Oe\\ Yet gistver 24 ‘Number of Pages in Booklet : 24 err 4a ovat ster. 150 No, of Questions in Booklet : 150 Subject Code : 07 fart / SUBJECT : SCIENCE ‘FAT: 2.30 aoe Time : 2.30 Hours 201% Evening sree ferme) Question Paper Booklet No. 2869469 ST-31 PAPER-II arferaserm 3a : 300 Maximum Marks : 300 meres gfarar ea aie ww & dee | fever we act meas fe tom sien tat sa ware | seer seca 1 ar acd we Frctret rene tt ‘her / wires a1 et ater we utter ae ‘The candidate should ensure that Question Paper Booklet No. Sheet must be same after opening the Paper Seal / Polythene ‘must obtain another Question Paper. Candidate himself shal ‘afifvan ar d fe sah wee we alfeee & 1 gant ag fama at at hares 3 Ga ET, ‘of the Question Paper Booklet and Answer bag. In case they are different, a candidate l_be responsible for ensuring thi ene eas ew Hh oe AT 8 he co es see a A re es ie fore gfe mF 12 3, 4 fea form af | anand ah ah ger baer ak A an roy niet ane gee at oe crm or ait ier aie fa am ar OM Se ar own ae Fan ea aT ve afer wh ae a A Sa RT vy A ea eh ai fe a fram | ee re ef aa 1/3 eerie et Br a med ong oe son Femi oem ww oe re Fs fa st aeg aa ot at Oh eT em re ae er aa Seen ia am ites when xe on er afar 1 ae ferit orond ae oe fh wit aa a frerh ot sens fear rain rer freer tat ah arin | FT ore Fs ae seme ew erie at 3 ao ap aie eer § aks a ame raat ‘fe fac ner 3 feck mere ah ait a me ere 6a oe belt a ih ee aR ee ser | peared: er ait seh ge at wore or Ft se oe sta ses erst ah a ror ar ye aa ot art ey fon Pravin aes arth ret ara wh fs et rene at wr $a a fu ase ena 3 firs ar wae E | 6 0 INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES, Answer all questions AML questions caery equal marks, Only one answer ist be given foreach question $f more than one ansivers are marked, it would be treated as Foch question has four alternative responses marked serially a5 1.2.3.4. 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Department ns as dear hither permanente rom al future eseainations to, Fa dem afer eat ara oe Do st Booklet wae ald oa ae TATE | i =wep aad ar gee oe Hi eats rat S urte wera aM 1B, a gee ae raga erica ae } ae sea sagt em 6 3 m3! @ ql s 3 @) Zt @) Gl Fa m HOTA wo FBT A TeaTTa gat Devt H srafe cures ati 2 1 ae fear at ararn feet A are ee A STATA ia fed a read oat ee sae Seri ht angie eet Me Q) 2f @) N2 “ eat ht are Tella aU STAT 2 | gett ht roar om Sarg (Gest wea) ae peda ca TA BIT ~ 2 ) oe @) Wore walt 4 @) 58 @ swrerrenran arias fora wera es SPAT | (1) weareren rast ara sift eT a werd sift vearer et | (2) Teed A srererat aT asa Be wedi? | (3) seta arett & fore are I (saree) SFT Bre | (4) Tad ar sere Tiss arg aga mre agaé | ear vert oft at tera a, Rr OTH HAM: m TAT 8 me, HAM IT 3 Preah 8 1 aft sem ig an aaa rv Qa adie tig a dara ar em: () Qv (3) (4) av the axis which is tangential and in plane of the disc. then the moment of inertia is which is tangential and lar to its plane will be 2) ql 3 @ 4! When a mass m is suspended from a spring, the frequency of oscillation is found as f. If the spring is cut into two ‘equal pieces and same mas: from one of the cosillation in this cas at (3) 2 ft M5 ation due to gravity on the surface of earth is g. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a height (trom the earth’s surface) equal to half the radius of the earth will be () zero @B) moduli of elasticity (1) Greater the value of moduli of elasticity, more elastic is material. (2) With rise in temperature, of material decreases. (3) For incompressible fluids the bulk modulus is infinite. (4) Shear modulus — of — material increases with rise in temperature. Two spherical balls of same material of masses m and 8 m respectively, falls i same fluid. If terminal, velocity of ball is v, then terminal velocity of second ball will be (1) zero (3) 2v @Q)v (4) 4v 0710. Te 07 ale oa ane sh SS ei Stem we ah aadia a o4 agi A ga Wee Sate eh eA yeh wal sr GT e (1) lot Q) 8:1 G) 41 @ oul we fam | ate afer (C= 2.5 R. Cy LS YAH 1 Ate eggs (C,, = 35R.Cy=2.5 RB | fom fare c, are: () 2R Q) 5 GB) ZR a) Were SH AMT 297 °C we 127 aor apean 8 1 ale Sor ar Fria aa 1048 ah fie cart ag Sen A aT ee (D1 104d (2) 2* 104) () 4= 104d A) 5104) we arrest BHOMT 1227 °C AE S00 am mented & fatter Ft oftrran chara seafta wet 8 | ale ereTaTI 10° CB ere 8 a afr area ante eh (1) 300mm (3) 410nm WH ah SoS ha ana Re Tern A sheer 8 FLARE we tas & sinter a ata sats (ed) Frovereh 8 | Sere gra gig &t eae ararsil (14) 4 aaa arate @ (1) 3s @ ds 19 20 @) ps @) ips TH ora ao At ary i we eee | eA At (sree fH ewe gO a wf 2 GB) 4s (4) te 10. of the 64 drops to that of a si diop is Ci) 16:1 (2) 8:1 (3) 41 (4) A mixture contains 1 mole of helium (Cp= 2.5 R. Cy = 1.5 R) and | mole of hydrogen (Cy = 3.5 R. Cy = 2.5 R). The value of Cy for the mixture is (1) 2R Q) 3R i Z (3) 5R () 5R A Camot engine works between the temperatures 227° C and 127° C. Ifthe work output of the engine is 104. then the amount of heat J to the sink will be : a) bx toy 2) 2% 104) G) 410s (4) S104) An ideal black body emits, maximum temperature maximum emission wav cleneth will be (1) 300 nm, (2) 350mm. G) 410nm (4) 425 nm A train approaches a stationary 1 observer. with a velocity of 35 of velocity of sound. A sharp blast is blown with the whistle of the en equal intervals of one second. The interval between the successive blasts as heard by the observer is 1 () 398 Q) 79s 19 20 Q) 398 () Fos The focal length of a concave mit f is focal length in water (refractive index 4 will be wet 7 eal ()2. 13. 14. 16. 7. wa ae faa sre oe ata 8 at Gere aa aiota sre 400 8 | want ach At ‘wrané 16 cm % wen aga Al ww eet Smm® | aftr A pepe at 8 (1) 0.25 em (2) 10cm @) 206m (4) 4.0m > af um ara q FAH eH HH TAT’, alana Fria wera 8 a ib Ae, (4) a art 10 uP Benes ar Aza (Set) faa it vcftte fren 2 | fergait Aa Be Fea Sear (ret) St Gea eTTeeT e 30 () [He 2) 40F 3) 40 4 (3) Sur 4) ier Bg Hi, cuiss (ga Fae) A PRB 33.7 com Bi ve ret aT 8 | Carer sha R. FGA & Pree orerrat H ger @) | ae stare sere X (RS RR BH rae sete § Gs ®) ara 12 Qarafdasigtd args 51.9 em grace BE XIHA (2) 27.02 (4) 3.09 gee er i ee et eA vfs epreor seat Perea era wEeTTA S () Sais ra (2) aA wae (3) SRP era | (4) AER TATE 0.015 m? Saree BI A (aera) 0.30 T & warm geared Ba i va 8 | ale ‘gee ae 84 37° BIO TAT at Ha gad wast () (3) 36mWb 10 uF (2) 2.7mWb (4) 45 mWb 12. 13. 4. 16. 7. The angular magnification of microscope is 400 when the final image is formed at infinity, The optical tube length is 16 em and the focal length of objective i The focal length of the eye piece (1) 0.25 em Q) 10cm GB) 2.0em (4) 4.0cm If a charge q is placed at one comer of cube, the flux through the cube 4 > 8 a am, fed sai areas ar on a @ co) i (2) $ 2 = at fara safer ange razon # satire Gifs % fren we aer ae ey ere aT: ayo Q) vial 3x o> 10 m eft We 15 ke RTA aA GRAAT Tet wt Sahn Ge ge SUR 8 ea ae | 5 kg Ue wells aR Gam AEA She sa Rafe ene Frac RR 0.04 mate A RY Big Seat A oe 8 a Te Sa fat ucagaa weig wr antes aT: (Q) 0.02 m (2) 0.04m (3) 0.08 m (4) 0.16m watt cer ser smear A wd whoa arate 08 A aim a1 Sal ara (p Hea =r ATs 2) () yp@a? (2) G) ir 1 2 Ls 2, G3) gP@A «ay 27. 28. 29, 3. A horizontal platform is rotating with uniform angular velocity around the vertical axis passing through its centre. At some instant a viscous fluid of mass m is dropped at the centre and is allowed to spread out and finally fall out, The angular velocity during the period (1) decreases continuously (2) decreases initially and inereases again (3) inereases continuously (4)_ increases initially and decreases again The di oscillating Px | dx deat If @y >> r then the time in which energy +o; difference between displacement and driven force of forced oscillator in critical driving frequency condition will be ao QB) A uniform rope of 15 kg hangs ver support. A block of tothe fi id hed ¢ end of the rope. Ifa transverse pulse of wavelength 0.04 m is produced at the lower end of the rope, the wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope will be ly fiom a ti nass 5 ky is att: (1) 0.02 m (3) 0.08 m (2) 0.04m (4) O.1om sive wave is is @ then wave is (p is The amplitude of A and angular fi energ, density of the of medium) para? (2) para? Rie Ble \ 2 3) 92 we 4) G) GP waA (4)32. 33. MM. 36. the sropsil aor yaa area er SeoSHT aT At nall ara 35 TAB eH n= a Q@) 4 8) (4) 2 fare ary BRST SAY] aor aT Eg TET 2147 °C 1 sited ary & ef ret gan} aera? (i) 20°C @) 20K (3) 58°C (4) 273°C Sheeler weer Bae AaB eT aH ed (ore) A, set were he, Te TT fag wt cise |, @ | fare Ferg Ta w wie ua Be fg oar (0 oe Q) Wy4 (3) Wy2 (4) eae wa 3S Frm ae, Far cuca # diet fi ster faire sen 7H a Bh ett ora agen ofcafta eet 2 1 ain eras: (et Qa @) 2 (4) 3 wm aiferarcras & fre, seifes ay (T,) rire 89 (H1,) 8 aearer wee Fava sar 8 = Tey () He =n, (1-55] Q) He= nuh-F)] @) Heo! @)| oat L orang aret we fetta freer & we rast aa i ga aenfea srrensit A Hen eh: (ase fergait & wea Ft adh (1) La Q) 2L/a (3) La (4) La 32, 34. 36. 37. ‘The mean free path of gas molecules is directly. proportional to. n'" power of diameter of molecules, Here n is 1 M3 Q) = G) 2 (4) -2 At what temperature. the rms velocity of hydrogen molecule will be equal to the ms velocity of oxygen molecule at 47 °C? a) 20°C (2) 20K (3) 58°C (4) 273°C Ina interference pattem with two identical coherent sources, the intensity on the sereen at a point where path di Avis |p. The intensity at a point where path difference is 1/4, will be () Zero @ ly4 @) 12 ) 1, According to Dulong and Petit’s law, the molar specific heat of solid at b temperature varies with n™ power of absolute temperature. Here value of n is (1) Zero gyi @) 2 4) 3 For a superconductor, relation between transition temperature Te and critical field He is shown as -&)] @ newfie FS) The total number of states in first Brillouin zone of one dimensional crystal of length L will be (a= distance between lattice points) () La Q) 2a GB) Pra (4) La o738. 40. 41. 42. 43. 7 VLC i fe () Mert (3) M'L!T! @) MLIT! (4) MOLT! 200 m waft 3 600 m wa Ya Tach 8 1 ae 34 Hh ara 36 kmh VA Fay Maat anaes () 60s Q) 30s G) 80s (4) 40s ter wife & fre wee Sarg (H) wt Seer are (1) Fat ware gi : (1) H=8eT?sino @ Healer T @) W335 ) H=Tecot@ aft a afta A= of - sf + 4k am B= 4-6) + phen waa 8a p ware: a) 9 Q) -18 (3) +4 (4) 0 we ag da ae FF oer FA eT % oes eraser ae al faa ae QB) re ‘wpnsit 2 well faa on aaa | (4) F, +P) +Fy= 1500 kg # ae 1 F136 km/h @ 72 koh aa agrt # er Te Ey (I) 45% 108S (2) 2.25 * 1085 (3) 75% 10S (4) 4.5% 1055 39. 40, 4, 42. 43. The dimension of LC is () MLeT Q) M'L'T! @) M'L!T! (4) M°L"T! A 200 m ong train passes over a 600 ridge. If the speed of train is 36 km/h. the time taken by the train to he bridge (1) 00s (2) 30s (3) 80s (4) 40s Choose correct relation between the maximum height (H) and time of fight (T) of'a projectile motion () H=8eT sine 1 2) H gt? tet G) Hs Sin@ (4) H= Tee oi ~ 8h + 4K and If two vectors B= 41-6] + p& are mutually perpendicular, then value of p is (yy -9 Q) -18 G3) +4 ) 0 A body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces F,, Fy and F Then choose the wrong statement among the following : () F+R+R=0 Q) IF, ~F, SPs IF, +F,I (3) F,. Fy and Fy can be represented by the three sides of a triangle. () F, +P, +F,=0 The work done to increase the velocity of a 1500 kg car trom 36 km/h to 72 km/h is () 45* 1047 (3) 7.5% 108) 2) 2.25 « 108) (4) 4.5 * 1085 a44. 46. 47. 48. 49. Sh. Prafefiaa da aa a1 agar Baie 8 7 Q) [eweN),F [PCP (3) (Co(NHF* 4) [Co(NHS), Cl)" frafatza #8 ate ar sqeeeiatrs alfie 8 2 (1) KCLMgCh;.GH,0 (2) FeSO,(NH,),SO,.6H0 (3) KAKSO,)y-12H,0 (4) K{(AICO) smut 3 a & fore Praferfad 8 8 aH aren wea a 7 (1) Sd6p.78 (2). 58.4. Sp (3) 6s.4f,5d (4) 68. 5p, 4 eH Te fare Z = 92 TA =238 2 () Pa au G3) Np (4) Pu OF Hi ata A sateetoncr ee 8 : qa) -2 Q) +1 (3) +2 4) -t HCO, 3 aaah aT + (1) COs @) Coy (3) HCO, (4) H,COy yrra @f I pH B= () 78 Q) 64 3) 6.8 @ 74 cafe wan: waa: wala Bat AG 8: (1) 4G=0 @) aG>o @) aG<0 (4) AG=AH af wp gaan Ste F finezetiorer Stat ae: () ae Q) sr ehh | G) waren) (4) ef aeerT Prafafad afiiea 4 fee efsis a HTH AIS? 2CU,0 4 + CUS jy —> OCs) + SO (1) IR (2) FoR (3) steer (4) FoR S-sHTaRTRE| 10 44. 46. 47. 48. 49. Which of the following complex is heteroleptic ? (1) (CwCN),F (3) (Co(NH,)° Which of the — following co-ordination compound ? (1) KCLMgCly.6H,0 2) [PCP (4). [Co(NH3), Ch)" (2) FeSO, (NH,);SO,.6H,0 (3) KAMSO,)9-12H,0 (4) K,(AIC,0))3) Which of the following order is not correct for filling of orbitals ? (1) Sdop.7s 2) $8.4, Sp (3) 6s.4f 5d (4). 6s. Sp. 4h The atom with Z = 92 and A = 238 is: (1) Pa @u (3) Np (4) Pu In OF, the oxidation number of oxygei @ +1 (4) -1 te base for the HCO, is : Q) CO (3) H,CO, (4) HCO” pH of Human blood is () 78 Q) 64 (3) 68 4) 74 If the process is spontaneous then AG is : (1) AG= (2) 4G>0 Q) aG<0 (4) AG=AH Ifa liquid erystallises into a solid, entropy will (1). increases (2), decreases (3) zero (4) remains unchanged In the follow reaction, which sj undergoing reduction ? 2CU,O 4 + CUS, —F 6CU + SO, (1) Copper (2) Sulphur (3) Oxygen (4) Sulphur di oxide o754. 56, 87. 59, 60, 61. 62. 63. wafer perth 3 frefefied den fais aoe aeeta aera aa: os STS () 12.12 (2) 12.20 (3) 20,20 (4) 20,12 Fraferfian 4a aie ar sien ar sites 2 2 (1) arige (2) agree G) Fees (4) Gareiarge CH,CHy-@ (CH,),C- siftre Bag &, arr & (2) Sarg sera (2) Seo sera (3) Aaitfee wert (4) sfa—aa RAN@e (1) ager (2) safes -Set (3) He Hera (4) erase CocH, Gar errcoc HCL Alc saftiiren 4 Paster aici, 8 : (1) Bea ae ) Tea et (3) TRF (4) A reaffirm i ats er agers args ager 8 (1) eae (2) Wiererta (3), Sheree (4) Paiste 3g age St ee | ori 2 cen UR Targnict Ua Ofer seat 8 azeilita ater 8 () aia (2) Sarenge (3) Siferersta (4) freer aA gan si an al 8, Heed 8 Cy sifleate (2) afte @) Beare (4) shat feos erat situa & (1) wearer 0) aims G3) Fae (4) sieeifere frafefad #8 srarmari wba? : () err (2) ama 3) aR (4) tact u 54. 59, 60. ol. 62. Buckminster fullerene contains following numbers of five and six membered rings respectively : dy 12,12 2) 12.20 (3) 20.20 (4) 20, 12 Which of the following is an oxide of copper? (1) Bomite (3) Pentlandite (CH,)9C- is more stable than CH,CHy due to (1). resonance et (3) mesomeric eft Ry (1) electrophile 2) Cuprite (4) Anglesite (2) inductive effect 1 (4) hyper conjugation ct as : (2) nucleophile (3) free radical (4) carbanion In reaction t ic a + cH cocy nhdeous “HCl, Mh, the anhydrous A/C/s is acting as (1) Lewis base (2) Lewis acid (3) Nucleophile (4) Free radical Which of the following polymer is thermosetting polymer ? (1) Terylene (2) Polystyrene (3) Bakelite (4) Neoprene Polymer which is used in paints and synthesised by ethylene glycol and phthalic acid is (1) Dacron (3) Polystyrene (2) Bakelite (4) Glyptal Drug which reduce fever is known as (1) barbiturates (2) antiseptic (3) antipyretic (4). antibiotic Antifertility drug is (1) aspartame (2) softamicine GB) novestrol ——_(4)__prontosil Non-reducing sugar among the following is (1) Glucose (2) Sucrose (3) Maltose (4) Lactose a65. 61. 69. 70. n. 2. (1) tenfaa (2) Farge Q) acta (4) tentés art aaftreitwor 36) AH Bea ef a) (2) FTEs 3) BAe (4) St (1) Breer (2) ales (3) Pawar (4) we frafefad a 8 ar a et aT Tera saree? (1) wate (2) Wears argitrrat (3) welaettogtteet argze (4) ois frafhfua 4 8 at ai ung ere oe aifiremsit & Peers we aes 84 8 are sera AS 7 (1) ee (2) as @) Sefer (4) arr Praferftad #8 ata oh te ondh-SfeS7 Aseirhe 7 (1) Bien (2) Frets G3) ar (4) 33h [Zn(NH,),?* 6 santa & wae: (ly +2 Q) +6 QB) +4 (4) +3 Prafetad 2 a aftr srygeraca “eat aren Perera Te @ (i) La @) Lu (3) Na (4) Ce 2 65. 67. 68. 69, 70. n Rd. Which of the following natural amino acid is optically inactive ? (1) alanine (2) glycine (3) valine (4) aspartic acid AH of adsorption is always : (1) zero (2) negative (3) positive (4) infinite Substances that decrease the activity of a catalyst are known as : (1) controllers (2) promoters (3)_ poisons (4) initiators Which of the following is chemical pollutant in water ? (1) Acrolein (2) Polychlorinated biphenyls (3) Peroxyacetyl nitrate (4) Ozone Which of the following — metal interferes in the development and maturation of red blood cells ? (1) Mercury (3) Cadmium Which of the following gas is used in are-welding ? (1) Helium (3) Argon (2) Neon (4) Radon The Geometry of [Zn(NH,),P* is (1) Square planar (2) Pyramidal (3) Tetrahedral (4) Octahedral Most stable oxidation state _ for chromium is + () +2 (2) +6 (3) +4 (4) +3 Maximum Paramagnetism shown by the following tripositive ion is : (1) Le 2) Lu (@) Na (4) ce o”74, 16. 11. 8. 79. o7 frafefad 4 & as a are fear B,, 7B. % feru stages 8 7 (1) Mo () Co Q) Se (4) Cr CR aR aieah afiBrasit F amente | 74. ‘aftra were ae aT ar are (1) sag Q) Weraaaar (3) aa (4) aft-agar we dhe & R Gag ale 1715 em! 15. Gs rae wre Sich 2 a afte 2: () CHy-¢-CHy ° @) ClCH (3) CH,~CH,-OH (4) CH,=CH-CH,- OH aR offer ar an sifienes | oy, nfs erga a ek ae aa at otra ot ate Sef; (1) xe (2) feta. G3) (4) qa uf Afr 7 30 °C Hw oraereta 7. facta freren sre a ger are grat () eT Q) ere (3) Fag | (4) fda Pec eT ‘aesfia ad aifees are ar ter we 60 IA 118 HATS, BN: 78. (1) aap er Rats Q) sai ar ago (3) Sut ar a Tar (4) pif an rere Kel eM ee wt aera 79. gras area fae: acerg ae ; (1) aH eh, aa ehh 2) aR, wa eh | 3) FH eh, ae | (4) seh, ae) Which of the following element is essential for Vitamin B,? (1) Mo 2) Se (3) Co (4) Cr Unexpected activation effect on substitution reaction toluene is due to (1) resonance (3) conjugation showed by (2) tautomerism (4) hyper conjugation In an IR spectra, there is a peak at 1715 em, the compound will be : O) CHy=e= cH, ° (2) CH, c-4 (3) CH,-CH,~OH (4) CH,=CH-CH,-OH If the rate of reaction does not depends upon. the initial concentration of reactant, the order of reaction is : (1) first (2) second (3) zero (4) third Ifa non-volatile solute will be added in benzene at 30 °C. its vapour pressure will (1) increases (2) decreases (3) remains same (4) depend upon solute Molar mass of acetic acid in benzene is 118 instead of 60 due to : (2) dissociation of molecules (2) association of molecules (3) free movement of molecules (4) solvation of molecules On dilution the condu equivalent conductivity changes respectively (1) decreases, decreases (2) increases, decreases (3) decreases, increases (4) increases, increases ity and of KCI80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. Praftifiaa # a sta a ta (n - 1) dl" ns? farara sel cata 2 (1) Zn (2) Au (3) Cd (4) He Ste a ragisi A cea ait: (1) 26 2) 56 @) 30 (4) 28 Z = 68 el a wate e () s-miwa = 2) p-wiee (3) d-wisa = (4) fara PV = Z=aRTaZ Tse: (1) siRrwarare (2) Fags aR () aifigaar sre (4) ser rg fer den sre H Gis Te ara vs ATT Sone H Piet wg tank Hectic é : () rer (2) wasTart sta (3) aaa (4) TRIPS frafefad 8 ah aaa ea eT At aftrane arttar faren Bg were 7 (1) saree gar — areca > sareeft Bs — THA BH > THT FH — wart oH (2) worbt gH - Crh gH > sree am — sree ga > srl gm — ware FA (3) Wer BH - warn BH > sree ae — Were gH > aie a — orate ar (4) are aH — werhl ya > war am — weprAl BH > sree ay — are a BE, Sarthe eft () te 2) Rafer (3) Prebtoter aracft (4) frertofa frafireia ry 80. 81. 82. 83. 86. shows (n- 1) d!” ns? configuration () Zn (2) Au (3) Cd ) He Number of neutrons in 3¢Fe will be 2) 56 (4) 28 Element having Z = 68 is related to : (1) s-block (2). p= block (3) d-block (4) f-block Pv. For Z = jp Z is known as: (1) Probability factor (2) Collision factor (3) Compressibility factor (4) Boyle point In pressure vs temperature (Kelvin) graph at constant molar volume, the Tines of graph are known as: (1) isobar (3) isotherm (2) isochore (4) isotone Whicl repul (1) bp—bp>bp-Lp>Lp-Lp statement is correct for the interaction of electron pairs? Q) Lp-lp>bp-bp>bp-Lp (3) Lp-Lp>bp-Lp>bp-bp (4) bp—lp>Lp-Lp>bp-bp The geometry of BF, will be (1) Linear (2) Pyramidal (3) Trigonal planer (4) Trigonal pyramidal 087. 89, 90. 1. 92. 93. 94, o7 fefefaa 3 a sh at afer aah eae i1/ Hae 7 (1) Stare ar 347 Q) sishiean (3) Sorts (ere a) (4) ah xts yet @ sfer aa wal} fae frafefaa 4 a at dt anise F sofrd ia aoe te waft ey a sired ad 2 () re srg-siteeres (2) fad (3) Aega sieergs 4) 35a frafafaa 9 8 = a attend a RITE 7 (1) arr (2) sitgehifer G) Brg 4) aT ara aye safes dar 8: () waite a (Q) when a G) WR 4) eee a red agi hi seater Bett 2 : () stea 2) arena G) awa @) mer fora Frafefisa 9 a ats ar ageaiitge ea aa eta 2 2 () eas (2) Teresferfira G3) Gah, deere (4) 3agia often fee wae yp 8 dae, & ssi A Ber atte : Oe Q wm G) Maat (4) salad oa & defers war ager 8 () aan (2) Sarge (war) G) efter (ge Frere) (4) siferates (aggre) 15 87. 88, 39, 90. oO. 92. 94, Which one of the following is an active melanine-producing organytissue ? (2) Organ of Bojanus 2) Osphradium (3) Ink Gland (4) Green Gland Which of the followin; house gas present in troposphere is primarily essential for sustenance of life on earth ? (1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane (3) Nitrous oxide (4) Oz ne Which of the following is NOT a member of ehlorophyceai () Chara 2) Oedogonium (3) Spirogyra (4) Cladophora Independent sporophyte is present in (1) Anthoceros (2) Funaria (3) Marehantia (4) Adiantum Lateral roots originate from (1) Endodermis (2) Epidermis (3) Perieycle (4) Medullary rays Which of the following does not occur within mitochondria ? (1). Krebs eyele (2) Glycolysis (3) ATP synthesis, (4) Electron transport chain The number of DNA molecules in each chromosome is (1) one (2) upto 10 3) more than hundred (4) infinite Alternate forms ofa gene are known as (1) Tautomers (2). Isomers (3) Alleles (4) Polyploid95, PraferRaa ta ata a ardegh Rose # AE, fara are fers 4 adi 2 Ae eure Ee Al ARAM a TA SH HITT ifare : AL RA ST B. aaara Tre a TTT C. ofa fafa D. arora ar fee ee: () A,B,CMD @) ABD G) B,CWD (4) BRC 96. Banh & aeqere feeera HTT: () sata cant A damnit od a oma safeeanaii =r ait ‘Prefirt Ba wes yah aarfta crerott ht deme (3) aim avai ee aegrdir S Te a args : (4) Para a serra wa aTepher eT on, ala oy fret sf sre fet Foret ara Pitas & yor sere Patent Ae an’, Beware: Q) sedtergt (2) HIG 3) Se 4) praferfan at gitera aaa Ree eI Hl aera aA TH a APE : ‘ ‘eie-1 wie A. meter i, att B. metas cage ii, fea cc. Staffer iii, THA 98. re D. Helusens sere iv. deter adele sear y. Sie 16 96. 97. 98. Which of the follo ‘occurs in Mei but not in Mitosis ? Select the correct answer using the codes given below : ‘A. independent assortment jon of homologous C. crossing over :ynapsis of homologues Codes (1) A.B.CandD @) A,BandD @) B.CandD (4) BandC According to Lamarck the causes of evolution are (1) inheritance of acquired characters and natural selection (2) innate tendency of organisms. to evolve towards greater complexities and inheritance of — acquired characters (3) use and disuse of organs followed by natural selection (4) generation of variations and natural tion The term used for any asexual method of propagation not involving the normal production of embryos by fertilization is (1) Apospory (2) Apogamy (3) Apomixis (4) Parthenogenesis Match the following and choose the correct answer using the codes given below : Column I Column I A. Mustard B Hibiscus C. Papilionaceous iii, Pisum corolla, D. Monoadelphous iv. Calotropis condition E. Tetradinamous —v. Ocimum condition Codes : A B c E aviv i Q) iv ii ii iv Bi i ov wv iii @ ivy ii i i 0799, 100. ton. 3 102. 103. 104. 106, o7 washed twa, a aan SY, ay, HeeTa eg : C) sete 2) wala G) was (4) oRineha ae Freferfiaa i & a en wer tera 8 2 () Si fare gear arm feria 2 | (2) firg seaRads srefs seahtada if ‘ahora at Bara 8 | G) Bp 4, aat-ere 8 ere Set serttarts aga sara a HIE | (4) Jeane seater te wera Sareea Sarge 8, fara ofses fone 8 ara 2 sa ren aftr a aed 8: Cy wife (2) apt 3) seat (4) were we, wai, ds den qa 8 wafer ay me C1) creme ante Q) agement a (3) Pacha ofa (4) Tere wen agente fet at fra 8 @ a a anit oma dai @ arated sai eter? (1) sieegia (2) attr (3) urge (4) feral aor afar arererd caret carat 2 : () faftemet (angieterga) (2) waved (srgterga) (3) sToRE (witarg) (4) sfa-faRtrewech (etongfectergn) 5. Praferfiad a ata ar Yea Brit ‘Hyg 4 ore aren? (1) eet artes (2) aifsem sre (3) Arafat (4) Wer Fcc afte Faas: () Sefer (2) HR (ateaa) (3) Bie (ate) (4) fees (Ie) 7 99. Small circular DNA molecul apable of self-replication a (1) Introns, 2) Exons (3) Plasmid (4) Transposable elements Which of the follow incorrect ? (1) Another name for a gene is cistron (2) Point mutation can lead to nonsense mutations. In a chromosome, hotspot are sites where mutations can occur at very high rate. Frameshift mutations are caused by base substitutions, that are called 100, ements is G) 4) 101. In Daphnia, during oo} the first meiotic division is suppressed and the primary oocyte undergoes II maturation division. This type of parthenogenesis is called (1) Apomeiotic (G3) Meiotic Centre for heat, touch, cold and pressure are in (1) Frontal lobe (2) Occipital lobe (3) Parietal lobe (4) Frontal as well as occipital lobe both - Which of the following is not synthesized from Amino acid precursor? (1) Cholesterol (2) Chlorophyll (3) Cytochrome (4) Heme The antigen binding site of an antibody depicts : (1) Idiotype (3) Allotype (4) Anti-Idiotype Which one of the following is present in H” band of striated muscles ? (1) Actinomyosin (2) Na ions (3) Myosine (4) Actin (2) Mitotic (4) Arhenotoky 102. 104. (2) Isotype 106. The blood of Mollusca contains (1) Potassium (2) Iron (3) Copper (4) Silver107, “gira A AR” or ares 1. The “death of neutrophil” means (1) wekergalfre (sra-sfataraT) (1) Endocytosis (2) fettergatfire (aire) (2) Pinocytosis (3) Amita (ae ea) (3) Necrosis (4) weiter (4) Aptosis 108. Gea afar wal tas 108. Heart is not myogenic in Q), Gtr (1) Annelida (2) Tee (2) Mollusca (3) Hater (atetts) @) saat a 109. fired sit vata cite eth B= (1) sriPemrat siftremry Q) BRA aire (3) fret (Gergeet) aAPeraTE (3) Parietal cells (4) eran (4) Olfactory cells 110. Sear sewa 2: 110. The origin of dentine is (1) Atatete Grea aff) (1). Mesodermal 2) wetatas (ara) (2) Endodermal G) wader (sifreit) (3) Ectodermal () wasn an weit at (4) Endodermal as well as ectodenmal (ara wa aaftrenfi ef) 111, All water soluble vitamins serves as 1, sa-frea af Rate we a-esTeT coenzymes in enzymatic-reactions, Sand Roos ofthat Far set oe z @ dan sree: (1) Vitamin B, (2) Vitamin By () PetaB, 2) Petr, (3) VitaminB, — (4) Vitamin C 3) Pref frafia @) BR c 112. The excretory product of earthworm is 112, Saga apr seers Terre zs (1) only Ammonia and Uric acid (1) Bae anita war atte efs (2) only Urea and Amino acid 2) Sara aten way sett eee (3) only Amino acid G) Fae ait cfs (4) Ammonia, Urea’ and traces of (4) -sifien, after wae, Brees ereatini aera 113. Vital stains are used as artificial marker 113, Praia ara aan 2g Se iret at fare map construction. Which of the pf a er sat par ae 1 following is not a vital stain ? Sata ar a ahs ioe ree 7 (1) Nile blue sulphate 2) () smear @) Sree (3) Nelson ret coper e) eine (4) Prem ars (4) Bismark Brown114. 115. 116, M7. 118, 119. 120. 121. 122. 07 Peta sh a gait a2 2 (1) 31g eRAT — aR 2) FeeReRR eM — vif Q) aRsera - dete 4) Meet ara - atten Sites ore Fifa aa an al aiftrard art & () stir a (2) Ferd a 3) tesa (4) Sea ‘T-wifrard aitvaa ate & : (1) arnige aff (2) omer afer 3) here 4) safest aifesht—apret =r ues yer ars B (1) sopra srarenrite wesrer—aigeteroy 2) fv a G) eagle sito da yer (4) Sta & wore frat a ata a G.u., aes fare sie ra 8 2 C) Sa agit Q wae (3) Frengetsts (4) Year wear “eager wan Bran oer ata ga word el aren Sarre (Fertengz) 2 : dy (2) TRRae (3) Wheres tears T (4) o-atateaste shat suet avis Steer ter2 (1) safer gra (2). areas ert (3) argdlenrgfa ara(4y gergetta are we artes Has tao ee S at tT AT Fearratta @ arch sat ar after : (1) 10% 2) 50% 3) 80% (4) 100% Coys Cig FL Cyy gs % Fee a erate aif 2 () ye @) (2) aRRa (4) arnigs 19 114, 116. 117, 118, 119. 120. 1 122, Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (1) Ephyra larva (2) Parenchymular larva ~ Po (3) Cydipped larva = Ctenophora (4) Rhabditiform larva — Wachereria bancrofii '. In amphibians, cells that form the neural tube come trom the (1) ectoderm (3) notochord (2) mesoderm (4) somites T cells mature in the (1) thyroid gland (2). thymus gland (3) spleen (4) bone marrow ‘A major function of Golgi bodies is (1) in light independent photosynthesis (2) in fermentation (3) for isolation of electron transport systems (4)_ in modification of proteins Which one of the following is not required for DNA-cloning ? (1) DNA ligase (2) A vector (3) Methylases (4) Restriction endonucleases The metabolite that bridges the gap between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is (1) oxaloacetate (2) pyruvate @) acetyl coenzyme A (4) alpha ketoglutarate The sub-apical elongation in plants is induced by () Auxi (2) Gibberellins (3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene The percentage of energy that is passed on from one trophic level to another in an ecosystem (I) 10% (2) 50% 3) 80% (4) 100% The gland associated with the production Of Cy), Co and C,, steroid is () Testis (2) Thymus (3) Adrenal (4) Thyroid o124. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. . Sa, & fate sr avs & fora smenfea wats & fore frafetera 8 an ah fafa satires soe @ 2 areas wae a volta & wea ws et ‘aa Bream ae aren aes aor ae: (y) argingeig (2) eewtargette (3) aeifesinngetiz (4) afr rea Al seat Ba OH SEI TT apt, Prater & & ata a oT sett & wai waa feo a safe? (1) Parsi (2) WRT (3) grater (4) Saree fet apse ara sthtcdigr & fara : (1) Barer fer i agian a sata (0) Saran Rafer S mae A sateahe A (3) Bibra fer shea outa (4) Bienes far earl eae a AiG (stmt) Hi aafeert ctor aI wan’: () Bria Q) Shia (3) Siete @) Fate aetht aegis fermen & wafer veep hielo ar TeTeTT 8 : () seRRfen | @) wee (3) Wieeaet 4) SAT frafatad 3 aon aw Gels S01. ‘mart oor Toure EB? () Rit (2) Agia G) ward) Biel 123. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130. |. The biotic interaction: Which of the following methods is most useful for the enzymatic ampli of specifi (1) DNA hybridization (2) Nucleotide sequen: (3) Polym (4) Reverse transeri in which, one has an adverse effect on organis another is (1) Mutualism (3) Amensalism (2) Commensa (4) Cooperation The class of fungi which represents the link between true fungi and the protists is (1) Zygomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Chytridiomycetes Which of the following part ofa healthy plant should be used as explants. to produce haploid plant ? (1) Meris (2) Pollen (3) Flower bud (4) Adventitious buds Mycoplasmas are different from the other prokaryotes by (1)_ presence of chitin in cell walls (2) presence of murein in cell walls 3) presence of proteins in cell walls, (4) absence of cell wall itself ‘The placentation type present in lady's finger (Okra) is (1) Parietal (3). Superficial (2) Axile (4) Free Central An example of a species coneemed with symbiotic nitrogen fixation is: () Pullularia’ (2) Chlorobium (3) Azotobacter (4) Frankia Which of the following of Recombinant DNA T (1), GloFish (3) Flave save not a product mology ? (2) Bt-cotton (4) Dolly 0713, 132, 134, 138, 136. 137. 7 ‘seiprerer aft Reba Pera oe meta 8 2 (1) eh dea Q) tear thea (3) Tar Seat @) Sasa a great ‘Freferfisd § 8 sreq—gza fare arash weit a Rerrd aet & () tartan fara (2) sgt ferara Q) =A # far (4) saci a1 gra = reaferferr 3 & ata ar aor Rarer aera 7 (1) Frits 2) Fear G) Sea (4) Ff W-Ai..-2005 fer seen aR aT THs? () GAZI. 2) was, G) Bate 4) GaHAE fea cemas 4 farererh fren ¥ waar sore at adie wd fire aa A aeRTAT 7g 2 7 (1) Teta Ren FA, 1986 (2) Simm aii Wa, 1992 (3) Teta crgreat aatar — 2005 (4) Ugta ar srr — 2007 frefefsr #8 a ar dfs sta oraz, aft & ania aerieraa at A afeatera aaa 2 () Feat (2) Bete (3) fare (4) aeatta wera 3 eros 3 au th aha ar ferser wate 8 ? () Beet at mz (2) Para fatty at a G3) sete wen a (4) Rrvaeg ator a 132, 134, 136, 137. - Laboratory method is based on which principle? (D_ Leaming by doing (3) Learning by rote (4) Learning by intuition Which of the following is not a principle of the use of au al teaching aids ? (1) Principle of Preparation (2) Principle of Presentation (3) Principle of Selection (4) Principle of Observation - Which of the following is not a funetion ofa teacher ? (1) Planning 3) Budgeting NCF-2005 organisation ? (1) NCERT (Q) NIE (2) Guidance (4) Counseling prepared by which (2) NUEPA (4) NCTE - Which document recommended examination system as. flexible and friendly in school education ? (1) National Policy on Education, 1986 (2) Program of Action, 1992 (3) National Curriculum Framework, 20 Ni 2007 (4) al Knowledge Commision, Which of the following educational objective is not included in creativity category according to RCEM method ? (1) Evaluate (2) Synthesize (3) Analyze (4) Verify Which of the following option is not correct in relation to Blue Print of a question paper ? (1) Weightage to objectives (2) Weightage to teaching method (3) Weightage to type of questions (4) Weightage to content138. 140. wha afer afer ar fees fees fare 7 () wea (2) atte (3) f.ue. GER (4) CLEA AAS. A dames Steret & aT entre aa 8 () saa een (2) afters # gf mer | (3) wena F af eer | (4) ste att eT | ~faerera 3 refs ga ai Het rat wT fan wa afta a after eg 8 errr farm 3 ea F agra wr aafee™ — Fe feraa Gera 7 () Berd are (2) aera aft (3) Baers wa afte (4) Berfera sere 141, Prafefiaa 4 3 sta ar ware ST ae Sr Tee? (1) Safer aa (2) are fag a 4 aera G3) Fat (4) me a fear 142, Siew seat ar arisen feat vat A fea TAs 7 (2 3 @) 4 (a) 5 143, Bearers Wa SATA TET HR C) sa 2) Fram Q) Fr (4), sare Fate, 144, aot Hames da or Rare spufaearei a qe act ar fora Fae fee ? (1) aah aren fifa, 1986 (2) staré arr, 1964 (3) seifera arr, 1953 (4) ferretererrera Parent arrta, 1949 138. 139. 140. 141. 142. 144. Who propounded Li learning ? (1) Crow & Crow (2) Thomdike (3) BAF. Skinner (4) SS. Ste programmed Which of the followin Emotional skills undei (1) Reduction in fear (2) Inerease in learning (3)° Increase in empathy (4) Reduction in anger isnot included in CCE? “Science and Mathematics, should be ht on a compulsory basis to all pupils asa part of general edueation during first ten years of schooling.” Who suggested this = (1) Kothari Commission (2). Yashpal Committee (3) Ishwarbhai Patel Committee (4) Mudaliar Commission Which of the following is not a safe equipment of laboratory ? (1). Fire extinguis (2) Bucket filled with sand (3), Blanket (4) Cardboard box Taxonomy of eduei cate jonai_ objectives is, rized in how many domains ? a2 @a @) 4 45 . The highest evel behaviour in Ps omotor domai (1). Stimulus (3) Coordination (2) Control (4) Habit formation Who gave the thought of developing scientific temper superstitio National Policy Kothari Commission, 1964 Mudaliar Commission, 1953 y Education Commission, o7145. fram Hi wpe @ fia seared ere fear SAAT a ? () aR — fier - Bara 2) aa — yard — aT (3) sen — safitiren — ate (4) affren — steresrer — fargo ge wr dusrn fire sean a eft wre? . (1) Were séza — fate sea - dar safiran 2) Mfie ea - afte ora — pale wir 146. sia (4) Str Sea — dares ster — seat fire 147, “fara aor ogee § at siren 3 va we wait § neal agera eM wae — a fae & ath foie, set feast Ft oneal cen 3 set re tS wash a aed f sre yea ake ea me wer fara fee 2? () Spa fer (2) ayaa Q) wRaeee (4) wT aT ater & arena wel aire & () Saas (2) TATE G) Sree (4) Hee oT sidiae fatty a ata ar Prem arafa ae 3 7 (1) aerer a1 Fre 2) tere Fer G3) sare ar fa (4) sgafirerer a Perr ). faa fase a rere fate ak oa Al Tears A oT wal B C) fated art ger (2) Sifts arf gro (3) Preraresres ater grt (4) saree rer grt 148, 149, 07 23 146, 147, 148. 149. 150. the inter (2) Knowledge - Matter (3) Process ~ Reaction ~ Understanding (4) Process ~ Awareness ~ Analysis Furst’s paradigm indicates the inter- relationship between (1) Educational objective — Specific objective — Writing procedure Educational objective ~ Leaming experiences — Evaluation procedure (2) (3) Educational objective - Knowledge objective — Understanding procedure (4) Educational objective — Cognitive objective ~ Practical procedure “Science can justify its place in the curriculum only when it produces important changes in young people - changes in their ways’ of thinking, in their habits of action and in the values they assign to what they have and what they do.” Who gave this statement ? (1) Bloom & Simpson (2) Bloom & Crathwoht (3) Thurber & Collette (4) Thurber & Campbeel ‘Comprehension does not involve : (1) Translation — (2) Composition (3) Interpretation (4) Extrapolation Which law is not related to project method ? (1) Law of readiness 2) Law of exercise G) Law of effect (4) Law of heredity The specific weak area of student in a science subject can be i (1) Written work (2) Oral work (3) Diagnostic test (4) Remedial teaching07 Harts fry AMT / SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK 24