Savings and Investment Process: True-False Questions

Chapter 7
Savings and Investment Process

TRUE-FALSE QUESTIONS
1. Personal consumption expenditures indicate expenditures by individuals for

durable goods, nondurable goods, and services.
2. Government purchases include only expenditures for goods and services by

the federal government.
3. Gross private domestic investment measures a nation’s output of goods and

services for a specified period of time.
4. GDP includes personal consumption expenditures, government purchases of

goods and services, gross private domestic investment, and net exports of
goods and services.
5. Gross private domestic investment (GPDI) measures fixed investment in

residential and nonresidential structures, producers’ durable equipment, and
changes in business inventories.
6. If the imports of goods and services exceed exports, GDP will be higher.
7. Capital consumption adjustments are estimates of depreciation of plant and

equipment assets for business purposes.
8. Capital consumption adjustments are estimates of the “using up” of plant

equipment assets for businesses.
9. Savings surplus occurs when all of an economic unit’s income is not

consumed, but held in the form of cash and other financial assets.
10. A savings deficit occurs when investment in real assets exceeds current
income.
11. Savings surplus occurs when an economic unit has current income that
exceeds its direct investment in real assets.
12. New York Stock Exchange is an example of a primary market.
13. The federal government relies primarily on borrowing to support its various
expenditure programs.
14. Benefit payments for individuals amount to over half of total expenditures of
the federal government.
15. Local governments depend heavily on property taxes for their revenues,
while state governments depend largely on sales taxes and special taxes,
such as those on tobacco products.
16. The federal government relies primarily on income taxes and social
insurance taxes for its revenues.
17. The federal debt of the United States is owned to a large extent by foreign
institutions and individuals.
18. When taxes and general revenues fail to meet expenditures, a budgetary
deficit occurs.
19. Voluntary savings are financial assets set aside for use in the future.
20. Corporate saving for short-term working capital purposes is the most
important reason for businesses accumulating financial assets.
21. Savings are impacted only by cyclical movements in the economy.
22. Foreign capital did not play a significant role in the development of the
United States.
23. The federal debt is the same thing as the budget deficit.
24. Years of budget surpluses during the Reagan and first Bush presidencies
changed into deficits under the Clinton presidency.
25. In general, the savings rate in the United States has decreased during the
past 40 years.
26. The corporate retention rate is simply another term for the corporate savings
rate.
27. Capital formation is the process of constructing real property, manufacturing

producers’ durable equipment, and increasing business inventories.
28. Net exports are exports of goods and services minus imports of goods and
services.
29. Net exports are exports of goods and services plus imports of goods and
services.
30. In recent years, the United States has been running large trade deficits with
both Japan and China.
31. In recent years, the United States has been running large trade surpluses
with both Japan and China.
32. Financial assets include claims in the form of obligations or liabilities issued
by individuals, businesses, financial intermediaries, and governments.
33. Financial assets include ownership of land, buildings, machinery, inventory,
commodities, and precious metals.
34. Undistributed profit is the proportion of after-tax profit paid as dividends to

shareholders by a corporation.
35. The largest proportion of government revenue comes from corporate income
taxes.
36. Contractual savings are savings accumulated on a regular schedule for a

specified length of time by prior agreement.
37. Voluntary savings are savings accumulated on a regular schedule for a

38. Personal savings are savings accumulated on a regular schedule for a

39. The primary factors that influence the total amount of savings in an economy
in any given period include the trade surplus or deficit and exchange rates.
40. Tax reform in the form of lower personal income tax rates in the mid-1960s
and in the 1970s may have contributed to a higher personal savings rate.
41. Capital market securities are debt securities with maturities less than one
year and corporate stocks.
42. A derivative security is a financial contract that derives its value from a
bond, stock, or other asset.
43. Securitization is the process of insuring mortgage loans against default.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Personal consumption expenditures (PCE) does not include:

a. individual expenditures for durable goods
b. individual expenditures for nondurable goods
c. individual expenditures for services
d. all the above are included in PCE
2. Personal consumption expenditures (PCE) does not include:

a. individual expenditures for durable goods
d. individual savings
e. all the above are included
3. The most important savings surplus unit in the economy is:

a. the savings of individuals
b. corporate savings
c. U.S. government savings
d. state and local government savings
4. Which of the following is a savings surplus unit?

a. businesses
b. government
c. individuals
d. none of the above
5. Which one the following four basic economic units consistently represents a
savings surplus unit?
a. individuals
b. business firms
c. financial intermediaries
d. governments
6. Which of the following sources of savings is consistently the largest on an

annual basis?
a. personal savings
b. undistributed corporate profits
c. federal, state, and local government surpluses
d. capital consumption allowances
7. Capital formation refers to the:

a. total accumulation of monetary savings in the nation
b. distribution of savings among thrift institutions
c. total of equity accounts with business corporations
d. creation of physical productive facilities
8. Gross Private Domestic Investment (GPDI) measures fixed investment in:

a. residential and non-residential structures
9. If personal consumption expenditures are $1 billion, government purchases

are $2 billion, gross private domestic investments are $4 billion and net
exports are $5 billion, then GDP is:
a. $12 billion
b. $8 billion
c. $7 billion
d. $2 billion
10. If personal consumption expenditures are $6 billion, government purchases
are $10 billion, gross private domestic investments are $4 billion and net
exports are $negative 3 billion, then GDP is:
a. $23 billion
b. $20 billion
c. $17 billion
d. $16 billion
e. none of the above
11. The major factors which influence the level of savings are the level of:
a. income and the life stage of the individual saver
b. income, economic expectations, cyclical influence, and the life stage of the
individual saver
c. income, interest rates, and the life stage cycle of the individual saver
d. income and interest rates
12. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Factors affecting the amount of savings include: levels of income, economic
expectations, cyclical influences, and the life stage of the individual saver.
b. Gross savings are the profits remaining after tax, and in the case of
corporations, after the payment of cash dividends to stockholders.
c. Voluntary savings are financial assets set aside for use in the future.
d. After the Civil War, the United States was able to generate sufficient capital
to finance its expansion.
13. The primary factors that influence the amount of savings in any given period
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. levels of income
b. economic expectations
c. cyclical influences
d. all of the above are factors that influence savings
14. Greater potential savings would result from a (n):

a. age distribution shift to more teenagers
b. shift to more elderly people in the total population
c. shift to more young married couples
d. shift to more middle-aged families
15. A business deposit in a commercial bank represents:

a. a liability of the bank and an asset to the business
b. an asset of the bank and a liability to the business
c. liability to the bank and capital to the business
d. liability to Joe’s and capital to the business
16. Early developments in transportation were ultimately financed by:

a. private promoters
b. current government revenues
c. savings of individuals
d. foreign securities
17. A saver who chooses securities as a savings medium and desires maximum
safety of principal buys:
a. public utility stocks
b. corporate stocks
c. high-grade corporate bonds
d. government bonds
18. The short-term accumulation of financial assets on the part of business

corporations:
a. are held in short-term, safe, and liquid debt obligations
b. add to the level of long-term savings of the economy as a whole
c. do not enter the monetary stream to fund consumers, government, or other
businesses
d. are held in the form of long-term obligations of the federal government
19. Motivations for individuals to deposit money into a savings account include:
a. safety of principal
b. return on investment
c. liquidity
d. all the above
20. During the early years of the life stage of a typical corporation, the:
a. volume of physical assets increases slowly
b. firm is unable to establish a strong position with respect to its financial assets
c. corporation is a heavy provider of financial assets
d. need for borrowed capital is small
21. The accumulation of reserves in insurance and pension funds is referred to

as what type of savings?
a. voluntary savings
b. contractual savings
c. real savings
d. all of the above
22. Which of the following categories is not considered to be one of the basic
economic units in the U.S. financial system?
a. business firms
b. financial intermediaries
c. governments
d. not-for-profit organizations
23. When current savings of an economic unit exceed its direct investment in
real assets, this is referred to as:
a. savings surplus
b. savings deficit
c. savings neutral
d. savings inflation
24. When current savings of an economic unit exceed its direct investment in
real assets,
a. more funds are needed by the economic unit
b. funds can be made available to a savings deficit unit
c. interest rates will rise
the firm has undistributed profits
25. Most income for the Federal Government comes from:

a. corporate income taxes
b. individual income taxes
c. social insurance receipts
26. Most income for the Federal Government comes from:

a. corporate income taxes
b. foreign income taxes
c. government oil revenues
d. military weapon sales
27. Which of the following factors usually influence a person’s choice of savings
medium?
a. liquidity
b. degree of safety
c. return
d. all of the above
28. Which of the following expenditures account for the largest part of the
Federal budget?
a. national defense
b. interest on debt
c. direct benefits to individuals
29. The largest category of federal budget outlays is from

a. national defense
b. Medicare and social security
c. Interest on the federal debt
d. international affairs
30. Direct payments to individuals from the Federal government do not include:
a. Social Security payments.
b. Medicare payments
c. health expenditures
d. all the above are included
31. Direct payments to individuals from the Federal government do not include:
a. Social Security payments.
b. Medicare payments
c. health expenditures
d. all the above are included
32. Which of the following statements is most correct?

a. As levels of income decrease, an individual may dissave, that is, reduce
further consumption expenditures rather than liquidate accumulated savings.
b. The ability to provide adequate funds to meet our investment needs is
dependent primarily on the savings of corporations and the government.
c. In terms of the amount of funds raised annually in the credit markets,
borrowing by the state and local government sector is smaller than
borrowing by the U.S. government.
d. All of the above statements are correct.

a. The process of channeling savings into investment through the use of a
financial institution or intermediary results in the creation of one type of
financial asset and one type of financial liability.
b. During the early years of the history of the United States, foreigners
purchased significant volumes of federal government securities.
c. The single most important use of funds raised in the credit markets is by the
household sector.
d. All of the above statements are false.

a. The process of channeling savings into investment through the use of a
financial institution or intermediary results in no real economic value
b. During the early years of the history of the United States, foreigners
purchased significant volumes of federal government securities.
c. Both of the above statements are false.
d. Both statements A and B are true.
35. All else the same, a trade deficit:

a. increases GDP
b. decreases GDP
c. have no impact on GDP
36. Which of the following is a savings deficit unit?

a. businesses
b. government
c. individuals
d. both a and b
37. Which of the following is the most liquid form of savings?

a. cash balances
b. time deposits
c. insurance reserves
d. securities
38. In general, during the business cycle, when economic activity is peaking:
a. interest rates begin to creep higher
b. unemployment levels are low
c. inflation begins to edge higher
d. all of the above
39. Savings are the accumulation of cash and other financial assets and are
generally classified into which of the following two categories?
a. voluntary and contractual savings
b. primary and secondary savings
c. personal and governmental savings
d. voluntary and corporate savings
40. The personal savings rate is calculated as:

a. personal savings divided by personal outlays
b. personal savings divided by disposable personal income
c. disposable personal income divided by personal outlays
d. personal income divided by personal outlays
41. Gross domestic product is equal to the sum of all of the following EXCEPT:
a. personal consumption expenditures
b. net exports
c. government expenditures
d. all of the above are included
42. Estimates of “using up” plant and equipment for business purposes are
called
a. accelerated depreciation estimates
b. gross capital formations
c. capital consumption adjustments
43. The life stages of an individual saver include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. the formative/education developing stage
b. the career earning/family creating stage
c. the wealth building stage
d. the tax minimizing stage
44. The life stages of an individual saver include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. the formative/education developing stage
b. the career earning/family creating stage
c. the wealth building stage
d. all of the above are life stages of savers
45. Which of the following statements factors contributed to the 2007-2009

financial crisis?
a. The cultural shift that allowed the public to “spend now and pay later”—
rather than their parents’ or grandparents’ philosophy of “save now, spend
later” led to increases in consumer debt levels.
b. U.S. government officials engaged in efforts to expand home ownership by
encouraging lenders to make mortgage loans available to a broader
spectrum of individuals.
c. Federal fiscal policy also became simulative, with increased government
spending and the passage of tax cuts in 2002.
d. The Federal Reserve adopted an expansionary monetary policy
characterized by very low interest rates.
e. all of the above.
46. Which of the following usually does not influence personal choice of savings
medium?
a. Liquidity
b. Degree of Safety
c. Return
d. Income
e. Long-term foreseeable needs
47. Which of the following factors does not affect savings?

a. Levels of Income
b. Economic expectations
c. Cyclical influences
d. Life stage of the individual or corporation
e. Inflation rate
48. Which of the following could affect personal income levels?
a. Employment Levels
b. Corporate profits
c. Inflation
d. Liquidity
e. Cost of Living
49. If individuals believe their income will decrease in the near future, they may
_____________ their spending.
a. Eliminate
b. Curtail
c. Increase
d. Double
e. Not change
50. Which of the following is not a stage in the individual savings life cycle?
a. Career starting/family creating

b. Formative/education developing
c. Death planning
d. Retirement enjoying
e. Wealth building
51. Which of the following is not a stage in the corporation cycle?

a. Start-up stage
b. Capital formation stage
c. Rapid growth stage\
d. Survival stage
e. Maturity Stage
52. Capital market securities include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Corporate bond
b. Treasury bond
c. Certificate of deposit
d. Common Stock
e. Municipal bond
53. All of the following encouraged individuals to enter into risky mortgages during
the 2000’s EXCEPT:
a. Financial institution lenders
b. Local government officials
c. Government-supported agencies
d. Mortgage originators
e. Federal government officials
Chapter 8
Interest Rates
TRUE-FALSE QUESTIONS
1. The interest rate is the basic price that equates the demand for supply of loanable
funds in the financial markets.
2. Interest rates will move from one equilibrium level to another if an anticipated change
occurs that causes the demand for loanable funds to change.
3. A “shock” may be defined as an unanticipated change that will cause the demand for,
or supply of loanable funds to change.
4. The loanable funds theory states that interest rates are a function of the supply of and
demand for loanable funds.
5. There are two basic sources of loanable funds: current savings and the expansion of
deposits of depository institutions.
6. An economy with a large share of young people will have more total savings than one
with more late middle-aged people.
7. While the Federal Reserve strongly influences the supply of funds, the Treasury’s
major influence is on the demand for funds, as it borrows heavily to finance federal deficits.
8. Interest rates in the United States are only influenced by domestic factors.
9. The interest rate that is observed in the marketplace is called a real interest rate.
10. The maturity risk premium is the compensation expected by investors due to
interest rate risk on debt instruments with longer maturity.
11. There is an inverse relation between debt instrument prices and nominal interest
rates in the marketplace.
12. The shorter the maturity of a fixed-rate debt instrument, the greater the reduction in
its value to a given interest rate increase.
13. The liquidity premium is compensation for those financial debt instruments that
cannot be easily converted to cash at prices close to their estimated fair market values.
14. The liquidity premium is the compensation that investors demand for holding
securities that cannot easily be converted to cash without major price discounts.
15. The maturity premium is the compensation that investors demand for holding
16. The default risk premium is the compensation that investors demand for holding
17. The most important holders of Treasury bills are corporations and individuals.
18. Treasury bonds may be issued with any maturity but generally have an original
maturity in excess of one year.
19. The term structure of interest rates indicates the relation between interest rates and
the maturity of comparable quality debt instruments.
20. Interest rates generally fall during periods of economic expansion and rise during
economic contraction.
21. Cost-push inflation occurs when prices are raised to cover rising production costs,
such as wages.
22. Tax deferral on investments may increase the volume of savings.
23. Business will increase current long-term borrowing if they forecast a decrease in
interest rates.
24. If the Fed changes discount policies it may affect the supply of loanable funds.
25. The Treasury’s major influence through its borrowing to finance federal deficits is on
the supply rather than demand for loanable funds.
26. The nominal interest rate may include a default risk premium.
27. The maturity risk premium is the added return expected by lenders because of the
expectation of inflation.
28. In general, short-term interest rates are more stable than long-term interest rates.
29. The demand for loanable funds comes from all sectors of the economy.
30. The risk-free rate of interest is equal to the real rate of interest plus a premium for
inflation.
31. Treasury notes are intermediate-term Federal debt obligations.
32. The expectations theory contends that the shape of the yield curve reflects investor
expectations about future GDP growth rates.
33. The market segmentation theory holds that securities of different maturities are not
perfect substitutes for each other.
34. Inflation is an increase in the price of goods or services that is not offset by an
increase in quality.
35. Demand-pull inflation may be defined as an excessive demand for goods and
services during periods of economic expansion as a result of large increases in the money
supply.
36. Holding demand constant, an increase in the supply of loanable funds will result in
an increase in interest rates.
37. Holding demand constant, a decrease in the supply of loanable funds will result in
an increase in interest rates.
38. Holding supply constant, an increase in the demand for loanable funds will result in
a decrease in interest rates.
39. Holding supply constant, a decrease in the demand for loanable funds will result in
a decrease in interest rates.
40. The risk free rate of interest is the interest rate on a debt instrument with no default,
maturity, or liquidity risks.
41. Three theories commonly used to explain the term structure of interest rates are the
expectations theory, the liquidity preference theory, and the market segmentation theory.
42. Cost-push inflation during economic expansions when demand for goods and
services is greater than supply.
43. Speculative inflation is caused by the expectation that prices will continue to rise,
resulting in increased buying to avoid even higher future prices.
44. Administrative inflation is the tendency of prices, aided by union-corporation

contracts, to rise during economic expansion and to resist declines during recessions.
45. Default risk is the risk that a borrower will not pay interest and/or repay the
principal on a loan or other debt instrument according to the agreed contractual
terms.
46. The risk-free rate of interest is found by combining the real rate of interest
and the rate paid on U.S. Treasury debt.
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The basic price that equates the demand for and supply of loanable funds in the
financial markets is the __________:
a. interest rate
b. yield curve
c. term structure
d. cash price
2. As interest rates rise, the prices of existing bonds will:

a. rise
b. stay the same
c. fall
d. either a or b, depending on the state of the economy
3. As interest rates fall, the prices of existing bonds will:
a. rise
b. stay the same
c. fall
d. either a or b, depending on the state of the economy
4. The liquidity preference theory holds that interest rates are determined by the:
a. investor preference for short-term securties
b. investor preference for higher-yielding long-term securities.
c. “flow” of funds over time
d. “flow” of bank credit over time
5. In an inflationary period, interest rates have a tendency to:

a. rise
b. fall
c. stay the same
d. act erratically
6. Which of the following is not considered to be a basic theory used to explain the term
structure of interest rates?
a. expectations theory
b. loanable funds theory
c. liquidity premium theory
d. market segmentation theory
7. Which of the following is not considered to be a basic theory used to explain the term
structure of interest rates?
a. expectations theory
b. loanable funds theory
c. liquidity premium theory
d. market segmentation theory
e. all of the above are theories used to explain the term structure of interest rates.
8. Three theories commonly used to explain the term structure of interest rates include all
of the following EXCEPT
a. the default risk theory
b. the expectations theory
c. the market segmentation theory
d. the liquidity preference theory
9. As the economy begins moving out of a recessionary period, the yield curve is
generally:
a. upward sloping
b. flattened out
c. downward sloping
d. discontinuous
10. The default risk premium at a certain point in time may be expressed by comparing
the interest rates on:
a. a Treasury bill and a Treasury bond
b. a Treasury bill and a long-term corporate bond
c. a Treasury bill and the commercial paper rate
d. a risky security and a comparable maturity U.S. Treasury security
11. A maturity risk premium at a certain point in time may be expressed by comparing
the interest rates on:
a. a Treasury bill and a Treasury bond
b. a Treasury bill and a long-term corporate bond
c. a Treasury bill and the commercial paper rate
d. a risky security and a comparable maturity U.S. Treasury security
12. The basic sources of loanable funds are:

a. short-term funds and currency
b. current savings and the creation of new funds through the expansion of credit by
depository institutions
c. contractual savings and commercial bank credit
d. bank loans and the creation of new funds through the contraction of credit by
depository institutions
13. Sources of loanable funds do not include:

a. current savings
b. the expansion of deposits by depository institutions
c. federal deficits
d. all the above are sources of loanable funds
14. A basic source of loanable funds is:

a. current savings that flow through financial institutions
b. future savings and investment by the Federal Reserve
c. current and future savings
d. investment by the Federal Reserve and expansion of deposits by insurance
companies
15. Long-run inflation expectations in the capital markets can be estimated by:
a. subtracting a real return component from the rate on short-term Treasury bills
b. adding a real return component to interest rates on long-term corporate bonds
c. subtracting a real return component from the rate on long-term Treasury
securities
d. adding a real return component to interest rates on short-term corporate
securities
16. An increase in inflation should:

a. increase the demand for loanable funds
b. decrease the interest rate on loans
c. increase the interest rate on loans
17. Which of the following costs serves to compensate the lender for loss of liquidity?
a. administrative costs of making the loan
b. cost of paying for the risk involved
c. cost to offset the likelihood of inflation
d. cost for use of money during the period of the loan
18. Which of the following factors directly impact the level of interest rates?
a. risk
b. marketability
c. maturity
d. all of the above
19. Which of the following may accumulate savings?

a. individuals
b. corporations
c. governmental units
d. all the above may have savings
20. If you expect the inflation premium to be 2%, the default risk premium to be 1% and
the real interest rate to be 4%, what interest would you expect to observe in the
marketplace under the simplest form of market interest rates?
a. 4%
b. 7%
c. 2%
d. 1%
21. If you expect the inflation premium to be 2%, the default risk premium to be 1% and
the real interest rate to be 4%, what interest would you expect to observe in the
marketplace on short term treasury securities?
a. 8%
b. 7%
c. 6%
d. 5%
22. An increase in the demand for loanable funds, holding supply constant, will cause
interest rates to:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
d. not enough information to tell
23. A decrease in the demand for loanable funds, holding supply constant, will cause
interest rates to:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
24. An increase in the supply for loanable funds, holding demand constant, will cause
interest rates to:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
25. A decrease in the supply for loanable funds, holding demand constant, will cause
interest rates to:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
26. A decrease in the supply for loanable funds accompanied by a decrease in demand
will cause interest rates to:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
27. An increase in the supply for loanable funds accompanied by an increase in

demand will cause interest rates to:
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
28. An increase in the supply for loanable funds accompanied by a decrease in demand
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
29. A decrease in the supply for loanable funds accompanied by an increase in demand
a. increase
b. decrease
c. stay the same
30. The major factor that determines the volume of savings, corporate as well as
individual, is the:
a. volume of spending
b. level of national income
c. amount of private pension plans
d. amount of life insurance policies
31. If the money supply and total demand increase faster than output, prices will:
a. fall
b. stay the same
c. rise
d. reflect lower inflation
32. When referring to an “upward sloping” yield curve, interest rates:

a. are flat across all maturities
b. decrease as maturity increases
c. increase as maturity decreases
d. increase as maturity increases
33. When referring to a “downward sloping” yield curve:

a. as maturities shorten, interest rates decline
b. as maturities shorten, interest rates rise
c. as maturities lengthen, interest rates remain the same
d. as maturities lengthen, interest rates rise
34. The yield curve or the term structure of interest rates is typically downward sloping
when:
a. short-term Treasury interest rates are lower than long-term Treasury interest rates
b. short-term and long-term Treasury interest rates are the same
c. long-term Treasury interest rates are lower than short-term Treasury interest rates
d. long-term Treasure interest rates are higher than short-term Treasury interest rates
35. Assume that these current yields exist: long-term government securities yield 9
percent, five-year Treasury securities yield 8.5 percent, and one-year Treasury bills yield 8
percent. What type of yield curve is depicted?
a. downward sloping
b. flat or level
c. upward sloping
d. U shaped
36. What yield curve shape is depicted if intermediate-term Treasury securities yield 10
percent, short-term Treasuries yield 10.5 percent, and long-term Treasuries yield 9.5
percent?
a. downward sloping
b. flat or level
c. upward sloping
d. U shaped

a. The liquidity preference theory holds that interest rates are determined by the
supply of and demand for loanable funds.
b. The loanable funds theory and the liquidity preference theory are incompatible
with each other because one is right and the other is wrong.
c. . Marketable U.S. securities are mainly sold through dealers and have interest
payments that are federally taxable.
d. The market segmentation theory holds that securities of different maturities are
perfect substitutes for each other.

a. A downward sloping yield curve implies that government securities with long-term
maturities have lower interest rates relative to similar quality securities with short-
term maturities.
b. Commercial paper is a primary source of short-term borrowing used by the U.S.
government.
c. A decline in interest rates for long-term Treasury securities indicates an increase
in investor long-run inflation expectations.
d. The establishment of the Federal Reserve System has caused the yield curve to
always be upward sloping.

a. A major determinant in the long run of the volume of savings is the level of taxes.
b. The money market involves obtaining and trading of credit and debt instruments
with maturity of one year or less.
c. Bond risk premiums follow changes in investor optimism/pessimism about
expected economic activity.
d. A high interest rate level but downward sloping yield curve is generally perceived
as being conductive to future economic expansion.
40. If interest rates increase because of a previously unanticipated inflation rate risk:
a. long-lived debt instruments will decline more than short-lived debt instruments
b. long-lived debt instruments will decline less than short-lived debt instruments
c. neither set of debt instruments will decline
d. all other things being equal, both should decline equally
41. Compensation for those financial debt instruments that cannot be easily converted
to cash at prices close to estimated fair market values is termed:
a. liquidity premium
b. market risk premium
c. maturity premium
42. If the nominal interest rate is 8% and the risk-free rate is 3%, the expected inflation
rate must be:
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 11%
d. cannot be determined without additional information
43. Which of the following is not true of Treasury bills?

a. long-lived
b. sold at a discount
c. mature at par
d. all the above are false
44. Which of the following is not true of Treasury bonds?

a. long-lived
b. noncallable
c. stated interest rate
d. all the above are false
45 . Which of the following factors affects the supply of loanable funds?

a. the volume of savings
b. expansion of deposits by banks
c. attitudes about liquidity
d. all the above
46. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of market interest rates?

a. the inflation premium
b. the maturity risk premium
c. the volatility risk premium
d. the real rate of interest
47. What is the real rate of interest if the nominal rate of interest is 15%, the IP is 3%,
the DRP is 3%, the MRP is 3%, and the LP is 2%?
a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 5%
48. When investors expect __________ inflation rates they will require __________
nominal interest rates so that a real rate of return will remain after the inflation.
a. higher, higher
b. higher, lower
c. lower, higher
49. The average maturity of the marketable debt in the United States:
a. is of little importance, unlike that of private corporations
b. has been constant for the last two decades
c. remains unchanged unless new obligations are issued
d. decreases day by day unless new obligations are issued to offset such decreases
50. The loanable funds theory used to explain the level of interest rates holds that
interest rates are a function of the supply of:
a. loanable funds and the demand for money
b. loanable funds and the demand for loanable funds
c. money and the demand for loanable funds
d. money and the demand for money
51. The risk-free interest rate is composed of:

a. an inflation premium and a default risk premium
b. a default risk premium and a maturity risk premium
c. a real rate of interest and a liquidity premium
d. a real rate of interest and an inflation premium
52. Which one of the following is not a marketable government security?

a. Treasury stock
b. Treasury bill
c. Treasury note
d. Treasury bond
53. Interest on obligations of the federal government:

a. is not taxable by state or local government
b. is not taxable by the federal government
c. is taxable by both the federal and state governments
d. except for Treasury notes is taxable by the federal government
54. The federal debt is owned primarily by:

a. foreign and international investors
b. commercial banks
c. insurance companies
d. the sum of all private investors
55. Price inflation has been characteristic of:

a. modern industrial society
b. our post gold-standard period
c. the history of prices since earliest recorded history
d. only modern industrialized societies
56. Inflation caused by an increase in the money supply is called:

a. demand-pull inflation
b. cost-push inflation
c. administrative inflation
d. a combination of administrative and speculative inflation
57. Holding demand constant, an increase in the supply of loanable funds will result in a
(n) ___________ in interest rates.
a. increase
b. decrease
c. increase or decrease
58. Holding demand constant, a decrease in the supply of loanable funds will result in a
a. increase
b. decrease
59. Holding supply constant, a decrease in the demand of loanable funds will result in a
a. increase
b. decrease
60. ___________________ states that interest rates are a function of the supply and
demand for loanable funds.
a. The expectations theory
b. The market segmentation theory
c. The liquidity preference theory
d. The loanable funds theory
61. If the nominal rate of interest is 10%, the real rate of interest is 3%, the default
premium is 3%, the liquidity premium is 0.5%, and the maturity premium is 1.5%, then the
inflation premium must be ______.
a. 2.0%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.0%
62. If the nominal rate of interest is 11%, the risk-free rate of interest is 2%, the default
premium is 4%, the liquidity premium is 0.5%, and the maturity premium is 1.5%, then the
inflation premium must be ______.
a. 2.0%
b. 2.5%
c. 3.0%
63. The relationship between interest rates or yields and the time to maturity for debt
instruments of comparable quality is called
a. the yield to maturity
b. the term structure of interest rates
c. the maturity risk premium
d. the expectations hypothesis
64. ______________ occurs during economic expansions when demand for goods and
services is greater than supply.
a. Administrative inflation
b. Speculative inflation
c. Cost-push inflation
d. Demand-pull inflation
65. ______________ is the tendency of prices, aided by union-corporation contracts, to

rise during economic expansions and resist declines during recessions.
a. Administrative inflation
b. Speculative inflation
c. Cost-push inflation
d. Demand-pull inflation
66. In response to the financial crisis of 2007-2009, the yield spread between Aaa
corporate bonds and treasury bonds:
a. widened
b. narrowed
c. remained the same
67. The default risk premiums on _______ corporate bonds are generally better
indicators of investor pessimism or optimism about economic expectations than are those
on ______ bonds.
a. Aaa, Baa
b. Baa, Aaa
c. Baa, Caa
d. Caa, Baa

a. More firms fail or suffer financial distress during periods of economic expansion
than during periods of economic recession. Thus, investors tend to require higher
premiums to compensate for default risk when the economy is in a recession or is
expected to enter one.
b. More firms fail or suffer financial distress during periods of recession than during
periods of economic expansion. Thus, investors tend to require lower premiums to
compensate for default risk when the economy is in a recession or is expected to
enter one.
c. Fewer firms fail or suffer financial distress during periods of recession than during
periods of economic expansion. Thus, investors tend to require higher premiums to
enter one.
d. More firms fail or suffer financial distress during periods of recession than during
periods of economic expansion. Thus, investors tend to require higher premiums to
enter one.
69. In reaction to the then developing 2007-2009 financial crisis, short-term interest
rates _______ sharply and were ______ than ______ percent by October, 2008.
a. declined, less, 0.5
b. rose, more, 10
c. declined, more, 6.
d. declined, less, 20
70. Federal obligations usually issued for maturities of two to ten years are called:
a. Treasury bonds
b. Treasury notes
c. Treasury bills
d. Agency issues
71. Federal obligations usually issued for maturities in excess of ten years are called:
a. Treasury bonds
b. Treasury notes
c. Treasury bills
d. Agency issues
72. Federal obligations usually issued for maturities up to one year are called:
a. Treasury bonds
b. Treasury notes
c. Treasury bills
d. Agency issues
73. Treasury bills are:

a. issued on a premium basis and pay a fixed annual interest rate.
b. issued on a discount basis and mature at par.
c. issued on a premium basis and mature at par.
d. issued on a discount basis and pay a fixed annual interest rate.
74. Economists have estimated that the real rate of interest in the United States and
other countries has averaged in the ________________ range in recent years.
a. 2 to 4 percent
b. 3 to 5 percent
c. 4 to 6 percent
d. 5 to 7 percent
75. Securities that may be bought and sold through the usual market channels are
called:
a. Treasury bonds
b. Treasury notes
c. Treasury bills
d. Marketable government securities

a. Income from the obligations of the federal government is exempt from all state
and local taxes but is subject to federal and state inheritance, estate, or gift taxes.
b. Income from the obligations of the federal government is exempt from all federal
taxes but is subject to state and local income taxes, state inheritance, estate, or gift
taxes.
c. Income from the obligations of the federal government is exempt from all federal,
state and local taxes but is subject to inheritance, estate, or gift taxes.
a. Marketable government securities are those securities that cannot be transferred
to other persons or institutions and can be redeemed only by being turned in to the
U.S. governmentb. Nonmarketable government securities are those securities that
can be transferred to other persons or institutions and can be redeemed only by
being turned in to the U.S. government c. Nonmarketable government securities
are those securities that cannot be transferred to other persons or institutions and
can be redeemed only by being turned in to the U.S. government d. none of the
above

a. Advance refunding is one of the new debt-management techniques used to
extend the average maturity of the marketable debt without disturbing the financial
markets and occurs when the Treasury offers the owners of a given issue the
opportunity to exchange their holdings well in advance of the holdings’ regular
maturity for new securities of longer maturity.
b. Reverse refunding is one of the new debt-management techniques used to
c. Extended refunding is one of the new debt-management techniques used to
d. Laddered refunding is one of the new debt-management techniques used to
79. Economists who believe that long-run inflationary bias will continue base their belief
on the following factors:
a. Prices and wages tend to rise during periods of boom in a competitive economy;
this tendency is reinforced by wage contracts that provide escalator clauses to keep
wages in line with prices and by wage increases that are sometimes greater than
increases in productivity.
b. During recessions, prices tend to remain stable rather than decrease because
major unions have long-run contracts calling for annual wage increases no matter
what economic conditions are at the time.
c. The tendency of large corporations to rely on non-price competition (advertising,
and style and color changes) and to reduce output rather than cut prices also keeps
prices stable.
d. If prices decline drastically in a field, the government is likely to step in with
programs to help take excess supplies off the market.
e. all of the above are correct
80. Which of the following factors is most correct?
a. Demand-pull inflation traditionally exists during periods of economic expansion
when the demand for goods and services exceeds the available supply of such
goods and services.
b. Cost-push inflation occurs when prices are raised to cover rising production costs,
such as wages
c. Speculative inflation is caused by the expectation that prices will continue to rise,
resulting in increased buying to avoid even higher future prices
d. All of the above are correct
e. none of the above are correct

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Chapter 7

Savings and Investment Process

1. Personal consumption expenditures indicate expenditures by individuals for

2. Government purchases include only expenditures for goods and services by

3. Gross private domestic investment measures a nation’s output of goods and

4. GDP includes personal consumption expenditures, government purchases of

5. Gross private domestic investment (GPDI) measures fixed investment in

7. Capital consumption adjustments are estimates of depreciation of plant and

8. Capital consumption adjustments are estimates of the “using up” of plant

9. Savings surplus occurs when all of an economic unit’s income is not

12. New York Stock Exchange is an example of a primary market.

21. Savings are impacted only by cyclical movements in the economy.

27. Capital formation is the process of constructing real property, manufacturing

34. Undistributed profit is the proportion of after-tax profit paid as dividends to

36. Contractual savings are savings accumulated on a regular schedule for a

37. Voluntary savings are savings accumulated on a regular schedule for a

38. Personal savings are savings accumulated on a regular schedule for a

43. Securitization is the process of insuring mortgage loans against default.

1. Personal consumption expenditures (PCE) does not include:

2. Personal consumption expenditures (PCE) does not include:

3. The most important savings surplus unit in the economy is:

4. Which of the following is a savings surplus unit?

6. Which of the following sources of savings is consistently the largest on an

7. Capital formation refers to the:

8. Gross Private Domestic Investment (GPDI) measures fixed investment in:

9. If personal consumption expenditures are $1 billion, government purchases

12. Which of the following statements is false?

14. Greater potential savings would result from a (n):

15. A business deposit in a commercial bank represents:

16. Early developments in transportation were ultimately financed by:

18. The short-term accumulation of financial assets on the part of business

21. The accumulation of reserves in insurance and pension funds is referred to

25. Most income for the Federal Government comes from:

26. Most income for the Federal Government comes from:

29. The largest category of federal budget outlays is from

32. Which of the following statements is most correct?

33. Which of the following statements is false?

34. Which of the following statements is false?

35. All else the same, a trade deficit:

36. Which of the following is a savings deficit unit?

37. Which of the following is the most liquid form of savings?

40. The personal savings rate is calculated as:

45. Which of the following statements factors contributed to the 2007-2009

47. Which of the following factors does not affect savings?

a. Career starting/family creating

51. Which of the following is not a stage in the corporation cycle?

52. Capital market securities include all of the following EXCEPT:

22. Tax deferral on investments may increase the volume of savings.

31. Treasury notes are intermediate-term Federal debt obligations.

44. Administrative inflation is the tendency of prices, aided by union-corporation

2. As interest rates rise, the prices of existing bonds will:

5. In an inflationary period, interest rates have a tendency to:

12. The basic sources of loanable funds are:

13. Sources of loanable funds do not include:

14. A basic source of loanable funds is:

16. An increase in inflation should:

19. Which of the following may accumulate savings?

27. An increase in the supply for loanable funds accompanied by an increase in

32. When referring to an “upward sloping” yield curve, interest rates:

33. When referring to a “downward sloping” yield curve:

37. Which of the following statements is most correct?

38. Which of the following statements is most correct?

39. Which of the following statements is false?