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Grade 12 Diploma Examination
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January 1999
Science 30
Grade 12 Diploma Examination
Description
Time: 2.5 h. This examination was
developed to be completed in 2.5 h;
however, you may take an additional
0.5 h to complete the examination.
This is a closed-book examination
consisting of
• 40 multiple-choice and 12 numerical-
response questions of equal value,
worth 65% of the examination
• 1 short-answer question and 2 long-
answer questions, worth 35% of the
examination.
This examination contains sets
of related questions.
A set of questions may contain
multiple-choice and/or numerical-
response and/or written-response
questions.
A science data booklet is provided for
your reference.
Note: The perforated pages at the back of
this booklet may be torn out and used for
your rough work. No marks will be given
for work done on the tear-out pages.
Instructions
• You are expected to provide your own
scientific calculator.
• Use only an HB pencil for the
machine-scored answer sheet.
• Fill in the information required on the
answer sheet and the examination
booklet as directed by the presiding
examiner.
• Read each question carefully.
• Consider all numbers used in the
examination to be the result of a
measurement or observation.
• When performing calculations, use the
values of the constants provided in the
data booklet. Do not use the values
programmed in your calculator.
• If you wish to change an answer, erase
all traces of your first answer.
• Do not fold the answer sheet.
• The presiding examiner will collect
your answer sheet and examination
booklet and send them to Alberta
Education.
• Now turn this page and read the
detailed instructions for answering
machine-scored and written-response
questions.
Multiple Choice
• Decide which of the choices best
completes the statement or answers
the question.
• Locate that question number on the
separate answer sheet provided and
fill in the circle that corresponds to
your choice.
Numerical Response
• Record your answer on the answer
sheet provided by writing it in the
boxes and then filling in the
corresponding circles.
• If an answer is a value between 0 and 1
(e.g., 0.25), then be sure to record the 0
before the decimal place.

Example • Enter the first digit of your answer

This examination is for the subject of in the left-hand box and leave any
unused boxes blank.
A. science
B. biology Examples
C. physics
D. Calculation Question and Solution
chemistry
The average of the values 21.0, 25.5, and
Answer Sheet 24.5 is _________.
A B C D (Record your answer to three digits in the
numerical-response section on the answer
sheet.)
Average = (21.0 + 25.5 + 24.5)/3
= 23.666
= 23.7 (rounded to three digits

Record 23.7 on the

answer sheet 23 .7
. .
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

ii
 Written Response
Correct-Order Question and Solution • Write your answers in the examination
booklet as neatly as possible.
When the following subjects are arranged in
alphabetical order, the order is ____, ____,
____, and ____ . • For full marks, your answers must
1 physics
address all aspects of the question.
2 biology
3 science • Descriptions and/or explanations of
4 chemistry concepts must be correct and include
(Record all four digits of your answer in the pertinent ideas, diagrams, calculations,
numerical-response section on the answer and formulas.
sheet.)
Answer: 2413 • Your answers must be presented in a
well-organized manner using complete
Record 2413 on the
sentences, correct units, and significant
answer sheet 2413 digits where appropriate.
. .
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 • Relevant scientific, technological, and/or
2 2 2 2
societal concepts and examples must be
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
identified and made explicit.
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

iii
The principles of biology, chemistry, and physics are applied at a medical facility.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Structural Formula of a Disinfectant

H H H

–
–
–
H– C–C–C–H

–
–
–
H O H

–
H

1. The substance shown above is used as a disinfectant. Its chemical name is

A. propane
B. 2-ethane
C. methanol
D. 2-propanol

2. A patient is treated for an electrical shock. When he received the shock, his skin had
a resistance of 500
and he was grounded with a 115 V line. The current that flowed
through his body was

A. 0.230 A
B. 4.35 A
C. 385 A
D. 615 A

3. The component in blood that is responsible for clotting is

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells
C. helper T cells
D. platelets

1
4. Some forms of cancer can be treated by exposure of the affected tissues to
cobalt-60, a radioactive isotope. In the equation for the production of this isotope,
59
27 Co + x 60
27 Co
x represents

A. a proton
B. a neutron
C. an electron
D. an alpha particle

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Measuring Blood Pressure

Rubber cuff inflated with air

Vessel X

5. The vessel labelled X, which is compressed by the cuff, carries blood away from
the heart. The vessel is

A. an artery carrying oxygenated blood

B. an artery carrying deoxygenated blood
C. a vein carrying oxygenated blood
D. a vein carrying deoxygenated blood

2
6. The blood in the veins of the leg can flow against the force of gravity because

A. veins have one-way valves that help return blood to the heart
B. the blood in the veins is pulled by a vacuum
C. veins carry deoxygenated blood
D. veins have thin walls

7. Antibodies are important in the defence of the body. They

A. are produced by antigens present in the blood

B. are produced in response to bacteria and viruses in the blood or tissues
C. combine with phagocytes to form cells that are resistant to invading particles
D. combine with antigens to form chemical compounds that protect the body
against bacteria or viruses

8. The sympathetic nervous system is likely most active when a person is

A. running a race
B. digesting a large meal
C. sleeping in the afternoon
D. recovering from an illness

3
Genetic research has a significant impact on the development of medical technology.

Use the following information to answer the next three questions.

A Potential Gene Therapy

A protein known as VP22, which is made by the cold sore virus, seems to
have good potential for gene therapy. It moves freely into and out of cells and
their nuclei. Experiments have been performed in which the gene that
produces VP22 has been introduced into mammalian cells. When the gene
enters a cell, VP22 is produced. The protein VP22 then enters an average of
200 neighbouring cells. In this way, scientists can use the VP22 as a carrier
for distributing genetic material, proteins, or drugs.

9. When the gene that produces VP22 enters the nucleus of a cell and begins the
production of VP22, the cell is expressing

A. a point mutation
B. a recessive gene
C. recombinant DNA
D. a chromosomal abnormality

10. In most cases, when foreign proteins such as VP22 enter the body, they are initially
attacked by

A. antibodies
B. macrophages
C. helper T cells
D. killer (cytotoxic) T cells

4
 Use the following additional information to answer the next question.

Steps for Using VP22 on a Rabbit

1 The drug affects the functioning of the liver.
2 Drug molecules are attached to VP22 molecules in the lab.
3 The drug molecules attached to the VP22 enter the cells of the rabbit,
including the liver cells.
4 The drug molecules attached to the VP22 are injected into the bloodstream
of the rabbit.

Numerical Response

01. Researchers wish to use a drug to treat the diseased liver of a rabbit using VP22.
The order in which the steps must occur is _____, _____, _____, and _____.

(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

5
 Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

Early in 1997, a group of researchers in Scotland reported that they had cloned
a sheep using genetic material from an adult female sheep. They named the
clone Dolly. The following diagram outlines how this cloning was
accomplished.
Process of Cloning a Sheep

Sheep A

Remove DNA from

unfertilized egg
Remove
udder cell
from sheep A Fuse cells

Zygote with
DNA from
sheep A

Culture

Implanted
surrogate

Clone of A (Dolly)

11. The percentage of genetic material that the clone (Dolly) has in common with
sheep A is approximately

A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

6
12. The zygote is cultured and is implanted as a multicelled embryo. During the step
labelled “Culture,” the cells of the future clone undergo

A. mitosis
B. meiosis
C. fertilization
D. gene splicing

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Punnett Squares

1 2
T T T t
T T
t t

3 4
T t t t
t t
t t

T – Dominant trait
t – Recessive trait

Numerical Response

02. Inherited traits are determined by the gene pairs of parents. Match the Punnett
square, as numbered above, with the probability of a recessive trait being expressed
in the offspring, as listed below.

0% _____ (Record in the first column.)

25% _____ (Record in the second column.)
50% _____ (Record in the third column.)
100% _____ (Record in the fourth column.)

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

7
The petroleum industry has a significant environmental and economic impact in Alberta.

13. When technologists explore for oil deposits, they pass sound waves through
sedimentary rock to determine the thickness of the layers. As the sound waves
travel from one sedimentary layer to another, their paths are bent. This phenomena
is similar to the

A. reflection of light by a mirror

B. polarization of light by sunglasses
C. amplification of light by a laser source
D. refraction of light entering water from air

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Pipeline welders use ethyne (acetylene) as a fuel for “cutting torches.” The
balanced equation for the combustion of acetylene is

2 C2H2(g) + 5 O2(g)  4 CO2(g) + 2 H2O(g)

14. The energy conversion that occurs during this reaction is from

A. chemical to thermal energy

B. electrical to thermal energy
C. thermal to mechanical energy
D. electromagnetic radiation to chemical energy

8
15. Sparks from static electricity pose a hazard in petroleum plants. As two charged
objects separate, the field strength between them

A. decreases in proportion to the square of the distance that separates them

B. increases in proportion to the square of the distance that separates them
C. decreases in proportion to the distance that separates them
D. increases in proportion to the distance that separates them

16. Electrical fields resemble magnetic and gravitational fields in that they all

A. have the same constant

B. cause a compass needle to swing
C. exert an attractive and repulsive force
D. are affected by the distance between two sources

17. Many oil well pumpjacks operate using electric motors. The electricity must be
transmitted over long distances because oil wells are often located in remote
locations. Efficient transmission requires

A. high voltage, low current, and AC lines

B. low voltage, high current, and AC lines
C. low voltage, high current, and DC lines
D. high voltage, high current, and DC lines

18. In order for the electric motor of an oil well pumpjack to function, voltage and
amperage must be changed. This is accomplished through the use of

A. a resistor
B. a generator
C. a transformer
D. an AC/DC converter

9
19. An electric pump is used to transfer crude oil into a storage tank. To operate an
electric pump from the same source as the electric motor on a pumpjack, the two
should be connected in

A. parallel so the resistance is maximized and variable

B. parallel so the voltage can be the same for both motors
C. series so the two motors have the least effect on each other
D. series so both motors can draw the full amperage they need

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Structural Formulas of Some Organic Compounds in Crude Oil

H H O H O H
=

=
–
–

–
–
1 H–C–C–C 2 C=C–C–C–H

–
–
–

–
–

H H OH H H H

H H H H
O
–
–
–

=
3 H – C – C – OH 4 C=C–C
–

–
–
–

H H H H

Numerical Response

03. Crude oil contains several organic compounds. Match the structural formulas, as
numbered above, with the compounds listed below.

Aldehyde _____ (Record in the first column.)

Ketone _____ (Record in the second column.)
Alcohol _____ (Record in the third column.)
Acid _____ (Record in the fourth column.)

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

10
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Four Fractions of a Crude Oil Sample

Fraction Flame Colour

1 red–yellow
2 bright yellow
3 red
4 blue–white

Numerical Response

04. A crude oil sample was distilled into four fractions. In an attempt to find the energy
production of the fractions, a technician burned equal quantities of each. The
technician observed that the fractions burned at different temperatures.

List the fractions in order from the one with the coolest burning temperature to the one
with the hottest burning temperature.

Answer: _____ _____ _____ _____

coolest hottest

(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

20. Various fractions of natural gas, such as ethene (C2H4(g)), are produced in the
petrochemical industry. To produce the solvent used in dry cleaning, chlorine and
fluorine are substituted for the hydrogens, which produces dichlorodifluoroethene.
This compound poses the greatest environmental danger as

A. a greenhouse gas
B. an ozone-depleting compound
C. an oxygen block in red blood cells
D. a component of photochemical smog

11
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Production of Ethene

C
C2H6(g) 1100
   C2H4(g) + H2(g)

21. Once ethene is formed from ethane, it can be used for polymerization into
polyethylene. To increase the energy efficiency of ethene production, a chemical
plant could

A. use hydrogen as a fuel to heat the ethane

B. reduce the temperature of the reacting chamber
C. reduce the amount of hydrogen produced by the reaction
D. sell the hydrogen to a fertilizer plant in exchange for ethane

12
An important aspect of science literacy is the ability to analyze environmental issues.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Detection of H2S(g)

H2S(g) + Pb(CH3COO)2(s) UV


 PbS(s) + 2 CH3COOH(g)
(colourless) (colourless) (black) (colourless)

22. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S(g)) is a dangerous gas found in “sour” natural gas.
H2S(g) can be detected using UV light, which will cause H2S(g) to react with
lead (II) acetate to produce a black compound. This detection can occur because
UV light has a unique

A. speed
B. source
C. wavelength
D. temperature

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Reaction of H2S(g) with Water

H2S(g) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + HS–(aq)

23. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S(g)) reacts with water in the air to form acid rain. The
Brønsted–Lowry bases in this equation are

A. H2O(l) and H2S(g)

B. H2O(l) and HS–(aq)
C. H2S(g) and HS–(aq)
D. H2S(g) and H3O+(aq)

13
24. The use of pesticides may pose a problem because pesticides sometimes

A. do not biodegrade easily

B. decrease the global rate of photosynthesis
C. increase the biochemical oxygen demand of water
D. increase the amount of ultraviolet light entering the atmosphere

25. The pollutants that contribute most to acid deposition are

A. CO(g) and NO2(g)

B. SO2(g) and NO2(g)
C. CO(g) and SO2(g)
D. NO2(g) and O3(g)

Numerical Response

05. The pH of a sample of lake water is 3.42. The hydronium ion concentration [H3O+(aq)]
of the sample is __________. 10–4 mol/L.
(Record your answer to two digits in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

26. When a few drops of indicator bromothymol blue are added to a lake water sample
with a pH of 3.42, the colour of the sample is

A. red
B. green
C. orange
D. yellow

27. Acid deposition may change the pH of a lake. In addition, as acidified water passes
through soil and into the lake, it may also

A. increase the temperature of the lake

B. reduce the dissolved oxygen content of the lake
C. increase the decay rate of organic matter in the lake
D. increase the concentration of dissolved metal ions in the lake
14
Short Answer – 5%

In a lab, you are asked to determine the concentration of a strong acid by titrating it with a
strong base. Outline the steps you would take to carry out the titration using the following
equipment and supplies. Include set-up and clean-up procedures.

buret funnel
pipette and bulb (or pump) distilled water
Erlenmeyer flasks micropipette
graduated cylinder drop plate
indicator (bromothymol blue) strong base (NaOH(aq))
strong acid (HCl(aq))

Note: You may choose to not use all of the equipment to carry out the procedure.

15
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Pollutants

1 SO2(g)
2 Raw sewage
3 Heavy metals
4 CFCs

Numerical Response

06. Match each pollutant, as numbered above, with its effect, as listed below. Use
each number only once.

Nervous system damage _____ (Record in the first column.)

High biological oxygen demand (BOD) _____ (Record in the second column)
Ozone depletion _____ (Record in the third column.)
Acid deposition _____ (Record in the fourth column.)

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

16
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Sources of Pollutants and Their Effects

Sources Compounds Effects

Energy Sulphur
production Acidification
dioxide

Agriculture Ammonia
Eutrophication
of lakes

Industry Nitrogen
oxides

Traffic VOC Regional

ozone

Carbon Free
monoxide tropospheric
ozone

Methane

28. Taking into account the sources of nitrogen oxide shown in the chart above, one
can infer that the release of nitrogen oxide is mainly from

A. the production of ammonia

B. the combustion of fossil fuels
C. algal bloom in lakes and oceans
D. extensive use of fertilizers in agriculture and gardening

17
 Use the following information to answer the next two questions.

It has been hypothesized that some frog species in Oregon are in danger of
becoming extinct because of increased exposure to ultraviolet radiation.

29. An increase in exposure has occurred because of

A. the greenhouse effect

B. increases in carbon dioxide concentration
C. the thinning of the ozone layer in the atmosphere
D. increases in dioxins and furans in the environment

Use the following additional information to answer the next question.

It was hypothesized that ultraviolet radiation damages the eggs of sensitive

species. In an experiment to test this hypothesis, eggs from a sensitive species
of frog were divided into two groups. One group was shielded from
ultraviolet rays with special filtering. The other group was not shielded. The
number of eggs that survived in each group was recorded.

Parts of the Study

1 Uncovered frog eggs

2 Percentage of eggs surviving
3 Covered frog eggs
4 Species of frog

Numerical Response

07. Match the parts of the study, as numbered above, with the following terms. Use each
number only once.

Manipulated variable _____ (Record in the first column.)

Responding variable _____ (Record in the second column.)
Controlled variable _____ (Record in the third column.)
Control group _____ (Record in the fourth column.)

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

18
Environmental impacts must be considered in energy production and use.

30. The most powerful argument against the development of fission nuclear power is
related to

A. the cost of fuel

B. thermal pollution
C. availability of fuel
D. disposal of radioactive wastes

Numerical Response

08. Electrical power in North America is generated at a frequency of 60.0 Hz.

The wavelength of electromagnetic radiation emitted from a power line would
be __________  106 m.

(Record your answer to three digits in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

19
31. Which of the following graphs represents the relationship between the distance
from transmission lines and the degree of exposure to electromagnetic radiation?

A. B.

Degree of exposure
Degree of exposure

Distance from source Distance from source

C. D.

Degree of exposure
Degree of exposure

Distance from source Distance from source

20
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Diagrams of Processes Used in the Production of Electricity

Steam
3
Boiling water

4 C + C

Numerical Response

09. Match each diagram, as numbered above, with the name of its corresponding process.

Chemical reaction _____ (Record in the first column.)

Nuclear fission _____ (Record in the second column.)
Nuclear fusion _____ (Record in the third column.)
Physical change _____ (Record in the fourth column.)

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

21
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Combustion of Ethanol

C2H5OH(l) + 3 O2(g)  2 CO2(g) + 3 H2O(g)

32. Blended gasoline (E-85 ethanol) is a fuel containing 85% ethanol and 15%
unleaded gasoline. The heat of combustion of ethanol is

A. 857.4 kJ/mol
B. –151.7 kJ/mol
C. –1235.3 kJ/mol
D. –2299.4 kJ/mol

Use the following information to answer the next question.

A Reaction at a Refinery

H O H H H H
=
–

–
–
–

H – C – C – C – OH + 3 H2(g) H – C – C – C – H + 2 H2O(g)
–

–
–
–

H H H H H

Compound X

33. The functional groups present in Compound X make it possible to classify

Compound X as both

A. an ester and an alcohol

B. a ketone and an alcohol
C. an ester and a carboxylic acid
D. a ketone and a carboxylic acid

22
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Amount of Fuel Consumed by Mode of Transportation

Number of Litres of Fuel Litres of Fuel Used

Mode of People Used per per 100 km
Transportation Travelling 100 km per Person

1 car 1 10 10
2 car 2 10 5.0
3 van 6 20 3.3
4 bus 50 85 1.7
5 train 1 000 2 800 2.8
6 jet 100 1 120 11.2

Numerical Response

10. Of the modes of transportation numbered above, the four most energy-efficient modes
are _____, _____, _____, and _____.

(Record your four-digit answer in any order in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

23
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Automobile Gasoline Consumption

1975 1995
Average gasoline consumption of automobiles 15.3 L/100 km 7.9 L/100 km
Number of automobiles registered in Canada 8 541 000 17 816 000
Gasoline consumption by automobiles 12 GL/a* 30 GL/a*

*GL/a - gigalitres per year

34. The information in the table indicates that the increased gasoline consumption from
1975 to 1995 can be attributed to

A. a decrease in engine efficiency

B. a decrease in the energy in the gasoline
C. an increase in the size of the automobile engines
D. an increase in the overall number of kilometres driven

24
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Comparison of Energy Consumption by Source

Canada’s Energy Mix – 1990 World Energy Mix – 1990

Hydroelectricity
6.6%
Hydroelectricity Nuclear energy
25.2% 5.6%
Oil Oil
30.9% 38.8%

Coal
Nuclear 27.7%
energy
7.3%

Coal
Natural gas 13.4% Natural gas
23.2% 21.3%
Total Canadian Total World
consumption = 248.0 million tonnes consumption = 8004.0 million tonnes
oil equivalent oil equivalent

—from BP World Statistical Review of World Energy, 1991

35. According to the graphs above, Canada consumed

A. 25% of the total world energy

B. fossil fuels for less than 50% of its energy
C. a lower percentage of nuclear energy than did the total world
D. a greater percentage of renewable energy than did the total world

25
A series of experiments were conducted in a research lab on a space station.

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Characteristics of Some Electromagnetic Radiation

I Travels at 3.0  108 m/s

II Is visible
III Can be reflected
IV Has a longer wavelength than ultraviolet rays

36. X-rays and light rays are similar in that both have characteristics

A. I and III
B. I and IV
C. II and IV
D. III and IV

37. Radiation from a comet is detected at a wavelength of 6.6  10–8 m, which

indicates the presence of iron. What part of the electromagnetic spectrum would
contain this wavelength?

A. Infrared
B. Ultraviolet
C. Visible red
D. Visible violet

26
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Radio Wave Pattern

38. The radio wave above has been

A. internally reflected
B. externally reflected
C. frequency modulated
D. amplitude modulated

Use the following information to answer the next question.

Electromagnetic Radiation (EMR) Terms

1 Total internal reflection

2 Doppler effect
3 Emission spectrum
4 Radio waves

Numerical Response

11. Match the EMR terms, as numbered above, with their uses, as listed below. Use each
number only once.

Motion of stars _____ (Record in the first column.)

Fibre optic cables _____ (Record in the second column.)
Composition of stars _____ (Record in the third column.)
Cellular phones _____ (Record in the fourth column.)

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

27
 Use the following information to answer the next question.

Induction of a Current

Magnet

N S
Direction Direction
I II

39. Which of the following statements describes induction as depicted by the apparatus
shown above?

A. When the magnet is held stationary, only direct current flows in the wire.

B. When the magnet is held stationary, only alternating current flows in the wire.

C. When the magnet moves in direction I, electrons flow in the wire in the same
direction as they do when the magnet moves in direction II.

D. When the magnet moves in direction I, electrons flow in the wire in the
opposite direction as they do when the magnet moves in direction II.

Numerical Response

12. To conduct an experiment aboard a space station, 24.0 V from a solar panel is
transformed to 480 V. If the transformer’s secondary coil has 10 000 turns of wire,
the primary coil has __________ turns.

(Record your answer to three digits in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.)

28
40. A technician on a space station wished to build a circuit using three identical
resistors such that the circuit would have the least total resistance. Which of the
following circuits would have the ammeter with the highest reading?

A. B.

A A

C. D.

A A

29
Long Answer – 15%

1. Many scientists have suggested that there is a link between levels of blood pressure
and regular exercise. A group of Science 30 students developed the prediction that
students who exercise regularly would experience a smaller increase in blood
pressure after exercise compared with students who do not exercise regularly. The
following experiment was designed to test their hypothesis.

Group 1 consisted of six male students aged 16 to 19 who were members of the
school’s basketball team. Group 2 consisted of six students who did not exercise
regularly. The systolic blood pressures of all of these students were measured and
recorded when the students were at rest. Their systolic blood pressures were
measured again immediately after the students ran 5 laps of the gymnasium. The
following is a graph of the data obtained.

Effect of Exercise on Blood Pressure

200
Average systolic blood pressure (mm Hg)

Group 1

150 Group 2

100

50

0
Before exercise After exercise
Activity level

a. Describe two ways in which the body controls blood pressure.

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b. Identify the manipulated and the responding variables in this study.

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c. Interpret the data as represented by the graph. You can do this by summarizing the
observations and giving possible reasons for the results of the experiment. Evaluate
the study by criticizing the design and outlining the methods you would use to
improve it.

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 Long Answer – 15%

2. The world demand for electrical energy continues to increase. Describe the
environmental problems that accompany the production of electrical energy.
What steps should be taken over the next decade to deal with this issue?

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You have now completed the examination.
If you have time, you may wish to check your answers.

34
 Credit

MC35 Graphs from British Petroleum World Statistical Review of World Energy,
June 1991. Reprinted by permission of the British Petroleum Company p.l.c.

35
 Science 30
Diploma Examination
January 1999

Keys
Sample Answers
and
Scoring Guides
 Jan 1999 (991)
Science 30 Diploma Examination Key

Multiple-Choice
1 D 21 A
2 A 22 C
3 D 23 B
4 B 24 A
5 A 25 B
6 A 26 D
7 B 27 D
8 A 28 B
9 C 29 C
10 B 30 D
11 D 31 B
12 A 32 C
13 D 33 B
14 A 34 D
15 A 35 D
16 D 36 A
17 A 37 B
18 C 38 D
19 B 39 D
20 B 40 B

Numerical-Response
NR 1 2431
NR 2 1234
NR 3 4231
NR 4 3124
NR 5 3.8 or 3.80
NR 6 3241
NR 7 3241 or 1243
NR 8 5 or 5.0 or 5.00
NR 9 4123
NR 10 2345 any order
NR 11 2134
NR12 500
 Scoring Guide – Short Answer January 1999 Diploma Examination

Score Scoring Descriptions

4 The response reflects an accurate understanding of the titration procedure. The
Standard steps and equipment used are appropriate.
of
Excellence
The response reflects an adequate understanding of the titration procedure. The
3 steps and equipment apply to the titration procedure.
The response reflects a sketchy understanding of the titration procedure. The steps
2 and equipment generally apply to titration procedure.
Acceptable
Standard
The response reflects a poor understanding of the titration procedure. The steps
and equipment do not apply to titration procedure.
1
0 The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an
appropriate level for a 30-level course.

Sample Answer – Short Answer

Rinse a buret with water, then with the strong base. Put some base in the buret and record
the initial volume.
Add an indicator (bromothymol blue) to 10 mL of acid.
Carefully add the base to the acid until the indicator changes colour.
Record the final volume on the buret and subtract the initial volume.
Rinse the buret and other containers with water.
 Scoring Guide – Long Answer 1 January 1999
Diploma Examination
SCORE SCORING DESCRIPTIONS
The response is complete, well organized, and reflects thorough understanding and
4 logical consistency of thought. The list of mechanisms for the control of blood
Standard of pressure and identification of variables is correct. Interpretations of the graphs are
Excellence insightful. Measures to improve the experimental design are imaginative and
realistic.
The response is mostly complete, organized, and reflects correct understanding.
3 The list of mechanisms for the control of blood pressure and identification of variables
is correct. Interpretations of the graphs are mostly correct. Measures to improve the
experimental design are complete and realistic.
2 The response is organized, and is generally logical and consistent . The list of
Acceptable mechanisms for the control of blood pressure and identification of variables is mostly
Standard correct. Interpretations of the graphs are generally correct. Measures to improve the
experimental design are realistic.
The response is incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor understanding. The
1 list of mechanisms for the control of blood pressure and identification of variables is
incomplete. Interpretations of the graphs are poorly described. Measures to improve
the experimental design are unrealistic.
The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate
0 level for a 30-level course.
NR No response.

Sample Answer – Long Answer 1

A. Blood pressure is controlled by the amount of blood returning to the right atrium of
the heart and by the stretch receptors in the aorta. Lots of blood coming into the heart
causes the heart squeeze harder, raising the BP. If the stretch receptors in the aorta
are stretched a lot, signals are sent to decrease the strength of the heart contractions.

B. The manipulated variable is the amount of exercise the people do. The responding
variable is the blood pressure after exercise.

C. The graph supports the idea that people who exercise regularly will have less of a BP
increase after exercising than for people who don’t exercise regularly. The
experiment has too small of a sample size. Other factors such as gender, size, weight
etc. could be factors that affect blood pressure. Different amounts of exercise and
different ages of people could also have been tested.
Scoring Guide – Long Answer 2 January 1999 Diploma Examination
SCORE SCORING DESCRIPTIONS
The response is complete, well organized, and reflects thorough understanding and
4
logical consistency of thought. The description of the environmental problems
associated with energy production are complete and correct. Opinions about the steps
Standard of
that should be taken in the future are imaginative and realistic. Appropriate
Excellence
examples and logical arguments are used to support opinions.

The response is mostly complete, organized, and reflects correct understanding.

3
The description of the environmental problems associated with energy production are
correct. Opinions about the steps that should be taken in the future are complete and
realistic. Examples and logical arguments are used to support opinions.

2 The response is organized, and is generally logical and consistent . The description
of the environmental problems associated with energy production are generally
Acceptable correct. Opinions about the steps that should be taken in the future are logical. Some
Standard examples and arguments are used to support opinions.

The response is incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor understanding. The

1
description of the environmental problems associated with energy production are poor.
Opinions about the steps that should be taken in the future are not logical. Examples
and arguments are not used to support opinions.
0
The response does not address the question at a Science 30 level.
Sample Answer – Long Answer 2

The main methods of electrical energy production are coal-fired, nuclear, and hydro
generating power stations. The main environmental problems associated with the use of
fossil fuels such as coal are global warming and acid deposition. The carbon dioxide
produced by combustion causes a greenhouse effect in the atmosphere. Some scientists
think that this will lead to disastrous changes in global climate and may cause widespread
death to many species including humans. Acid deposition is caused when sulphur oxides
and nitrogen oxides react with moisture in the air. This is causing the destruction of
many terrestrial and aquatic habitats around the world. Leaching of heavy metals into
water habitats and thermal pollution are also problems associated with fossil fuel-
powered stations.

Nuclear power production produces long-lasting radioactive wastes. Safe disposal of

these wastes over thousands of years is not possible presently. Background radiation may
continue to rise to catastrophic levels if accidents at power plants occur or if radioactive
wastes leak into the environment. Not only will the organisms on which we rely for
survival be affected, but many human deaths due to cancer will occur.

While hydro power produces few contaminants it produces significant environmental

effects. Damming a river causes flooding of the upstream part of the river. This changes
the habitats and displaces many kinds of plants and animals. It may also cause more
heavy metals to leach into the water. Silting may cause changes in the drainage patterns
throughout the area around the dam.

Alternate forms of electrical energy such as photovoltaic cells, wind generators, tidal
power, and geothermal power stations have fewer environmental effects. The
disadvantages of these power sources is the cost of building and maintaining the
equipment necessary to run them, and in some cases, they are available in a limited
number of places.

The main strategy for the immediate future should be to reduce the consumption of
energy. This can be done by educating people about the effects of energy production on
the environment. It might be necessary to lower our expectations for some of the luxuries
that we now enjoy. People should be taught methods of conserving energy. Increasing
the cost of using energy might also be implemented by taxing excessive energy use.

Besides reducing energy use, it is also necessary to develop cleaner ways of producing
energy. Development of technologies such as solar energy, wind, tidal, and geothermal
power stations should have a high priority. Nuclear fission may also provide a relatively
clean form of energy in the future.