مراجعة+شا... pdf PDF

‫ﻣﻘـــــــــــــــــــــﺪﻣﺔ‬
‫إن اﻟﺤﻤﺪ ﷲ ﻧﺤﻤﺪه وﻧﺴﺘﻌﯿﻨﮫ وﻧﻌﻮذ ﺑﺎﷲ ﻣﻦ ﺷﺮور أﻧﻔﺴﻨﺎ وﺳﯿﺌﺎت أﻋﻤﺎﻟﻨﺎ ﻣﻦ‬
‫ﯾﮭﺪ اﷲ ﻓﮭﻮ اﻟﻤﮭﺘﺪ وﻣﻦ ﯾﻀﻠﻞ ﻓﻠﻦ ﺗﺠﺪ ﻟﮫ وﻟﯿﺎ ﻣﺮﺷﺪا‬
‫أﻣﺎ ﺑﻌﺪ ‪.........‬‬
‫إن اﻷﻛﺎدﯾﻤﯿﺔ اﻟﺪوﻟﯿﺔ ﻟﻠﻌﻠﻮم اﻟﺼﺤﯿﺔ ﻣﻦ ﺑﺎب ﺣﺮﺻﮭﺎ ﻋﻠﻰ ﻣﺼﻠﺤﺔ أﺑﻨﺎﺋﮭﺎ‬
‫اﻟﻄﻼب وﻣﺘﺎﺑﻌﺘﮭﻢ وﻣﺴﺎﻋﺪﺗﮭﻢ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ ھﺬه اﻟﻤﺮاﺟﻌﺔ اﻟﺘﻲ ﺗﺸﻤﻞ أھﻢ ﻣﺎ ﺗﻌﺮض‬
‫ﻟﮫ اﻟﻄﻼب أﺛﻨﺎء دراﺳﺘﮭﻢ اﻷﻛﺎدﯾﻤﯿﺔ اﻟﻨﻈﺮﯾﺔ واﻟﻌﻤﻠﯿﺔ آﻣﻠﯿﻦ ﻣﻦ اﷲ اﻹﺧﻼص‬
‫ﻓﻲ اﻟﻌﻤﻞ‪.‬‬
‫وﻣﺎ ﻛﺎن ﻣﻦ ﺗﻮﻓﯿﻘﻲ ﻓﮭﻮ ﺑﺘﻮﻓﯿﻖ ﻣﻦ اﷲ وﻻ أﺣﺪ ﺳﻮاه وﻣﺎ ﻛﺎن ﻣﻦ ﺧﻄﺄ ﻓﻤﻦ‬
‫ﻧﻔﺴﻲ وﻣﻦ اﻟﺸﯿﻄﺎن‪.‬‬
‫وﻻ أﻧﺴﻰ أن أﺷﻜﺮ‬

‫ﻣﺪﯾﺮ اﻷﻛﺎدﯾﻤﯿﺔ اﻟﺪوﻟﯿﺔ ﺑﻤﻜﺔ اﻟﻤﻜﺮﻣﺔ‬ ‫‪ -١‬اﻷﺳﺘﺎذ ‪ /‬ﻋﺒﺪاﻟﺮﺣﻤﻦ ﺑﻦ ﻣﺤﻤﺪ ﺷﺮف‬
‫اﻟﻮﻛﯿﻞ اﻷﻛﺎدﯾﻤﻲ ﺑﻤﻜﺔ اﻟﻤﻜﺮﻣﺔ‬ ‫‪ -٢‬د ‪ /‬أﺣﻤﺪ أﻧﻮر ﻣﺤﻤﺪ‬
‫ﻣﻜﺔ اﻟﻤﻜﺮﻣﺔ ﺑﻨﺎت‬ ‫‪ -٣‬د ‪ /‬وﻓﺎء اﻟﻘﺎﺻﺪ‬
‫ﻣﻜﺔ اﻟﻤﻜﺮﻣﺔ ﺑﻨﺎت‬ ‫‪-٤‬د ‪ /‬ﻣﺮوى ﻣﺤﻔﻮظ‬
‫ﻋﻠﻰ ﺗﻌﺎوﻧﮭﻢ وإﺧﻼﺻﮭﻢ وﻋﻄﺎﺋﮭﻢ ﺑﺎﻟﻮﻗﺖ واﻟﻤﺠﮭﻮد ﻹﺧﺮاج وﻣﺮاﺟﻌﮫ ھﺬا اﻟﻌﻤﻞ‬
‫ھﺬا وﺑﺎﷲ اﻟﺘﻮﻓﯿﻖ‪،،،،،،،،،،‬‬
‫د ‪ /‬ﻣﺤـــﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿـــﺪ ﺣﺒﯿــــﺐ‬

‫ﻗﺴــــﻢ اﻟﺼﯿــــﺪﻟﺔ‬
‫ﻣﻜـــــــــــﺔ اﻟﻤﻜـــــــــــﺮﻣﺔ‬
Pharmacokinetics
Is movement of drug over time through the body
It is the way that body deal with the drug
It composed of 4 stages
A absorption ‫اﻻﻣﺘﺼﺎص‬ mainly through intestine ‫اﻷﻣﻌﺎء‬ ‫وﺳﯿﻠﺔ دﺧﻮل اﻟﺪواء إﻟﻰ اﻟﺪم‬
D Distribution ‫اﻟﺘﻮزﯾﻊ‬ Through blood ‫اﻟﺪم‬ ‫ﺗﻮزﯾﻊ اﻟﺪواء ﻣﻦ ﺧﻼل اﻟﺪم‬
M Metabolism ‫اﻻﺳﺘﻘﻼب‬ Through liver ‫اﻟﻜﺒﺪ‬ ‫اﺳﺘﻘﻼب اﻟﺪواء ﻓﻲ اﻟﻜﺒﺪ‬
E Excretion ‫اﻹﺧﺮاج‬ Through kidney ‫اﻟﻜﻠﻰ‬ (‫إﺧﺮاج اﻟﺪواء ﻣﻦ ﺧﻼل اﻟﻜﻠﻰ ) اﻟﺒﻮل‬
Pharmacodynamics
What a drug does to the body
Drug desired action (uses ) and undesired action (side effect)
Dosage calculation
Example
You find 10 ml vial of aminophylline with supply label 10 mg per ml. how many mg in the vial?
‫ﻟﺤﺴﺎب اﻟﺠﺮﻋﺔ اﻟﺪواﺋﯿﺔ ﻓﻲ أي ﻣﺴﺄﻟﺔ ﯾﻤﻜﻦ إﺗﺒﺎع اﻟﺨﻄﻮات اﻟﺘﺎﻟﯿﺔ‬

10 ml vial ‫أي رﻗﻢ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻤﺜﺎل ﻻﺑﺪ ﻣﻦ ﻛﺘﺎﺑﺘﮫ وﻛﺘﺎﺑﮫ وﺣﺪﺗﮫ ﺧﺎرج اﻟﻤﺴﺄﻟﺔ‬- -١
10 mg per ml
10 mg per ml will convert to 10 mg ‫أي ﺻﻮره ﻣﻦ ﺻﻮر اﻟﻨﺴﺒﺔ ﻻ ﺑﺪ ﻣﻦ ﺗﺤﻮﯾﻠﮭﺎ إﻟﻰ ﺻﻮرة ﺑﺴﻂ وﻣﻘﺎم‬- -٢
1 ml
‫ ﻋﻤﻞ ﺗﻨﺎﺳﺐ )ﺗﺴﺎوي أﻛﺜﺮ ﻣﻦ ﻧﺴﺒﺔ ( ﺑﺸﺮط ﺗﻨﺎﺳﺐ اﻟﻮﺣﺪات )اﻟﺒﺴﻂ ﻣﺜﻞ اﻟﺒﺴﻂ ( واﻟﻤﻘﺎم ﻣﺜﻞ اﻟﻤﻘﺎم‬-٣
10 mg = mg
1 ml ml
10 mg = ? mg ‫ اﻧﻈﺮ أﯾﻦ اﻟﺴﺆال وﺿﻊ ﻋﻼﻣﺔ اﺳﺘﻔﮭﺎم ﻓﻲ اﻟﻤﻜﺎن اﻟﻤﻄﻠﻮب‬-٤

1 ml 10 ml
The answer is 100 mg ‫ ﻋﻤﻠﯿﺔ ﺿﺮب اﻟﻮﺳﻄﯿﻦ ﻓﻲ اﻟﻄﺮﻓﯿﻦ واﻟﺤﺼﻮل ﻋﻠﻰ اﻟﻤﻄﻠﻮب‬-٥
Pharmaceutical Calculations
Systems of weight and Measures
Metric System:
Units of weight is : gram (g)
Units of volume is : liter (l)
Units of length is : Meter (m)
Each of them take unit number one (1)
Kilo(k) is number = 1000
Example kilogram(kg) = 1000 gram
kilometer(km) = 1000 meter
kilolitre(kl) = 1000 liter
1 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

hecto (h) is number = 100
deka (dK) is number = 10
liter , gram , meter is number = 1
deci (d) is number = 1/10
centi (c) is number = 1/100
milli(m) is number = 1/1000
micro (mc) is number = 1/1000,000
kilo= 10 hecto = 100 deka = 1000 …. =10000 deci = 100000 centi = 1000000 milli =
1000 000 000 micro
Conversion:
Exact equivalents are used for the conversion of specific quantities in the pharmaceutical
formulas and prescription compounding
Unit Mass
1 gram (g) = 15.432 grain
1 kilogram (kg) = 2.240 pound
1 grain (gr) = 0.065 mg
Unit Volume
1 liter (1) = 35.2 fluid ounces= 0.22 gallon
Unit Length
1 meter (m) = 39.37inches
1 inch = 2.54 cm
House hold measurement
1 tea spoonful (tsp.) = 5ml
1 table spoonful (tbsp.) = 15ml
1 milliliter (ml) = 16 drops (dps or gtts)
Calculation of doses:
Total amount of doses = size of dose + number of doses.
Example # 1:
How many drops would be prescribed in each dose of liquid medicine in
15ml contained 60 doses?
1 ml = 16 drops
15ml = ?? drops → 480 dps or gtts
size of dose = 240dps /60 doses = 4 dps or gtts
Example # 2:
How many doses are found in 10g, if the dose is 200mg?
Number of doses = 10g/ 0.2g= 50 doses
Example # 3:
How many milliliters of liquid medicines would provide a patient with 2
table spoonful twice a day for 8 days?
Total amount = 2 ×15ml ×2 × 8= 480ml

Temperature conversion
To convert temperature from Fahrenheit scale(F) to Celsius (centigrade)(C) we use the
formula 5F = 9C + 160 Where
Scale Fahrenheit Celsius
Boiling point 212 100
Freezing point 32 0
Example Convert temperature 30 C to F the answer (86 f)
5F = 9C + 160
5F= 9×30 + 160
5F= 270 + 160
5F= 430
F = 430÷ 5 = 86
Convert temperature 150 F to C the answer (65.5 c)
5F = 9C + 160
5×150 = 9C + 160
750 = 9C + 160
750 – 160 = 9C
590 = 9C
C = 590 ÷ 9 = 65.5
Drug names :
There are three names of drug

1- Chemical name : exact description of chemical structure
2- Generic name : shorten Chemical name
3- Trade name : brand name
Drug drug interaction:

Any interaction between drugs when they are used for the same patient in short duration of
time that will affect Pharmacokinetics or Pharmacodynamics .

Abbreviation Meaning
am morning I 1
aq water Ii 2
ad right ear Iii 3
as left ear Iv 4
au each ear V 5
bid twice a day Vi 6
Cap. capsule Vii 7
gtt drop Viii 8
h hour Ix 9
hs at bed time X 10
inj injection L 50
nebul a spray C 100
non rep do not repeat D 500
noct at at night M 1000
no number Ac Before meal
ou each eye
od right eye
os left eye
po By mouth
pc after eating
pm after noon
evening evening
prn when needed
pulv a powder
qs quantity sufficient
Qd every day
Qh every hour
Qid four times day
soln solution
stat immediately
supp suppository
syp syrup
tab tablet
tid three times a day
tbsp table spoonful
tsp tea spoonful
IM intramuscular
IV Intravenous
QOD Every other day
sos If necessary

Preparation and administration of medicine
Solid preparation
1- Powder drug in powder form
2- Capsule drug in gelatin container
3- Tablet compressed solid mass
Semi Solid preparation
1- Suppository drug molded into shape for insertion in a body opening
2- Ointments & creams drug suspended in some base for external use
Liquid preparation
1- Fluid extract alcoholic solution of drug
2- Spirit alcoholic solution of volatile substance
3- Elixir solution containing alcohol , sugar , flavoring substance
4- Tincture alcoholic solution of ostrichion substance
All alcoholic preparation are
a) Potent
b) take in small dose
c) never to be injected
d) never to applied to open lesion
5- Emulsion mixture of two liquid usually oil & water
6- Suspension liquid preparation containing un dissolved material
7- Lotion liquid preparation containing un dissolved material for external
use only .
8- Syrup highly concentrated sugar solution
9- Liniment solution of drug in oily or alcoholic or soapy base intended
for external use only .
Rout of administration
1- Oral : swallowed by mouth to give systemic effect
2- Sublingual : resemble oral but tablet dissolved under the tongue (not swallowed)
3- Buccal :resemble oral but tablet dissolved in the pouch of the cheek
(not swallowed)
4- Rectal : local or systemic effect which suitable for pediatric , vomiting
and unconsciousness
5- Vaginal / urethral : local effect
6- Inhalation : through respiration then go to systemic circulation
7- Topical : applied to surface of the skin
8- Parenteral :
A. Intra venous (IV) : Injection directly into veins ( most rapid ) for aqueous only
B. Intra thecal : Injection directly into spine
C. Intra muscular (IM) : Injection deeply into muscle tissue (aqueous or oily)
D. Intra dermal(ID) : the top few layer of the skin
E. Sub cutaneous(SC) :into the fatty layer e.g. insulin

General anesthesia
Agent used for induce loss of consciousness, analgesia, relaxation
Classification Inhalation anesthesia Intravenous anesthesia

Route Mix with oxygen Directly with blood
Control Well control Difficult to control
Uses Long term operation maintenance Short term
Examples Nitrous oxide Thiopental
Ether Ketamine
halothane
local anesthesia
Agent used for induce loss of sensation without affecting ,consciousness
Example : cocaine , benzocaine ( topical {surface} application )
Procaine , bupivacaine , mepivacaine ( local injection )
lidocaine (both topical , local injection )
Antiepileptic drug
Epilepsy is violent involuntary contraction of voluntary muscle which is characterized by
1-Chronic 2- recurrent 3- typical 4- usually episodes of un consciousness or amnesia
Drugs
1. Phenytoin
2. Ethoxsumide (only for petit mal epilepsy)
3. Carbamazepine
4. Vaproic acid
5. New : lamotrigine
Antipsychotic drug
Psychosis is disorder of mood, thought and behavior
It is characterized by delusion , hallucination and thought disorder
Aim of therapy : to block centeral dopamine receptor
Typical Antipsychotic drug
1. Chloropromazine
2. Haloperidol
Side effect : parkinsonian like syndrome ( extra pyramidal side effect )
Atypical Antipsychotic drug
1. Clozapine
2. Olanzapine
3. Risperidone
Side effect : fewer parkinsonian like syndrome ( extra pyramidal side effect )

Drug for parkinsonian disease
Parkinsonism is movement disorder characterized by muscle rigidity and postural instability

Aim of therapy : is to increase central dopamine
anti parkinsonian drug:
1. L- dopa (levodopa)
2. Selegline
3. Bromocriptine
4. Amantidine
Side effect : excess dose may lead to psychosis
Narcotic analgesic
Morphine and related opoid has the following effect
1. Strong analgesic
2. Cough suppressant ( central antitussive )
3. Anti diarrheal
Side effect
1. Addiction
2. Respiratory depression
3. Constipation
Codeine is Morphine derivative which is only central antitussive
Loperamide and diphenoxylate are Morphine derivative which used only to control diarrhea
migraine
severe headache in which patient complain from only one side of head
patient suffer first from stage of aura (vasoconstriction) then stage headache(vasodilatation )
drugs for acute attack (for vasodilatation )
1. Erotamine
2. Sumatrriptan
3. Analgesics
drugs for prophylaxis (for vasoconstriction)
1. Beta blocker
2. Calcium channel blocker
3. Serotonin receptor blocker
Antidepressants
disorder of mood is characterized by decreased self esteem and increased sadness

drugs
1. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAO inh) :e.g. phenelzine
2. Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) :e.g. amitryptillin , imipramine
3. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) : e.g. fluoxetine

A.N.S (autonomic nervous system)
Nervous system is divided into
1- Central 2- peripheral nervous system
peripheral nervous system is divided into
1- Afferent 2- efferent nervous system
Efferent nervous system is divided into
1- autonomic nervous system
2- somatic nervous system
autonomic nervous system
is part of peripheral nervous system associated with the involuntary action
is divided into 1- sympathetic( adrenergic) nervous system (S.)
2- parasympathetic (cholinergic) nervous system (P.S.)
‫ﯾﺘﺤﻜﻢ اﻟﺠﮭﺎز اﻟﻌﺼﺒﻲ اﻟﻼإرادي ﻓﻲ ﻛﻞ اﻟﻮﻇﺎﺋﻒ اﻟﻼإرادﯾﺔ وﻣﺠﺎزا ھﻲ ﻛﻞ اﻷﻋﻀﺎء اﻟﺪاﺧﻠﯿﺔ‬

• parasympathetic nervous system (P.S.)
‫ﯾﺰﯾﺪ ﻣﻦ ﻛﻞ وﻇﺎﺋﻒ اﻟﺠﺴﻢ ﻣﺎ ﻋﺪا اﻟﻘﻠﺐ واﻷوﻋﯿﺔ اﻟﺪﻣﻮﯾﺔ‬
............‫ و‬gland ‫ ﻟﻮ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ‬secretion ‫ وﺗﻌﻨﻲ‬muscle ‫ ﻟﻠــــ‬contraction ‫واﻟﻤﻘﺼﻮد ﺑﻜﻠﻤﺔ زﯾﺎدة ھﻲ‬
Example (P.S.)
Action on respiratory muscle is contraction that lead to asthma
Action on Intestinal muscle is contraction that lead to digestion
Action on Uterine muscle is contraction that lead to excretion of urine
Action on salivary gland is contraction that lead secretion of saliva and so on…..
N.B excess contraction of intestinal muscle will cause spasm in abdomen and so on…..
Action on heart is relaxation that lead to slow action of heart
Action on blood vessel is relaxation that lead to dilates blood vessel.
Drugs
Parasympathomimetic (Parasympathetic agonist) cholinomimetic
1- direct acting (acetylcholine , carbacol , bethanecol , Pilocarpine )
2- Indirect acting (physostigmine , neostigmine organophosphorus compound)
Parasympatholytic (Parasympathetic antagonist)
1- Atropine , hysocine and atropine substitute (e.g. homatropine ,….)
• sympathetic nervous system (S.)

‫ﯾﻘﻠﻞ ﻣﻦ ﻛﻞ وﻇﺎﺋﻒ اﻟﺠﺴﻢ ﻣﺎ ﻋﺪا اﻟﻘﻠﺐ واﻷوﻋﯿﺔ اﻟﺪﻣﻮﯾﺔ‬
............‫ و‬gland ‫ ﻟﻮ ﻛﺎﻧﺖ‬decrease secretion ‫ وﺗﻌﻨﻲ‬muscle ‫ ﻟﻠــــ‬relaxation ‫واﻟﻤﻘﺼﻮد ﺑﻜﻠﻤﺔ ﺗﻘﻠﯿﻞ ھﻲ‬
Example (S.)
Action on respiratory muscle is relaxation that lead to dilatation of lung
Action on Intestinal muscle is relaxation that stop digestion
Action on Uterine muscle is relaxation that lead to inhibit excretion of urine
Action on salivary gland is decrease secretion that decrease secretion of saliva and
so on ………..
Action on heart is contraction that lead to strengthens action of heart
Action on blood vessel is contraction that lead to increase blood pressure.

Site Receptor Action
sympathetic Heart Beta 1 (β1) contraction
Blood vessel Alpha 1 (α1) contraction
Lung Beta 2 (β2) relaxation
Any drug act on sympathetic system

either enhance or inhibit action of sympathetic nervous system
Drug agonist mean that. it will stimulate function of the receptor
Drug antagonist (blocker) mean that. it will block the action of the receptor
Site Receptor Drug agonist Drug

sympathetic antagonist
Heart Beta 1 (β1) contraction relaxation
Blood vessel Alpha 1 (α1) contraction relaxation
Lung Beta 2 (β2) relaxation contraction
Example
Drug name Description Receptor Site of action Action Effects
Salbutamol (β2) agonist (β2) Lung Agonist Dilate lung for
( ventolin®) asthmatic patient
Atenolol (β1) blocker (β1) Heart Blocker slow action of
(tenormin®) heart
Dobutamine (β1) agonist (β1) Heart agonist strengthens
action of heart
Prazocin (α1) blocker (α1) Blood vessel blocker Dilate Blood
vessel
β1 Heart Agonist strengthens
Isoprenaline Non action of heart
selective β2 Lung Agonist Dilate lung for
β stimulant asthmatic patient
β1 Heart blocker slow action of
Propranolol Non heart
( inderal®) selective β2 Lung blocker Asthma
β blocker
(α1) Blood vessel Agonist Contract Blood
vessel (HTN)
Epinephrine Mixed β1 Heart Agonist strengthens
(adrenaline) agonist action of heart
β2 Lung Agonist Dilate lung for
asthmatic patient
Dou you Know why propranolol can be used for hypertensive patient but cause asthma
while atenolol will not cause asthma?
Dou you Know why propranolol is contraindicated with asthmatic patient?

Drug affecting Muscular system
Skeletal muscle relaxant

neuromuscular blocking agents
e.g. curare and succinylcholine
centrally acting Skeletal muscle relaxant
e.g. diazepam , chlorozoxazone ( parafon®) , orphenadrine , cyclobenzaprine
Drug affecting respiratory system
Bronchial asthma
Definition : functional airway obstruction due to hyperactivity of airway muscle to
Variety of muscle
Drugs :
1- bronchodilator :
• beta agonists
a) none selective β agonist (β1 , β2) as : adrenaline , isoprenaline , ephedrine
b) selective β2 agonist: as Salbutamol , terbutaline
• xanthenes
a) natural : theophylline , theopromine , caffeine
b) synthetic : aminophylline
this agent block adenosine receptor (adenosine cause bronchoconstriction)
2- anti inflammatory :
1- corticosteroid : e.g. beclomethasone , prednisone , hydrocortisone
inhibit Ag-Ab reaction , inhibit release of inflammatory mediator
2- mast cell stabilizers : e.g. sodium cromoglycate , ketotifen
Cough :
None productive cough productive cough
Dry , useless Useful cough
Not associated by sputum Associated by sputum
Treated by antitussive Treated by expectorants and
mucolytic
1- antitussive: substance reduce frequency and/or intensity of coughing
A- Central antitussive
e.g. Codeine ( addictive ) , dextromethorphan ( none addictive )
B- Peripheral antitussive
e.g. Liquorices lozenges , stem of inhalation of menthol
2- Expectorants : substance encourages coughing
e.g. Guaifenesin ( cause sedation ) , guiacol , creosote
3- Mucolytic : substance liquefy bronchial secretion ( reduce viscosity)
e.g. Bromhexine , ambroxol , acetyl cystine

None steroidal anti inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Mechanism of action
inhibit cyclo-oxygenase (co-x) enzyme
inhibit both co-x 1 ( constitutive form present in normal tissue)
and co-x 2 ( inducible form present only at site of inflammation )
Pharmacological effect ( therapeutics uses )
1. Analgesics,
2. antipyretic,
3. anti-inflammatory
4. anti platelet
Adverse effects e.g. aspirin
1. gastrointestinal irritation
2. Hypersensitivity
3. Bleeding
4. Renal impairment
5. Hepatotoxic
6. Reyes syndrome
7. Prolonged labor
8. Salicylism
Non selective co-x inhibitors
Generic name Trade name
v Indomethacin Indocid
v Diclofenac Voltaren, rheumafen
v Ibuprofen Brufen
v Mefenamic acid Ponstan
v Meloxicam Mobic
v Piroxicam Feldin
v Loronoxicam Xefo
v Paracetamol Panadol
Selective cox-2 inhibitors

1. Celecoxib (Celebrex®) (less anti platelet, less irritation )
2. Rofecoxib
Paracetamol
It is only analgesic antipyretic
the only NSAIDs for pregnant
Adverse effects Hepatotoxic and nephrotoxic
Maximum dose 4 gram per day
Management overdose N-acetyl cysteine
‫ﺗﺄﺧﺬ ﺟﻤﯿﻊ اﻟﻤﺴﻜﻨﺎت ﺑﻌﺪ اﻷﻛﻞ أو ﺑﻜﻤﯿﺎت ﻣﯿﺎه ﻛﺒﯿﺮة‬

selective cox-2 inhibitor ‫ﻣﻤﻨﻮع ﺗﻤﺎﻣﺎ اﺳﺘﺨﺪاﻣﮭﻢ ﻣﻊ ﻗﺮﺣﺔ اﻟﻤﻌﺪة ﻣﺎ ﻋﺪا‬

Gout
Definition
inflammatory arthritis due to deposition of uric acid crystal in the joint
treatment strategy during acute attack
reduce inflammatory
o Colichicine ( may prevent precipitation of uric acid in joint)
o NSAIDs as indomethacine, …….
o Intra-articular steroid
treatment strategy In between attack (chronic)
1. allopurinol
decrease uric acid synthesis ( xanthine oxidase inh.)
2. Probencid
increase uric acid excretion( prevent uric acid reabsorption)
N.B. probencid action is antagonized by salicylate
Excretion
Gout
Urea
Purine Xanthin
Uric acid
Protein
reabsorbtion
Pyrimidin
Joints Blood
٢٩/١٢/١٤٢٩ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬ ٢٨

Diuretics
Classification Example Mechanism Uses Adverse effect

Carbonic Acetazolamide Carbonic Glaucoma hypokalemia
anhdrase Dorzolamide anhdrase
inhibitor inhibitor
Osmotic Mannitol i.v Osmosis 1-Glaucoma Edema
diuretic 2-Decrease dehydration
intra cranial
pressure
Loop Ethacrynic Acid Inhibit Na & Cl Edematous Hyponatermia
Diuretics (Edecrin ®) reabsorption state (CHF, hypokalemia
Furosemide pulmonary hypocalcemia
(Lasix® ) edema,……) ototoxic
bumetanide
(bumex®)
Thiazides Chlorothiazide Inhibit Na & Cl Edematous Hyponatermia
diuretic (Diuril®) reabsorption state (CHF, hypokalemia
Hydrochlorothiazide pulmonary hypercalcemia
(Hydro®) edema,……) No ototoxic
indepamide
(natrilix®)
Potassium Spironolactone 1-Aldosterone Potassium hyperkalemia,
Sparing (Aldactone®) antagonist depletion CHF gynecomastia,
diuretic Triamterene 2-non hypertension anti androgenic
( Dyrenium®) aldosterone
amilorid antagonist
(midamor®)
Congestive heart failure (C.H.F)

Definition
condition in which cardiac output is less than body need
Treatment
I- Positive inotropic effects (increase contraction of cardiac muscle by)
1-Cardiac glycoside
Digoxine Digitoxine
1. Less oral absorption 1. High Oral absorption
2. Shorter duration 2. Longer duration
3. Renal elimination 3. Hepatic elimination
4. Oral , i.v administration 4. Oral administration

2-Β1 agonist (dobutamine )
II- Vasodilators ( seen next )
III- Diuretics ( do you remember?)
Arrhythmia
definition
abnormal heart beat due to disorder of impulse formation, conduction or combination
Classification mechanism drug Action

Potential
Class I A Na+ channel blocker Quinidine, Increase
procainamide,
disopyramide
Class I B Na+ channel blocker Lidocaine i.v Decrease
phenytoin
Class I C Na+ channel blocker Flecainide No effect
ecanide
Class II Β blocker Propranolol Decrease
atenolol
Class III K + channel blocker Amiodarone Increase
bretylium
Class IV Ca+ channel blocker Verapamil
deltiazem
Un classified Adenosine
digoxin
atropine
adrenalie
Angina
Definition
Acute chest pain(squeezing) occur when coronary blood flow is inadequate
to supply the oxygen required by the heart
Treatment During acute attack
1- short acting nitrate
nitroglycerin sublingual , or i.v. Infusion
isosorbid dinitrate sublingual
Treatment In between attack
1- Long acting nitrate
isosorbid mono or dinitrate oral
2- Beta blocker
3- Calcium channel blocker
4- Anti platelet
High Blood Pressure
Also called: HBP, HTN, Hypertension
Blood pressure is the force of your blood pushing against the walls of your arteries. Each time your heart
beats, it pumps out blood into the arteries. Your blood pressure is highest when your heart beats, pumping the
blood. This is called systolic pressure. When your heart is at rest, between beats, your blood pressure falls.
This is the diastolic pressure.
Your blood pressure reading uses these two numbers, the systolic and diastolic pressures. Usually they are
written one above or before the other. A reading of
• 120/80 or lower is normal blood pressure

• 140/90 or higher is high blood pressure
• 120 and 139 for the top number, or between 80 and 89 for the bottom number is prehypertension
Antihypertensive agent
1. Direct acting vasodilator

2. Centrally acting antihypertensive drugs
3. Adrenergic neuron blocking agent
4. Alpha adrenoreceptor blocking drugs
5. Beta adrenoreceptor blocking drugs
6. Drug affecting the rennin angiotensin system
7. Calcium channel blocker
8. Diuretics
1- Direct acting vasodilator
drug mechanism indication Side effects

Hydralazine arteriolar dilatation Moderate HTN tachycardia
Minoxidel arteriolar dilatation Moderate HTN tachycardia

Diazoxide arteriolar dilatation HTN emergency tachycardia
Nitroprusside Veno-arteriolar dilatation HTN emergency tachycardia

2- Centrally acting
Methyl dopa α2 agonist Moderate HTN Sedation, dizziness
Clonidine α2 agonist Moderate HTN Sedation, rebound hypertension
methyl dopa (aldomet®) D.O.C drug of choice in pregnancy ,
3- Adrenergic neuron blocker

reserpine Inhibit NE release HTN Sedation, depression
guanithidine Inhibit NE release HTN Orthostatic hypotension
4- Alpha adrenoreceptor blocking drugs

prazocin Alpha (α1) blocker HTN Orthostatic hypotension
terazocin Alpha (α1) blocker HTN Orthostatic hypotension
doxazocin Alpha (α1) blocker HTN Orthostatic hypotension
Alpha (α1) blocker used also in benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH)
5- Beta (β) blocker

Propranolol Non selective β HTN, angina , arrhythmia Asthma, CHF,
Inderal ® blocker bradycardia
Pindalol Non selective β HTN, angina , arrhythmia Asthma, CHF,
blocker bradycardia
Atenolol beta ( β 1) blocker HTN, angina , arrhythmia CHF, bradycardia
Tenormine®
esmolol beta ( β 1) blocker HTN, angina , arrhythmia CHF, bradycardia
Used I.V for hypertensive emergencies
Note propranolol is contraindicated with asthmatic patient

6- Drug affecting angiotensin system
drug Mechanism indication Side effects

Captopril ACEInh HTN, angina , Cough
Capoten ® arrhythmia Hypotension
lisinopril ACEInh HTN, angina , Proteinuria
arrhythmia Fetal renal damage
enalapril ACEInh HTN, angina , (C.I.in pregnancy)
arrhythmia hyperkalemia
losartan (AT-1) blocker HTN, angina , As ACEInh
arrhythmia without cough
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEInh)
Angiotensin receptor (AT-1) blocker

7- Calcium channel blocker
Calcium channel blocker (CCBs) Block calcium block contractility of heart and induce
vasodilatation of blood vessel
Drug mechanism Indication Side effects

Verapamil (CCBs) HTN, angina , Constipation , nausea, heart block
arrhythmia
diltiazem (CCBs) HTN, angina , Constipation , nausea, heart block
arrhythmia
Amlodipine (CCBs) HTN, angina , Constipation , nausea,
arrhythmia
nifedipine (CCBs) HTN, angina , Constipation , nausea, flushing,
arrhythmia tachycardia
• Verapamil , diltiazem block Ca on heart
• Amlodipine , nifedipine block Ca on Blood vessel
8- Diuretics
Seen before
Hyperlipidemia
Coronary heart disease is one of the major cause of the death

The incidence of CHF is correlated with elevated levels of LDL, cholesterol triglyceride with low level of HDL .
other risk factor include 1- cigarette smoking 2- hypertension 3- obesity 4- diabetes .
target of anti hyperlipidemic agent is LDL ( border line of LDL is 130 – 160 mg/dl )
Patient with serum level 160mg/dl with one or more risk factor should start drug therapy
Patient with serum level 130mg/dl with two or more risk factor should start drug therapy
Definition
Condition of high level of cholesterol, triglyceride, and/or lipoprotein in blood
anti hyperlipidemic agent aim of therapy :
¨ It is decrease LDL ( bad cholesterol )
§ low density lipoprotein
¨ It is increase HDL ( good cholesterol )
§ high density lipoprotein
¨ Decrease triglyceride
Class LDL HDL Triglyceride Drug S.E

Resins ↓↓ No effect Slight ↑ Cholestyramine
HMG CoA ↓↓↓ ↑ ↓ Simvastatin
Gastrointestinal
reductase inhibitor Atorvastatin

Pravastatin
irritation
Nicotinic acid ↓↓ ↑↑ ↓
derivative
Fibrates ↓ ↑ ↓↓↓ Gemifibrozil

Drug acting on the blood and blood forming
Anemia
1- iron deficiency anemia
• Iron is required for haemoglobin production

• Iron deficiency lead to hypochromic microcytic anaemia
• Main dietary source is meat & liver
• A etiology
Decrease intake (e.g. starvation) ‫ﺳﻮء ﺗﻐﺬﯾﺔ‬
Decrease absorption ‫ﺳﻮء ھﻀﻢ‬
e.g. Gastrectomy, excess tannic acid {tea}
Increase requirement (e.g. Pregnancy & lactation) ‫زﯾﺎدة اﻟﻄﻠﺐ‬
Increase loss (e.g. bleeding) ‫زﯾﺎدة اﻟﻔﻘﺪ‬
v Iron therapy
} Oral iron
Ferrous form not ferric ??????
blackening of teeth and stool
abdominal discomfort
duration of therapy ( 3 – 6 ) month.
} Patenteral
iron dextran and iron sorbitol
pain brownish discoloration at site of injection
} Antidote
desferoxamine
2- megaloblastic anemia
• Vitamin B12 ,folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis

• deficiency of both lead to megaloblastic anemia
• Deficiency of Vitamin B12 alone due to lack of gastric intrinsic factor lead to type of
megaloblastic anemia called pernicious anemia
• pernicious anemia cause neurological damage if not treated
• Main dietary source of Vitamin B12 is animal product
• Main dietary source of folic acid is vegetables
• A etiology
Decrease intake (e.g. starvation) ‫ﺳﻮء ﺗﻐﺬﯾﺔ‬
Decrease absorption (e.g. Gastrectomy) ‫ﺳﻮء ھﻀﻢ‬
Increase requirement (e.g. Pregnancy & lactation) ‫زﯾﺎدة اﻟﻄﻠﺐ‬
decrease utilization ‫ﻗﻠﺔ اﻻﺳﺘﺨﺪام‬
(e.g. Lack of transcoplamine ( vit B 12) , Use of drugs as methotrexate , trimethoprime)

Therapy
} Vitamin B12 (Parenteral)
cyanocoblamine , hydroxycoblamine
} folic acid
folic acid ( oral ) folinic acid ( Parenteral )
} V.I.P
treat pernicious anemia with folic acid alone improve symptoms however
neurological damage will occur
I-anti coagulant drug

} Drugs which inhibit development, enlargement of clot
} Do not lyses clot
} Types
1. Parenteral anti coagulant
2. Oral anti coagulant
Drug Heparin (enoxparin deltparin) warfarin

Route I.V and S.C Tablet
Action Blood Liver
Rapid slow
Acute chronic
Site vivo and vitro vivo only
Antidote Protamine sulfat I.V vitamin K + fresh frozen plasma
Pregnancy Used Not used
II-Fibrinolytic drugs
} ---Lytic mean lyses ( dissolve )
} Drugs which dissolve thrombus by formation of Fibrinolytic plasmin from plasminogen
} Type
1. non selective Fibrinolytic
2. selective Fibrinolytic
non selective Fibrinolytic selective Fibrinolytic

Site Act on both bound , free Act on bound
plasminogen plasminogen only
Members urokinase alteplase
streptokinase reteplase
tenecteplase
antidote of aminocaproic acid aminocaproic acid
bleeding tranxamic acid tranxamic acid

III- antiplatelet
} Drugs which inhibit platelet aggregation, so inhibit clot formation

} Used as prophylaxis against thrombus
} Members
1. aspirin
2. Ticlopidine , clopidogrel
3. Abciximab
4. Dipyridamole
Drugs used in treatment of gastric ulcer
1. H2- receptor antagonist

v e.g. cimitidine, ranitidine, nizatidine, famotidine
v Action H2- receptor antagonist
v Adverse effects
A. Cimitidine
antiandrogenic effect
decrease activity of hepatic enzyme ( enzyme inhibitor )
B. ranitidine, nizatidine, famotidine
more effective
no antiandrogenic effect
no interfere with activity of hepatic enzyme

2. Proton pump(H/K ATPase) inhibitor
v E.g. omeprazole, lansoprazole, pantoprazole, rabeprazole
v action Proton pump(H/K ATPase) inhibitor
Totally block parietal cell (more effective than H2 antagonist)
v Adverse effects
G.I.T disturbance
decrease absorption of vitamin B12, mineral
enteric infection due to decrease acidity
– Omeprazole decrease activity of hepatic enzyme
3. Antacids
• action neutralize gastric acidity
Type Absorbable Non Absorbable
Example NaHCO3 1. Ca salt
2. AL salt
3. Mg salt
Side alkalosis Ca salt cause Constipation
effect AL salt cause Constipation
Mg salt cause Diarrhea
All can cause hypokalemia
4. Drugs that protect mucosa

q Sucralfate (aluminum sucrose sulfate)
1. Action creating a protective layer against acid
2. S.E. Constipation
q prostaglandin analogue (misoprostol ) (cytotec®)
1. Action gastric mucous barrier
2. S.E. diarrhea
contraindicated in pregnancy
Drugs to eradicate helicobacter pylori bacteria

microorganism that can cause chronic gastritis and peptic ulcer disease
• New triple therapy
• Proton pump inhibitor ( B.I.D for 14 days ) then Continue for 4-6 week
• Clarithromycin (500 mg) ( B.I.D for 14 days )
• Amoxicillin ( 1g) ( B.I.D for 14 days )
• If patient sensitive to amoxicillin replaced by Metronidazole (500 mg) B.I.D

Vomiting
• Emetics
1. Agent induce reflex vomiting
2. Emesis Used if recently ingested toxic substance, drug over dose
3. Contraindication with C.N.S depression, caustic substance, unconsciousness
4. E.g. Ipecac directly acting on CTZ
indirectly acting gastric mucosa
cardiotoxic if reach systemic circulation
E.g. apomorphine directly acting on CTZ
Respiratory depression which is treated
by naloxone
• Anti emetic drug
1. H1 antagonist
e.g. diphenhydramine , dimenhydrinate , meclizine
uses motion sickness and vertigo
adverse effect atropine like effect
2. anticholinergic
e.g. Hyoscine
action block M receptors
uses motion sickness and vertigo
3. Serotonin (5HT3) antagonist
e.g. ondasetron , granisetron , dolasetron
action block 5HT3 receptors
uses chemically induced vomiting
4. Dopamine (D2)antagonist
e.g. metoclopramide , domperidone
action block D2 , 5HT3 receptors
uses chemically induced vomiting
vomiting of pregnancy
adverse effect hyperprolactinemia
5. Vitamin B6
action regulate of GABA/glutamate balance
uses (D.O.C) vomiting of pregnancy
adverse effect dry mouth, sedation
Purgative
drug that used to evacuate bowel if its mild purgative called ( laxative )
if its severe purgative called ( cathartics )
• 1- Bulk forming purgative
e.g. bran, psyllium, methyl cellulose

• 2- osmotic purgative
e.g. lactulose, MgSo4, Na/K tartarate
• 3- Stimulant purgative
e.g. castor oil, biscacodyl, aloe, senna
• 4- Lubricant purgative
e.g. mineral oil (liquid paraffin)
Anti diarrheal drug
• Drug used to control diarrhea

• Should not be used in
1. Bloody diarrhea
2. High fever
3. Systemic toxicity
q Opioid agonists :
natural : morphine
synthetic : loperamide , diphenoxylate
C.N.S side effects
q Adsorbents
kaolin , pectin
safe
q Colloidal bismuth salt
q Bile salt binding resin
cholestyramine or colestipol
q Astringents : Tannic acid
q Antibacterial : cotrimoxazole
when the bacterial is the cause of diarrhea
q Oral rehydration solution
oral administration of glucose containing salt
Antispasmodics
• Drug used for the relief of the painful biliary, ureteral or colonic spasm
1. Anti cholinergic as atropine , hyoscine
2. Smooth muscle relaxants as papaverine , mebeverine
Drug affecting biliary system

1. Antispasmodics seen before
2. Drug dissolve gallstone
i. bile acid as chenodeoxycholic acid (CDCA),
ii. ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)
3. Cholinokinetics (cholagogues)
stimulate gall bladder empty
used for diagnostic purposes
as egg yolk , MgSO4 , cholecystokinin

Hormone and antagonists
q Thyroid hormones
• T3 (tri iodo thyronine)
Responsible for Optimal growth
• T4 (tetra iodo thyronine) ( thyroxin )
Responsible for Optimal growth
• Calcitonin
Responsible for Regulation calcium metabolism
q Agents used in hypothyroidism (myxedema)
1. Levothyroxine (T4)
2. Liothyronine (T3)
3. Liotrix (4:1) mixture of T4:T3
q Agents Used in treatment of hyperthyroidism
1. Carbimazole propylthiouracil methimazole
2. Potassium percholate thiocyanate
3. Potassium iodid lugols iodine(I2,KI)
4. Radioactive iodine
Adrenocorticosteroids
• They steroid hormone secreted by adrenal cortex

• Naturally occuring
v Glucocorticoids : e.g. cortisone , cortisol (hydrocortisone)
Its function as anti inflammatory
v Mineralocorticoid : e.g. aldosterone desoxycorticosterone( DOCA)
Its function as salt retaining
• Synthetic
betamethasone, dexamethasone
derivative from Glucocorticoids with no mineralocorticoid activity
fludrocortisone , desoxycorticodterone( DOCA)
derivative from mineralocorticoid
• Adrenal cortex also secrete sex hormones in small amount as androgen, progesterone
• Clinical uses of steroids
v Replacement therapy
in Addison's disease ( primary adrenal insufficiency)
v Supplementary therapy
anti inflammatory , anti shock , anti stress
v Suppression therapy
suppress rejection in tissue transplantation

• Adverse effect of glucocorticoids
1. Sodium , water retention
2. Hypertension
3. Cataract
4. Glaucoma
5. Cushing syndrome ( moon face , buffalo hump …)
6. Hyperglycemia
7. Peptic ulcer
8. Osteoporosis
Cushing syndrome is excess secretion of glucocorticoids
Gonadal hormones
estrogen
Natural
• Estradiol estrone estriol
synthetic
• Ethinyl estradiol mestranol diethylstilbestrol
Function
• Endometrial proliferation
• Genitalia development development of breast , fat deposition
Clinical use
• Female hypogonadism , hormonal replacement in menopause, contraception,
uterine bleeding , prostate carcinoma
Adverse effect
• Risk of thrombosis , increase risk of endometrial & breast carcinoma
Antagonist
• Clomiphene (fertility drug)
used in induction of ovulation
side effect is multiple birth
• Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
e.g. tamoxifen , raloxifene
These compound has selective tissue estrogenic activity
• Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
Drug bone breast endometrial Uses Adverse effect
estrogen agonist agonist agonist Risk of thrombosis
tamoxifen agonist antagonist Partial agonist Breast cancer Risk of thrombosis
Raloxifene agonist antagonist osteoporosis Risk of thrombosis

progestin
Natural
• Progesterone
synthetic
• MedroxyProgesterone norgestrel
Function
• Maintain of pregnancy stimulate endometrial glandular secretion
Clinical use
• Contraception , hormone replacement therapy
Adverse effect
• Decrease HDL increase LDL
Antagonist
• Mifepristone
used for termination of early pregnancy (abortification)
adverse effect abdominal pain , uterine bleeding
‫اﻻﺳﺘﺮوﺟﯿﻦ ﻣﺴﺌﻮل ﻋﻦ ﺗﮭﯿﺌﺔ اﻟﻤﻜﺎن اﻟﻤﻨﺎﺳﺐ ﻻﺳﺘﻘﺒﺎل اﻟﺠﻨﯿﻦ ﺑﯿﻨﻤﺎ اﻟﺒﺮوﺟﺴﺘﯿﻦ ﻣﺴﺌﻮل ﻋﻦ ﺗﮭﯿﺌﺔ اﻟﻈﺮوف اﻟﻤﻨﺎﺳﺒﺔ‬
‫ﻟﻨﻤﻮه‬
Hormonal contraception
• Oral
1. Combination method ( estrogen + progestin )
• taken 21 day then 7 day free period
2. Minipill progestin only
• daily without interruption
3. Post coital ( emergency )
• estrogen alone in high dose within 72 hr of intercourse followed after
12 hr by second dose
• Mifepristone + misoprostol taken once
• Parenteral ( depot contraception )
MedroxyProgesterone I.M every 3 mounth
• Implanted
norgestrel S.C implantation ( last for 5 year )
Drugs used in diabetes mellitus (DM)
• Primary DM (type 1 , 2 , and MODY type)

• Secondary DM (secondary to other cause as chronic pancreatitis)
• Gestational DM (pregnancy diabetes)
• Impaired glucose tolerance (glucose between normal and diabetic)

Primary DM Type 1 Type 2 MODY Type
Cause insulin deficiency Insulin resistance Intermediate
between1&2
Patient age Young Older Young
Patient description Non obese Obese Obese
Treatment insulin Oral Antidiabetic ± Oral Antidiabetic
insulin
1-insulin has no oral absorption so Route of administration of insulin

• Usually Subcutaneous (S.C)
• Less often intramuscular injection (I.M)
• Emergency intravenous injection (I.V)
Origin of insulin
• Animal insulin beef AND pork
• Human insulin ( humulin )
Adverse effects of insulin
• Hypoglycemia , hypoglycemic coma
• Weight gain
• Insulin resistance
• Allergic reaction
2-Sulphonyl urea
• Mechanism: insulin secretagogue (stimulate endogenous secretion)
insulin sensitizer (increase sensitivity of insulin receptor)
• Classification
1- First generation
• Tolbutamide tolzalamide acetohexamide chloropropamide(long act)
2- second generation
• Glipizide Gliclazide Glimepride Glyburide
3-Biguanides
• Drug Metformin
• Mechanism Unknown but suggestion
– Stimulate glycolysis
– Reduce gluconeogenesis
– slow glucose absorption
• adverse effect lactic acidosis ,GIT disturbance

Introduction to Parasitology
• Medical parasitology traditionally has included the study of three major groups of
animals: parasitic protozoa, parasitic helminthes (worms), and those arthropods that
directly cause disease or act as vectors of various pathogens
• A parasite is a pathogen that simultaneously injures and derives sustenance from its host
• The unicellular parasites is (protozoa)
multicellular parasites are (helminthes, arthropods)
• During their life, parasitic organisms typically go through several developmental stages
that involve changes not only in structure but also in biochemical and antigenic
composition
Protozoa
• Malaria (D.O.C) is chloroquine

v There are more than 100 species of malaria (plasmodium) . only 4 capable of
infecting human.
v Disease is transmitted to human by bits of infected female anopheles mosquito
v Parasites multiplicate in liver then migrate to blood.
v Patient suffer from Recurrent severe fever every 3 or 4 days.
v Drugs used ( chloroquine , quinine , primaquine , mefloquine , fansidar )
• Amoeba (D.O.C)is metronidazole
v Protozoan Entamoeba histolytica
v Parasites lives in tissue ( lung , liver intestinal wall ) or intestinal lumen
v Patients have acute or chronic diarrhea, which may progress to dysentery.
• Trichomonas (D.O.C) is metronidazole
ü sexually transmitted diseases
ü Symptomatic infection is common in women, rare in men
ü characterized by vaginitis, a vaginal discharge, and dysuria
ü Relapses occur if the infected partner not treated simultaneously
• Giardia (D.O.C) is metronidazole
v Traveler's diarrhea
v Giardia infection may be asymptomatic or it may cause disease
ranging from a self-limiting diarrhea to a severe chronic syndrome
• Trypanosome (D.O.C) is nifurtimox for American Trypanosomiasis
o American Trypanosomiasis (Chagas Disease)
o Trypanosoma cruzi
o Early symptoms include fever, local or general edema, lymphadenopathy,
tachycardia,
o heart enlargement, and myocarditis
o Heart alterations appear as late sequelae
Suramin , pentamidine ,eflornithine, Melarsoprol for African type
o African Trypanosomiasis (Sleeping Sickness)
o Trypanosoma brucei sub spp rhodesiense and gambiense

o Early symptoms are an inoculation chancre, fever, headache
and lymphadenopathy
o meningoencephalitis, become somnolent, and die unless treated
Anti helmintics drugs
• Helminthes are transmitted to humans in many different ways (accidental ingestion of

infective eggs, larvae, penetrate the skin )
• In several cases, infection requires an intermediate host vector
• intermediate vector transmits infective stages when it bites or eaten by the host
• The levels of infection in humans therefore depend on standards of hygiene
Type of helminthes :-
• nematodes are cylindrical; hence the common name roundworm.
• adult cestoda are flattened; hence the common name tapeworms.
• Flukes are also named (Trematodes)
Drug of choice for intestinal nematode mebendazole
1- ascaris 2- ancylstoma 3- trichuris 4- entrobius 5- strongloides
Drug of choice for tissue nematode is thiabendazole except filaria
1- filaria worms 2- drancunculus (medina worm) 3- larva migrains
cutaneous larva migrains
visceral larva migrains
only and Drug of choice for filarial is Diethyl carbamazine
Drug of choice for Flukes (Trematodes) is praziquantel except Fasciola

Blood flukes infection ( schistosomiasis )
( schistosomiasis )a- Schistosoma hemotobium
b- Schistosoma mansoni
c- Schistosoma jabonicum
Intestinal flukes infection
a- Hyterophyes
Liver flukes infection
a- Fasciola hepatica
Drug of choice for Fasciola is bithionol then dehydroemetin
N.B
All Anthilmentics mechanism is paralysis for helminthes
All Anthilmentics side effects is mild G.I.T side effect.

Chemotherapy of microbial disease
Selection of antimicrobial agent

• Antimicrobial spectrum
• Host factor
1. Hypersensitivity
2. Concomitant disease status
3. Impaired elimination or detoxification of the drug (renal & hepatic function)
4. Age
5. Pregnancy
• Pharmacological factor
1. pharmacokinetic
2. Available dosage form
3. Toxicity
4. Drug drug interaction
• Others
Cost of therapy
Spectrum of antibiotic :
Generally G+ve bacteria & G –ve bacteria
• G+ve bacteria is mainl superficial infection foe skin , eye , tonsil , ear ,……………….
• G –ve bacteria Is deep infection that cause mainly
1- Meningitis
2- RTI ( respiratory tract infection )
3- Typhoid
4- UTI ( urinary tract infection )
5- Prostatitis
6- Gonorrhea
7- Osteomylitis
Sulfonamide
Drug Bacterial Chemistry Mechanism Classification Spectrum Uses Adverse pregnancy

action effects
Analogue of Inhibit 1-oral G+ve 1 Crystal urea Not used
PABA folic acid absorbed G-ve meningitis hemolytic
(Para amino Synthesis sulfadoxine, Chlamydia 2- anemia
bezoic acid) sulfadiazine toxoplasma dysentery nephrotoxic
bacteriostatic
2- oral poor p.falciparum 3 kernicterus

Sulfonamide
Key word absorbed Chlamydia

Sulfa……….. sulfathalidine infection
3- topical
Silver
sulfadiazine
N.B. sulfacetamid used as eye drop for eye infection

Sulfathiazole for wounds in absence of pus
Sulfamfenide for wounds and burn in presence of pus
Sulfonamide combination :
- Co trimoxasole ( sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprime )
It is bactericidal that use for treat G-ve infection
-Silver sulfadiazine is applied locally to prevent infection of wounds and burn.
Quinolones

action effects
Analogue of Inhibit 1st 1st narrow 1 meningitis Tendonitis Not used
nalidixic DNA generation G-ve 2- typhoid Cartilage
acid synthesis 2nd 2nd G+ve & 3osteomyelities damage
generation G-ve 4 UTI Headache
Bactericidal
Quinolones
3rd 3rd as 2nd + 5 RTI Dizziness

Key word generation pseudomonas 6 Prostatitis
……..oxacin 4th 4th as 3rd +
generation anaerobic
1st generation is nalidixic acid

2nd generation pipemidic acid
3rd generation ciprofloxacin , norfloxacin , …….
4th generation trovafloxacin
Both 3rd and 4th generation used for treat G-ve infection
Penicillins
Drug Bacterial Chemistry Mechanism Classification Spectrum Uses Adverse effects pregnancy
action
6- amino Inhibit cell 1- benzyl Pen G+ve 1meningitis hypersensitivity used
penicillanic wall 2-broad G-ve 2- syphilis
acid synthesis spectrum Pen spirochetes 3-
3-anti actinomyces Gonorrhea
Key word pseudomonal 4- typhoid
Bactericidal
……cillin 4-amidino 5- anthrax

Penicillin
pen 6-
5-antistaph diphtheria
Pen
1- Benzyl penicillin injection as (penicillin G)

Benzyl penicillin oral as (penicillin V)
2- broad spectrum penicillin as ( Ampicillin , amoxicillin )
(talampicillin, pivampicillin) is pro drug
Both 1 and 2 mainly used for G+ve bacteria
N.B. staphylococcus aureus destroy penicillin by producing β- lactamase enzyme
V.I.P use combination of clavulanic acid or sulbactam with Ampicillin or amoxicillin as
β- lactamase inhibitor
3- anti pseudomonal penicillin
e.g. (carbinicillin, ticaricillin , azlocillin , piperacillin)
4- Amidinopenicillin : meciliinam
Both 3 and 4 mainly used for G-ve bacteria infection
All of the above are suspected to β- lactamase enzyme
5- Antistaph penicillin
β- lactamase ( penicillinase ) resistant penicillin
e.g. methicillin , cloxacillin , flucloxacillin, naficillin
cephalosporins

action effects
7- amino Inhibit cell 1st generation 1st G+ve Meningitis Nephrotoxic used
cephaosporinic wall 2nd generation 2nd G+ve & RTI
acid synthesis 3rd generation G-ve Typhoid
cephalosporin
Bactericidal
4th generation 3rd as 2nd + UTI

Key word pseudomonas Prostatitis
Cepha………. 4th as 3rd + Gonorrhea
Cefa……….. anaerobic
1st generation e.g. cephadroxil , cephradin , cephalexin

2nd generation e.g. cefaclor , cefuroxime , cefoxitin
3rd generation e.g. cefotaxime , cefoperazone , cefotriaxone , ………
4th generation e.g. cefepime
Aminoglycoside

action effects
Derived of Inhibit 1streptomycin Mainly 1- TB Nephrotoxic Not used
aminoglycoside
soil protein 2- neomycin G-ve 2- gut ototoxic

Bactericidal
actinomycetes synthesis 3- gentamycin Narrow sterile

through 30s 4- kanamycin spectrum 3- hepatic
Key word ribosome 5- amikacin G+ve coma
…….mycin 4-
peritonitis
Tetracycline

action effects
Derived of Inhibit 1-tetracycline G+ve 1-cholera Nephrotoxic Not used
bacteriostatic
soil protein 2- doxycycline G-ve 2- syphilis hepatotoxic

tetracycline
streptomyces synthesis 3- Chlamydia 3- yellow

through 30s demeclocycline rikettesia Gonorrhea discoloration
Key word ribosome 4-minocycline 4- acne of teeth
……cyclin 5-
dysentery

Macrolides

action effects
bacteriostatic Large Inhibit erythromycin Mainly syphilis GIT upset used
(in low lactone ring protein azithromycin G+ve Gonorrhea cholestatic
clarithromycin
macrolides
conc.) synthesis Chlamydia diphtheria hepatitis

Bactericidal Key word through mycoplasma toxoplasma
(in high …thromycin 50s
conc.) ribosome
Chloramphinicol

action effects
Chloramphinicol
bacteriostatic Key word Inhibit Chloramphinicol Broad Life Anemia Not used
……phinicol protein Thiamephinicol spectrum threatening gray baby
synthesis against infection if syndrome
through G+ve , no
50s G-ve alternative
ribosome exist
Chloramphinicol is the lastest one which is bacteriostatic mainly used for typhoid infection
Its side effect cause bone marrow depression not used in pregnancy or children because of gray
baby syndrome.
OTHERS : CLINDAMYCIN, VANCOMYCIN , LINEZOLID ,……..
Antituberculosis Drugs for (M.TB) (mycobacterium tuberculosis)

st
1 line treatment
• Rifampicin
• Iso- niazide (INH)
• Pyrazinamide
• Ethambutol HCL
nd
2 line treatment
• Cycloserine
• Para amino salicylic acid (PAS).
Regimen of therapy
1- Initial intensive course (2-4 month) at least 3 drug. if resistant add the fourth drug
2- Continuation phase (4-12 month) 2 drug. if resistant add the third drug.
3- 2nd line drug used only if resistance or severe side effect of 1st line drugs.
Antileprotic drugs for (mycobacterium lepra)

1- Dapson
2- Clofazimine
3- Rifampicin

Antifungal Drugs
Drug Trade name

*Amphtericin Bِ Fungi zone
* Nystatin Mycostatin
* Fluconazole Diflucan
* Itraconazole Sporanox
* Ketoconazole Nizoral
* Miconazole Daktarin
* Grisofulvin Grizovin
* Terbinafin Lamisil
* Clotrimazole Canesten
For vaginal thrush we use Nystatin , Ketoconazole , Miconazole , Clotrimazole

For mouth thrush we use Nystatin , Miconazole , Clotrimazole
For skin scalp we use Nystatin , , Clotrimazole , Ketoconazole , Grisofulvin , Terbinafin
Antiviral Drugs
Drug Trade name

* Acyclovir Zovirax
* Zidovudine Retrovir
* Lamivudine Zeffix
* Zalcitabine Hivld
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) cause AIDS which is treated by Zidovudine

(Herpes simplex virus) is treated by acyclovir , gancyclovir
Cancer chemotherapy
Aim of therapy : destroy DNA of cancer cell
1- Alkylating agent
Introducing alkyl group into nucleophilic sites whitin the cells , forming covalent bonds,
the macromlucular sites of alkylation damage DNA, RNA and various enzyme.
e.g. Cyclophosphamide , chlorambucil , melphalan , busulan
2- Antimetabolite
Drugs that structurally related to naturally occurring compounds thus incorporated into
DNA or RNA thus interfere with cell growth and proliferation.
e.g. Methotrexate , mercaptopurine (6-MP) , flurouracil (5-FU) , cytarabine
3- Antibiotics
e.g. Doxorubicin , bleomycin , dactinomycin
4- Plant derivative
e.g. Vicristine , vinblastin , etoposide

Immunostimulant
Also called biological response modifier or Immunomodulating agent
Used For immunodeficiency diseases as autoimmune disorder , cancer disease ,some viral
and fungal infections .
1. Bacillus Calmette – Guerin (BCG)
stimulate T-cell and natural killer cell .
successful in treatment of bladder cancer.
2. Levamisole
It is anti helminthes drug that efficiency used in treating chronic infection
Used in combination of fluorouracil in the treatment of colorectal cancer.
3. Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
Promote proliferation , differentiation , recruitment of T-B lymphocytes, natural killer
Cells, and thymocytes.
4. Interferones ( alpha , beta , gamma )
INF-α used clinically in treatment of chronic hepatitis B and C , leukemia, melanoma.
INF-β used clinically in treatment of multiple sclerosis.
INF- δ used clinically in treatment of chronic granulomatous disease.

Vitamins
Introduction ;
Essential in small amounts for regulation of normal metabolism , growth , function of body
Not all vitamins are synthesized in body there for external source is a must
Deficiency disease occur due to insufficient ingestion , irregular absorption or impaired use
Vitamin toxicity due to excessive quantity is mainly observed with fat soluble vitamin and
water
Water soluble is less toxic (not stored in the body)
Fat soluble vitamin
Vitamin Scientific Name Solubility Source Function Deficiency Toxicity

Vitamin A Retinol In fat Animal Vision Night blind hepatosplenomegaly
Vitamin D Calciferol In fat Animal Calcium absorption Rickets Hypercalcemia
osteomalacia
Vitamin E Tocopherol In fat Animal Anti oxidant Anemia Muscle weaknes
Vitamin K menadione In fat Plant Blood clot haemorrhage
Water soluble vitamin
Vitamin Scientific Name Solubility Source Function Deficiency Toxicity

Vitamin Ascorbic acid In water Plant Anti oxidant Scurvy No med.
C important
Vitamin Thiamine In water Plant carbohdrate Beriberi No med.
B1 metabolism important
Vitamin Riboflavin In water Plant Oxidation reduction A riboflavinosis No med.
B2 important
Vitamin Niacin In water Plant Oxidation reduction Pellagra No med.
B3 important
Vitamin Pyridoxine In water Plant Amino acid Neurological No med.
B6 transformation symptoms important
Vitamin Cyanocobolamine In water Animal erythropoiesis Pernicious No med.
B12 anemia important
Folic acid Folic acid In water Plant erythropoiesis Megaloplastic No med.
anemia important

Skin and scalp preparation
- Locally acting drugs for external use only

- Avoid getting the prepared solution in contact with eyes
1- Emollient
There are oily substances which soften and protect skin
E.g. vegetable oil (olive , cotton seed , …) fat ,and waxes
2- Astringents
They are agents that dry mucous secretion , shrink skin , whitening and reduce
inflammation of mucous membrane
E.g. calamine lotion and phenolated , methanolated calamine lotion
3- Counter irritant
They are irritating agent applied to intact skin to block deep pain of muscle or viscera
E.g. oil of winter green (methyl salicylate) , camphor oil , chloroform liniments
4- Keratolytic and keratoplastic
They are agent used for induce sloughing of cornified epithelium
Keratolytic agent used for remove warts and corns
Keratoplastic agent used for treatment of acne , eczema , psoriasis and seborrheic
dermatitis
E.g. salicylic acid , sulfur and tretenoin ( retin A)
5- Antiseborrheic
Agents used for management of dandruff and seborrheics
E.g. chloroxine , selenium sulfide
6- Sun screens
Topical agent are used to reduced amount of ultraviolet radiation ( UVA, UVB)
• Physical sunscreen : obaque ingredient ( unacceptable by patient ) reflect and scatter
( UVA, UVB)
E.g. talc , magnesium oxide , zinc oxide ,and kaolin
• Chemical sunscreen :
E.g. p- amino benzoic acid , cinnamates and salicylates
7- Miscellaneous agent
Hydroquinone : cause reversible depigmentation of the skin
Minoxidil : FDA approved for stimulating hair growth , treat of androgenic alopecia

Drugs used in treatment of psoriasis :
Psoriasis is chronic scaling skin eruption characterized by keartinocyte hyper proliferation

1- Acitretin
Given orally
Adverse effects : hair loss , liver function abnormality and teratogenic
N.B. Acitretin should not be used by women who are pregnant or may become pregnant
While undergo treatment for at least 3 year after discontinuation of Acitretin
Patient must not donate blood during treatment and for 3 year after discontinuation of
Acitretin
2- Tazarotene
Given topically
Adverse effects : burning sensation , peeling and erythema
its absorbed percutaneously ( if applied to more than 20% of body surface area it will be
teratogenic
N.B. women of childbearing must be advised of the risk prior initiating therapy
3- Calcipotriene ( synthetic vit D3)
Effective in plaque type
4- Psoralens and UVA ( PUVA)
Approved photochemotherpay
Psoralens is given orally or locally then ( after 1 – 2 hour ) UVA exposure
5- Coal tar ointment :
Combined with daily exposure to UVB irradiation
6- Others :
Steroids, Methotrexate ,and cyclosporine

Generic name Trade name
NSAIDs
Indomethacin Indocid
Diclofenac Voltaren, rheumafen
Ibuprofen Brufen
Mefenamic acid Ponstan
Meloxicam Mobic
Piroxicam Feldin
Loronoxicam Xefo
Paracetamol Panadol , adol
H2 – blocker
Rantidine Zantac
Famotidine Pepsidin
Cimetidine Tagmet
Proton pump Inhibitors
Omeprazole Losec
Lansoprazole Lanzor
Esomeprazole Nexium
Pantoprazole Protium
Rapeprazole Pariet
Drug protect mucosa
Misoprostole Cytotic
Sucralfate Gastrovit
Purgative
Bisacodyl Dulcolax
Senna Senalox
Castor Oil ‫زﯾﺖ اﻟﺨﺮوع‬
Antidiarhoeal
Activated Charcol Eucarbon
Koalin + Bectin Kapect
Dopramide Lomotil
Lopramide Imodium
Antispasmodic Drugs
Cisaprid Cisaprid
Hyoscin Buscopan
Mebeverin Duspatilin
Simethicon Disflatyl
Peperment Oil ‫زﯾﺖ اﻟﻨﻌﻨﺎع‬
Antiemetic
Metoclopramide Primpran
Domperidone Motelium
Meclazine Navidoxine
Drugs for Gout
Allopurinol Zyloric
colchicine Colchicine
Skeletal Muscle Relaxants
Baclofen Liordsal
Tizandin Sirdalud
Chlorzoxazone Parafon

Insulin
Human soluble Insulin (Regular Insulin) Human R
Human isophane insulin(NPH) Insulatard
Regular Insulin+ NPH Mixtard
1st generation Oral Hypoglycemic drugs
Tolbutamide
Chlorpropamide
2nd generation Oral Hypoglycemic drugs
Glibenclamide Daonil
Gliclazide Diamicron
Gliclazide Minidiab
Metformin Glucophage
Metformin+Rosiglitazone Avandamet
Rosiglitazone Avandia
Repaglinide Novonorm
Metformin+Glinbenclamide Glucovance
Drugs for Hypoglycemia
Glucagon Glucagon
Anti thyroid Drugs
Carbimazole Neomercazole
Proylthioyracil Thyrocil
Antituberculosis Drugs
Rifampicin Rifadin
Ethambutol HCL Etibi
Iso- niazide INH
Pyrazinamide P.T.B
Rifampicin +Izo-niazide Rifinah
Antileprotic Drugs
Clofazimine Lamprene
Diaphenyl sulfone Dapsone
Penicillin
Penicillin G Retarpen
Penicillin V Ospen
Penicillinase Resistant Penicillin's
Cloxacillin Ultraxin
Flucloxacillin Floxapen
Broad Spectrum Penicillin's.
Amoxicillin Amoxil
Amoxicillin + Clavulanate Augmentin
Antipseudomonal Penicillin's
Piperacillin Sodium Pipril
Ticarcillin Timentin
First generation Cephalosporin's
Cephradin Velosef
Cephalexin monohydrate Keflex
Cephazolin Sodium Totacef
Cephaodroxil Ultra
Second generation Cephalosporin's
Cefaclor Ceclor

Cefuroxime Zinnat
Cefoxitim Sodium Mefoxin
Third generation Cephalosporin's
Cefotaxim Sodium Claforan
Ceftriaxone Pentahydrate Fortum
Ceftriaxone Sodium Rocephin
Fourth generation Cephalosporin's
Cefepime Maxipime , Suprax
Aminoglycoside
Gentamycin Sufate Gentamicin
Tobramycin Sufate Nebcin
Amikacin Sufate Rulid
Neomycin Neomycin
Kanamycin Kanamycin
Streptomycin Sufate Streptomycin
Amikacin Amikin
Macrolides
Erythromycin Erythricin
Azithriomycin Zithromax
Clarithromycin Klacid
Roxithromycin Roxamide
Spiramycin Rovamycin
Quinolones
Ciprofloxacin Ciprobay
Ofloxacin Ofloxacin
Levofloxacin Tavanic
Norfloxacin Noroxin
Nalidixic acid Nalidram
Other Antibiotics
Spectinomycin Togomycin
Vancomycin Vancocin
Sulfamethoxazole+ Trimethoprim Septrin , Bactrim
Nitrofurantoin Furadantin
Clindamycin Dalacin
Timpenem Tienam
Antihelmintics
Menendazole Vermox
Levamizole Ketrax
Niclosamide Yomesan
Pranziquantel Biltracide
Albendazole Zentel
Antiprotozoal Drugs
Chloroquine Phosphate Navaquine
Mefloquine HCL Mephaquin
Primaquine Phosphate Primaquine
Quinine Quinine
Pyrimethamine+ Sulfadoxine Fansidar
Metronidazole Flagyl
Diloxanide Furoate Furamide

Corticosteroids
Fludrocortisone acetate Florinef
Prednisolone Prednisolone
Dexamethasone Oradexon
Hydrocortisone Hydrocorton , Solucortif
Methylprednisolone Depomedrol
Diuretics
Loop diuretics
Furosemide Lazix
Ethacrinic Edecrin
Thiazide diuretics
Chlorthiazide Hygroton
Hydrochlorothiazide Esderex
Indopamid Natrilix
Potassium sparing diuretics
Spironolactone Aldactone
Amialoride Moduretic
Triamterine Dyazid
Osmotic Diuretics
Mannitol Mannitol
Ca++ channel Blocker
Diltiazem Dilzem
Amilodipine HCL Amlor
Verapamil Insuptin
Nifedipine Adalat
Flodipin Plendil
Nicardipine Micard
ALPHA – Adrenergic blockers
Prazosin HCL Minipress
BETA- blockers
Atenolol Tenormin
Bisoprolol Concor
Propranolol Indral
ALPHA&BETA bloker
Carvedilol Dilatrend
Centrally acting(Alpha2- agonist)
Methyldopa Aldomet
Clonidine Catapress
Antiarraythmic Drugs
Amiodaron Cordaron
Quinidin Quinidin
Disopyramid Rythmodan
Mexiletine Mexitil
Lidocain Xylocain
Congestive Heart Failure
Digoxin Lanoxin
Drugs used in angina
Isosorbiddinitrate Isordil
Nitroglycerin Nitroderm

Glyceryl Trinitrat Augised
Anticoagulant drugs
Heparin Heparin
Warfarin Coumadine
Anti platelet Drugs
Dipyridamol Persauten
Clopidogrel Plavix
Aspirin 75 Aspirin
Fibrinolytic
Streptokinase Kabikinase
Lipid Lowering Drugs
Cholestyramine Questran
Simvastain Zocor
Gemfibrozil Lopid
Pravastain Lipostat
Atorvastatin Lipitor
Non – Sedating Antihistamines
Cetrizine Zyrtec
Loratadine Claritne
Fexofenadine Telfast
Sedating Antihistamines
Chlorpheniramine Histop
Promethazine HCL Phenargen
Bronchodilators
Salbutamol Ventolin
Ipratropium Atrovent
Theopylline Quibron
Aminophylline Euphyllin
Beclomethasone Becotide
Budesonide Palmicort
Sodium cromoglycate Intal
Fluticasone Propionate + Salmetrol Seretide
Cough Suppressant ( antitussive )
Dextromethorphan Kafosed
Codeine
Expectorants & mucolytics
Bromohexine
Acetyl cistein
Ambroxol HCL Ambroxol HCL
Guaifenesin Guaifenesin
Decongestants
Pseudo ephedrine Actifed
Cytotoxic Drugs
1- Alkylating Drugs
Busulfan Myleran
Chlorambucil Leukeran
Cyclophosphamide Endoxan
Ifosfamide Mitoxana
Melphalan Alkeran

Antimetabolites.
Cytarabine Cyctosar
Methotrexate Methorexate
Fluorouracil Effuddix
Mercaptopurine Puri-nethol
Immunosuppressants
Cyclosporin Neoral
Azathioprine Imuran
Treatment of Glaucoma
Pilocarpine Proocarpine
Timolol maleate Timoptol
Timolol + Dorzolamide Cosopt
Dorzolamide Trusopt
Acetazolamide Diamox
Antidepressant Drugs
Amitriptyline Triptizol
Clomipramine HCL Anafranil
Imipramine HCL Tofranil
Fluoxetine Prozac
Paroxetine Seroxat
Antiparkisonism
Carbidopaِ Sinemet
Amantadine HCL Symmetrel
Selegline Selegline
Antiepileptics
Carbamazepine Tegretol
Phenobarbital Luminal
Pheytoin sodium Epantutin
Sodium Valproate Depakin
Clonazepam Revotril
Drugs used in Nausea and Vertigo
Metoclopramide HCL premperan
Betahistine Betaserc
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEinh)
Ramipril Tritace
Lisinopril Zestril
Captopril Capoten
Drug Antidote
Heparin Protamine Sulphate
Warfarin I.V. Vitamin K
Paracetamol N – Acetyl cysteine
Heavy metals Dimercaprol
Morphine Naloxone
Poisoning by Lead, Mercury & arsenic Penicillamine
Iron Deferoxamine

Exam model 1
1. Examples of hypoglycemic agents are
(a) Metformin
(b) Tolbutamide
(c) Aspirin
(d) A & B
2. An example of gonadal hormones is:
(a) Estrogen
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Warfarin
(d) None of the above
3. Gonadal hormones
(a) Estrogen
(b) Progesterone
(c) a + b
4. Drug used in Diabetes Mellitus is
(a) Insulin
(b) Metformin
(c) a + b
5. Insulin is used to treat:
(a) Diabetes Mellitus
(b) Hypotension
(c) Hyponatremia
6. Prednisone is used as:
(a) anti-inflammatory
(b) immuno-suppressant
(c) A & B
(d) none of the above
7. One of the following drugs is second generation sulfonylureas
(a) gliclazide
(b) metformine
(c) repiglinide
(d) tolbutamide
8. Which of the following side effects is due to glucocorticoids administration?
(a) hypertension
(b) hyperglycemia
(c) cushing's syndrome
(d) all the above
9. Carbimazol is used for the treatment of
(a) hypothyroidism
1
(b) hyperthyroidism
(c) hyperglycemia
(d) hypoglycemia
10. Clomiphene is:
(a) estrogen agonist
(b) estrogen antagonist
(c) progesterone antagonist
(d) selective estrogen receptor modulator
11. All of them oral hypoglycemic agent except:
(a) Tolbutamide
(b) Tolazamide
(c) Glipizide
(d) Domperidone
12. The following drugs can be used in the treatment of malaria except
(a) Chloroquine
(b) Proguanil
(c) Niclosamide
(d) Quinine
13. Metronidazole can be used in the treatment of
(a) Giardiasid
(b) Amoebiasis
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) All the above
14. Nifurtimox is used for the treatment of
(a) Malaria
(b) Chaga's disease
(c) Hydated disease
(d) Sleeping sickness
15. One of the following drugs is used for the treatment of filariasis
(a) Diethylcarbamazine
(b) Thiabendazol
(c) Praziquantel
(d) Pyrantel pamoate
16. Pentamidine isethionate is used for the treatment of
(a) Visceral leishmaniasis
(b) Sleeping sickness
(c) Chaga's disease
(d) A & B
17. Side effects of dehydroemetine include
(a) Metallic taste
(b) Myocardial depression
(c) Dark brown urine
(d) Nephrotoxicity
2
18. Stibogluconate is a drug used for the treatment of
(a) Dracunculiasis
(b) Leishmaniasis
(c) Hydated disease
(d) A & B
19. One of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of bilharziasis:
a) Diethylcarbamazine
b) Niclosamide
c) Praziquantel
d) Primaquine
20. Ankylstoma duodenal is
(a) Intestinal nematode
(b) Tissue nematode
(c) Cestode
(d) Intestinal fluke
21. Levamisol is
(a) Used as immuno-stimulant
(b) Antimalarial drug
(c) Used as immunosuppressant
(d) A & B
22. Nifurtimox is used for the treatment of
(a) Visceral leishmaniasis
(b) Sleeping sickness
(c) Chaga's disease
(d) A & B
23. Side effects of metronidazole include the following except:
(a) Metallic taste
(b) Dark brown urine
(c) Myocardial depression
(d) Hepatotoxicity
24. Mefloquine is a drug used for the treatment of
(a) Dracunculiasis
(b) Leishmaniasis
(c) Malaria
(d) A & B
25. Fasciola hepatica infection can be treated by the use of
(a) Diethylcarbamazine
(b) Thiabendazol
(c) Bithionol
(d) Pyrantel pamoate
26. Which of the following drug belong to corticosteroid
(a) Aspirin
(b) Hydrocortisone
3
(c) Prednisolone
(d) Both B & C
27. Which of the following is consider hepatotoxic drug
(a) Alcohol
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Halothane
(d) All of them
28. Which of the following drug is contraindicated with asthmatic patient
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Aspirin
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Amoxicillin
29. Which of the following drug used in treatment TB
(a) Rifampin
(b) Phenytoin
(c) Prednisolone
(d) Aspirin
30. Which of the following drug used in treatment hypertension
(a) Noradrenaline
(b) Captopril
(c) Verapamil
(d) Both B & C
31. Which of the following drug act as calcium channel blocker
(a) Aspirin
(b) Halothane
(c) Verapamil
(d) Hydrochlorothiazide
32. Hypokalemia mean
(a) Increase sodium in human body
(b) decrease sodium in human body
(c) increase potassium in human body
(d) None of them
33. Decigram is equal
(a) 0,001
(b) 0,2
(c) 0,6
(d) 0,1
34. Decilitre is equal
(a) 0,001
(b) 0,2
(c) 0,6
(d) 0,1
35. Acyclovir used for
4
(a) HSV encephalitis
(b) Genital herpes infections
(c) Headache
(d) Both A & B
36. Which of the following drug is antidote for morphine
(a) Captopril
(b) Methadone
(c) Naloxone
(d) Codeine
37. q.i.d mean
(a) Three time daily
(b) twice daily
(c) once daily
(d) four time daily
38. t.i.d mean
(a) Three time daily
(b) twice daily
(c) once daily
(d) four time daily
39. Patient use (Augmentin 250 mg Tablets) three time daily for one week
How many tablet this patient will consume
(a) 20 tablet
(b) 21 tablet
(c) 18 tablet
(d) 9 tablet
40. One of the following substance used in treatment of many toxic cases
(a) Aspirin
(b) Activated charcoal
(c) Timolol
(d) Paracetamol
41. Expiraion date of one drug is 8/2006
(a) 1/9/2006
(b) 1/8/2006
(c) 31/8/2006
(d) 15/8/2006
42. Patient take drug A (250 ml/5mg). he take 1000 ml a.m. 750 ml p.m
He will receive in 20 days ….. gm
(a) 700 gm
(b) 1250 gm
(c) 1000 gm
(d) 600 gm
43. Doctor ….. phone you asking for dispensing additive drug without prescription
What will you do
5
(a) dispense the drug after ensuring patient state
(b) dispense the drug without ensuring patient state
(c) dispense the drug after ensuring doctor I.D.
(d) do not dispense the without prescription
44. Antiseptic contain 150 ml of active ingrident with supply label 5mg for 10 ml
How many mg of active ingrident in 150 ml?
(a) 75
(b) 15
(c) 1500
(d) 50
45. The generic name of (Prozac)® is
(a) Verapamil
(b) Timolol
(c) Fluoxetine
(d) Omperazole
46. The generic name of (flagyl)® is
(a) Mebendazole
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Metronidazole
47. Percent Haemoglobin in man (g/dl) equal
(a) 12 - 16
(b) 11 - 15
(c) 8 - 12
(d) 14 - 18
48. Percent Haemoglobin in woman (g/dl) equal
(a) 10 - 12
(b) 8 - 10
(c) 5 - 10
(d) 12 - 16
49. Insulin preserved in
(a) room temperature
(b) high temperature
(c) refregerator temperature
(d) freezing temperature
50. Insulin preserved in
(a) 5 centigrade
(b) 20 centigrade
(c) -10 centigrade
(d) 15 centigrade
51. Hypercalcemia is
(a) Increase potassium in blood
(b) Increase calcium in blood
6
(c) decrease calcium in blood
(d) Increase sodium in blood
52. What is happen to elderly patient take (Glibenclamide) and advised by friend
To take (Glipizide) too
(a) hyperglycemia
(b) hypoglycemia
(c) hypotension
(d) No effect on blood pressure
53. What is the drug of choice for headache in asthmatic patient ?
(a) Aspirin
(b) Salbutamol
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Paracetamol
54. Which of the following drug is used for hypertension
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Ibuprofen
(d) Salbutamol
55. Atenolol belong to
(a) β blocker
(b) β1 - Blockers
(c) β2 - Blockers
(d) αblocker
56. Percent of potassium in blood
(a) 20 meq/L
(b) 1 meq/L
(c) 50 meq/L
(d) 3.5 – 5 meq/L
57. Which of the following consider a source of entering information to computer
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Scanner
(d) All of the above
58. Which of the following consider a source to exit information from computer
(a) screen
(b) Audio video
(c) Printer
59. Ordinary prescription contain
(a) Morphine
(b) Hypnotics
(c) Pethidine
7
60. Which of the following drug used in treatment HIV (AIDS)
(a) Zidovudine
(b) Verapamil
(c) Diltiazem
(d) Prednisolone
61. What is instruction you should till patient on (Diclofenac 50 mg)
(a) Take it before meal
(b) Drink more tea and coffee
(c) Take it after meal
(d) Drink more citrus fruit
62. (Prednisolone) administer as
3 days× t.i.d. ×1
3 days× b.i.d. ×1
3 days × q.d. ×1 how many tablet you will dispense
(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 12
63. Female patient on (Neostigmine) want to be pregnant
How long should she separate between pregnancy and drug?
(a) 2 week
(b) 2 day
(c) 2 year
(d) 2 month
64. Malaria transmitted by
(a) Male anopheles mosquito
(b) Female anopheles mosquito
(c) Rats
(d) Sand fly
65. Which of the following drug not belong to (NSAIDs)
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Dexamethasone
(d) Ketoprofen
66. (Ganciclovir) used for
(a) Virus infection
(b) Bacteria infection
(c) asthma
(d) rheumaism
67. OTC include
(a) Antibiotic
(b) tranquilizer
(c) Laxative
8
(d) Antiepileptic
68. OTC include
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Diazepam
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Both A &C
69. Whuch of the following drug belong to OTC :
(a) Tegretol
(b) Augmentin
(c) Valium
70. Which of the following drug can used for (Giardiasis)
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Metronidazole
(c) Diosmin
(d) Ampicillin
71. Warfarin antidote is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Vitamin K
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin E
72. One of your friend ask for some information about inpatient. What will your answer?
(a) Till him about drug
(b) Till him about drug and diagnosis
(c) Till him about drug , diagnosis and his room number
(d) Do not till him any thing
73. After you dispense a prescription you find out mistake What you will you do?
(a) Silence not aware
(b) Till hospital manager
(c) Till pharmacist
(d) Till patient immediately
74. Mannitol has the following charachter
(a) I.V cant taken orally
(b) Decrease intracranial pressure
(c) Decrease intraocular pressure
75. Vaccines preserved in temperature…………
(a) Room temperature
(b) Buttom shelf of refregerator
(c) Upper shelf of refregerator (under frezer)
(d) Freezing temperature
76. Urea used for treatment of
(a) Asthma
9
(b) Increase intracranial pressure
(c) diuretic
(d) Both B & C
77. Antihypertensive of choice in pregnancy is
(a) Methyl dopa
(b) Enalapril
(c) Atenolol
(d) Captopril
78. Generaly antibiotics are stored in
(a) Cold place
(b) Away from light
(c) Room temperature
(d) According to box instruction
79. (Tetracycline) belong to
(a) H 2 - Blockers
(b) Antibiotics
(c) α- Blockers
(d) β- Blockers
80. Which of the following belong to antihypertensive
(a) Inderal
(b) Buscopan
(c) Flagyl
(d) Diamicron
81. Propranolol belong to
(a) β - agonist
(b) β- Blockers
(c) α- agonist
(d) β1 Blockers
82. Spironolactone belong to
(a) Antibiotics
(b) Antihistamines
(c) Diuretics
(d) Sedatives
83. Spironolactone belong to
(a) Thiazide diuretics
(b) Osmotic diuretics
(c) Potassium sparing diuretics
(d) Loop diuretics
84. Vitamine (B1) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Thiamine
10
85. Vitamine (B2) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Riboflavin
86. Vitamine (K) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Niacin
87. Duration of treatment for TB is
(a) 2 month
(b) 4 month
(c) 6-9 month
(d) 2 years
88. Capoten generic name is
(a) Enalapril
(b) Verapamil
(c) Atenolol
(d) Captopril
89. Which of the following drug used in treatment AIDS
(a) Zocor
(b) Zovirax
(c) Zaditine
(d) Zidovudine
90. Which of the following drug used to manage hypertension
(a) Noradrenaline
(b) Captopril
(c) Verapamil
(d) Both B & C
91. Which of the following drug consider diuretic
(a) Aspirin
(b) Halothane
(c) Hydrochlorothiazide
(d) Verapamil
92. Rifampicin turn urine color into
(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) White
(d) Blue
93. Acyclovir used for
(a) Rheumatism
(b) Bacteria infection
11
(c) Parasitic infection
(d) Virus infection
94. Vitamine (C) generic name is
(a) Retinol
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Phytomenadione
(d) Riboflavin
95. Drug of choice (D.O.C) of Ascariasis is
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Verapamil
(c) Paracetamol
(d) Mebendazole
96. Which of the following route give 100% bioavailability
(a) SC
(b) IM
(c) Oral
(d) IV
97. Hepatitis B vaccination per year is
(a) 3 time
(b) 2 time
(c) 1 time
(d) 5 time
98. Fat soluble vitamins include
(a) A & D
(b) A & C
(c) E & K
(d) Both B & C
99. Water soluble vitamins include
(a) A & C
(b) D & K
(c) B & C
(d) B & D
100 Maximum dose of (Paracetamol) per day is
(a) 10 gram
(b) 4 mg
(c) 3 gram
(d) 4 gram
12
Exam model 2
1. Maximum dose of (Paracetamol 500 mg tablet) for adult in day
(a) 10 tablet
(b) 7 tablet
(c) 8 tablet
(d) 4 Tablet
2. Barium sulfate is used for
(a) Treatment constipation
(b) Treatment diarrhea
(c) Treatment dry cough
(d) In radiology diagnosis
3. Maximum dose of (Captopril) is
(a) 10 mg
(b) 75 mg
(c) 80 mg
(d) 150 mg
4. Maximum dose of (Captopril 50 mg ) is
(a) 4 tablet
(b) 3 tablet
(c) 10 tablet
(d) 6 tablet
5. To prevent absorbtion of toxic substance we can use
(a) Activated charcoal
(b) Captopril
(c) Loratadine
(d) Aspirin
6. The firest choice for Type 2 diabetes
(a) Anaglesics
(b) Insulin
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Sulfonylurea
7. The firest choice for Type 1 diabetes
(a) Anaglesics
(b) Sulfonylurea
(c) NSAIDs
(d) Insulin
8. (Theophylline) used as
(a) Bronchoconstrictor
(b) Antihistaminic
(c) Antiviral
(d) Brochdilator
9. Which of the following drug can΄t be used during pregnancy
(a) Paracetamol
13
(b) Amoxicillin
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Ciprofloxacillin
10. Cefaclor belong to
(b) Penicillins
(c) Potassium sparing diuretics
(d) Cephalosporines
11. Cefaclor belong to
(a) 1st generation Cephalosporines
(b) 2nd generation Cephalosporines
(c) 3rd generation Cephalosporines
(d) 4th generation Cephalosporines
12. The generic name of (Voltaren)® is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Diosmin
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Piroxicam
13. (Voltaren)® uses are
(a) Analgesic fot teeth pain
(b) Anti inflammatory for arthritis
(c) Analgesic for headache
(d) All of them
14. (Zantac)® generic name is
(a) Rantidine
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Rantidol
(d) Famotidine
15. (Zantac)® used for
(a) Peptic ulcer
(b) Hyperacidity
(c) Hypertension
(d) Both A & B
16. Which of the following drug is hepatotoxic
(a) Indometacin
(b) Aspirin
(c) Ibuprofen
(d) Paracetamol
17. Which of the following drug is contraindicated with renal failure
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Gentamycin
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Both A & B
14
18. (Sumatriptan) is used for
(a) Migraine
(b) CHF
(c) Hypertension
(d) Angina treatment
19. (Nitrofurantoin) is used for
(a) UTI
(b) renal failure
(c) analgesics
(d) TB
20. Cimetidine is used for
(a) peptic ulcer
(b) prophylaxis from peptic ulcer
(c) duodenal ulcer
(d) all of them
21. (Ventolin) )® generic name is
(a) Aspirin
(b) Cimetidine
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Salbutamol
22. (Ventolin) )® is used for
(a) Migraine
(b) Hypotension
(c) Brochial asthma
(d) Headache
23. Which of the following drug is used in treate dehydration because of diarrhea
(a) Aspirin
(b) ORS ( oral rehydration solution )
(c) Furosemide
24. Which of the following drug is used in treate M.TB
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Ethambutol
(c) Isoniazide
(d) All of them
25. Which of the following used for thyroid deficiency
(a) Aspirin
(b) Carbimazole
(c) Thyroxine sodium
(d) Radioactive iodine
26. Which of the following used for thyroid deficiency
(a) Liothyronine
(b) Levothyroxine sodium
15
(c) Thyroxine sodium
(d) All of them
27. Which of the following used for hyperthyroidism
(a) Propylthiouracil
(b) Carbimazole
(c) Radioactive iodine
(d) All of them
28. Which of the following used for Thyrotoxicosis
(a) Levothyroxine sodium
(b) Iodine
(c) Radioactive iodine
(d) Both B & C
29. (Gliclazide) is used for management of
(a) Hypertension
(b) Hyperglycemia
(c) Hypoglycemia
(d) Migraine
30. (Gliclazide) trade name is
(a) Diamicron
(b) Amoxil
(c) Minidiab
(d) Ventolin
31. (Nifedipine) trade name is
(a) Tenormin
(b) Ateno
(c) Adalat
(d) Ventolin
32. (Augmentin) generic name is
(a) Amoxicillin / Paracetamol
(b) Amoxicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(c) Benzylpenicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(d) Ampicillin / Potassium clavulanate
33. (Co-trimoxazole) is composed of
(a) Trimethoprim
(b) Sulfamethoxazole
(c) Salbutamol
(d) Trimethoprim / Sulfamethoxazole
34. Which of the following drug belong to (Aminoglycosides)
(a) Amikacin
(b) Neomycin
(c) Streptomycin
35. Which of the following fomula belong to solid dosage form
16
(a) Tablets
(b) Capsules
(c) Suspensions
(d) Both A & B
36. Which of the following fomula belong to liquid dosage form
(a) Solutions
(b) Powders
(c) Suppsitories
(d) Tablets
37. (Clarithromycin) trade name is
(a) Ventolin
(b) Amoxil
(c) Klacid
(d) Vibramycin
38. Which of the following drug consider (antidote) for (heparin)
(a) Warfarin
(b) Protamine sulfate
(c) Phenindione
(d) Aspirin
39. (Vitamin B 6) scientific name is
(a) Niacin
(b) Riboflavin
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Thiamine
40. (Acetazolamide) used for
(a) Glaucoma
(b) Hypotension
(c) Asthma
(d) Diarrhea
41. (Acetazolamide) trade name
(a) Lasix
(b) Diamox
(c) Aldactone
(d) Bumex
42. (Susp.) abbreviation mean
(a) Suppository
(b) Suspension
(c) Solution
(d) Syrup
43. (Sol.) abbreviation mean
(a) Suppository
(b) Suspension
(c) Solution
17
(d) Syrup
44. (Nasal drops) mean drop for
(a) Eye
(b) Nose
(c) Ear
(d) Both A & C
45. Who can not use aspirin (contraindicated)
(a) Angina
(b) Gastric ulcer
(c) Haemophilia
(d) Both B & C
46. (Amoxil) generic name
(a) Amoxicillin / Potassium clavulanate
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Flucloxacillin
(d) Amoxicillin
47. (Bid) mean
(a) Once Daily
(b) Twice Daily
(c) Three time Daily
(d) Four time Daily
48. (IM) mean
(a) Intravenous
(b) Intramuscular
(c) Subcutaneous
(d) Intradermal
49. (sos) mean
(a) don not repeat
(b) Four time Daily
(c) Twice Daily
(d) as needed (when necessary)
50. (Dextrose % 5) mean
(a) 5 mg dextrose per 100 ml solvent
(b) 5 gram dextrose per 1000 ml solvent
(c) 5 gram dextrose per 100 ml solvent
(d) 5 kilogram dextrose per 100 ml solvent
51. (Sodium chloride % 0.9) mean
(a) 0.9 mg Sodium chloride per 100 ml solvent
(b) 0.9 kilogram Sodium chloride per 100 ml solvent
(c) 0.9 gram Sodium chloride per 1000 ml solvent
(d) 0.9 gram Sodium chloride per 100 ml solvent
52. (Claritine) generic name
(a) Histadine
18
(b) Loratadine
(c) Chorpheniramine
(d) Adrenaline
53. (Claritine) used as
(a) Antihypertensive
(b) Antirheumatic
(c) Antihistaminic
(d) Antibiotic
54. (Aspirin) generic name is
(a) Acetylbutyric acid
(b) Paracetamol
(c) Mefenamic acid
(d) Acetylsalcylic acid
55. (Metoclopramide) belong to
(a) Antiemetic
(b) Antiepileptic
(c) Antihistaminic
(d) Anti diarrheal
56. (Metoclopramide) trade name is
(a) Motinorm
(b) Motilium
(c) Primperan
(d) Amoxil
57. Which of the following drug can be used in management constipation
(a) Diclofenac
(b) Glycerin suppositories
(c) Ibuprofen
(d) Paracetamol
58. Which of the following drug can be used in management constipation
(a) Glycerin suppositories
(b) Duphlac syrup
(c) Dulcolax
59. Which of the following drug can be used for rheumatic patient
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Diclofenac
(c) Indometacin
60. (Glucophage) generic name is
(a) Glibenclamide
(b) Tolbutamide
(c) Metformin
(d) Gliclazide
19
61. (Buscopan) generic name is
(a) Atropine
(b) Hyoscine (Scopolamine)
(c) Atenolol
(d) Pilocarpine
62. (Allopurinol) Trade name is
(a) Profenid
(b) Ketofan
(c) Zyloric
(d) Voltaren
63. (Cephalexin) (Trade name) is
(a) Keflex
(b) Velosef
(c) Amoxil
(d) Duricef
64. (Captopril) (Trade name) is
(a) Tenormin
(b) Capoten
(c) Lasix
(d) Adalat
65. Which of the following drug belong to (Penicillins)
(a) Amoxicillin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Flucloxacillin
66. Convert temperature 59 Fahrenheit to Celsius
(a) 25
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 20
67. (Lasix) generic name is
(a) Captopril
(b) Atenolol
(c) Furosemide
68. (Lasix) used as
(a) Diuretic
(b) Antirheumatic
(c) Antidiarrheal
(d) Both A &C
69. (Simvastatin) trade name is
(a) Zocor
(b) Amoxil
20
(c) Mevacor
(d) Lipitor
70. (Nizoral) generic name is
(a) Ketoconazole
(b) Fluconazole
(c) Miconazole
(d) Glibenclamide
71. Warfarin antidote
(a) Aspirin
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
72. Which of the following drug belong to Long acting (Tetracyclines)
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Doxycycline
(c) Minocycline
(d) Both B & C
73. (Questran) generic name is
(a) Cholestyramine A
(b) Simvastatin
(c) Atrovastatin
(d) Niacin
74. (Simvastatin) used for
(a) Decrease blood sugar
(b) Decrease calcium in blood
(c) Antihyperlipidemic
(d) Decrease sodium in blood
75. (Aldomet) generic name is
(a) Verapamil
(b) Atenolol
(c) Captopril
(d) Methyl dopa
76. (Zovirax) generic name is
(a) Interferon
(b) Zidovudine
(c) Acyclovir
(d) Oxytetracycline
77. (Brufen) generic name is
(a) Mefenamic acid
(b) Ketoprofen
(c) Diclofenac
(d) Ibuprofen
78. (Daonil) generic name is
21
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Gliclazide
(c) Metformin
(d) Glipenclamide
79. What is the text books should be available in pharmacy
(a) Martindale
(b) British national formulary
(c) Middle east medical index
(d) all of the above
80. Which of the following drug belong to Second generation Cephalosporines
(a) Cefaclor
(b) Cefuroxime
(c) Cefoxitin
81. Which of the following drug belong to first generation Cephalosporines
(a) Cephalexin
(b) Cephadroxil
(c) Cephazolin
82. Which of the following drug belong to third generation Cephalosporines
(a) Cefoperazone
(b) Cefotaxime
(c) Cefixime
83. Aspirin can be used as
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Anti inflammatory
84. (Metformin) used for treatment of
(a) Hypertension
(b) Hypotension
(c) Hyperglycemia
(d) Hypoglycemia
85. Which of the following drug used in treatment epilepsy
(a) Phenytoin
(b) Diclofenac
(c) Heparin
(d) Atenolol
86. Which of the following drug used in treatment hypertension
(a) Paracetamol
(b) Ibuprofen
(c) Heparin
22
(d) Diltiazem
87. (Cefipime) belong to
(a) 1st generation cephalosporin
(b) 2nd generation cephalosporin
(c) 3rd generation cephalosporin
(d) 4th generation cephalosporin
88. Which of the following drug does not belong to (Tetracyclines)
(a) Chlortetracycline
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Doxycycline
(d) Clindamycin
89. Which of the following drug does not used in treate amebiasis
(a) Diloxanide Furoate
(b) Gentamicin
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Iodoquinol
90. All of the following are consider insulin side effect
(a) Hypersensitivity
(b) Hypoglycemic coma
(c) Atrophy at site of injection
(d) All of them are true
91. Which of the following consider antivirus
(a) Acyclovir
(b) Interferons
(c) Amantadine
92. Patient suffer from wheezing and want to recipe prescription of (inderal)
tablet
(a) Prescripe it
(b) Prescripe antiasthmatic drug
(c) Ask patient about his illness
(d) Do not prescripe prescription and ask him to return to physician
93. Which of the following consider nephrotoxic drug
(a) Gentamycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Oxytetracycline
94. Which of the following drug used for prostatitis
(a) Aldosterone
(b) Insulin
(c) Finasteride
(d) Paracetamol
95. Sources of insulin include
23
(a) Cows
(b) Pigs
(c) Escherichia coli (E. coli)
96. All consider true about Tetracycline except:-
(a) Orally active
(b) Bactericidal
(c) Use for treat acne
(d) Excreted in urine
97. Type 2 diabetes characterized by
(a) Inability for producing insulin
(b) Insufficient amount of produced insulin
(c) Decrease sensitivity of insulin receptor
(d) Both B & C
98. If Olive oil, ASA &Water in the same formula the product is
(a) Emulsion
(b) Elixir
(c) Suspension
(d) Solution
99. What the concenteration of NaCl in Dextrose 5 % half normal saline,
D5 1/ 2 NS
(a) 1.8 %
(b) 0.9 %
(c) 0.225 %
(d) 0.45 %
100 Which of the following is the fastest dosage form
(a) IM injection
(b) ID injection
(c) IV injection
(d) SC injection
24
Exam model 3
1. (Simvastatin) according to FDA consider (Pregnancy Category x)
(a) Can be used during first trimester
(b) Can be used under medical supervision
(c) Absolutely contraindicated
(d) Safely used during pregnancy
2. Antidote for (Digoxin) toxicity is
(a) IV Normal Saline
(b) Digibind
(c) Activated Charcoal
(d) Digitoxin
3. The site of (Intra-thecal injection ) is
(a) Joint
(b) Skin
(c) IntraMusclular
(d) Directly in spinal cord
4. Which of the following cause intravenous incompatibility if taken with (Dextrose)
(a) Insulin
(b) Cefazolin
(c) Ceftriaxone
(d) Phenytoin
5. Mechanism of (Drug-Drug interactions) include
(a) Enzyme induction
(b) Formation of unabsorbed complex
(c) Plasma protein displacement
6. One of the following is (Natural emulsifying agent)
(a) Lactose
(b) Polysorbate
(c) Acacia
(d) Sorbitol
7. PH for ocular preparation range from
(a) 2 - 3
(b) 4 - 6
(c) 6 - 8
(d) > 8
8. 1 grain equal
(a) 50 Gram
(b) 10 Gram
(c) 0.60 Gram
(d) 0.065 Gram
9. How many gram needed from water to prepare 160 gram from
potassium acetate (5 % W/W)
25
(a) 100
(b) 130
(c) 135
(d) 152
10. How many gram needed from substance (X) to prepare 30 ml solution (1:1000)
(a) 10 mg
(b) 30 mg
(c) 300 mg
(d) 0.03 mg
11. Female (22 years old ) with advanced acne recommended to take (Roaccutance)
what is the procedure you do before dispence this drug
(a) Identify her weight
(b) Ask if she is pregnant
(c) Dispense the drug without precautious
(d) Ask her doctor to change this drug
12. (QOD) abbreviation means
(a) Every four days
(b) Four times a day
(c) Every other day
(d) Every day
13. (Cerivastatin) with drawn from saudi because mortal effect on
(a) Muscles
(b) Bone
(c) Blood
(d) C.N.S
14. (cytotec) was restricted to use because
(a) Decrease patient weight
(b) Cause patient to suicide
(c) Cause mythenia gravis
(d) Cause Abortion
15. (Ibuprofen) maximum dose is
(a) 800 mg
(b) 3000 mg
(c) 1600 mg
(d) 3200 mg
16. According to ministery of health instruction, narcotic drug prescreption should be
dispenced only if
(a) Clearly contain patient name, number
(b) Clearly contain doctor name, number and signature
(c) Dispense during 3 days only from prescription date
17. Which of the following not belong to (NSAIDs)
(a) Tilcotil
26
(b) Parafon
(c) Naproxen
(d) Ibuprofen
18. Patient on (Amiloride) and prescribed to take (Captopril) what the expected side
effect will happen ?
(a) Hyperkalemia
(b) Hyponatremia
(c) Hypertension
(d) Hypercalcemia
19. (Cefuroxime) belong to
(a) Penicillins
(b) Quinolones
(c) First generation cephalosporin
(d) Second generation cephalosporin
20. Which of the following will cause constipation as side effect
(a) Augmentin
(b) Multivitamins
(c) Morphine
(d) Diphenhydramine
21. Infants ( 2 month old ) suffer from fever and nasal congestion what will you advice
his father
(a) Ask him to take (Paracetamol & Actifed)
(b) Ignore the case
(c) Put him under supervision for 48 hr
(d) Advice him to take the infant to hospital
22. (Micromedex) is
(a) New antihypertensive drug
(b) New antidepressant drug
(c) Nem medicine book
(d) Computer programe contain drugs name, classification, uses
23. (Viaga) generic name is
(a) Atenolol
(b) Sildenafil
(c) Amoxicillin
(d) Silfinadil
24. What is the proper question to patient dispence ( Viagra )
(a) How old are you?
(b) What is your name?
(c) Only Dispense the drug
(d) If he take nitroglycerin
25. All of tthem consider OTC drug except
(a) Tegretol
(b) Bisacodyl
27
(c) Molax
(d) Aspirin
26. Absorbtion of (Tetracycline) with (Al+++ & Fe++) lead to
(a) Active absorbable complex
(b) Inactive absorbable complex
(c) Active less absorbable complex
(d) Inactive inabsorbable complex
27. Patient on tetracycline what is your advice about drinking milk?
(a) Separate between them by 10 minute
(b) Nothing is important
(c) Take them with each other
(d) Separate between them by at least 2 hour
28. Which of the following (Insulin) can be taken intravenously
(a) Lente insulin
(b) NPH insulin
(c) Human mixtard 30/70 insulin
(d) Regular insulin
29. Which of the following (Insulin) has duration of (12 – 24 ) hr.
(a) Lente insulin
(b) Insulin Lispro
(c) Human mixtard 30/70 insulin
(d) Regular insulin
30. The most important side effect of insulin over dose
(a) Skin atrophy at site of injection
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Hypertension
(d) Hyperglycemia
31. The most caustive organism of (UTI) is
(a) Amoeba
(b) Gram positive & negative microorganisms
(c) Gram negative microorganisms
(d) Gram positive microorganisms
32. All of them belong to (Macrolides) except
(a) Clindamycin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Azithromycin
(d) Clarithromycin
33. All of them belong to (ACE inhibitors) except
(a) Captopril
(b) Lisonopril
(c) Ramipril
(d) Nifedipine
34. Paracetamol dose for pediatric ( 5 years old )
28
(a) 500 mg every 6 h
(b) 500 mg every 6 h
(c) 10 – 15 mg/Kg every 4 – 6 h a day
(d) 700 mg every 10 h
35. What is the recommended dose foe vitamin A deficiency ?
(a) 500 IU
(b) 100 IU
(c) 10 IU
(d) 50000 IU
36. (Valproic acid) used for treatment of
(a) Anemia
(b) Epilepsy
(c) Depression
(d) Headache
37. Thrombocytopenia mean:
(a) Decrease number of red blood cells
(b) Decrease number of white blood cells
(c) Increase number of platelet
(d) Decrease number of platelet
38. Which of the following dryg belong to (Ca-Channel Blockers) ?
(a) Captopril
(b) Diltiazem
(c) Atenolol
(d) Sotalol
39. Which of the following drug belong to local anathesia
(a) Lidocaine
(b) Spironolactone
(c) Insulin
(d) Ampicillin
40. One of the following substance used as antidote for paracetamol toxicity
(a) Aspirin
(b) Ampicillin
(c) Atenolol
(d) N-acetylcysteine
41. Which of the followin drug not contraindicated with pregnancy
(a) Captopril
(b) Ciprofloxacin
(c) Tetracycline
(d) Amoxicillin
42. Regular insulin os characterized by
(a) Clear
(b) Colorless
(c) Watery
29
43. Atropine belong to
(a) choline esterase inhibitor
(b) direct acting cholinomimetic
(c) sympatholytic drug
(d) cholinergic agonist ( antimuscarinic )
44. (Benzyl peroxide) uses
(a) Expectorant
(b) Anti emetics ( chemically induced vomiting in cancer chemotherapy )
(c) Acne preparation
(d) Migraine
45. (Ondasetron) uses
(a) Expectorant
(b) Anti emetics ( chemically induced vomiting in cancer chemotherapy )
(c) Acne preparation
(d) Migraine
46. Preparation containing NaCl 10 % with water this pharmaceutical form is
(a) Lotion
(b) Suspension
(c) Solution
(d) Emulsion
47. Which of the following drug belong catecholamine
(a) Epinephrine
(b) Norepinrphrine
(c) Dopamine
48. Furosemide belong to
(b) Osmotic diuretics
(c) Loop diuretics
(d) Potassium sparing diuretics
49. Generic name of Zestril® is
(a) Lisinopril
(b) Enalopril
(c) Ramipril
(d) None of them
50. Generic name of tritace® is
(a) Lisinopril
(b) Enalopril
(c) Ramipril
(d) None of them
51. The ……. Route offer instantaneous and complete absorbtion
(a) Topical
30
(b) Oral
(c) I.V
(d) I.M
52. Drug administered by ……. Are exposed to first pass metabolism
(a) Topically
(b) Orally
(c) I.V
(d) I.M
53. The drug may be metabolized by
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Both A & B
54. The drug and its metabolites are eliminated from body in
(a) Urine
(b) Feces
(c) Bile
55. The therapeutic index (TI) can be defined as :
(a) Toxic / effective dose
(b) Toxic - effective dose
(c) Toxic + effective dose
56. Which one of these is aprodrug?
(a) Ampicillin
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Levodopa
57. Pharmacokinetics include
(a) Absorption & distribution
(b) Metabolism
(c) Execretion
58. Bioavailability is defined as
(a) The action of the body on the drug
(b) Rate & extent to which drug enters systemic circulation
(c) Remove the drug from the body
59. If 100 mg of the drug is administered orally and 70mg of this drug is absorbed
unchanged the bioavailability is
(a) 100 %
(b) 10 %
(c) 70 %
31
(d) 30 %
60. Total body clerancy is the sum of the clerance from :
(a) Hepatic
(b) Renal
(c) Pulmonary
61. The nervous system is divided into
(a) Centeral nervous system and peripheral nervous system
(b) peripheral nervous system only
(c) Brain
(d) Spinal cord
62. Type I diabetes use
(a) Insulin
(b) Glibenclamide
(c) Both A & B
63. Type II diabetes mainly use
(a) Insulin
(b) Sulphonyl urea
(c) Both A & B
64. Side effect of insulin are
(a) Local reaction
(b) Hypoglycemia
(c) Fat atrophy at the injection site
65. Which one of these drug is cough suppressant
(a) Dextromethorphan
(b) Captopril
(c) Pilocarpine
(d) Dexamethasone
66. Theophylline is
(a) Bronchodilator
(b) β2 agonist
(c) Causes bradycardia
67. Epinephrine is indicated for
(a) Anaphylactic shock
(b) Asthma
(c) Nasal decongestant
68. Timolol is indicated for
(a) Hypertension
32
(b) Glaucoma
(c) Both A&B
69. Which of the following drug can cause addiction ?
(a) Phenobarbitol
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Iodine
(d) Furosemide
70. All of these medication are general anathesia except
(a) Nitrous oxide
(b) Diazepam
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Morphine
71. Which one of these drug used for treatment schizophrenia
(a) Chloropromazine
(b) Clozapine
(c) Haloperidol
(d) All of them
72. All of these medication are used in epilepsy except
(a) Carbamazepine
(b) Furosemide
(c) Diazepam
(d) Phenytoin
73. Captopril is
(a) Vasodilator
(b) Used for treat congestive heart failure
(c) Both A &B
74. Diuretics drugs
(a) Furosemide
(b) Indicated for treatment of hypertension and edema
(c) Spironolactone
75. Antianginal drugs
(a) Nitroglycerin
(b) Isosorbid dinitrate
(c) Both A &B
76. All of these medication are used as antihypertensive except
(a) Amlodipine
(b) Atenolol
(c) Timolol
(d) Ferrous gluconate
33
77. Agents used in anemias
(a) Ferrous gluconate
(b) Vitamine B12
(c) Folic acid
78. Anticoagulants
(a) Reduce formation of fibrin clot
(b) Heparin
(c) Warfarin
79. Antiplatelet drugs
(a) Increase bleeding time
(b) Aspirin
(c) Cloxacillin
(d) Both A & B
80. Drugs for tratment hyperlipidemia
(a) lovastatin
(b) mebendazole
(c) lorazepam
(d) none of the above
81. Aspirin
(a) Acetyl salicylic acid
(b) Contraindicate in peptic ulcer
(c) Used for pain, inflammation, and fever
82. Which of the following belong to NSAIDs
(a) Ibuprofen
(b) Naproxen
(c) Indomethacin
83. Drugs used in treatment of asthma
(a) Aminophylline
(b) Beclomethasone
(c) Cimitidine
(d) Both A & B
84. Selective of the most appropriate antimicrobial agent requires of:
(a) The organism identity and sensitivity to particular agent
(b) The site of infection
(c) The safety of agent and patient factor
85. Penicillin and cephalosporin
(a) Major antibiotic that inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
(b) Called beta-lactams
34
(c) The microbial resistance poses constant challenge to the use of antimicrobial
86. Amoxicillin and ampicillin
(a) Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
(b) Used for treatment of infection caused by gram positive and negative
(c) Contraindicated in patient with penicillin hypersensitivity
87. Which of the following statement is correct about cephalosporin
(a) They are classified into four generation
(b) Does not used for treatment of UTI
(c) Cefoxitin is cephalosporin derivative
(d) Both A & C
88. Protein synthesis inhibitor
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Gentamycin
(c) Clarithromycin
89. Ciprofloxacin is
(a) Fluroquinolone
(b) Bactericidal
(c) Inhibit DNA
90. Which one of the following drug is not antifungal
(a) Naproxen
(b) Amphotericin B
(c) Miconazole
(d) Nystatin
91. Which of the following drug is not antiviral
(a) Amantidine
(b) Acyclovir
(c) Cephalexin
(d) Ribovirin
92. Which of the following drug used for AIDS
(a) Metronidazole
(b) Zidovudine
(c) Metochlopramide
(d) Clemastin
93. Which of the following drugs are disinfectants ?
(a) Chlorohexidine
(b) Cresol
(c) Iodine
94. Drugs used for treatment of allergies
35
(a) Chloropheneramine maleate
(b) Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
(c) Indomethacin
(d) Both A & B
95. Which of the following drug are used for treatment of constipation?
(a) Bisacodyl
(b) Magnesium sulfate
(c) Castor oil
96. Drug for treatment of gout
(a) Codeine
(b) Allopurinol
(c) Verapamil
(d) Atenolol
97. Drug for treatment peptic and duodenal ulcers:
(a) Morphine
(b) Rantidine
(c) Omeprazole
(d) Both B & C
98. The therapeutic use of levodopa is
(a) Angina
(b) Anemia
(c) Depression
(d) Parkinsonian disease
99. The therapeutic use of amitriptyline is
(a) Angina
(b) Anemia
(c) Depression
(d) Parkinsonian disease
100 All of the following affect drug distrubtion through lipid bilayer of the cell except
(a) Solubility in water
(b) Solubility In lipid
(c) Relative solubility in water/lipid
(d) PH
36
Exam model 4
1-agent that depress the central nervous system producing loss of consciousness
a) Local anesthesia
b) Sedative
c) General anesthesia
d) All of the above
2- agent that block nerve conduction producing transient localized loss of sensation
a) General anesthesia
b) Hypnotic
c) Local anesthesia
d) None of them
3- oral drug that reduce anxiety and cause calm ( sedation )
a) Psychosis
b) Depression
c) Sedative
d) None of them
4- drugs that produce drowsiness and encourage sleep ( hypnosis )
a) Hypnotic
b) Migraine
c) Antiepileptic
d) Parkinsonism
5- chronic life long disorder characterized by recurrent seizures or convulsion
a) Epilepsy
b) Psychosis
c) Narcotics
d) CNS stimulant
6- violent involuntary contraction or series of contraction of the voluntary muscles
a) convulsion
b) Migraine
c) Depression
d) None of them
7- movement disorder characterized by muscle rigidity, tremors and postural instability
a) Hypnotic
b) Migraine
c) Antiepileptic
d) Parkinsonism
8- group of disorder with disturbance of mood ,thought ,and behavior
a) Depression
b) Psychosis
c) Both of them
d) None of them
9- disturbance of mood manifested by decrease self esteem decreased vitality and
Increased sadness
a) Depression
37
b) Psychosis
c) Both of them
d) None of them
10- drugs that produce drowsiness with analgesia they are usually addictive
a) Narcotic analgesics
b) antipsychotic
c) Both of them
d) None of them
11- agent when administered will mimic ( produce the same effect ) of adrenergic system
a) Sympathomimetic
b) Sympathetic agonist
c) Adrenomimetic
d) All of them
12- agent that block or interfere with sympathetic nervous system
a) Sympathomimetic
b) Sympatholytic
c) Sympathetic antagonist
d) Both b and c
13- agent when administered will mimic ( produce the same effect ) of parasympathetic
system
a) parasympathomimetic
b) parasympathetic agonist
c) cholinomimetic
d) All of them
14- agent that antagonize the parasympathetic action
a) parasympathomimetic
b) parasympatholytic
c) parasympathetic antagonist
d) both b and c
15- drug stimulate both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia
a) ganglion stimulators
b) ganglion blocker
c) both of them
d) None of them
16- drug block both sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia
a) ganglion stimulators
b) ganglion blockers
c) both of them
d) None of them
17- agent that reduce skeletal muscle tone
a) Sympathomimetic
b) parasympathomimetic
c) skeletal muscle relaxant
d) All of the above
38
18- nitrous oxide , halothane
b) Local anesthesia
c) Inhalation anesthesia
d) Both a and c
19- thiopental , ketamine
b) Local anesthesia
c) Intravenous anesthesia
a) Both a and c
20- Lidocaine
b) Local anesthesia
c) Inhalation anesthesia
d) Both a and c
21- Phenobarbital
a) Sedative
b) Hypnotic
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
22- diazepam
a) Barbiturate
b) Benzodiazepine
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
23- valproic acid, carbamazepine is
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
d) Narcotic analgesic
24- levodopa
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
d) None of them
25- drugs chlorpromazine , haloperidol is belong to
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
26- clozapine , olanzapine
a) Typical Antipsychotic
b) Atypical Antipsychotic
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
39
27- Fluoxetine , imipramine
a) Antiepileptic
b) Antipsychotic
c) Antidepressant
28- amphetamine
a) CNS stimulant
b) Used in migraine
c) Narcotic analgesic
d) A&B
29- morphine
a) Analgesic
b) Central Antitussive
c) Control diarrhea
d) All of them
30- codeine
a) Analgesic
c) Control diarrhea
d) All of them
31- diphenoxylate and Loperamide ……………….
a) Analgesic
c) Control diarrhea
d) All of them
32- ergotamine , sumatriptan
a) CNS stimulant
b) Used in migraine
c) Narcotic analgesic
d) A&B
33- cocaine , benzocaine
a) Topical local anesthesia
b) Local injection local anesthesia
c) Both topical and local injection local anesthesia
d) None of the above
34- bupivacaine , mepivacaine
a) Topical local anesthesia
b) Local injection local anesthesia
c) Both topical and local injection local anesthesia
35- Fluoxetine
a) SSRI
b) TCA
c) MAOI
40
36- imipramine
a) SSRI
b) TCA
c) MAOI
37- in case of overdose of warfarin it can antagonize by
a) Aspirin
b) Vitamin K I.V
c) Thiazide diuretic
d) Paracetamol
38- peptic ulcer drug don’t include …………..
a) Rantidine
b) Proton pump inhibitor
c) Glycerin
d) Omeprazole
39- drug used to eradicate helicobacter pylori bacteria …………….
a) Diazepam
b) Clarithromycin & amoxicillin
c) Dapson
d) All of the above
40- oral rehydration solution used frequently because
a) Has many side effect
b) Difficult to use
c) Replace water and mineral
d) All of the above
41- cimitidine has all except :
a) Used in gastric ulcer
b) H2 receptor antagonist
c) No side effect
d) All of the above
42- Omeprazole is
a) Used in gastric ulcer
b) Laxative drug
c) Antifungal drug
d) All of the above
43- the most important use of H1 receptor antagonist are
a) Headache
b) Vertigo
c) Constipation
d) All of the above
44- which of the following drug used in gastric ulcer
a) Cimitidine
b) Omeprazole
c) Rantidine
d) All of the above
41
45- bulk forming laxative …………….
a) Bran
b) Methylcellulose
c) Castor oil
d) A and B
46- drug used in treatment of Hyperlipidemia
a) Simvastatin
b) Verapamil
c) A and B
47- adsorbent antidiarrheal drug
a) Kaolin
b) Metoclopramide
c) Cisapride
d) All of the above
48- agent that induce vomiting include
a) Ipecac
b) Amoxil
c) Indomethacin
d) Paracetamol
49- antidote in excessive bleeding is
a) Tranxamic acid
b) Metronidazole
c) Rifampin
d) All of the above
50- used as antidiarrheal drug
a) Aspirin
b) Loperamide
c) Tofranil
d) All of the above
51- which of the following cause black staining of stool
a) Ferrous sulfate
b) Nitroprusside
c) Heparin
d) Dipyridamole
52- ……………….. of iron is the cause of iron deficiency anemia
a) ↓ intake
b) ↑ requirement
c) ↓ absorption
d) All of the above
53- lack of gastric intrinsic factor result in……………..
a) Iron deficiency anemia
b) Folic acid deficiency anemia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Megaloblastic anemia
42
54- Iron deficiency anemia may occur with
a) Pregnancy
b) Excess tannic acid
c) Bleeding
d) All of them
55- which of the following inhibit development of clotting
a) Heparin
b) Quinidine
c) Nitroglycerin
d) Methyldopa
56- all of them increase action of warfarin except
a) Vitamin K
b) Aspirin
c) Metronidazole
d) Sulfonamide
57- which of them consider Fibrinolytic inhibitor ( antifibrinolytic )
a) Enoxparin
b) Tranexamic acid
c) Aminocaproic
d) B and C
58- folic acid deficiency due to all of them …. Except
a) Lactation
b) Lack of vegetable
c) Lack of gastric intrinsic factor
d) Methotrexate
59- which of the following cause black staining of tongue, stool
a) Aminocaproic acid
b) Bismuth subsalicylate
c) Triametrene
d) Naproxen
60- used to test gallbladder function for diagnostic purpose
a) Egg yolk
b) Cholecystokinin
c) MgSo4
d) All of them
61- laxative drug used for the following except
a) Constipation
b) Arrest bleeding
c) Drug, food poisoning
d) None of them
62- all of the following are dopamine receptor blocker except
a) Promethiazine
b) Droperidol
c) Domperidone
d) Piroxicam
43
63- emesis used in toxicity except
a) If patient ingested caustic substance
b) If patient ingested volatile hydrocarbon
c) If patient has CNS depression
d) All of them
64- ………….block CTZ so prevent emesis
a) Ondasetron
b) Triametrene
c) Oxicam
d) Acetaminophen
65- which of the following bind to bacterial toxin
a) Tannic acid
b) Loperamide
c) Kaolin
d) Cholestyramine
66- which of the following used for dissolving gallstone
a) ACEI
b) CDCA
c) UDCA
d) B and C
67- all of them used in gastric ulcer except
a) Famotidine
b) Pantoprazole
c) Misoprostol
d) Phenyl butazone
68- drugs which increase GIT motility called
a) Purgative
b) Diuretics
c) Prokinetics
d) Emetics
69- …………….. is proton pump inhibitor
a) Pantoprazole
b) Rantidine
c) Bismuth subsalicylate
d) Sucralfate
70- All factor affect drug absosbtion from GIT except

(a) Prescience of food
(b) Another drug
(c) The healthy state of intestinal wall
(d) Plasma binding protein
71- All are true about orall administeration of drug except
(a) Chance for treatment of toxicity if happen
(b) Easy way for administeration
44
(c) Suitable for emetic cases
(d) Low economy in compare other dosage form
72- IV characterized by …....except
(a) Moderate velocity
(b) Suitable for large volume of fluid
st
(c) Suitable for drug suffer from 1 metabolic effect
(d) Suitable for painful irritating drug
73- IM is Suitable for………… except
(a) Moderate volume of fluid
(b) painful irritating drug
(c) Anticoagulant
(d) Lipid soluble drug
74- Intradermal injection is Suitable for………… except
(a) Sensitivity test
(b) painful irritating drug
(c) Lipid soluble drug
(d) Implantation of small tablet under skin
75- Plasma binding protein (PBP) of drug lead to ……. except
(a) Increase t 1/2
(b) Compete similar drug for site of binding to PBP
(c) Compete drug with similar inherent substance for site of binding to PBP
(d) No medicinal use
76- Binding of drug to Plasma binding protein (PBP) of drug characterized by …....except
(a) Binding site is alpha glycoprotein
(b) Binding site gama Globulin
(c) Similar drug compete for site of binding to PBP
(d) It is reversible process
77- The aim of Drug metabolism is to convert the drug into
(a) More active substance
(b) Less toxic substance
(c) More effective substance
78- Drug metabolism include ……... except
(a) Oxidation reaction
(b) Less or none ionized substance
(c) Conjugation reaction
(d) Reduction reaction
79- Conjugation reaction for drug excretion will lead to
(a) Inactive substance
(b) More active substance
(c) Less active substance
(d) More toxic substance
45
80- Drug metabolism mainly occur in
(a) Kidney
(b) Colon
(c) Lung
(d) Liver
81- Drug excretion mainly occur in
(a) Kidney
(b) Colon
(c) Lung
(d) Sweat
82- Mechanism of excretion of drug through kidney occur through all of them except
(a) Drug reabsorption from renal tubule
(b) Pass of drug through kidney to urethra
(c) Filteration in boman capsule
(d) Execretion via career molcule
83- All consider parasympathomimetic except
(a) Atropine
(b) Carbacol
(c) Methacoline
(d) Bethanicol
84. All can be used for glaucoma except
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Carbacol
(c) Homatropine
(d) Pilocarpine
85. Urine retention can be treated by all of the following except
(a) Neostigmine
(b) Carbacol
(c) Dopamine
(d) Methacholine
86. Atropine can used for all of the following except
(a) Abdominal spasm
(b) Prostate enlargement
(c) Motion sickness
(d) Parkinsonism
87. Atropine side effects include all of the following except
(a) Tachycardia
(b) Dry mouth
(c) Increase secretion of saliva
(d) Mydriasis
88. One of the following drug used for treatment of breast cancer
(a) Tamoxifen
(b) Clomiphen
(c) Progestin
46
(d) Methionin
89. One of the following drug used for prostate cancer
(a) Medroxy progesterone
(b) ethenyl estradiol
(c) Testosterone
(d) Methionine
90. Which of the following drug used as anticoagulant both in vivo & vitro
(a) Heparin
(b) Warfarin
(c) Streptokinase
(d) None of them
47
Model exam 5
1-aetiology of iron deficiency anemia is
a) Decrease intake
b) Decrease absorption
c) Increase requirement
d) All of the above
2- megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency of
a) Vitamin B12
b) Folic acid
c) Both a or b
d) None of them
3- oral iron therapy should be in the form of …….
a) Ferrous form
b) Ferric form
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
4- Parenteral iron therapy include
a) Iron dextran complex
b) Iron sorbitol
c) Both a and b
d) None of them
5- antidote for iron toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
b) Protamine sulfate
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
6- antidote for warfarin toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
7- antidote for heparin toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
8- antidote for urokinase toxicity is
a) Desferroxamine
c) I.V vit K
d) Tranaxamic acid
9- heparin
a) Anticoagulant
48
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
10- urokinase
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
11- warfarin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
12- aspirin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
13-drugs which inhibit fibrinolysis by inhibit plasminogen activator
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
14- drugs which dissolve thrombus by formation fibrinolytic plasmin
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
15- drugs which inhibit development if clot
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
16- drugs which inhibit platelet aggregation
a) Anticoagulant
b) Antiplatelet
c) Fibrinolytic
d) Antifibrinolytic
17- Antiplatelet drugs include
a) Aspirin
b) Ticlopidine
c) Clopidogril
d) All of the above
49
18- omeprazole
a) H2 receptor antagonist
b) Proton pumb inhibitor
c) Antacid
d) Drugs protect mucosa
19- rantidine
c) Antacid
20- calcium carbonate
c) Antacid
21- sucralfate
c) Antacid
22- drugs that evacuate bowel is called
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
23- drugs that may prevent emesis
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
24- drugs that induce reflex vomiting
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
25- drugs used for relief painful biliary, colonic spasm
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
c) Purgative
d) antispasmodics
26- Ipecac
a) Emetic
b) Antiemetic
50
c) Purgative
d) Antispasmodics
27- phase of acid secretion in which acid secrete will decrease is
a) Cephalic phase
b) Gastric phase
c) Intestinal phase
d) A&B
28- phase of acid secretion in which acid secrete will increase is
a) Cephalic phase
b) Gastric phase
c) Intestinal phase
d) A&B
29- which antacid of the following cause diarrhea as side effect
a) Caco3
b) NaHco3
c) Mg salts
d) Al(OH)3
30- which antacid of the following caused alkalosis as adverse effects
a) Caco3
b) NaHco3
c) Mg salts
d) Al(OH)3
31- calcium carbonate antacid will cause ……………….
a) diarrhea
b) constipation
c) both of them
d) non of them
32- which of the following is proton pump inhibitor
a) Caco3
b) rantidine
c) lansoprazole
d) Al(OH)3
33- which of the following is H2 antagonists
a) Caco3
b) rantidine
c) lansoprazole
d) Al(OH)3
34- drug that protect mucosa include
a) Sucralfate
b) Omeprazole
c) Rantidine
d) All of the above
35- the most important oral anticoagulant
51
a) Warfarin
b) Rifampin
c) Rantidine
36- heparin is anticoagulant drug usually used by
a) S.C
b) I.V
c) A and B
37- in case of overdose of warfarin it can antagonize by
a) Aspirin
b) Vitamin K I.V
c) Thiazide diuretic
d) Paracetamol
52
Model exam 6
1-pharmacological effect of NSAIDs include

a)analgesic b)antipyretic
c) anti inflammatory d) all of the above
2- celecoxib
a) Non selective C-OX inhibitor b) selective C-OX-1 inhibitor
C) selective C-OX-2 inhibitor d) none of the above
3- rofecoxib
4- Ibuprofen
5- mefenamic acid
6-innflammatory arthritis due to deposition of uric acid crystal in joint
a) Angina b) arrhythmia
c) Gout d) C.H.F
7- condition in which cardiac output is less than body need
c) Gout d) C.H.F
8- abnormal heart beat
c) Gout d) C.H.F
9- acute chest pain occurs when coronary blood flow is inadequate to supply
The oxygen required by heart
c) Gout d) C.H.F
10-drug used in treat gout
a) Colichine b) allopurinol
c) probencid d) all of the them
11- fuorsemide belong to
a)Loop diuretic b) thiazide diuretic
c)K-sparing diuretic d)osmotic diuretic
12- chlorothiazide
13- spironolactone
14- mannitol
53
15- carbonic anhdrase inhibitor diuretic used in treatment glaucoma
a) fuorsemide b) chlorothiazide
c) amiloride d) acetazolamide
16- cardiac glycoside include
a) Digitoxin b) digoxin
c) ouabain d) all of them
17- route of elimination of digitoxin is
a) Renal b) hepatic
c) both of them d) none of them
18- route of elimination of digoxin is
a) Renal b) hepatic
c) both of them d) none of them
19- Class III antiarrthymic
a) Sodium channel blocker b) Beta blocker
c) Potassium channel blocker d)Calcium channel blocker
20- Class II antiarrthymic
21- Class IV antiarrthymic
22- Class I antiarrthymic
23- quinidine
24- verapamil
25- amiodarone
26-antihypertensive drug safe in pregnancy
a) Methyl dopa b) reserpine
c)nitroprusside d) diltiazem
27- calcium channel blocker
a)Methyl dopa b) reserpine
c)nitroprusside d) diltiazem
28- captopril is belong to
a) Sympatholytic drug b) ACEIs
c)CCBs d)diuretic
29- prazocin is
a)Centrally acting α2 agonist b) adrenergic neuron blocker
c)α blocker d) β blocker
54
30- Propranolol is
a) Centrally acting α2 agonist b) adrenergic neuron blocker
c)α blocker d) β blocker
31- losartan
a) angiotensin receptor blocker b) diuretic
c) ACEIs d) CCBs
32- atenolol
a) Non selective β blocker b) selective β1 blocker
c) Non selective α blocker d) selective α1 blocker
33- which analgesic is safe during pregnancy
a) Aspirin b) paracetamol
c) celecoxib d) methyl dopa
34- allopurinol
a) Decrease uric acid synthesis b) increase uric acid excretion
c) increase uric acid synthesis d) Decrease uric acid excretion
35-dopamine is
a) Selective β2 agonist b) Selective α1 agonist
c)Selective β1 agonist d) Selective α2 agonist
36- simvastatin is used in treatment
c)hyper lipidemia d) hpertension
37-atrovastatin is belong to
a)Bile acid resin b) HMG-COA inhibitor
c)nicotinic acid derivative d) fibrates
38- condition of high level of cholesterol triglyceride lipoprotein is called
a)Angina b) arrhythmia
c)hyper lipidemia d) hypertension
39- chlorothiazide cause the following side effects except:
a) Hypokalemia b) hyponatermia
c)hypomagnesmia d) ototoxicity
40- the action of probencid is antagonized by:
a)phenyl butazone b) aspirin
c) colichicine d) diclofenac
41- which of the following used in treatment of glaucoma:
a) mannitol b) acetazolamide
c)spironolactone d) a+b
42- thiazide diuretic has the following side effects except:
a) hypokalemia b) hyponatermia
c)hypomagnesmia d) none of the above
43- ethacrynic acid cause the following side effects:
a) hypokalemia b) ototoxicity
c)hypocalcemia d) all of the above
44- which of the following used in treatment of hypertension
a) triametrene b) Hydrochlorothiazide
c) ethacrynic acid d) all of the above
55
45 - which of the following drug has anti-androgenic effect
a) spironolactone b) ammonium chloride
c) chlorothiazide d) furesemide
46- which of the following drugs prolong duration of action potential:
a) quinidine b) digoxine
c)sulindac d) none of the above
47- which of the following increase the action potential duration:
a)amiodarone b)ecainamide
c)Quinidine d)a+c
48- diuretic drugs include
a) furesemide b) adrenaline
b) atropine selphate d) aspirin
49 - pharmacological effect of NSAIDs include
a)analgesic b)antipyretic
c) anti inflammatory d) all of the above
50 - the most important adverse effect of aspirin include
a) gastrointestinal irritation b) bleeding tendency
c) a+ b d) none of the above
51- in management of paracetamol over dose we can use
a) n-acetyl cyctine b) brufen
c) minoxidil d) atropine
52 - drug used during acute attack of gout
a) Colichine b) indomethacine
c) probencid d) all of the above
53 - the most important NSAIDs used during pregnancy
a) Paracetamol b) indomethacine
c)Diflunisal d) all of the above
54 - all of the following are adverse effect of ACE inhibitor as (captopril) Except
a)Cough b)eye disturbance
c)taste change d)all of the above
55 - drugs used as thiazide diuretic
a)chlorothiazide b)Hydrochlorothiazide
c)A+b d)none of the above
56- condition in which cardiac output is less than body need is
a) congestive heart failure (C.H.F) b) arrhythmia
c) Angina d) none of them
57- paracetamol is
a) Analgesic b) antipyretic c) anti-inflamatory
d)both a+b e) all of the above
58- mannitol
a) Decrease intracranial pressure b) decrease intraocular pressure
c)treatment glaucoma d) all of the above
59- ………. Study of drug and the way they interact with living system
(a)Pharmacology (b) clinical Pharmacology
(c) Drug (d) Therapeutic
56
60 - ……….the exact description of chemical structure of drug
(a) Chemical name (b) Generic name
(c) Trade name (d) None of the above
61 - A drug may have different trade name but only one
(a) Generic name (b) Trade name
(c) both of them (d) None of them
62 - Thiopental is
(a) Inhalation anesthesia (b) I.V anesthesia
(c) Local anesthesia (d) None of the above
63 - Atenolol is
(a) Selective α1 agonist (b) Selective β1 agonist
(c) Selective α1 blocker (d) Selective β1 blocker
64 - Salbutamol is used for
(a) Congestive heart failure (b) Bronchial asthma
(c) Both of them (d) none of them
65- Inhalation anathesia is charachterized by
(a) Difficulet to control
(b) Used for short term maintenance operation
(c) Both of them (d) None of them
You find 20 ml vial of aminophylline with supply labeled 20mg/ml
66- How many mg in the vial
(a) 200mg (b) 400mg
(c) 600mg (d) 800mg
You find 20 ml vial of aminophylline with supply labeled 20mg/ml
67- How many ml must to be injected to supply patient with 100mg
(a) 6 ml (b)10 ml
(c)5 ml (d)20 ml
68- dekagram is equal
(A) 10 gram (B) 100 gram
(C) 1000 gram (D) None of the above
69- Deciliter is equal
(A) 10 liter (B) 100 liter
(C) 1000liter (D) none of the above
70 - Dilute avail of tetracycline for aqueous injection labeled 10000 I.U
To obtain dose of 5000 I.U using water for injection 10 ml
(a) 4 ml (b) 5 ml
(c) 6 ml (d) 7 ml
71 - Convert temperature of 50 F to C
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 30
72- Convert temperature of 5C to F
(a) 41 (b) 51
(c)31 (d) 21
73- which of the following belongs to I.V anesthesia
(a) thiopental (b) L-dopa
57
(c) Both of them (d) None of them
74- All of them are NOT inhelation anesthetic drugs, except
(a) Phenobarbital (b) Halothan
(c) Thiopental (d) Diazepam
put true or false for the following question

1- iron sorbitol is oral iron
( )
2- deficiency of folic acid cause pernicious anemia ( )
3- castor oil, senna are stimulant laxative ( )
4- liquid paraffin is irritant purgative ( )
5- heparin used during pregnancy ( )
6- in oral therapy should be in ferrous form ( )
7- Vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of gastric intrinsic factor ( )
result in pernicious anemia
8- Paracetamol inhibit both cox1 and cox2
( )
9- Digitoxin is eliminated by renal elimination ( )
10- Carbenoxolone has antiandrogenic effect ( )
11- C-OX 1 is constitutive form present in many normal tissue ( )

12- C-OX 2 is constitutive form present in many normal tissue ( )
13- C-OX 1 is inducible form produced at site of inflammation ( )
14- Parcetamol over dose antidote is N-acetyl cystiene ( )
15- Isosorbid dinitrate oral is used in treatment acute attack of
angina
16- Nitroglycerin is used as antihypertensive drug ( )
17- Guanthidine is antihypertensive of choice for pregnancy ( )
18- Nitrate tolerance develop with continuous exposure to nitrate ( )
Without interruption
19- heparin used as long term anticoagulant ( )
20- cimitidine has antiandrogenic effect ( )
21- Rantidine used to treat diarrhea ( )
22- peptic ulcer is a disease of respiratory centre ( )
23- castor oil is considered as lubricant purgative ( )
24- Antihyperlipidemic agent increase level of LDL ( )
25- Antihyperlipidemic agent increase level of HDL ( )
26- aspirin increase effect of anticoagulant ( )
27- spironolactone cause gynecomastia ( )
28- Example of NSAIDs is indomethacine ( )
58
Answer of Exam model 1
1- A 26- D 51- B 76- D

2- D 27- D 52- B 77- A
3- C 28- B 53- D 78- D
4- B 29- A 54- B 79- B
5- D 30- D 55- B 80- A
6- D 31- C 56- D 81- B
7- C 32- D 57- D 82- C
8- D 33- D 58- D 83- C
9- A 34- D 59- D 84- D
10- D 35- D 60- A 85- D
11- D 36- C 61- C 86- C
12- A 37- D 62- C 87- C
13- D 38- A 63- D 88- D
14- C 39- B 64- B 89- D
15- B 40- B 65- C 90- C
16- D 41- C 66- A 91- C
17- A 42- A 67- C 92- A
18- D 43- D 68- D 93- D
19- A 44- A 69- D 94- B
20- D 45- C 70- B 95- D
21- C 46- D 71- B 96- D
22- B 47- D 72- D 97- A
23- D 48- D 73- D 98- D
24- D 49- C 74- D 99- C
25- D 50- A 75- B 100- D
1- C 26- D 51- D 76- C

2- B 27- D 52- B 77- D
3- D 28- D 53- c 78- D
4- B 29- B 54- D 79- D
5- A 30- A 55- A 80- D
6- D 31- C 56- C 81- D
7- B 32- B 57- B 82- D
8- A 33- D 58- D 83- D
9- D 34- D 59- D 84- C
10- D 35- D 60- C 85- A
11- D 36- A 61- B 86- D
12- C 37- C 62- C 87- D
13- D 38- B 63- D 88- A
14- A 39- C 64- B 89- B
15- D 40- A 65- D 90- D
16- D 41- B 66- C 91- D
17- D 42- B 67- C 92- D
18- A 43- C 68- A 93- D
19- A 44- C 69- A 94- C
20- D 45- D 70- A 95- D
21- D 46- D 71- D 96- B
22- C 47- B 72- D 97- D
23- B 48- B 73- A 98- A
24- D 49- D 74- C 99- D
25- C 50- C 75- D 100- C
1- C 26- D 51- C 76- D

2- B 27- D 52- D 77- D
3- D 28- D 53- A 78- D
4- A 29- C 54- C 79- D
5- D 30- B 55- D 80- A
6- C 31- C 56- C 81- D
7- C 32- A 57- D 82- D
8- D 33- D 58- B 83- D
9- D 34- C 59- C 84- D
10- B 35- D 60- D 85- D
11- B 36- B 61- A 86- D
12- C 37- D 62- A 87- D
13- A 38- B 63- B 88- D
14- D 39- A 64- D 89- D
15- D 40- D 65- A 90- A
16- D 41- D 66- A 91- C
17- B 42- D 67- D 92- B
18- A 43- C 68- B 93- D
19- D 44- C 69- A 94- D
20- C 45- B 70- C 95- D
21- D 46- C 71- D 96- B
22- D 47- D 72- B 97- D
23- B 48- C 73- C 98- D
24- D 49- A 74- D 99- C
25- A 50- C 75- C 100- A
1- C 26- B 51- A 76- A

2- C 27- C 52- D 77- B
3- C 28- A 53- C 78- B
4- A 29- D 54- D 79- A
5- A 30- B 55- A 80- D
6- A 31- C 56- A 81- A
7- D 32- B 57- D 82- A
8- B 33- A 58- C 83- A
9- A 34- B 59- B 84- C
10- A 35- A 60- D 85- C
11- D 36- B 61- B 86- B
12- D 37- B 62- D 87- C
13- D 38- C 63- D 88- A
14- D 39- B 64- A 89- C
15- A 40- C 65- C 90- A
16- B 41- C 66- D 91-
17- C 42- A 67- D 92-
18- A 43- B 68- C 93-
19- A 44- D 69- A 94-
20- B 45- D 70- D 95-
21- C 46- A 71- C 96-
22- B 47- A 72- A 97-
23- A 48- A 73- B 98-
24- D 49- A 74- B 99-
25- B 50- B 75- A 100-
1- D 26- A 51- 76-

2- C 27- C 52- 77-
3- A 28- D 53- 78-
4- C 29- C 54- 79-
5- A 30- B 55- 80-
6- C 31- B 56- 81-
7- B 32- C 57- 82-
8- D 33- B 58- 83-
9- A 34- A 59- 84-
10- C 35- A 60- 85-
11- A 36- A 61- 86-
12- B 37- B 62- 87-
13- D 38- 63- 88-
14- C 39- 64- 89-
15- A 40- 65- 90-
16- B 41- 66- 91-
17- D 42- 67- 92-
18- B 43- 68- 93-
19- A 44- 69- 94-
20- C 45- 70- 95-
21- D 46- 71- 96-
22- C 47- 72- 97-
23- B 48- 73- 98-
24- A 49- 74- 99-
25- D 50- 75- 100-
1- D 26- A 51- A 1- ×
2- C 27- D 52- D 2- ×
3- C 28- B 53- A 3- √
4- A 29- C 54- B 4- ×
5- A 30- D 55- C 5- √
6- C 31- A 56- A 6- √
7- D 32- B 57- D 7- √
8- B 33- B 58- D 8- √
9- A 34- A 59- A 9- ×
10- D 35- C 60- A 10- √
11- A 36- C 61- A 11- √
12- B 37- B 62- B 12- ×
13- C 38- C 63- D 13- ×
14- D 39- D 64- B 14- √
15- D 40- A 65- D 15- ×
16- D 41- D 66- B 16- ×
17- B 42- D 67- C 17- ×
18- A 43- D 68- D 18- √
19- C 44- D 69- D 19- √
20- B 45- A 70- B 20- √
21- D 46- A 71- A 21- ×
22- A 47- D 72- A 22- ×
23- A 48- A 73- A 23- ×
24- D 49- D 74- B 24- ×
25- C 50- C 75- 25- √
26- √
27- √
28- √

مراجعة+شا... pdf PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

مراجعة+شا... pdf PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

‫ﻣﻘـــــــــــــــــــــﺪﻣﺔ‬

‫وﻻ أﻧﺴﻰ أن أﺷﻜﺮ‬

‫ھﺬا وﺑﺎﷲ اﻟﺘﻮﻓﯿﻖ‪،،،،،،،،،،‬‬

‫د ‪ /‬ﻣﺤـــﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿـــﺪ ﺣﺒﯿــــﺐ‬

‫ﻟﺤﺴﺎب اﻟﺠﺮﻋﺔ اﻟﺪواﺋﯿﺔ ﻓﻲ أي ﻣﺴﺄﻟﺔ ﯾﻤﻜﻦ إﺗﺒﺎع اﻟﺨﻄﻮات اﻟﺘﺎﻟﯿﺔ‬

10 mg = ? mg ‫ اﻧﻈﺮ أﯾﻦ اﻟﺴﺆال وﺿﻊ ﻋﻼﻣﺔ اﺳﺘﻔﮭﺎم ﻓﻲ اﻟﻤﻜﺎن اﻟﻤﻄﻠﻮب‬-٤

1 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

2 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

There are three names of drug

Drug drug interaction:

3 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

4 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

5 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Classification Inhalation anesthesia Intravenous anesthesia

6 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Parkinsonism is movement disorder characterized by muscle rigidity and postural instability

disorder of mood is characterized by decreased self esteem and increased sadness

7 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

‫ﯾﺘﺤﻜﻢ اﻟﺠﮭﺎز اﻟﻌﺼﺒﻲ اﻟﻼإرادي ﻓﻲ ﻛﻞ اﻟﻮﻇﺎﺋﻒ اﻟﻼإرادﯾﺔ وﻣﺠﺎزا ھﻲ ﻛﻞ اﻷﻋﻀﺎء اﻟﺪاﺧﻠﯿﺔ‬

• sympathetic nervous system (S.)

8 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Any drug act on sympathetic system

Site Receptor Drug agonist Drug

9 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Skeletal muscle relaxant

Drug affecting respiratory system

10 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Selective cox-2 inhibitors

‫ﺗﺄﺧﺬ ﺟﻤﯿﻊ اﻟﻤﺴﻜﻨﺎت ﺑﻌﺪ اﻷﻛﻞ أو ﺑﻜﻤﯿﺎت ﻣﯿﺎه ﻛﺒﯿﺮة‬

11 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

٢٩/١٢/١٤٢٩ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬ ٢٨

12 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Classification Example Mechanism Uses Adverse effect

Congestive heart failure (C.H.F)

13 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Classification mechanism drug Action

• 120/80 or lower is normal blood pressure

1. Direct acting vasodilator

1- Direct acting vasodilator

drug mechanism indication Side effects

Minoxidel arteriolar dilatation Moderate HTN tachycardia

Nitroprusside Veno-arteriolar dilatation HTN emergency tachycardia

15 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Clonidine α2 agonist Moderate HTN Sedation, rebound hypertension

methyl dopa (aldomet®) D.O.C drug of choice in pregnancy ,

3- Adrenergic neuron blocker

guanithidine Inhibit NE release HTN Orthostatic hypotension

4- Alpha adrenoreceptor blocking drugs

terazocin Alpha (α1) blocker HTN Orthostatic hypotension

doxazocin Alpha (α1) blocker HTN Orthostatic hypotension

Alpha (α1) blocker used also in benign prostate hyperplasia (BPH)

5- Beta (β) blocker

Note propranolol is contraindicated with asthmatic patient

16 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

drug Mechanism indication Side effects

Angiotensin receptor (AT-1) blocker

17 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

Drug mechanism Indication Side effects

Coronary heart disease is one of the major cause of the death

Class LDL HDL Triglyceride Drug S.E

reductase inhibitor Atorvastatin

18 ‫ﺻﻔﺤﺔ‬ ‫ ﻣﺤﻤﻮد ﺳﻌﯿﺪ ﺣﺒﯿﺐ‬/ ‫د‬

• Iron is required for haemoglobin production