PRE-2025 TEST (1-3)nan DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO UPPCS PRE TEST SERIES 2023 sookter series TEST BOOKLET ar ely Mare stipr) Test - 01 (Full Test) Time Allowed : 2:00 Hours GENERAL STUDIES Maximum Marks : 200 10. aaa utter urea a & Get ae, aa ga afta aftsar at wears arava ae fie sat aig fat om, wet aT aT EM TS steray yest ane a ale art, at ga et whan feat & acer citfray IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK ‘THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC., IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. satura # ait wars witaor oferta SeGeH A, B,C at D aanftafe ane wa a aay aif ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. Ba whan after oe are H fre me ater H are are argent fear 1 after evar we ate RE 3 fra ‘You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. a tiem yer F 150 wet (wea) feu Zz «4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items ets wen feet sik stint ci toa 21 (questions). Bach question is printed both Basia Pe in Hindi and English. SIV aT Ba META se S AREAL TAAF FE §, You have to mark all your responses ONLY Wt afea eel #1 e-wae 4B feo om freer Afar ‘on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet. All items carry equal marks. saa We fF ae wien yaaa S fairs wate? © 7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer SOR TRE T athee aM YE FE, ae Sheet the response to various items A in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in WAU Hae H ae fea STA H ATEN GS some particulars in the Answer Sheet as fram savas He per instructions sent to you with your am aut wh apd hone td tae admission certificate. i 8. After you have completed filling in all ven when a aa dare Swe aay i bell your responses on the Answer Sheet and ate Si areal ore ar wa gfe TA ST examination has concluded, you should awh wedi & ais ar fi . orgafa #1 hand over only Answer Sheet to the eee Invigilator. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet. a 9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the wo ee Test Booklet at the end. a ~ 10. There will be one-third negative marking for a wrong answers, DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SOAt present the percentage of employment generation in the primary sector is- (a) 40% (b) 46% (J 55% (a) 58% Gutenberg disambiguation separates what? (a) Upper crust and lower crust (b) Lower crust and mantle (Inner innermost and outer inner- most (2) Outer innermost and mantle The average density of the earth is found to be- (@) 13 (bjs @ 33 @ 5.5 San Andreas fault represents which of the following? (a) Benioff Zone (b) Phonetic edge of plate (6) Destructive edge of plate (a) Protective edge of plate. Assertion (A) : In India, the seismic zone of high intensity is located in'the Himalayan region. Reason (R) : Theré are ridges of longitudinal reversal in the Himalayan region. Code: (a) Both A and R are correct atid Ris the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and T are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A. (4 Ais correct but Ris wrong, (4) Ais wrong, but R is correct. Stalactites is a topography of- (a) Glacial landscape (b) River landscape (9. Aeolian landscape (4) Karst landscape Which one of the following is correct in increasing order of percentage of atmospheric gases? (a) Helium, Xenon, CO, and Argon (6) Xenon, Helium, CO, and Argon (9. Helium, CO,, Xenon, Argon (4) Xenon, CO,, Helium and Argon 10. Te 12. The description of ‘Green House Effect! was given for the first time by- (a) Jamon Hutton (b) Roland () Joseph Fourier (@) Molina Which of the following is the correct sequence of layers of the atmosphere? (a) Troposphere, mesosphere, strato- sphere, thermosphere (b) Troposphere, mesosphere, thermo- sphere, stratosphere (>, Troposphere, stratosphere, meso- sphere, thermosphere (4) Troposphere, thermosphere, meso- sphere, stratosphere Photosynthesis is a multiple process by which- (a) Radiation energy is converted into chemical energy. (b)Radiation’energy is converted into thermal energy. ()__ Radiation energy iS.converted into bio energy. (a) Radiation energy is converted into geothermal energy. Doldrum is found in which pressure belt? (a) Equatorial low pressure (b) Subtropical high pressure () Subpolar low pressure (@) Polar high pressure Which of the following statement is not true? (a) Thecontinental shelfis a submerged extension of the continent. (b) The continental shelf is made of granite. (c) The continental shelfis a part of the continent, (@) The widest continental shelf is fixed in the Atlantic Ocean. UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 2Ce wferert 8 (a) 40% (b) 46% (55% (a) 58% 2 ygeret orerecarer fr overt ac 8? (a) Bae wre ok fraen we (ob) fracn wre atte Heat (c) steer arc fhe aren acres (@) wer ora atte Feat 3. yeah am after eee freer ora wie 8? (a) 143 414 ( 33 (@ 55 4. Ba Ugere ser Pepa @ fearon, etre 82 (a) aie aa (bo) Se ar saat Per (Se ar Reena Pare (Se a ae ear 5. Were (A): ae A wea Tea Bee. Rae fears aa # fers 8 RUT (R): Rare da ¥ Sate Goma a Farag 81 ame: @ AsitR dd wi gakea dw IR HRA BL ®) AckRo Wet RA a wel aren él RITA ( Awe’, WER THe (@) ATad% WIR wea 6 aac ww wanpft (a) earth yger a (aaa ages (© ARS eB @ we EH 7. agnescha tei @ sitet od asd wa A frafeifteer H @ ata wel 2? (a) fife, sis, co, yd sitfa () SIF, Afra, co, ve sith () @feraa, co,, st, sift (@) tH, co, Oar w sith 8 Om eee wad or vert aR fear fear ara ar (a) SPR eeea ent (b) Tees aRT (c) Ge wife gRT (4) aiferat arr Prfafad 4 a ot agvsa GT wed oT wel siya 2? (a) uRadtHvse, HEMET, WHATS, aIrTSat b) —aRatresa, FePES, TST, rs () wRadHvse, WHATS, HEMSA, Isat (@ aRafeesa, asa, versa, erase rover igi ag—aftvar & fore eT (a) Afeeor Gul era wot ¥ oRafelar are | tb) fafexor Gut ara wat Haat eter a1 (o)-fafryor grat cia Sat ¥ oRateia eet er (4) Patera wrt yams grat A ota ah 81 ‘Srage fara ara vedt H orn oer 8? (a) PAgerttar Fe era (o) Sher gear ae () Sagat Fe ara (d) gata sea ara fre i ota werd wer wet 8? (a) Herter arte Herey war Bar far 21 (b) -Ferétta wae ange S fafa Fh (c) Merete Hace aes oT ve ATT B1 (@) wae sire aga wera wre sectifew wera H Ree B1 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 313. 14. 15. 16. Match List-I with List-II- List-I List-II (Name of the (Name of the river) reservoir at the mouth) A. Orinico 1. Gulfof Guinea B. Niger 2. Pacific Ocean c. Volga 3. Atlantic Ocean D. Amur 4. Caspian Sea Code ALEo eG aD) ae see o 2 1 4 3 (stag @ 3 2 1 4 Assertion (A) : Rural-urban migration is the most important feature of the demographic development of India. Reason (R) : Poverty is the main reason for migration from villages. Code: (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation Of A. (c)_ Ais correct but R is wrong, (4) Ais wrong, but R is correct. Match List-I with List-Il- Rock style Rock group A. Archean 1. Ordovician B. Purana 2. Gondwana C. Dravidian 3. Dhattwad D. Aryan 4. Vindhyan Code: Narva ior) loreal 2 (Gjsetssehaaoenes (dea ser @ 2 1 4 3 Which one of the following sequence of distribution of tribes of India from east to west is correct- (a) Santhal - Bhil - Gond - Naga (b) Naga - Santhal - Gond - Bhil (4) Santhal - Gond - Bhil - Naga (@) Naga - Gond - Santhal - Bhil 17. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (a) Visakhapatnam - Shipbuilding (b) Pinjore - Machine Tool ()_ Bhadravati - Iron and Steel (4) Titagarh - Railway Equipment 18, Assertion (A) : Fertility transition has been rapid in India. Reason (R) slow in India. Code’ (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A. (6) Both A and T are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A. ()_ Ais correct but R is wrong. (4)__A is wrong, but R is correct. Literacy transition has been 19. With reference to the Government of India Act 1919, consider the following statements 1. The,Viceroy at this time was Mon- tesquieu. 2. Under this Act the office of the High Commissioner of India was created in London. Which of the above is/aré.not correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only2 (o> Both. rand 2 (4)_-Neither 1, nor 2 20. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer: List-I List-II A. Balwant Rai 1, Two-tier method Mehta B. Ashok Mehta 2. C. LMSinghvi 3. ‘Three-tiermethod Improvements in the way of repre- sentation D. GVKRao 4. Local self-govern- ment system Code: A BC D (alternates (403 a1 (eae eds (Qjteoeaieien2 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 4ya oF en 8 gAfers sfse— 17. it iar (ral wr ara) A. SiRPrer 1. BL ATEU® 2 c. dem 3 D. oR 4 Re & eonas B 3 1 1 2 a eean aN eng ‘pore (A): UrAtOr—arre LOTT aT &. orifeata fleprr Ht war wecaypt fer 1 RT (R) Tid SITAR wT PT BT antral 1 e ae fa) AS R oH wé 2 ster, Aw ae SIREN BRAT | (o>) A@RR SH até wg Raw Wel GET AE BAT SL () Awe 8, WY R Ta By (d) A Tad TY R Wee! Prey 4 @ eter wel yates wel 8? (a) fare — Sera Prater (o) fist — ARs site () ara — ote wd gerd (q Gene — tad sae wert (A): ART oT ore da de wer 2] ROT (RY: RA BT TRA sw AT VET BL ae (a) Asie R SH dl 8 ok RAH ET AREA BRA B | (b) A oR R Ut wa TYR, A TT wel Gren 7 oar 81 (c) Awaz, Tey R Tad 2) (QA Tea @, WEY R WE eI aNd we sfafay 1919 b, weed A Prefered merit oe free atfeig— joo BH THT arereTy Heery ay 2 ee SRG S det ret Tao Farge 3 orafaa or yor Prat rar sudan 4 8 tte /a-wel ei 8/8? (a) Saat 1. qi a ale gata a IST ri () Late-2 eri q on) . (tacia) i) vara aa BW 2. aissaret 20 AH oie BA 11 By Ae wet ET AT c. afafgar 3. aes. way oT TET SHY: D. ania 4. Rear a har me AL wade wa feet 4. fear weft ABCD B. ote ten 2. Pera vet @ 3412 C. Wau fred, ofA B i a 3 ate 4 gee OG 4s a4 D. Aaa we 4. era TT @21438 vale 16. aR BH orTona } Aare ar Aer A a een ara wr IRE @ Ufa a aie we 2? (dare — aha — ais — arr Cee () aM dara — ais — ta Oe ee (9 dara — ate — ata — aT (Osea (@) aim — wie — were — afar Ce UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B_ YE Page No. 521 22. 23. 24. 25. The principle that all persons are fully and equally human is known- (a) Universality (b) Collectivism (9 Socialism (a) Interactionism, In which of the following cases did the ‘Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution? (a) Union of India vs. Dr. Kohli () Banarasi Das Vs State of Uttar Pradesh ()_ Malak Singh vs State of Punjab (4) Bomai vs Union of India Match List-I with List-I and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists. List-I List-I Political Party ‘Year of Formation A. CPI 1. 1972 B. CPM 2. 1920 c. AIADMK 3, 91964 D. Telugu Desams 4. 1982 Code: A OB Ageip () 2 /3 fates ® 3 /2 Gag @ 1/2 Ye @ 441 Se Consider the following statements« With reference to the Constitution of India, with respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy- 1. _ Restrict the functions of the legisla- ture. 2. — Restrict the functions of the execu- tive. Which of the above statements is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only 2 (Both I and 2 (4) Neither 1, nor 2 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists. List List-IT Subject Article A. Constitution of 1. Article-79 Parliament B. Structure of 2. Article-80 Rajya Sabha C. Structure of 3. Article-81 Lok Sabha D. Sessions, prorogation 4. Article-85 and dissolution of Parliament Code: A Bc D Grd 2a 4 ® 432 1 ) Oaea eae @ 2 1 4 3 26. The constitutional protection enjoyed by civil servants has been ensured by which one of the following articles? (a) Article-310 (b) Article-311 () Articte-312 (@)“Article-317 27. Which articlés are related to the discretionary powers of the Governor? 1. Afticle-163(1) 2. Article-239(2) 3. Article-356 4oe Article-371 Code: (@) Only 1 and 2 fb) Only 2 (co) © Only 2/3 and 4 @ 1,2,3and4 28. If-an apple is feleased from a spacecraft which is orbiting, then (a) Iewill fall towards the earth. (b) _ Itwill move along with the spacecraft at the same speed. ()__ It will be moving at low speed. (d) It will be moving at a higher speed. 29. Which of the following is in the correctly matched order? A. Radium 1, Alexander Fleming B. Penicillin 2. Madame Curie Cc. X-Ray 3. Edward Jenner D. Smallpox 4. W.K. Roentgen Code: A BC D (2 ae (eo aed (aeaeaaa (ata eos UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 624 22, 23, 24, at afta woe: otk war wo a ara @, ae fai GT are 8 (a) wreeitrear (b) wafteare ()-warrnrg (a) aeBearare frraferttad #8 feos are Y wearers sarees 3 aren mega @, f& setrer Biter oT ‘art 8? (a) afr site gfe aa St. wrest (are ae Gt Re site oa wee () Herp Re ware ee sifwe ora (deg wre afta site sfsar SH a qin 8 wea Afiy ae afi & an Ra wa ae Swe oe OT wert @ifory | at- qa (erate ) Fifth (Seventh (4) Ninth By which constitutional amendment the Tight to. property was removed from the category of firndamental right? (a) By 42nd constitutional amendment ()__ By 44th constitutional amendment (| By 48th constitutional amendment (a) None of the above In which of the following articles the duties of the Chief Minister are described? (a) Article-163 (b) > Article-164 (cq) Article-166 (a) Article-167 Elections to the State Legislative Assemblies in India are conducted by? (a), By the president (b)-By the Election Commission of India (4 By state election commission (4) By the governor Which constitutional amendment reaffirmed the right of the Lok Sabha to amend any part of the constitution? (a) 24th Constitutional Amendment (b) 39th Constitutional Amendment ()_ 42nd Constitutional Amendment (@) 44th Constitutional Amendment Which part of the constitution directs the state to establish Panchayati Raj institutions in the country? (a) Preamble (b) Directive Principles of State Policy ( Part-3 (a) __None of these UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B QE Page No. 1252, 53, 54 56, 56, 87, 58, Presto a gatera wre A. Fifer oiftrere 1. STARS B. fe freee frei 2. oie Cc. aTaTeeTet 3, faea D. Sf ware 4. oT ae: A BC D lajseauee Shaaouee (Gj codecs 2eaageee (ese (jee cueeliaaactes wea warrea & (be) 22 8 wae waft ate da aT oa rT (Wears wae rere aga ee sooner garg a wir art at erag wen 81 @) eae ag ae ash at Ry wa ard fate agent ar Prater fees get fee cet &?. (a) Wag (ob) Prise wa Werenar vera (weet (fa srr SRE ERI APTA wrt AIT saa 8 aa & | gee siete Afereht shy srst ary ‘wa wilt BT Tg?. (@) 1992 (b) 1967 (©) 2004 (a) water 4 8 ag at sarees ree Parererey wer B= (a) Saat afew arene (by Seer Gere -ararktrere () Saat snttetra erento (a wagaa wit weary arenes Barre et Aer, wT apres par aren = (a) are HY ef A ) Wee ge (6) (a) atte (b) Tat (@) orth AS ate ae ufriser ot Per 8 @ fererar fieare Gt By we gether Gar eta 2? (a)_ safer 60. 61 62, 63, (by Baral @T () Sar oT (d@) 0 Stare yd we ct aT ana & eta Hh Ree op a ART roa # orga Sait db werera afte Preiser & fig Pas wade 8 (a) aa (b) tte (o) Wie (a tat fe after dates err daft Fifa wl afer siftrore A Ah wera ara? (a), 429 -Widare debe arer (b) 4s itera debe are (c) 40d Bart Saher ET (@ Sree 4 a we a Per a a fire ogede 4 gent } aah aor aula 8? fa) iqee—163 (bp SaBq—164 {c) . Hyese=166 (@). ayBe—167 area A aise Reread gare Pre BRL rather fay ser &? (ay seater (op) RL Ba reher ere (area ob gare omer ever (4) wera Err fra dftert deter A citer o aaa & ford fh arr or esha ae S afore at ge a? (a) 26a Sifters eater (bo) 39a1 fer wisiter (c) 4zai efter aieitert (4) aaet efter Water efter or ora aT wer at tr A darn asa wens GT wT ae aT free ear 2? (a) were (by Woa & sie Pree oe () ars (a eae aig ae UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 1365. 66. 7. The correct statement regarding Uttar Pradesh Mathrubhumi Yojana is/are- 1, Itdeals with the development of rural infrastructure. 2. Its objective is to make common man a participant in the develop- ment works of the state. The state will bear 50% of the total cost of the project while the remaining 50% will be contributed by the interested people, 3. It related to the development of in- frastructure of entire Uttar Pradesh. 4. It related to farmers to increase the yield in their fields, Code: (a) Only 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2 ( Only3 (a) Only 4 The budget size of Uttar Pradesh for the financial year 2022-23 is Rs.6,15,518.97 crore. Which of the following statements regarding budget is/are correct? 1, This is the biggest budget of the state till date. 2. It was presented by the Minister of. Parliamentary Affairs and Finance Suresh Khanna on May 26, 2022 3. The fiscal deficit for the year 2022-23 is estimated at 3.96 per cent of GDP. 4. New schemes Worth Rs,39,181.10 crore have been included in the budget. Code: (a) Land3 (b) 2and4 () 1,2and4 (a) 1,2,3, 4all Under the Bhagyalakshmi scheme launched by the Uttar Pradesh government, there is a provision to give how much amount to the mother and daughter on the birth of a daughter? (a) 2100 rupees to mother and 25 thou- sand rupees to daughter (b) 25 thousand rupees to mother and 2100 rupees to daughter (6) 50 thousand rupees to daughter and 5100 rupees to mother (4) 5100 rupees to daughter and 50 thousand rupees to mother 68. With reference to the theme of the 2022 International Day of Cooperatives, consider the following statements- 1, The theme of this year's Cooperative Day is "Cooperatives build a better world’. 2. India celebrated this Cooperative Day under the theme “Building a self-reliant India and a better world through cooperatives’. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (Both I and 2 (@) Neither 1 nor 2 69. With reference. to Jal Jeevan Mission, consider the following statements- 1, The target is to supply 55 liters of water per person per day to each rural household through functional household tap connections (FHTCs) by 2024. 2) The nodal ministry for this mission is the ‘Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs’. 3. Theifund sharing pattern between Center and State is 100% for Hima- laya and North-Easterit States and 50°: 50 for other States. In-2020, Goa became the first ‘Har Ghar Jal’ state in the country by successfully providing 100% FHTCs in rural areas. Code: (a) land4 (e) 2and3 () 1,3and4 (@ 1,2,3,4all 70. What is the estimated percentage of growth, in agriculture and allied sectors in 2021- 227 (a) 3.6% ) 3.9% () 4.2% (a) 4.9% 71. Who prepared the first estimate of national income for the country? (a) Central statistical organization (6) National Sample Survey Organiza- tion (9 P.C. Mahalanobis ()__ Dada Bhai Naor UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B i Page No. 1465, 66. 67. wa wee apy ahora} wider Hae wort 8/8 1. uniter gfrarel cra & feoore & wart aI 2 Seer we a are ay we Ror orf Yoana arr @1 cftarorar at pt GPT 0% WOM TE eter rah Se 50% amt tetera gee int ger fee are | 3 dpi oe we & aad gad fora 8 daft | 4. feat at ord Gat For Ht agri Beate aE () daa 2a ) dari sie (9) @aas (a) aaa GAR wee & fata at 2022-23 } aure wT STR 61551897 ARG VT Bl qa F. ides 9 Pret wari Hata eae 8/8? 1 WS UST I Sa dw wr Tae eI wae a 2 FB 26 Fe, 2022 ahaa ard wa far vat ter Gert ERT wg Pa 701 3. at 2022-23 & fery warerdta ares, woea Wey sere BT 3.96 vier sgafia 31 4 qe 4 39,181.10 HIS VY FA arornet or enftet fear Tare aE: f@ 133 ) 2cR4 () 1.23m4 @ 1.234 0h BRE Tee WOR ENT aS A ag aE thom & oferta al or or eM ATT Fad SF foot ara ey or wars a? (a) ATT BY 2100 wae ate AA wh 25 BOT wry (b) ATTY 25 wae WHA atte BA I 2100 wr (9) Bétai 50 ware wae ait are BT 5100 ora (@) Ra 5100 wed atk are a 50 Fa wr 68. 69, 70. n siertata wearer faa 2022 a ee ide 4 Prafettad merit ux fra aifer— 1 Sa af wearer feaw a ote & “aeaiter wa dea Rea wr Prater adh @1 2 AR A eee Bb rer S TPT are six teat ferea or Prater” fave & ded we vem fers TAT | guar or #8 aa /a we 8/2? (a) Saa1 (by Baa 2 (9) 132 rf @) ad1ah2 ret Arar Prey ob wider A Prefer ert ay Ran 1. 2024 Te orion Ute Aa wT Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTCs) @ way & wet orton aan ar fe enter afaher 55 chee oh a ang a vem f1 2 gefiers & fey atset warera ‘sant Sie ee arse wT Hare 21 3 de gk wa & da ws safer tet ‘errera ste areal eet fre 100% ‘Ber ara eel a fery-s0.: 50 B) 4. 2020 #1, tInAeT eat H100% FHTCs emaanyie var ees war Sr oT Ue EUR Oe TT TAT ae @) tai () 233 ) 1.3384 @) 1.23.40 2021-22 % oft stk ving ast A gfe ar agar ery tera? fa) 3.6% (b) 39% {c) 4.2% (@) 49% Bar fee ase sara ar Ge aT Far ‘tar fara en? (a) Sify wiferata re (by Sete RT aera ToT (fh aererttias (4) ret arg Riot UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 1572. Inflation is controlled by- 1. _ By increasing direct taxes. 2. By increasing the public debt. 3. By increasing public expenditure. 4. By increasing the bank rate. Code: (a) 1,2and3 (b) 1,2and4 (J 1,3and4 (4) 1,2,3,4all 73. When a country devalues its currency, it has the effect that- (a) Imports become cheap and exports expensive. (b) Imports become expensive-and ex- ports cheap. (Both imports and exports become cheaper, (@) Both imports. and/exports become expensive 74, Which of the following farming process is helpful in environmental protection? (a) Cultivation of high yielding variety (b) Organic farming (Planting Plants in the Glass House (4) Shifting agriculture 75. The Global Gender Gap Report 2022 was released by which organization? (a) United nations development-pro- gram (6) World Health Organization (9 World Economic Forum (@)_ United Nations Population Fund 76. According to the India Innovation Index-2021 released in July, 2022, what was the ranking of Uttar Pradesh in the category of major states? (a) Third () Fifth (Seventh (2) Ninth 77. Match the following- Institute Establishment Year A. NABARD 1. 1992 B. SIDBI 2. 1999 Cc. SEBI 3. 1990 D. IRDA 4, 1982 Code: A BC D (alee area (ee 4 sa (aes ie 78. Which state's cabinet approved India’s first gene bank program in April 2022? (a) Kerala (b) Maharashtra () Uttar Pradesh (@ Bihar 79. According to the World Food Security and Nutrition Status Report 2022 released by the United Nations, the number of people affected by hunger in India has come down to how much? (2) 117.3 million () 125.4 million (224.3 million (4) 231.4 million 80) Who addressed the 110th session of the “International Labor Conference” held in Geneva; Switzerland from India’s side? (a) Narendra Mo (b) Rajiv Gaba (©) Adhir Ranjan Chowdhury (@) Bhapendra Yadav 81. Which one of the following is not correctly matched with respect to the first Indian women to be appointed to various posts? Women Positions ‘A. Shanti Shree 1. First woman vice Pandit chancellor of JNU B. _Dhriti Banerjee 2. The first Indian woman president of the Interna- tional Board of Narcotics Control C. Nimaben 3.First woman Acharya Speaker of Uttara- kthand Legislative Assembly D. Jagjit Pavadia 4. Firstwomandirec- tor of Zoological Survey of India Code: (a) Onlya (6) Both Band D () B,CandD (d)__None of these UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 1672, 73, 74, yaresite 4 Pretaor fren crear &— 4. wenn ant gS err 2 undue seo A gfe are 3. anda am 4 gfe & ene 4 am a gS ent ae 2 aie 3 2 atk 4 3 ate 4 2.3, 4 wh wa ag da ort apr F sae we é, ch gerer ware ete 8 (a) sare wee St oe & Ve Prater we (bo) ara Het at ord Bea Pratt wet (co) arrare afte Prafarell eee et ora 81 (@) sire oie rate art wet ef ot B]) Prafattad 48 ahaa oft ea at ofa warfereor TikeroT H Mera 8? (a) sift sat ate free wy att () sie ae (tare eee 4 hd oar, 1 1 1 1 (a) 78, 79, 80, a! A BC D (a 2a ec) (aaa (aja raed site 2022 4 fare wou Se FATS eat Girt te areas oh agg 1? aa (by reer (SARE (a) Pere WOR WE aI ure fava wre Gar sie sigur fRerfe Rare 2022, & sepa ART A ape a waft ait een Weare Pert BIg 2? (a) 1173 fate (bo) 1254 fafear {o) 228.3 fife (a) 2314 Pater Aedes, Fora avert “oars a WAT S 110d Ga ART St aH S fret watts fear? (a) Re Arey (a) fatter oft o)> arta far 75, teat Get tte Rare 2022 fra HoT se () at Yor atere Re wet wr Tg? (ay Re area (a) gad we Pert ora 1. fatirt al oe gaa es aft sect act (o) fae canes Wer afeenst & wide 4 Prafetar # Sata (c) fea safes ar itera al 8? Aya we or aT ufsare cd % TAR WEE et sho A GaN Te B.ogtantf 2. sienitha areata at efor gar ee? agia as Hh sect (@) aet caret Hf sTeRET () tad cc. Rarer sraraf 3, cerreros feurRTAT () weet veh HoT se (a tet Dd. uta vaftar4, qatfiea wi it gfBan a echt Tr, Rafer a afer sfery— ‘after Pree wert emer a e A ars 4. 1992 (a) daa B. fred 2 1999 ) Bok Der c. a4 3. 1990 i) Bcakp D. RST 4, 1982 (a) era a wre ae UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B_ YE Page No. 1782. 83. 84. 85. Notification dated 21.07.2022 issued by the Government of Uttar Pradesh, by which the Government has constituted four additional commercial courts in UP. Which one of the following places is not included in it? (2) Meerut (b) Gautam Buddha Nagar (Agra (4) Ghaziabad Consider the following statements regarding the "Chief Minister Fellowship Program" conducted in Uttar Pradesh 1, Under this, concurrent evaluation of all the schemes run by the Central and State Governments will be done in all the aspirational development blocks of the state by the selected youth. 2. The youth researchers to be ap- pointed in this program under the direct supervision of the Chief Min- ister will be paid 30 thousand rupees per month as remunération. 3. Its objective is to connect the youth with the policy making, manage- ment, project execiition and moni- toring functions of the goverfinent 4. The age of the applicant, for the scheme should be 40 years or less. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 ©) 1,2,4 @ 23,4 According to the report released by the Uttar Pradesh Pollution Control Board in July 2022, the most polluted river in the state is — (a) Gomti River (b) Yamuna River (Kali River (4) Saryu River Under the Uttar Pradesh Mukhyamantri Bal Seva Yojana (General), how much amount will be provided to the children as financial assistance? (a) Rs. 1500 (b) Rs. 2000 (o) Rs. 2500 (@) Rs. 3000 86. When was the "Mission Shakti Programme" launched by the Government of Uttar Pradesh? (@) July 2020 (b) August 2020 () September 2020 (a) October 2020 87. What is the target of life expectancy by the year 2030 by the state government under the Uttar Pradesh Population Policy 2021-2030? (a)___66 years, (b>, 67 years {ce} 68 years (4) 69 years 88. From where did the Union Minister for Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying, Government of India, Purushottam Rupala Jaunched'the River Ranching (River Animal Husbandry) program in the state of Uttar Pradesh? (a) Brijghat, Garh Mukteshwar (b) Sangam, Prayagraj (9. Ganga Ghat, Varanasi (a) Gait Ghat, Lticknow 89. Which City of India was declared by SCO as the first cultural and tourism capital for the year 2022-23 at the Shanghai Cooperation Organization Summit 2022 held in Uzbekistan? (a) New Delhi (&) Chennai () Varanasi (4) Mumbai 90. The Union Ministry of Culture has recently decided to set up “Indian Heritage Institute” in which city of Uttar Pradesh? (a) Varanasi (b) Prayagraj (Noida (a) Lucknow UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO i Page No. 1882, 83, 85, GA VET ERG ET VIN 21.07.2022 fren &) frafeftad 4S ee UH wT set eft at 8? (Re (o) thom ge re (©) arr (a) afSrerare SR wee A wart “geri Seifra orto & dar 4 frafefter Gort we fra arfery— 1. Bad aa waft gael err wee a. wh oreiance front wey be a Tor MRO are Senter welt Aros var aad pated fran TET 2 yer a heh Pawel ard ga core 4 Pagar SS are er Peer a uate & WTF 30 Tare BTA WATE wt ay O gaat fear SEAT 3. eT Vee gash wh aeeR BAT frafor wdeq aRatcrar frees site frert ore 8 sisarz) 4, thor & fare arderrenal ot orgy 40 Tet a Oa wy eh area cra 8 Bae /S wert a BE? (a) baa (bo) daar 2 1.24 @) 234 GaN wee ETT Preiar aS gr wes 2022 Font Rod & ope wey wa wel wate — (a) tet att (b) | ayAT Ae) (ore a (4) wT eR weer REA aver er ah (TAA) & ofenier aeat wt oni were B wT A free afer wera BH are? (a) 1500 waa (b) 2000 waa () 2500 way (a) 3000 waa 86, 87. 88, 89, 90, ae wer eT aT “Pherae reap” yours wa wi ng a? (a) Garg 2020 (b) #1 2020 ()_ fercax 2020 (a) srIRAR 2020 GAR weer UTA fet 2021-2030 & sient wer BRR A a 2030 cep vila MUTT BT ‘wer fare War & ? fa) 66 Ue (b)_67 We () 68 Het (@) 69 We ART GRR & Selle ACK Trey, TESTS aA Sa8 A, gether eu a oR yee THT H wet @ Rex Yer a TYUTEM) wri or ape fear? (a), Fae, Te GRTEA (b) 404, HAPTETST (9-H are/aRrRh @) THe, Tae aster Ago vieng wear ero (Shanghai Cooperation Organization) Rrex. wet 2022, A ara & far wee rT Veehatt a aie 8 af 2022- 23 & fore ue wiepite ote wiea erent Hite fare ren? (a) 78 Pooh (bh) aR (art (a) ¥ae aida sepit saree A era 8 A oa weer fare ree are ere ee ener week ar foie fer 8? (a) ayer (b) sare (aes (eR UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 1991 92. 93, 94. In the monetary policy review released by the Reserve Bank of India on 30 September, the repo rate was increased by 50 basis points. After which it has reached a high level of three years? (a) 5% () 5.1% ©) 5.5% (4) 5.9% Which of the following is true about the food chain? (a) Grass, grasshopper, rat, snake, hawk (b) Grass, hawk, grasshopper, snake, rat (c) Rat, grass, grasshopper, snake, hawk (@) Hawk, rat, grass, snake, grasshopper With reference to ecosystem, consider the following statements: 1, Energy/isvalways lost when energy is transferred from one form to an- other. 2. As we move up the food chain, ap- proximately 10% of the. biomass is lost at each level, 3. In the process of ecosystem suc- cession, communities of plant and animal species living in an area are replaced over time by a series of distinct communities. 4. Ecological niche includes.all those physico-chemical and biological conditions which até fécessary for living in the natural habitat, Which of the above is/are incorrect? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 () 1,23 (a 1,3,4 Which of the following elements and compounds will be released in the process of decomposition of waste material? (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Hydrogen sulfide (Phosphorus (a) __ All of the above 95. Which one of the following is not correct regarding “Environmental Impact Assessment” (EIA)? (a) Americais the first country in the world where the policy of environmental impact assessment was compulsorily adopted. (b) The first Environmental Impact Assessment Notification was promulgated in the year 1972 by the then Ministry of Environment and Forests (now Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change). () The process of environmental impact assessment in India is legally supported by the Environment Protection Act, 1986. (@)_The-draft Environment Impact ‘Assessment (EIA) Notification 2020 ‘will replace the 2006 notification 96. The term ‘Ecosystem’ was first given by ‘whom? {a) AG Tensley (b) Grigor Mendel (c)_Emst Haeckel {@)) Har Govind Khurana 97. With reference to the 15th "World Forestry Congress", consider the following statements- 1, © Tt was organized in-2022 in Seoul (South Korea) under the aegis of FAO. 2. This year's theme was: "Building a Green; Healthy and Resilient Future ‘with Forests,” 3.(°) It'is organized every six years. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Only1 (b) Only 2 () Only3 (a) Allare correct 98. Which statement is not correct with respect to "India State of Forest Report (ISFR)-2021"? (a) According to the report, Arunachal Pradesh’s Pakke Tiger Reserve has the highest forest cover of about 97%. (b) An increase of 2,261 sq km has been registered in the total forest and tree covered area of the country as compared to the estimate of the year 2019. (c)_ The top three states showing increase in mangrove area are Odisha, Maharashtra and Karnataka. (4) The maximum reduction in forest cover has been recorded in Manipur. UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO i Page No. 2091, Rad der att afar ane 30 fae we sito se ear a Sat Re 50 Afra Ug are fare are ae ats Te B TeT RR se aa ay free @t ar 8? (a) 5% (>) 5.1% (c) 55% (59% 92 Ge fuer & wae ¥ Pefafer Fo Ba wel 8? (a) ure > fest > ae > wid > aT () ae > aot > feat > ai > ABT (We ae > fg > waa (a) at > agi > ure > aie > gr 93, UifeRerftant da & caer 4 faferttar erat wr flare wifsige 1 Ween ona oot demi eh we Gal or eter qatar 81 2 Gre fae 4 Oe a ey GR wh aie at & at ate aR we TTT 10% areas 8 eft ert By 3. URC oer Ot oie ave aa Fe Fer ag ore oly vig Rona & ayer ra S Ee, sate TTA Uw sere are wat ea BL 4 URdaa Raa Ft el afte - warafie aie va cey efter ech &, ht srepftce are A eet & fag até) orden 4S a /a Tet 3/8 ? ee (a) baa (b) Bar 2 © 123 @ 1.34 94, aerr aeref ob fata ay sre A Prafertert Ae ea /a oer oe ahi freee eT? (a) ort SgsirTEs (&) BEgtM Tens (c) PRT (4) afar wh 96, 96, 97, 98, “qatar ward aireort (BIA) & dae Prefered 4M atte wet Tet 8? fa) aor gen ar wear te 8 we vrafereor serra srreapers at fe ar afar BTS STAT TA aT) (b) ved safawor sara araort oiftegear af 1972 4 copra ata od a Hare (acteret wafer, ae site array afta rarera) ener went at 7g at | (eo) area A veer sera emer we eT ay safer ixeror offre, 1986 ERT tate wo 8 webs wat 21 (4) Tafeeor wera areperT (BIA) offre 2020 wr Heiter av 2006 & safteET wT art OT “onfgheerfrat ia’ (garfeecr) wee vec ae ferme grer fear arer? (a) Qaiterr (b) Bre trea (co) SRR tar @) Rae arn asf] fee atta wide 3 wae a Prenfertad merit oy free atfeig— 1... Seer aparort FAO ater F 2022 3 frat (-xfbcor-aiften) 3 fra ra | 2 Fe ab at he oh cee afta, ere oe eratey afer en Prefer" 3. Seersnitor were we af F fare ore #1 eran 4 8 Ga /a oor wel 8/8? (a) @aa4 (bo) Bat 2 (baa 3 whee ~aareet arr feat fecé (ISFR)-2021" & ier 4 Ga Ger wel Tet a? (a) Rete argu, sreoraa mee } end creme Rad ¥ wat aiffte orrrT 979% a eR 81 (o) a 2019S onarera wt gaa Ades et aH ote gal BY Ba A 2261 ah fart. or agtatt aot ot ag eI (tata da 4 a feet wa oN ae use oifsen, FEnTs oie afew E 1 (TART A aad afte aA APR A ot wg a1 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 2199. The amount of sea salinity decreases at the Which of the following reason(s) is/are equator as compared to the poles because- true- 1, Here the amount of rainfall is high (@) 1,20nd3 2, The number of rivers flowing here () 1,2,3and4 is more, due to which the amount of fresh water increases in the sea OSes when they meet with the sea. (a) 1,2,3,4and5 Which of the ab 0? spuererreeaira rata as 104, When the duration of day and night are ee al, then the sun shines directh then t tly on- oa equal, then the sun shines directly on- (a) Tropic of Cancer (c} Both 1 and 2 (b) Equator (d) Neither 1, nor 2 {)_ Tropic of Capricorn 100. Which one of the following is not an (@) 45° north latitude example of a block mountain? 1, Sierra Nevada (USA) 105. Match the following- 2, Black Forest (Europe) Local Wind Names —_ Locations 3. Salt Range (Palkistan) A. Baize 1. Tran = Anaconda Range (USA) _——— aoe (a) Only 3 €. Temporal 3. Spain (b) 1,2and3 D. Simmom 4. France {c) Only 4 Code: (@) 2,3and4 A Sac 101. Between which countries is the Gulf of che aren 4 Bothnia located? (b} 4 3 2 1 (a) Sweden and Finland Mara (b) Sweder and Denmark: @) 1.73 4 2 (c) Norway and Denmark 106; Which of the following is a landlocked (@) Finland and Estonia Ne Rete are ee eeenae country- 102. Which countries border Lake Victoria? (a) Congo 1. Uganda (b) Burkina Faso 2. Tanzania (¢) Ethiopia 3. Kenya (@) Liberia 4. Rwanda Code: 107. Match the following- fa) land2 Tribes Country (b) 1, 2and3 A. Maya 1. South Africa () 2,3and4 B. Yupik 2. Western Alaska (@) 1,3ana4 ©. Chukchi 3. Guatemala D. Boers 4. Siberia 108. Consider the factors of origin of ocean currents- ode 1. Earth rotation A BC 2. Atmospheric pressure (a 4g 3. Evaporation 3 4 2 1 4. Insolation 4 3 21 5. Ocean Salinity @3 241 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B DE Page No. 2299, gat Ponder agen ar Hh aap aaa a arat § at one 8 aeiife— 1. Get ast at ara 4 afta ett 81 2 met wet aft afeat a den F caftreren, Pore wa A Per we aS unt # Arar ays Fag on 2) oRtad HS Sa /S Te 8B? ouged 4 8 era /a ore wey 8/8? (a) 4,233 (b) 1,2, 3 aie 4 () 13,435 1.23435 tos, oa fer othe wer DY ora aera ett @ at (@) oaar1 pa : daa2 Coe 13k 2 et ee ee alae @ ath aee (o) yer tare 100, Preafertac i 8 ater ale alter ala a (o) Hae Yar saree el 8? (a) 45° To Sere 1. freer Aarer (are) 2 ae ore On) sos Pratetira wr gitar wt 3. ree ta (fem) varia vail ear eet 4. Varetsr Yor (are) AL ag 1. RF ae: B. Saez 2. ART (@) bar c. arta 3 a ) 1.23me3 () tata as Pra oe (@) 23 3i4 Ha Bed pb tor, deter at argh fort Set Ber Regt a @ 2 24 4 (@) tater ote frres 4 32 1 (b) Shea ste Sarg @ 12 “4d aaah @41_a ae (a) forats ote Weiter 106. Prafattin 4 Steere ta 102, faachftar eit fier tet a ear aah 2? (awit 1. quiet (ob) qetarerat 2 ronan (co) fetter pane (a) organ 4. waist ae 107, Prefers wr gatert Be @) 132 orranfer ar te) 1,2amR3 A. Ara 4. aftr ameter () 233IR4 —_—— : @ 1,33mR4 Seto an ete he pe ew aR ® > der 7 : blah BecD e a eee 2 3. acho ® 3421 4. pater (aes oe 8. Hererrgha ware @ 3 2 4 1 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-l)-Se-B Di Page No. 23108. Which of the following method is used to determine the age of the earth? 1. Uranium Dating Method 2. Organic Dating Method Code: (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c} Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1, nor 2 109. Which of the following pairs is related to the seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha in Uttar Pradesh? (a) Hardoi, Bansgaon, Lalganj, Kannauj, Misrikh (b) Jalaun, Bahraich, Shabjatanpur, Pilibhit, Barabanki (c) Lalganj, Hardoi; Etawah, Unnao, Robertsganj (@) Bulandshahr, Hardéi, Kaushambi, Fish Nagar, Jalaun 110. According to Census 2011°in Uttar Pradesh, which one of the following is not correct? (a) Maharajganj has the highest rate of gender gap in literacy among the districts of Uttar Pradesh in'2011 and the lowest is in Kanpur. (b) In terms of female literacy rate, Uttar Pradesh ranks second from the bottom among all the states. of the country. (c) The sex ratio of 0-6 age groupin Uttar Pradesh is 916. Whereas in-2001 it was 902 (@) Kanpur Nagar, Hamirpur, Baghpat are the top three districts with lowest decadal growth rate in Uttar Pradesh during 2001 to 2011 111, Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding monkeypox test? (a) In August 2022, the first indigenously manufactured RT PCR kit to test for monkeypox was introduced in Chennai. (b) This kit has been manufactured in India by Serum Institute of India. (c)_ The kit was launched by the country's Health Minister Mansukh Mandaviya. (d)_All of the above are wrong. 112. Which of the following port was called "Barygaza’ by the Greeks? (2) Sopara () Barbaricum (Kalyan (@) Bharuch 113. Who among the following was the first scholar who formulated the rules necessary for the interpretation of the Vedas? (a) Panini () Yask () Lagadh Muni (@) Pingel Muni 114. With reference to the working of the Buddhist ‘Council, consider the following Statements- 1. The working system of the Council and the functioning of the republics were similar. 2. — The resolution in the council meeting was called Anusavan. 3..¢ The difference of opinion on any proposal was called Adhikaran. 4e° Ttwas necessary to have a minimum quorum’of 30 members in its meet- ing. Select the correct answer from the code given below- (a)“Only I and 3 (b) Only 2 and 4 (cs, Only 1,2 and 3 (a) Only 2, 3 and 4 115. Which of the following Harappan sites is also known as the crossroads of trade? (a) Balakot (b)Sutkagendor ( Lothal (@) Dabarkot 116. Consider the place where the Chalcedony tool was found in the Mesolithic period. 1. Bagore 2. Sarai Nahar Rai 3. Chopanimando 4. Mahdaha Select the correct answer from the code given below- (a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1, 2and 3 (Only 1, 2. and 4 (a) Allof the above UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO ‘Page No. 24108, yeah a ory Puta wet a re a a Ree fatty ar seiner fare ora 8? 4. Pas Ber aah 2 ordre Sfer warfe ee (Saat ) taa2 (9) 132 of @ aaah 109. Te wee 4 Pafetad 4S aT ae wR wee Y MTT 2011, B wae A Preaferftact 4 altar wel wet 8 ? (a) 201 4 sae wees. fret Here fertiae (gender gap in literacy) #Y waite a wenn 8 eT Wa wa orig 421 (ob) -ARRoH Bena ee a gf B sae wee te & wi wed Fe a ae eT Rel (SR wee 4 0-6 ary wt at ga 916 & wrafe 2001-4 ae 902 aT) (a) 2001 8 2011 & aha Gay wee A pT aria gf ae ore a a fore a TAR, CARR, aT #1 waiter eee h dae 4 Peifefera Geri a ¥ ara wel TET eB? (a) aahitee a cate fre ore 2022 vee weet fata oct defen fc arg 4 te fer wa (o) RT 4 ge fre wr Prater aiken Pelee. site gfsen 4 fear &1 (eo) fre ah ber career He eS tet ene ira fear 1 | (a) saad wh rad 1 110, "1 112, 113, 114, 16. 116. ital + Prafettrd 4S fee deere or “aero wer a? (a) aon (b) ana (c) err (wt Prafeftad 4 8 geet fer eo, fore aet a omen & fore srazae fret a wera farar er? (a) fer (b) ae () are aft (ay_ frre gh ate aa ot orboorret & waer H Presferftar wet we fra afar 1. We Gt ordseret vt woreda ordgoret va oe ot 2 Ha BA wea wera wh gaa Det a ao) aioe, fire at secre oR ATE aT wer SITET eT] 40. ge dow FH yraH ouRefe re 30 weeat oer GSN eT | sre fey ay RE WHEL Te BPA (a) Saer1 we3 (b) hago Ter 4, (Soe 1,2 Tes (djs, daet_2°°3 cen 4 Benn & fare wre of Prater 4S aoe mr aterer off er Gre &? (a) Werte (b) Geers: (co) chert (a) Saale eTaraTeT aM ARIS (Gate) sito Or vifer weret a wider H fare afore 1. aik 2 WRT ATER eT 3. aharirreet 4. AREY Am fey ay ae Swat GR AA (a) Saar 1 ate 2 () daa 1, 2083 () Saa4, 2304 (d@) orfad wit UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 25117. Who among the following introduced professional courses in the field of education in the Delhi Sultanate? (a) Itutmish () Firoz Shah Tughlaq (Q. Jalaluddin Firoz Khilji (@)_ Sikandar Lodi 118. The history of Shivaji and Peshwa is described in which of the following written in Marathi language? (a) Buranjian (b) Shakavali (©) Khyat (@) Bakhr 119. Which of the following were the capitals of the Vijayanagara Empire respectively- (a) Anegondi, Penukonda; Chandragiri, Vijayanagar (6) Anegondi, Vijayanagar, Penukonda, Chandragiri (9) Anegondi, Chaihdragiri, Penukonda, Vijayanagar (4) Anegondi, Penukonda, Vijayanagar, Chandragiri 120. Consider the following statements- 1, In 1202-08 AD, Qutubuddin Aibak captured Budaun, Chandawar and. Kannauj. 2. In 1197-98 AD, hé defeated the Chandela king Paramdir Dev of Bun- delkhand’and captured Kalinjar, Mahoba and Khajuraho. Select the correct answer from the option given below- (a) Only1 (b) Only 2 () Both 1 and 2 (a) Neither 1, nor 2 121. In which of the following cities did the Mughal emperor Akbar get the Mahabharata and Rajatarangini translated into Persian? (a) Agra (b) Delhi (Lahore (4) Jaunpur 122. Who was the precursor of the Mughal period under the Delhi Sultanate? (a) Vakil-e-Dar (b) Qazi-ul-Quzat (9. Naib-e-Mumlikat (4) Diwan-e-Wagoof 123. Who among the following as the President of Congress said that “India is no longer standing on its knees for favors, but on its feet for its rights?” (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Annie Besant (6) Sarojini Naidu (4) Mahatma Gandhi 124, With which title of Gujarati did Mahatma Gandhi summarize Ruskin's book ‘Unto the Last’? (@) Satyagraha (6) Non-violence (o__ Sarvodaya (a) Sarvadharma 125. Serampore Mission Press was founded by which of the following missionaries in 1799 AD? (a) Portuguese missionary (b) Dutch missionary (¢)_Danish missionary (a) French missionary 126. Who among the following established the ‘Berlin Committee for Indian Independence’ under the ‘Zimmerman Plan’? (@) Lala Hardayal (b) _Bhupendranath Dutt (co) Virendranath Chattopadhyay (4) All Of the above 127, The Portuguese used to take the homeland from North-Western India to Tafta’, which was a type of- (@) Variety of spices (b) Precious stone (Cloth (a) Navy shoe 128. He was a scholar, socialist, nationalist and a lawyer by profession. He gave up his practice and joined the non-cooperative movement. He became the President of the Socialist Conference of Patna in 1934 and ‘a member of the Uttar Pradesh Legislative Assembly in 1937. With respect to whom are all these characteristics true? (a) Acharya Narendra Dev (b) Achyut S. Patwardhan (Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia (a) Sarojini Naidu UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 26117, 118. 119, 120, 121 122, feech wort A Prefered Fa fee arent urea ot aware fren & ea aa he (a) geqafher (ob) RRS ee GH (o) wearers fretar Pret (a) raver oiett areal are & ferftan Prafeitted 4 a faery rar va derarsit or eftera afer 2? ()-Bferet (bo) warraeft (ea @ wR frome wrarsa at asenfrat wre: freferfiad 4 -@ ft (a) series, TGS, aah, foe (b) series, ormagies, def () sPrieS, BaP, ayer, faorerrR (@) seid) aeatver, Rorrres ase Prefered wert ox fra atfore— 4. 1202-03 € A Gage daw A war, dara atte cater Oe sifraere he feren | 2 1197-08 & i ee Ras } ta wat wR ea Sh Ra orfciony, aaetar othe erga ite ox fe | AA Reg Ty Renee a we oA BPI (Saat (b) baa 2 (13k 2 ei @ at1ade Wat Ware onmae 4 Hepa ed Toe FTA or ere 4 argare fresfeftrt AW fr ae 9 Geary 1? (@) sirRr () feet (©) arey (sire Rech wera & ont waar qe AR art ar Qh en? (a) Fra b) @ef-se—qurt () ae aprfeet (@ Gaga 124, 125. 126. 127, 128. wie & seat & wo 4 Prefer FS fret wer en fy “wre ore GT S Fre Oy yeah we vei, afew ony siftrent a fore ory tk} oe erst 2?" (a) SaTeR ae AES (o) Wh me (wafer ag (d) Aare ae tor A firma ‘orig < ONS aT ae Here Tie A Toren a fare afikas & far? (a) were (by afer (rate (a) wkerh eer Serge fret dew) veneer Prafetad & SB form, fret are 1799 H at 7g oh? (a) eireh fret (b) Sa Prarie (9.38 Prev (a) iki Pret Prafefad 48 fee frees dor o aed ‘afer oct wR efter siege’ a sere at? (a) Set exeurer (by aT, aT (cy) aiegarr geerorerer (a) sadet wht git eater ot geR—afet ae “ereer Borer aes &, GH yw ER oT aT (a) Tere Peer (ob) Agyea kot () eas (a) Aker & fery saat YH vo oT GT 9 fags, warcrardl, weaned) afte Bey S aaitat 3, Teh am aaer ot ots fear site tweeter aietert 4 mnfier et ry, ve 1934 4 vest & wHroTara) WH Gh stenet afk 1937 4 GR weer errr a WaT TT TRL a we feeroary fares wide A aca a? (a) rani aig aa (ob) Saag wa. ead () Sf aH ater otter (@) warA ay UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B Page No. 27129. Consider the following statements- 1, The Avadh Kisan Sabha was formed in October 1918 with the efforts of Baba Ramchandra. ‘The farmers of Awadh started a movement named ‘Eka Andolan’ for increasing the rent and collecting the rent in the form of produce. 3. Active participation of women in the peasant movement was an impor- tant feature of this Kisan Sabha. Select the correct answer from the code given below- (a) Only 1 (b) Only 1 and 2 (Only 2 and 3 (4) 1,2and3 all 130.In which of the following province Mahalwadi settlement was done on the report of ‘Bird Commission’ In this, the rent for twenty Years was fixed at an increased rate, (a) Bombay (b) Madras (Central province (a) North-Western Provinces 131. Who among the following adopted an aggressive policy towards Sindh? (a) Lord Ellenborough (b) Lord Auckland (9) Lord Dalhousie (4) Lord Harding 1 132.Who among the following called ‘Imperialism’ and ‘Military’ thé twin children of capitalism? (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (Jawahar Lal Nehru (4) Subhash Chandra Bose 133. Ambala campaign was launched by which of the following Viceroy in the North-West Frontier Province? (a) Lord John Lawrence (b) Lord mayo (9) Lord Elgin I (@) Lord Lansdowne 134, Which foreign company was defeated by Marthanda Varma and ended his political power in Kerala? (a) Danish 135, 136. 137. 138, 139, (b) Dutch (9 French (@) Portuguese Who among the following called the Gandhi- Irwin Pact a union of two Mahatmas? (@) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Annie besant (co) Rabindranath tagore (a) Sarojini Naidu Which one of the following is not associated with the incidents that took place during the Civil Disobedience Movement? (a) Incidents of Solapur (b)Incidents of Peshawar (> Incidents of Chittagong (@) Incidents of Chirala-Pirala With reference to the ‘All India States People's Conference’, consider the following statements- 1, Itwas established in December 1927 for political activities in various princely states Qu. The headquarter of this organization has been established in Delhi. 3. In iff first session, 700 represen- tatives of different princely states participated: 4. Balwant Rai Mehta played a major Tole in’ organizing this conference. Select the corréct answer from the option given below- (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1, 2and 3 (Only 1,3 and 4 (@) 1,2,3, and 4 all ‘The builder of Fort Louis, which was done in Pondicherry’s factory itself, was (a) Francis Caro (b) Colbert () Dupleix (@) Francis Martin Who among the following sent a delegation to Tibet under the leadership of George Bogle, so that trade relations could be made between Bengal and Tibet? (a) Warren Hastings (b) Lord hastings (9) Lord auckland (4)__Lord Ellenborough UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 28129, Prefered wert ox fra wise 1. rae, ARMA WAT HT TSA aay ARS & wary @ oaqae 1918 4 fer var an 2 wa ge wd ona oH ae age wr ca sae & far A VET Siete AMT oT sialon ATT | 3. fears siete # aftensit a ufos anfter® gr Pre war a Feat faerrar off) 135, (ob) Sa (o) wrist (a) ret Prefect a Peer Tieeta ae at at serena a Pat oer? (a) Woe ore Few (b) Wh we () easy ae (a waferh arg, ae fag ay ag Bae oe BA 190, aR ota adhe & ne afar Tes (@) eam Priam 4S ata wag ae 8? (oy) drat sive f@ deny Ft ae () tar 2cins (b). enay a weary @) 1.23 3 wh {o) 9 verita Acard 490, Preset A Re et Has ater Ceegereren_Faeren 8) NEAT sfttes we aercant data fear rer, RRR sare BRET ea Aya wide S ide a ae ad 3 tem Paleo at w eafeitee wordt ae fare ste we ae fem HIP 1. Pit woraret & erorhter fafa fa) ate @ fey feaae 1927 4 gaa WTA (b) ast oats | (Fea oie 2 Re res wr perera Rech A wenfta (@ waa ote fen ret #1 3. SHS UES aes AAT Rare 131 Prato + & Roe Fae oy sh aid Lind, os 4. Ba Sets AR ye ee aed wa Sear * Prego oad Aa Ree ay Rea a ae TR BPI ae (a) daa 1 oe 5 @ : (bo) dae 1, 2 3k 3 130, Prrafttan # fire arene oie Sere (9 drat. aces wt stare wo geal tea wel? @) 1.2.3, 34 wht eee 138. utd gg ar for ait orede & area ene 4 ang of, Prater a () Ware ore Few (a) fee at eae we (b) Bread 139, Prefer aa Pare arene gre fea o er ia fare afters err an? (a) aire ates foe 430. dre a fart & a ameter wide a eh, ae et gery he 2 ner cis ae ae Oi ste ea 3 ew RPA sige rare Ta? @ ae (a) de afer 134, fre beh aie wt arts aa A wea det (bo) aie eRe A wah rare aa aH wy A? (aie sftedts (a) Sire (@) ats wert UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B_ YE Page No. 29140. Where did the ‘First Workers’ Strike’ take place in British India? (a) Solapur (b) Nagpur () Jamshedpur (@) Bombay 141. Who proposed the merger of the Finance Commission and the Planning Commission? (a) D.D. Basu (b) Bhalchandra Goswami (MV. Mathur (@) Ashutosh Pandey 142. Which two warships, which were indigenously built, were launched by the Defense Minister of India Rajnath Singh on May 17, 2022 at Mazagon Dock in Mumbai? (a) Vikram and Gomti (b) Helina and/Gagan (9 Saksham and Param Pravega (4) Surat and Udayagiri 143, Where was the Global Education Summit 2021' held? (a) Paris (©) Mumbai () London (a) Berlin 144, The first African country with which India approved the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA)- (a) Egypt () Kenya (Mauritius (a) Seychelles 145. Which of the following pair is not correct? (a) Vatan Prem Yojna : New Delhi (b) Education Scheme at Your Doorstep Tamil Nadu (4) One Block One Product Scheme Haryana (a) Project Sadbhavna : Assam 146. In June 2022, the Indian Space Research Organization successfully completed the DS-EO mission through PSLV-C53 launch vehicle. Which country's three satellites were also launched with this mission? 147. 148, 149, 150, (a) United States () United Arab Emirates (Britain (@) Singapore Who among the following did not win a gold medal in the Commonwealth Games 2022? (a) Neetu Ghanghas (b) Naveen Sihag () Aldos Paul (4) Sanket Sargar Bindiyarani Devi, Vikas Thakur, Gururaj Pujari and Achint Sheuli, who are sometimes in news, are related to which of the following? (ajo, Wrestling (b) Badminton (Table Tennis, (a)... Weightlifting Which Indian-American was given the award for Best Children's Album under the famous Grammy Award for the year 2022? (a) Falguni Shah (b), Ricky Cage (©. Shaunak Sen (a) Prasoon Joshi Sample Registration System Special Bulletin for 2017-19/has' been is by the Office of the Registrar General of India in March 2022. On the basis of this, consider the following statements. 1, ~_India's maternal mortality rate has improved to 103 for the period 2017- 19. 2. According to the report, there is a possibility that India will achieve the target of 70 on the MMR rate by 2035. 3. West Bengal, Haryana, Uttarakhand have the highest MMR in the coun- try. 4. Kerala, Telangana, Maharashtra are the top states with lowest MMR in India. Which of the above statement(s) is/are not correct? ued Code: (a) 1 only (b) 2only @ 12,3 @ 13,4 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 30140, 141 142, 143, 145, 148, fafa ana tao Ht vec esate et Ba? (a) Seige (b) ATTGR (snag @ wR fae orahr wa Shor oreirt & oR fae or weara faery fear en? f@ Awe (bo) arereg rear (wal. EX (a) sages arse aareet & vem A ore Rite 8 ak aati ‘Sie WR 17 FE, 2022 wt ere PP fA At agit wr wrareeeer fran? (a) fase site aie (efor siya, (c) Berm athe wee wT (@) aa ak seat ‘afta Pret ree WA 2021 BT SI frefetear ¥ a wet ga? (Re () ae () Aer (a) af Tee omerey Se fore Se aT Ay TT safes wet qd afranet estan (CECPA) a aay () fe (by) det () after (@) Wier frrcifeattacr H ater gem weet et 8? () wr dort — Rot (o) sara ears oe fre ator — after, (c) We eit WH Berg atert — efter (a) see Wee — oer SRT 2022, 4 charger — #53 nar oe & ay ade safe ser det 7 DS-Eo fiers at ermerengias opr fa | Se Pret & wer fer ao ds orret oF at ‘Bist RM? 147, 148, 149, (a) SgaRt ese ater (bo) Sige ora apterat (few (a) Reem sages Gat 2022 9 Preafeaftir ¥ a Peer eat uae et her? (Aq are (b) 45 fererr (oq) Weehe ote (@) dea wer arian waren 4 on ad Rian ah, PTH SER, TRA Gare ote sift sts a ices Freafeittam 4 a fret 8? (tae cfr (@) aeferier aH 2022 % wftre Th orate & cients waar Me Come wT GReTY form aera — anette wy fear ara? (a) oreptt ee (oy Rett oot (tie aH (a) sg Sie ard 2022 Hara & wench orator are 2017-19 & fey aT ter ITS fats goiter ont fey &) gab ore we Prefered peri oy fee afere— 1, af 2017-19 I aah S fey aT oT 1 IRER (MMR) GERRR 108 aT 2 Rohe Sarge eh ora & FB oe 2035 1 MMR & Wait 70 @ aey BT rete BT | 3. uRaa dre, earn, saree 4 ea aad Cael MMR #@| 4.0 Ge, TSIM, ENTE ART A WaT wy MMR et site wT F) aurfer #8 ahaa /a wert el ae 8/8? (a) Baa 1 (b) Saar 2 (4.23 (434 UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-1)-Set-B oO Page No. 31I Al s nay DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO UPPCS PRE TEST SERIES 2023 sookter series TEST BOOKLET ease acretyy) Test -1 (Full Test) Time Allowed : 2:00 Hours GENERAL STUDIES Maximum Marks : 200 wTeT 1, wher reer BAS YET are, sy ga Theor Uferar I Tear raya ae a fas gee wag fet our, Wel WT Bel Ba YS Hea veri safe a a ale der z, at ga wet wteor yferar F aac cifras IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, BTC., IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET. 2. artare 8 ad carr war gic aM A, B,C ar D amature au a aca aia ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES CODE A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET. 3. Fa wham fear ee A Re a aie Have sro sega fear 81 wt gar oe ik aD 7 fer You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside this line. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet. 4, we wien germ H 150 wea Gre) faq #4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items wes weria feet a afte cai oa 1 (questions). Each question is printed both age : in Hindi and English. 8, anual one ait wea sem & fe TE TAT Wg, You have to mark all your responses ONLY @ ates ae 2) orwes 4 feu me free afar) ‘on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See eee * directions in the Answer Sheet Se eh eee sacs 6. All items carry equal marks. 7. Wea Wed fe ame chem fea fafa wate? 7: Before you proceed to mark in the Answer SQ THCTTE T ales Scr YE BE, arvat Sheet the response to various items Soe eae in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in ee, some particulars in the Answer Sheet as faa Saas H 2 Bi per instructions sent to you with your 8. om ami at mg at ae Tow Sa admission certificate cat Win Hens tt deta emer antes a 8 After you have completed filling in all ° your responses on the Answer Sheet and aia @) caval aw aa ham yfer GS =1—— Gxamination has concluded, you should ovat 1 hand over only Answer Sheet to the : : ae Invigilator. You are permitted to take away 9, wed am & fry saw ade Gera & is A with you the Test Booklet. @ 9, Sheets for rough work are appended in the 10, feel ar & fer war fens ETO fam __ Test Booklet at the end aH 10. There will be one-third negative marking for | wrong answers DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SODO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO UPPCS PRE TEST SERIES 2023 _ sookterseries EXPLANATION BOOKLET asa arr etye) Test -1 (Full Test) GENERAL STUDIES 1. (d) wafer da 8 arent pf sik wae TAA 7. (b) AHS St TAT ag = 787% = tetra 2093% oma 93% oats esters 0.03% 2 (d) Teel orca ara oraeas oie Fea at © sitit 005% ae oe 8] ° Sea 0.0005% + ome oy Hee @ me ateniaiee . ay oe a ti, © ata 0.0001% © me otk orate fea mete a, (ep Whe era ora a we aR, fae he aera vote eer fear ta = atte : 9. (0). Raia Hse ar ah sot A Sarg gash aH 3d) yedt on sitamarra 5 81 ame A 7=fo fire. a 17-10 fio. Paget 4 (a) 8a Ware aie, hE Re ier wr eww Range 2) aera Aer dat Tey BM ere Hea # fea ef 1 © BHT Heat o Posh A Heng a seat 5. (b) ANS wha awh Sat A ser, aM] 81 ead cere Bh Ase A UST EL ait, a1, SNL SAV, GEV, aS ae mer Hea siaftert & Format for aad afte meat at ae are ET erg 60 FerAh. B oo fh, 1 (Romer wha Ww 9 agaS AR) TV © Fa we aise or aateba araert Homt 1 gh ia & sinia eraa aa @, forerat amr Sarg 60-700 fer raters &, re sions, arte, aa site S| Ae oe cea eq fener, Se ae aT 0. (a) thy ai Sore Gat A seen Barr «Rarer aa A orgdel Game a Aeray Reo, A fre & are srare By el at oRen # ae ae wha Garena aed 1 ga ane thet ara vite Sat a ood aor ara fie oe Ah ara erat A erat Bier A oaftom &1 xh wren fers at, (a) Rye ter eh oe 5° stair oH EH after wie Ah wed 1 Pret ara oh Aah eet) et wer A arr safe él erst @ | oa as ES RT eA 6 (d) Rawerge WH OTS HC geT FI wrap 21 ara oa ar Stage 8a wer oT 81 aad oat a oi apd ere at ene gemma dont wert were ever 1% (2) Wee ae Reg mere ere area ah eae welt Se ad aaa UPPCS Pre. TEST SERIES 2023 (Test-I)-Set-B QE Page No. 3320. (c) 21. (a) srl or ar ert or eer sie — - aati wera aE ft tart ahem — ae are aR — gare Hera sath aor ot for dey ater iat S ced #1 oie ware od #| ae Fare ae aA ees AG aa PRAT 2, aah eerie & aerate ener era z! atom tora ofa arars Rt favors fafa elf ater eset ann (arrive), ‘iaret (gees) site (arfterrg. 4 wear ae) afte (rear ee, TORR) Serre (eat re # rr Serre aa aah Rigor sel ger By aN St WERT GL 73% B1 aT ga F waite Tee Geen ote wee A con rida ea 4 waif orreitean were 4 2 | caret ares sifaFRer, 1919, (ASAT eM) oAregCanet aftr «ag Seratd arena falwarg: oars aA ardor aRag 4 6 eee Aa 9 wr anche ea sian oy aT a1 © aes Aone & Serge orale or gore frat aa ower an aoa Parent a area wore wer & fee sikpet far | arama ome ue yore Praha at ec aR, gel Lee, siecrareAt ate apt at emer ae FR maT | -afirai qsna aera ra Beco Peat eh rake feet fret waft wees, Ried) wera eens vat SANS. we aR ots oN Gere wh arta gota: afte wart we a ara 2] ae frara urirecar & am 8 srt aren &) 2. at (a (b) fa) (d) ahead ar afer sit ear} ae A Sear -arTea 3 wer efter we wT ater aT 21 wafte zat ares at Wong 1920 MLA, 1964 VISAS 1972 aa 1982 Tafa & a4 H afte Tom a Afar wet wfaurr & feet ff arnt wy fdar wat oad 2) A Pea oat or eT WERE & 7 fas Ferrer & wef A THT Bl ort wet a free ea 8) see Ores — wae wr oF (oRyRIE 79) arqede—st2 : crea war ah ag 2g aire carer Sar at Gare went ey aT sift ayea-si7 : ste Sat ott } fee ree th eer oF Pree ee err Seger isa(t) ~ wate we Tener art 3 fara arora PARR a TATE AA 3 fag ana al & sinter 4 agora & ora re a sake & wearer set ate a aa em fear a wha RR ae oie ASH ARTA 1996 ¥ a ear — tea age apa — Tarr WR eet an — yond ore a ad were qe aR a GR Aen A ‘aan &, at era a argh aE TER 8, SA eer aertal ger BT ae TT EI are geet oe ak a gS Pree orraTOT ver aah ad warered Hon & ant ste a ohh eT ome 8 | ae as ft ah orem a aera oe tgs we era &, zee ad ww gia mam 1 UPPCS Pre. 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