) J radis (2) 2 radis 3 3 (Seats) ara (6)Test-2 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 36. 37. 38, 39, SECTION -B ‘A frame is made by joining two uniform rods each of mass m and length ¢ as shown in figure. Coordinates of centre of mass is k ‘The graph of force (F) versus displacement (x) for a body of mass 2 kg is shown in figure. If the body has a velocity of 20 mis at x = 0, then the kinetic energy of body at x = 10 mis D i> *(m} (1) 436 J (2) 4804 (3) 4844 (4) 2824 The force F with which a man must pulls the rope in order to keep the platform at rest on which he stands as shown in the figure is (mass of man is 60 kg and that of platform is 20 kg) ‘60 kg 20kg (1) 40 kg-wt (2) 60 kg-wt (3) 80 kg-wt (4) 100 kg-wt ‘A body of mass m rests on a horizontal floor. The coefficient of stalic friction between floor and body is. The minimum possible force that has to be applied to make the body move is. (1) wimg (2) (Mi 1) mg @ = eres! 40, 44 42, 43, 44, The force exerted on an object is F ~4 (2-1) (where fo and a are constants). The work done in moving the object from x = 0 to x= 3ais 3 1 () 5h (2) pha (3) a (4) Zero A ball at rest is dropped from a height h on a smooth floor. The coefficient of restitution is 1/2 The total distance covered by the ball tl it comes to restis (1) 3n (2) 5h (3) 3h A solid ball of mass m = 2 kg is in pure rolling over a horizontal surface with velocity of centre of ‘mass Vim = 10 mis. The kinetic energy of the ball is (1) 1004 (2) 1504 (3) 1404 (4) By ‘The potential energy function U(x) for a particle moving in one dimension is shown in the figure The total energy (E) ofthe particle is indicated by cross on the coordinate axis, For the given energy, region in which particle cannot be found, is Ux), (1) -w SECTION -A The pair which is isoelectronic and isostructural is (1) Bo}, Po (2) so, Pe (3) co%, Nos or (4) NO3,S03° The correct order of bond length is (1) 05 <0, <05 (2) 0; <0} <0, (3) 0} <0; <0, (4) 03 <0, NE (4) 0, + 05 For which of the following reactions, AH — AU > 0? (1) PCIs(g) —> PCb(g) + Cla) (2) Nag) + 3H-{g) —-> 2NHa(9) (3) CO(g) + $020) —> C029) (4) 2NO2(g)—> N2Ox(g) Which among the following is an electron deficient molecule? (1) Site (2) Hes (3) BeHs (4) Fr Path function among the following is (1) Internal energy (2) Gibbs energy (3) Heat (4) Entropy Dipole-dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs? (1) Chand cck. (2) HCl and He (3) HCI and Hes (4) SiFe and He 64, 65, 66, 67. 68, 69, 70, Final Test Series for NEET-2022 ‘A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal mass of CO and Nz. If total pressure of the mixture was found to be 0.5 atmosphere, then partial pressure of CO gas will be (1) 0.35 atm (2) 0.5 atm (3) 0.25 atm (4) 0.12 atm Which among the following has maximum bond angle? (1) cox (2) Co» (3) CH. (4) 803 A system after absorbing 500 J of heat does 100 J of work. The change in internal energy of the system is (1) 6004 (3) -400 5 Incorrect relation among the following is (2) -600 J (4) 400 J (1) AG=AG°+RTInQ (2) AG® = 2.303 RT log K (3) AG® = ZAG* (products) - ZArG*(Reactants) (4) AGop = AHsye TAS. Intramolecular hydrogen bond is absent in NO, oC ‘OH CHO oC ‘OH OCH, oC CH, COOH oC ‘OH aaa (3) Os (4) HS Which of the following is a correct relation between Boyle's temperature (Te) and inversion. temperature (Ti)? (1) Ta=T (3) Ta= 27: 2Te 47a (2) 4) (8)for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-A) 72. 73, 74, 75, 76. 7. 78. 79. fe property among the following is. (1) Density (2) Electrode potential (3) Gibbs energy (4) Molar heat capacity The species which contains only x bonds is (1) Ne @) 03 8) No (4) Ce The compound in which all the G atoms are sp? hybridised is (1) CHs- CH= CH- CH (2) CH, = CH- CH. ~CHs (3) CHa = CH CH= CHe (4) CH= CH-C-=CH Which among the following has highest solubility in water? (1) CHscHO (2) Cote (3) CCk (4) Coe The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule at 30°C will be (1) 628x104 (2) 3.27 x 1079 (3) 628x107") (4) 3.27% 1070 The surface tension of which of the liquid is maximum? (1) #0 (2) CHOH (3) Cols (4) CHCOcHs The compound having sp%d® hybridisation of central atom is (1) XeF, (2) POLF, (8) XeOF. (4) CIF {AH of which of the following reactions represents He? (1) co@)+ 4 049) —> Cone) (2) C(graphite) + 302) —> cog) (3) COxg) + C(s) — 260() (4) Cieamona) + O2(g) —> CO2(g) Bond energies of C - H, C=C, C= C and H-H bonds are 414, 827, 608 and 430 kJ mol respectively. The enthalpy of hydrogenation of CaHe{g) to CzHa(a) will be (1) -127 kJ mort (2) -215 kJ mor (3) -177 kJ mor* (4) -285 kJ mor 80, 81 82. 83, 84, 85. 86. 87, ‘At 300 K, 0.1 mol of an ideal gas is expanded at constant external pressure of 1 aim from 1 L to 10 L. The work done in the process will be (1) -9 Latm (2) -20 L-atm (3) -4.5 L-atm (4) -27 L-atm ‘The percentage increase in temperature of gas when it is heated at constant pressure to increase the volume by 30% is (1) 20% (2) 30% (3) 23.08% (4) 40.15% Consider the following processes A 2B, AH = +100 kJ mol BC+3D, AH=-75kJ mol” 2D > F, AH = +130 kJ mol For A-r60+268 ake) we (1) +25 (2) +15 (3) +35, (4) +5 ‘Among the following, mean multiple bond enthalpy is maximum for (1) NEN ac (3) C=C (4) C=0 Which among the following follows octet rule? (1) NOz (2) SFe (3) H2SO« (4) SC Which among the following has longest bond length? (1) C-H Q)N-0 (3) C-c (4) c-0 SECTION -B In which of the following species, al bond lengths are equal? (1) PBrs (2) CFs (3) SoFs (4) SFe Statement I: Dipole moment of NFs is greater than NHo Statement Il: Both NF2 and NHs are pyramidal in shape. In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer (1) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct, (4) Both statement I and statement 1 incorrect ()Test-2 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 88, Ey 90, 1 92. 93, 94, In which of the following species, the central atom contains highest number of lone pair of olectrons? (1) XeFs Q5 (3) HO (4) PCy Most compressible gas among the following is (1) Oz (2) Ne (3) CHe (4) COz The gas which has highest density under identical condition of temperature and pressure is (1) NOz (2) CO. (3) SOs (4) CHe Which among the following is an incorrect relation? (1) P= 2) PV. 78 oa 27Rb 2 (3) Ve 4) Te Statement I: Octet theory does not account for the shape of molecules. ‘Statement Il; NO is an odd electron molecule. In light of the above statements, choose the correct option. (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement Il is correct (3) Both statement 1 and statement I incorrect (4) Both statement | and statement Il are correct 1 poise is equal to (1) 1 kg mrs (2) 10-* kg nr’ (3) 10 kg ar (4) 10° kg aris"! Correct order of critical temperature of given substances is (1) He > He> Hs0 > NH (2) H20 > NHs > He > He (3) H20 > NHs > He > He (4) NH > HO > He> He are 95, 96. 97. 98, 99, 100. Match column | with column Il Column-1 Column 2[ficyp | | Pentagonal bipyramidal b. | CFs (i)_| Pyramidal c. | Xe0: | (i) | Square planar a. | iF (iv) | Square pyramidal (1) alii), BG), c(t), div) (2) ali), liv), ei), i) (3) a(iv), Bi, efi), (i) (4) aii), b«i), ctiv), oi) Consider the following statements a. Viscosity coefficient is the force when velocity gradient is unity and the area of contact is unit area, Ethylene glycol is more viscous than ethanol. Viscosity of liquid decreases with increase in temperature The correct statements are (1) aandb only (2) band c only (3) aandconly (4) a, bande Temperature of 2 mol of a gas occupying 6 dm? at 1.245 bar pressure is, (R= 0.083 bar dm? K~' mor) (1) 30K (2) 45K (3) 60K (4) 90K Dipole-dipole interaction energy between rotating polar molecules is proportional to (r is the distance between polar molecules) 1 1 a) = (2) z 1 4 @t ws The heat necessary to raise the temperature of 60 g of aluminium from 35°C to 55°C is [Given Molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mot’ K-'] (1) 0.86 kJ (2) 192 ks (3) 1.07 kd (4) 2.76 kd Enthalpy change during isothermal expansion of 2 mol of an ideal gas from 1 L to 10 Lis (1) -13.82 cal (2) +13.82 cal (3) Zero (4) Infinite (10)for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-A) 101 102 103. 104. 105. 106. SECTION-A The classification system based on vegetative structures or androecium structure was given by (1) Linnaeus (2) Engler and Prantl (2) George Bentham (4) Joseph Dalton Hooker Statement A: The number and codes are assigned to all the observable characters and the data is then processed. Statement B: All characters are compared by computers by giving equal importance. ‘Above given statements are true for (1) Cytotaxonomy (2) Numerical taxonomy: (3) Chemotaxonomy (4) Karyotaxonomy ‘Algae forms an association with fungi to form (1) Kelps (2) Lichen (3) Blooms (4) Mycorthiza Filamentous green algae having flagellated gametes is (1) Ulothrix (2) Spirogyra (3) Kelps (4) Volvox Which of the following algae shows anisogamous reproduction? (1) Blue green algae (2) Spirogyra (8) Fucus (4) Eudorina Select the correct statement for the given algae 107 108. 109 110. 1 112, (1) Gametes are non-motile (2) Food is stored as mannitol (3) Cell wall is composed of cellulose and polysulphate esters (4) Stored food is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure Green algae have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of __A__and an outer layer of 8 ‘Aand B respectively are (1) Cellulose, Pectose (2) Pectose, Cellulose (8) Cellulose, Cellulose (4) Pectose, Pectose The colour of members of phaeophyceae vary from olive green to brown depending upon amount of (1) Chlorophyll b (2) Fucoxanthin: (3) phycoerythrin (4) Chlorophyll d (a) The plant body is divided into holdfast, stipe and frond. (b) The gametes are pyriform and bear two laterally attached flagelia. Above given statements are true for (1) Laminaria (2) Chara (8) Polysiphonia (4) Marchantia This plant can live in soil but is dependent on water for sexual reproduction. Itis (1) Fucus (2) Woltfia (8) Cedrus (4) Sphagnum Green, multicellular, asexual buds germinate to form new individuals in liverworts and are called (1) Gemmules (2) Zoospores (3) Gemmae (4) Antipodals (A) Gametophyte consists of two stages ie. protonema stage and leafy state. (B) They are attached to soil through multicellular and branched thizoids. Above statements are correct for (2) Polytrichum (4) Marchantia (1) Sequoia (3) Salvinia (11)Test-2 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 113. 114. 116. 116. 117. ‘Which of the following statement is correct for the first terrestrial plants possessing vascular tissues i.e. xylem and phloem? (1) Dominant phase in life cycle is gametophytic plant body (2) Sporangia produce spores by mitosis in spore mother cells (8) Prothallus formed is multicelled, free living and photosynthetic (4) They do not need water for fertlization Match the following columns and select the correct option Column Columnel (@) | Cycas (| tycopsida (0) | Selaginetia_ | (i) | Gymnosperm with branched stem (©) | Pinus (ai | Diptontc ie cycle (@) | Eucalyptus | (iv) | Ne xing cyanobacteria in roots (1) aliv), bt), efi, ai) (2) alii), Bi), e(), div) (3) a(iv), BOW), e(), ai) (4) a(iv), b(), efi), i) Microphylis are found in (1) Dryopteris (2) Selaginetia (3) Pleris (4) Adiantum Compact strobili or cones are characteristic feature of all of the following plants except (1) Pinus (2) Selaginetta (3) Equisetum (4) Female Cycas plant Sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic and independent phase alternating with haploid gametophyte in (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Volvox (3) Fucus (4) Spirogyra 118. 119. 120. 121 122. 123. 124. Keel is the characteristic feature of the flower of (1) Colchicum autumnale (2) Petunia (8) Indigofera (4) Nicotiana tabacum Select the correct match (1) Phyllode- Pea (2) Leaf spine - Aloe (3) Stolons — Pistia (4) Suckers — Citrus How many of the given plants show the phyllotaxy, where single leaf arises at each node? Alstonia, Calotropis, Chili, China rose, Guava, Datura, Sunflower (1) Three (2) Four () Five (4) Six ‘Stem tend is found in (1) Nepenthes (2) Pisum sativum (3) Grape vine (4) Sweet pea Mark the odd one wr. Lilaceae. (1) Asparagus (2) Gloriosa (3) Ashwagandha (4) Tulp Given floral formula is exemplified by family % $k CrrevaAyerS (1) Fabaceae (2) Solanaceae (3) Liliaceae (4) Brassicaceae Mango is similar to coconut in (1) Being a composite fruit (2) Having a fleshy edible mesocarp (3) Boing parthenocarpic in nature (4) Having stony endocarp (12)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-A) 125. 126. 127. 128, Examine the given figures and choose the correct labels for A & B. (1) A- Taproot of mustard B- Leaf tendril of pea (2) A--Adventitious root of Monstera B - Modification of leaf base (3) A- Fibrous root of grass B- Stolon of mint (4) A-Taproot of Brassica B- Stem tendri of cucurbits 2 $ Ks) Cis) As Gras the floral formula of (1) Liliaceae (3) Brassicaceae Match the following columns and select the correct option. (2) Solanaceae (4) Fabaceae Column | Column It (Flower) (Aestivation of petals) a. Gulmohur () Vaivate b. Calotropis (i) Twisted c. China rose (ii) Vexitlary 4. Bean (iv) imbricate (1) ali, bei, cf), a) (2) afiv), b(i), oii), aii) (8) ali, boi), e@), div) (4) ali, BG, elv), Ai) Mark the incorrect one wr. Allium cepa, (1) Koy (2) Tricarpelary (3) Superior ovary (4) Endospermous seed 129. 130. 131 132 133, 134, 136. 136. 137. ‘Swollen leaf base, pulvinus is found in (1) Bean (2) Rice (3) Maize (4) Oat Negatively gootropic roots (1) Are present in plants of swampy area (2) Are the fibrous roots of mangrove plants (3) Are meant for assimilation of CO2 (4) Both (2) and (3) How many of the given plants have parallel venation in leaf? Bamboo, Indigofera, Peepal, Lily, Wheat, Sunflower (1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Two Epiphylious stamens are present in (1) Lily (2) China rose (3) Rose (4) Gram Proteinaceous layer in maize seed is (1) Scutellum (2) Coleoptile (3) Epiblast (4) Aleurone layer In which of the following plants, ovary is not inferior? (1) Cucumber (2) Bittergourd (3) Petunia (4) Guava How many of the given plants have axile placentation? Sunflower, Dianthus, primrose, china rose, tomato, Argemone, pea, lemon (1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five SECTION -B Which among the following characters are not considered in natural classification systems? (1) External features (2) Evolutionary relationships (3) Phytochemistry (4) Embryology Volvox isiform (1) Filamentous algae (2) Colonial algae (3) Massive plant bodies. (4) Anisogamous (13)Test-2 (Code-A) Final Test Series for NEET-2022 138. Mark the statements as true (T) and false (F) and | 145. How many of the following are mainly used as select correct option emamental and medicinal plant, respectively? ‘A. Algae are primary producers of energy rich “ioe, Belladonna, Lupin, Sweet pea, Potunia, ‘compounds, Muliathi, Gloriosa B. Both brown algae and red algae produce ee (1) Foun tives —@) Two: Five C. Chlorella is filamentous algae used as food (3) One; Six (4) Six; One supplement by space travellers. 146. The main function of stem in most ofthe plants is A BoC (1) Conduction of water and minerals from ye. oe leaves to roots ” (2) Provide anchorage to the plant @ TOF F (3) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, (3) OF T T flowers and fruits 4) FOF T (4) Vegetative propagation and protection from @) oa tina , high ight intensity ‘38. Find the correct matct 147. In a flower, filaments of stamens are united with (1) Fucus — Non-motile each other which represents male gametes (1) Cohesion of stamens (2) Chlamydomonas — Thalloid {2) Adhesion of stamens faeries (2) Teraayamour conden (4) Epipetalous condition (8) Eetocorpus, ——Branchedalgee | 4g jodiied adventtious roots for mechanical (4) Porphyra —leogemous tupportin sugercene and benyen ta respectively 140. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and | __(1) Prop roat and sti oot accompanied by complex post fertiizaton | (2) suit root and prop root developments in (3) Fibrous root and stilt root (1) Spirogyra (2) Chlamydomonas (4) Prop root and adventtiousroct (3) Sargassum (4) Polysiphonia 149. How many of the given plants have marginal 141. The main plant body of bryophyte ian (1) Is diploid (2) Produces gametes Pea, Tomato, Marigold, Mullathi, Petunia, (3) Is not free living (4) Is called sporophyte Indigofera, Lupin 142. Which of the folowing is not the function of the | (4) Two (2) Four ? typical oot system (tw ose (1) Phytohormone synthesis 150. Floral formula of Brassica flower is (2) Provide anchorage tothe plant parts (8) Food storage - g ss @9 Pass G (4) Transpiration a) 3+) Ass Say 143, Find the odd one out wt stem modification $ ms (1) Benana (2) Pineapple @ 99 Ko Go As Gay (8) Chrysanthemum (4) Opuntia (1) Tomato: (2) Tulip g (@) Sunhemp (4) Mustara 4) % $ Key Cras@ Ames (14)for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-A) 161 162 SECTION -A The main function of epithelium pancreatic ducts is lining the (1) Secretion (2) Absorption (3) Forming a diffusion boundary (4) Protection against mechanical stresses How many of the following in the box given below are not secreted by exocrine glands? Saliva, Insulin, Mucus, Oil, Mik, Earwax, Trypsin, Melatonin, Nuclease 153. 154. (1) Two (2) Four (3) Seven (4) Five The kind of epithelium which is found in the lining of stomach is (1) Squamous epithelium (2) Columnar epithelium (3) Clliated columnar epithelium (4) Cuboidal epithelium Read the given statements and select the option that correctly identifies them as true (T) or false (F). ‘A. The tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna is also found in nails. Nisss granules are mainly composed of ribosome and RER, In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances perform a specific function, A B c at F F QF F T @T T T (4) F T T 155. 156. 157. 158, 159 160. ‘The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the body of complex animals is (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue The muscle fibres that can alter the diameter of blood vessels is (1) Cylindrical in shape (2) Striated (3) Uninucleated (4) Voluntary Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. type of loose connective tissue that serves as a support framework for epithelium? (1) Contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells (2) Presence of a semi-fiuid ground substance (3) Present beneath the skin (4) Specialised to store fats and glycogen ‘They make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in our body. Identify them. (1) Neurons (2) Neuroglia (3) Excitable cells (4) Axon All of the following are types of specialised connective tissue, except (1) Tendon (2) Cartilage (3) Blood (4) Bone ‘Simple columnar epithelium a) ls composed of multiple layer of tall and slender cells (2) Does not have basal nuclei in cells 3) (4) Does not help in secretion and absorption May have microvilli on free surface of the cells (15)Test-2 (Code-A) 161. Match column with column-II w.r-t. reproductive system of cockroach. ‘Column-| ‘Column. 246" abdominal segments 4-6 abdominal segments 6 abdominal segment (6-7 abdominal segments (a) | Testis @ (0) | Ovary @ (©) [Mushroom gland i) (@) | Spermatheca | (iv) Choose the correct option @ ® © @ ma O @& Gi 20 WG) aH WO Gi) ao ww Choose the odd one wrt. excretory structures in Poriplaneta (1) Fat body (2) Hepatic caecae (3) Malpighian tubules (4) Urecose glands The extemal changes which are visible after the last mouit ofa cockroach nymph is (1) Labrum develops (2) Development of anal cerci (3) Both forewings and hindwings develop from wing pads (4) Formation of alimentary canal Genital pouch in male cockroach is formed by (1) 9® and 10" terga, 9" sternum. (2) 7%, 8" and 9" sterna (3) 9% tergum, 9" and 10" stema (4) 7® terqum, 8° and 9" sterna Choose the incorrect match from the following (1) Squamous: Alveoli of lungs epithelium Cuboidal epithelium Ligaments 162 163. 164. 165. 2 PCT of nephrons @) Attach skeletal muscles to bones. (4) Bone Osteocytes The epithelium which helps to move ovum through oviduct is also present in (1) Blood vessels (2) Bronchioles 166. Final Test Series for NEET-2022 (3) Ocsophagus (4) Moist surface of buccal cavity 167. Which of the following is correct w.rt, muscle fibres present in biceps of humans? (1) Muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion (2) A sheath of dense connective tissue called fascicles encloses several bundles of muscle fibres. (3) We usually are not able to make it contract merely by thinking about it. (4) Muscle fibres lengthen in response to an external stimulus then return to their shorter form, 168. In each abdominal segment of cockroach, exoskeleton has hardened plates called A ventrally and _B_ dorsally. Select the correct option to filin the blanks. A B (1) Sclerites Tergites (2) Stemites Tergites (3) Tergites Sternites (4) Tergites Scierites 169. Anterior part of brood pouch of female Periplaneta does not contain (1) Spermathecal pores (2) Female gonopore (3) Opening of duct of phallic gland (4) Opening of duct of collaterial glands 170. Assertion(A): The kind of vision in cockroach is. said to be mosaic, Reason(R): Each compound eye of cockroach is made up of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia, each of which is capable of forming a separate image. In the light of above statements, choose the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true but (R) is false (4) (A)is false but (R) is true (16)Final Test Si for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-A) Ta Match the given cell junctions in Column-t with their description in Column 172 173. 174. Column-t Columneit (@) | Tight (| Rapid transfer of ions, junetions ‘small molecules and sometimes big molecules. (©) | Gap (i) | Establish a barrier to junctions prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells (©) [Adhering | (ii) | Cytoplasmic channels junctions to facilitate communication between adjacent cells (iv) | Cementing to keep neighbouring cells, together Choose the correct option, fa) (b) (c) (1) (il) @ (ii) (2) (iv) (ili) w @) ai) wi) (4) (i) “ w Read the given features w.rt. bones of humans (2) Hard and non-pliable ground substance (0) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres (c) Bone cells are present in lacunae (4) Bone marrow of all bones contain medullary cavity which is the site of production of blood cells How many of the above features are correct for bone? (1) Three (2) One (3) Four (4) Two ‘Which of the following is correct w.rt. respiratory system of cockroach? (1) Consists of tracheoles which is divided into trachea (2) 10 spiracles present on the lateral sides of the body (8) Presence of a respiratory pigment (4) Exchange of gases takes place at the tracheoles In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in the __ ofthe reproductive system Select the correct option to fil the blank. (1) Seminal vesicles (2) Mushroom glands 3) Testes (4) Vas deferens 175. 176. 177 178. 179. Complete the analogy w-rt. muscle fibres. Intercalated disc : Heart :: multinucleated condition: (1) Stomach (2) Intestine (3) Urinary bladder (4) Thigh muscles ‘Cells of this tissue are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix secreted by them.’ Identify the tissue. (1) Adipose tissue (2) Areolar tissue (3) Tendons (4) Cartilage The tissue which exerts the greatest control over the body's responsiveness to changing conditions is (1) Muscularttissue (2) Neural tissue (3) Connective tissue (4) Epithelial tissue All of the following are true for Periplaneta americana, except (1) It belongs to the largest phylum of kingdom Animalia (2) It is bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and. coelomate animal (8) It is about 34-53 em long with wings that extend beyond the tip of abdomen in males. (4) The entire body is covered by a hard chitinous exoskeleton, Observe the given figure and choose the option which represents correct description of the labelled parts (1) A: Stores food; also known as proventriculus (2) B: Internally lined by cuticle (3) C: Yellow thin structures coloured filamentous (4) D: Helps in digestion (17)Test-2 (Code-A) 180. Function of neuroglial cells is to (1) Generate action potential (2) Protect and support neurons (3) Facilitate movement of body parts, (4) Act as link between cyton and axon 181. Choose the odd one w.r-. compound epithelium lining of the given structures. (1) Dry surface of skin (2) Wall of blood vessels (8) Moist surface of buccal cavity (4) Duets of salivary glands Which of the following features is not present in cockroaches? 182 (1) Exoskeleton composed of polymer of N- acetyl glucosamine (2) Presence of open circulatory system (3) Metamerically segmented body (4) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during ‘embryonic development 183. Choose the correctly matched pair. (1)]Areolartissue |- [Dense regular connective tissue (2)| Ligament — |Dense irregular connective tissue (3)] Adipose tissue |- |Loose connective tissue (4)| Lymph — | Fibrous connective tissue 184. Which of the following animals is not beneficial for humans? (1) Rana tigrina (2) Pheretima (3) Bombyx (4) Periplaneta americana The number of alary muscles in cockroach is. (1) 24 (2) 20 (3) 12 (4) 14 185. Final Test Series for NEET-2022 SECTION -B 186. Observe the given figure of a loose connective tissue. How many of the labelled parts in the given figure are also present in the main circulating fluid of our body? (1) One (2) Five (3) Four (4) Two 187. Read the given statements and select the correct option Statement X: Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified columnar epithelial cells. Statement Y: Arrival of the electrical disturbance at the output zone, triggers events that always cause stimulation of adjacent neurons and other cells (1) Both statements X and Y are correct (2) Both statements X and Y are incorrect (3) Only statement X is correct (4) Only statement Y is correct, 188. Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence for the passage of sperms in male frogs. A. Testes B. Cloaca C. Vasa efferentia —D. Urinogenital duct E. Kidney F. Bidder’s canal Select the correct option. (1) ASC 5F5E5B50 Q) ASC5E>F 5058 Q) ASF oC5E>D>B (4) FoA5C5ESD 5B Cockroaches differ from humans in all of the following features, except (1) Type of blood vascular system (2) Type of excretory product (3) Type of vision (4) Internal fertilisation 189 (18)Final Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-2 (Code-A) 190. Read the given features carefully. (a) Sensory in function (b) First body segment (c) Covering for mouth (4) Act as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil How many of the features given above are true for prostomium of an earthworm? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) One Which of the following is a common feature between neurons and muscle fibres? (1) Contractibilty (2) Elasticity (3) Conductivity (4) Extensibility The development in cockroach is 191 192 (1) Without metamorphosis (2) With gradual metamorphosis (3) With incomplete metamorphosis (4) With complete metamorphosis 193. Choose the odd one from the following wart. cockroach, (1) Peristomium (2) Mesothorax (3) Metathorax (4) Coxa Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. nervous, system of cockroach? (1) If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still survive for as long as one week. 194. (2) In head region, the brain is represented by ‘supra-oesophageal ganglion. (3) Itis situated along the dorsal part ofits body. (4) Three ganglia lie in thorax and six in the abdomen 195. Read the given statements and select the correct, option. Statement A: All smooth muscle fibres are involuntary but all involuntary muscle fibres are not smooth. Statement B: All striated muscles are voluntary but all voluntary muscle fibres are not striated. (1) Both statement A and B are correct (2) Both statement A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement B is correct (4) Only statement A is correct a 196. From each testis of cockroach arises a thin vas deferens, which opens into ‘A’ through ‘8’. The ‘®’ opens into male gonophore situated ‘C’ to anus. Identify A, B and C. A B c (1) Vasefferentia Ejaculatory Dorsal duct (2) Ejaculatory Seminal Ventral duct vesicle (3) Ejaculatory Seminal Dorsal duct vesicle (4) Ejaculatory —Phallic_ Lateral duct gland 197. Assertion (A): Multicellularity does not contributes to the survival of animal body as a whole. Reason (R): Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split up the work in a way that exhibits division of labour. In the light of above statements, select the correct option. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (3) (A)is true, (R) is false (4) (A)is false, (R) is true 198. Choose the organism whose body is made of different types of cells and a group of similar cells alongwith intercellular substances perform a specific function (1) Euspongia (2) Spongita (3) Scypha (4) Sea anemone 199. Which of the following is not a function of bones? (1) Support and protect softer tissues and organs (2) Serve weight-bearing function (3) Production of body heat (4) Bring about movements with the help of muscles 200. The cells which secrete modified polysaccharides, that accumulate between cells and fibres and act as matrix, is (2) Mast cells (4) Collagen fibres (1) Macrophages (8) Fibroblasts (19)