CENTURION 

UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY & MANAGEMENT

ANDHRA PRADESH

EXAMINATION CELL

SUBJECT NAME: Post Anesthesia care Unit

SUBJECT CODE: CUTM1828

MODULE NO: 4
S. NO MCQ
1 How many techniques are there in breast biopsy
A 2
B 3 Yes
C 4
D 5
2 In FNAC breast mass is holded by index finger
and thumb
A True Yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A
3 In excisional biopsy, it is done under

A Local Yes
B GA
C Spinal
D Epidural

4 The best level of anesthesia of LSCS

A T8

B T4 Yes
C T6

D T10
5 The Doyens retractor is introduced and the
peritoneal cavity is packed by gauze pieces
A True
B False Yes
C N/A
D N/A
6 Use of oxytocin during LSCS
 A Relaxation of uterus
B Contraction of vagina
C Contraction of uterus Yes
D None of above
7 In excisional breast biopsy, we remove whole the
breast
A True Yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A
8 Indications for cesarean section is are of

A 3 types
B 2 types Yes
C 1
D 4 types

9 Which anesthesia is choice in cesarean section

A Epidural
B Spinal
C Caudal
D Both A & B Yes
10 The best level of anesthesia of LSCS
A T8

B T4 Yes
C T6

D T10
11 In excisional breast biopsy, we remove whole the
breast
A True Yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A
12 Surgical excision of breast is called as
 A excision biopsy
B whipple
C Mastectomy yes
D incisional
13 the breast extends vertically from 2nd rib to 6th rib

A True yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A

14 breast tissue is supported by how many muscles

A 2
B 3 yes
C 4
D 5
15 For mastectomy patient is placed in which
position
A prone
B lateral
C jack knife
D Supine yes
16 How many techniques of mastectomy are
A 2
B 3
C 4 yes
D 5
17 in partial mastectomy whole of the breast mass is
excisied along with _________ of surrounding
health breast
A 0.5 cm yes
B 0.05 cm
C 50 cm
D 5 cm
 18 Radicle Mastectomy

A whole breast is removed

B top layer is removed
C whole breast is removed with surrounding
structures are removed
D underlying breast mass is removed

19 Reduction mamoplasty is a surgical technique of

reshaping the breast
A True yes

B False
C N/A
D N/A
20 Reduction mamoplasty is done under
A GA yes
B Spinal

C Both A & B

D None of above

21 Augmentum mamoplasty is a surgical procedure

in which the breast is reconstructed by
implantation
A True yes

B False

C N/A

D N/A
22 In Augmentum mamoplasty we use

A silicon prosthesis
B Backers balloon

C Both A & b yes

D None of above

23 Principle of surgical incision

 A Avoid cutting of nerves in vessels
B Incision should be long enough for good
exposure

C Retract muscle, abdominal organs towards

neurovascular bundle

D All of above Yes

24 Choice of incision ids depend upon

A Type of surgery

B Previous surgery

C Target organ

D All of above Yes

25 The ideal incision allows

A Heals slowly & maximum scarring

B Ideally muscles should be split rather than cut Yes

C Ideally muscle should be cut

 D None of above

26 Vertical incisions

A kocher's incision

B Mid line Yes

C C shaped

D Oblique

27 Advantages of mid line incisions

A Almost blood less

B No muscle fibers are divided

C No nerves are injured

D all of above Yes

28 Lower mid line incision starts from xiphisternum

to umbilicus
 A True

B False yes

C N/A

D N/A

29 How many modification are there in kocher’s

incision

A 2 Yes

B 3

C 4

D 5

30 Roof top incision is given in

A Total gastrectomy

B Total oesophagectomy
 C Extensive hepatic resection

D All of above Yes

31 Mercedes benz incision provides excellent access

to lower abdominal viscera

A True

B False Yes

C N/A

D N/A

32 In pfannenstiel incision, patient position

A Supine

B Lithotomy

C Modified dorsal lithotomy

D All of above Yes

33 pfannenstiel incision is frequently used in

A Gynecology

B Urology

C Both A &B Yes

D None of above

34 How many regions are there in abdomen

A 6

B 9 Yes

C 12

D 8

35

A
 B

36

37

C
 D

38

39

CENTURION UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY & MANAGEMENT

 ANDHRA PRADESH

EXAMINATION CELL

SUBJECT NAME: Post Anesthesia care Unit

SUBJECT CODE: CUTM1828

MODULE NO: 5
S. NO MCQ
1 Goal of pain management
A Improve quality of the patient
B Reduce morbidity
C Allow easy discharge from hospital
D All of above yes
2 According to pathophysiology pain is classified
into
A 2 yes
B 3
C 4
D 5
3 Nociceptive is due to injury and acquired
abnormalities of CNS
A True
B False yes
C N/A
D N/A

4 Acute pain caused by noxious stimulation due to

injury
A True yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A
5 Acute pain is how many types
A 2 yes
B 3
C 4
D 5
6 Somatic pain
A Superficial
B Deep
C Both A & B yes
 D None of above
7 Deep somatic pain arise from
A Bones
B Muscles
C Tendons
D All of above yes
8 If there ll be pain in T2-T6 which organ ll be
effected with the pain
A Colon
B Heart
C Lungs yes
D Uterus

9 If there ll be pain in T1-T4 which organ ll be

effected with the pain
A Colon
B Heart yes
C Lungs
D Uterus
10 If there ll be pain in T3-T8 which organ ll be
effected with the pain
A Esophagus yes
B Spleen
C Pancreas
D intestines
11 If there ll be pain in T5-T10 which organ ll be
effected with the pain
A Esophagus
B Spleen
C Pancreas
D Both B & C yes
12 If there ll be pain in T6-T9 which organ ll be
effected with the pain
A Stomach
B Liver
C Gall bladder
 D all of above yes
13 If there ll be pain in T10-L0 which organ ll be
effected with the pain
A Kidney
B Ovaries
C Testis
D All of above yes

14 Which is advanced analgesia that may assist the

to control the pain
A Epidural
B PCA
C Both A & B yes
D None of above
15 The pain rating scale in adults is known as
A Wong Baker face scale yes
B Kong Baker Face scale
C Long baker face scale
D Wong Maker face scale
16 How many grades are there in pain rating scale
A 12
B 10 yes
C 9
D 8
17 Pain rating scale as be used as which scale
A Facial
B Numbers
C words
D All of above Yes
18 Which pain scale is used in 3- 8 yrs

A Wong Baker face scale

B Analogue Face Scale
C Color Face scale yes
 D None of above

19 WHO have given Step Ladder in management of

pain
A True yes

B False
C N/A
D N/A
20 When there is a mild pain which drug WHO
recommend
A Acetaminophen
B NSAIDs

C Both A & B yes

D All of above

21 When there is a moderate pain which drug WHO

recommend
A Codeine

B Tramadol

C Oxycodone

D All of above yes

22 When there is a severe pain which drug WHO
recommend
A Morphine
B Hydromorpone

C Oxycodone
D All of above yes
23 WHO guidelines in pain management

A Oral medications whenever possible

B Use appropriate dosing intervals

C Treat side effects

D All of above yes

24 Methods in give the medications in Acute post
operative pain Relief

A Intramuscular

B intravenous

C Epidural analgesia

D All of above yes

25 PCA is modified infusion pump that allows the

patient to self administer a small dose of opioid

A True yes

B False

C N/A

D N/A

26 Benefits of PCA

A Decrease nursing time

 B Decrease level of sedation

C Earlier ambulation

D All of above yes

27 Benefits of epidural except

A Earlier ambulation

B Better pain control

C Increase incidence of DVT yes

D Faster return of bowl function

28 Local anesthesia comes under

A General anesthesia

B Regional Anesthesia yes

C Local anesthesia
 D None of above

29

Identify which equipment is this

A Epidural set

B PCA yes

C Spinal set

D None of above

30 How many classifications are there in local

anesthesia

A 2 yes

B 3

C 1

D 4
31

32

33

A
 B

34

35

C
 D

36

37

38
 A

39

40

A
B

C
D
CENTURION UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY & MANAGEMENT

ANDHRA PRADESH
 EXAMINATION CELL

SUBJECT NAME: Post Anesthesia care Unit

SUBJECT CODE: CUTM1828

MODULE NO: 6

S. NO MCQ
1 A surgical drain is a tube used to
A Remove pus
B Blood
C Body fluids
 D All of above yes
2 Indications of surgical drain
A To help eliminate dead Space
B To remove pus
C Decrease infection rate
D All of above yes
3 Open drain increases infection rate

A True yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A

4 Hemovac drain is the example of open drain

A True yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A
5 Active drains are
A corrugated tubing
B Stoma bag
C Jackson-Pratt yes
D None of Above
6 Risk infection is reduced in closed drain
A True yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A
7 Passive drain have a negative suction
A True
B False yes
C N/A
D N/A
8 How many sizes are available in folly’s catheter

A 09
B 10
C 11 yes
D 12

9 Folly’s catheter are made up of

A Silicon
B Latex
C Rubber
D all of above yes
10 Indication of folly’s catheter,Except
A To allow urine to drain
B To drain bladder during and after surgical
procedure
C To allow patient to urinate
D To take blood sample in urine yes
11 Complication of surgical drain
A Blockade
B Foreign body reaction
C Fluid accumulation
D All of above yes
12 When the drain should be removed
A Drain has stopped
B fluid comes out 25ml/day
C Both A & b yes
D None of above?
13 What is a myocardial infarction?

A Heart failure
B Heart attack yes
C cardiac arrest
D All of above
14 Sudden cardiac arrest means that the heart
A Stops beating yes
B Beats dangerously slow
C Has cycle of beating and stopping
D Skip beats
15 Symptoms of heart attack can include
A Dizziness ,weakness, arm pain
B Heart palpation, shortness of breath
C Nausea and vomiting
D All of above yes
16 Risk of heart disease
A High blood pressure
B Smoking
C Lack of exercise
D All of above yes
17 The term heart failure means the heart has stopped
working completely
A True
B False yes
C N/A
D N/A
18 People can be born with heart disease

A True yes
B False
C N/A
D N/A

19 The medical term for chest pain is

A Angina yes

B There is no treatment for chest pain

C Flutter
D Arrhythmias
20 Heart palpitation symptoms can feel like:
 A Skipped heartbeat
B Heartbeats that are too fast

C Fluttering heart beats

D All the above yes

21 What of the following can cause heart palpitation?

A Anxiety and stress

B Fever

C caffeine

D All the Above yes

22 Arrhythmias are common and usually harmless

A True yes
B False

C N/A
D N/A

23 Which term refers to a fast beat

A Rapidocardia
B Tachycardia yes

C Bradycardia

D None of above

24 A low resting heart beat may be a result of physical

fitness

A True yes

B False
 C N/A

D N/A

25 Consent is taken for the purpose of

A Discharge

B Admit

C Surgical procedure yes

D None of above

26 The patient has no right to ask questions of the

procedure

A True

B False yes

C N/A

D N/A
27 A consent document should contain

A Surgeons name

B Specific procedure

C Authorized person

D all the above yes

28 The patient giving consent should be legal age and

mentally fit

A True yes

B False

C N/A

D N/A

29 Patient has no right to refuse surgical procedure

A True
 B False yes

C N/A

D N/A

30 Patient have right to withdraw consent out any time

before the surgical procedure

A True yes

B False

C N/A

D N/A

31

C
 D

32

33

34
 A

35

36

B
 C

37

38

D
39

CENTURION UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY & MANAGEMENT

ANDHRA PRADESH
 EXAMINATION CELL

SUBJECT NAME: Post Anesthesia care Unit

SUBJECT CODE: CUTM1828

MODULE NO: 7

S. NO MCQ
1 Hourly fluid maintenance is calculated by which
formula
 A 1:2:4
B 2:1:4
C 4:2:1 yes
D 4:1:2
2 IV fluids are divided into
A 2 yes
B 3
C 4
D 5
3 Which among is not a colloid

A Gelatin
B Albumin
C Blood
D All of Above yes

4 How much of Calcium is present in RL

A 5 mEq/l
B 3 mEq/l
C 2 mEq/l
D 4 mEq/l
5 The Ringer Lactate is
A Alkaline
B Acidic yes
C Both A & B
D none of above
6 Which crystalloid fluid is choice for blood loss
replacement
A NS
B DNS
C RL yes
D D5
7 Colloids have large molecules
A True yes
B False
 C
D
8 Ns 0.9 % conatins

A NA 145,CL145
B NA 160,CL145
C NA 140,CL140
D NA 154,CL154 yes

9 D5% conains how much of dextrosegm/dl

A 50 yes
B 5
C 100
D 500
10 Ringer lactare is also known as Hartmans sol
A True yes
B False
C
D
11 DNS is also called Maintanance fluid
A True yes
B False
C
D
12 What is the Half of Dextrans
A 2-8 hrs yes
B 8-19 hrs
C 2-4 hrs
D 8-12 hrs
13 Albumin is available in

A 5%
B 25 %
C 30%
 D Both A & B yes

14 In which medical condition we can use albumin

A Liver Failure
B Peritonitis
C Burns
D All of above yes
15 How much of potassium is present in albumin
A 12 mEg
B 8 mEq
C 5 mEq yes
D 6 mEq
16 How many kinds of hydroxyethyl starch are there
A 2 Yes
B 3
C 4
D 5
17 Hydro ethyl starch is available in
A 6%
B 10%
C Both A & B yes
D None of above
18 How many formula are there in fluid management in
burn patients
A 4
B 3 yes
C 2
D 1

19 Which crystalloid is choice of fluid in burn patients

A NS

B RL yes
C DNS
D D5
 20 What is the parkland formula
A 4 ml × % of Burn surface × Wt in KG yes
B 2 ml × % of Burn surface × Wt in KG

C 5 ml × % of Burn surface × Wt in KG

D 1 ml × % of Burn surface × Wt in KG yes

21 Colloid choice in burn patients

A Starch

B Gelatin

C Blood

D Albumin yes
22 what is the brokes formula after 24 hours of fluid
infusion
A 0.5 ml/kg/% of burn surface
B 0.5-0.8 ml/kg/% of burn surface

C 0.3-0.5 ml/kg/% of burn surface yes

D 1 ml/kg/% of burn surface

23 D5 is used after 24 hours in parkland

A True yes
B False
C
D

24 How to infuse the total volume in Brooke in first 24

hours

A ½ in first in 8 hours ,then rest ½ in 16 hrs yes

B ½ in first in 16 hours ,then rest ½ in 8 hrs

 C Both A & B

D None of above

25 After 24 hrs what is the rate of colloids in brooke’s

formula

A 3ml/kg/%of burn patient

B 0.03ml/kg/%of burn patient

C 0.3ml/kg/%of burn patient yes

D None of above

26

D
27

28

29

A
 B

30

31

C
 D

32

33

34
 A

35

36

B
 C

37

38

D
39