DENTAL ADMISSION TESTING PROGRAM Sample Test Items Dental Admission Testing Program 211 East Chicago Avenue, Suite 600 Chicago, Hlinois 60611 1-800-232-2162 ADA. American Dental Association www.ada.org ‘These sample (es items are reprinted for distsbution in 2007 by the American Dental Association © 2007 American Deatal Ass ‘You may not reproduce or transmit, by any meat any purpose, this publication, or any part oft in print, electronic or other format jar exprese written permission from the ‘American Dental Association All rights reservedDENTAL ADMISSION TEST PREPARATION MATERIALS How does one prepare for the DAT? There are no shortcuts to the process of learning, and these test preparation materials are not designed to provide the applicant with an opportunity to bypass the extensive process of absorbing basic information through class participation and months of study. These test preparation materials contain samples of the four tests used in the Dental Admission Testing Program. These are available to DAT applicants as a means of discovering possible areas of weakness in their comprehension of subjects covered by the test. They will also enable the candidates to become familiar with the types of material included in the test as well as with the general coverage and format of the various parts of the test battery. ‘The entire DAT takes 4 hours and 45 minutes (including a 15-minute optional tutorial and break). In the real DAT, the time limit will be indicated in the upper right hand comer on the computer screen. Therefore, you will need to pace yourself as you proceed through each test in the Dental Admission Test. If you have time remaining for a section of the test, you can review your responses. When time expires, the computer screen will move to the next test or optional break period. The structure of the test is given below. You are encouraged to review the DAT Tutorial at www ada.ora/dat aspx under Step 4 before taking the actual DAT. The tutorial provides some sample items and information on navigating through the test. Dental Admission Test ‘Components of the Test Number of Items Time Allowance ‘Optional Tutorial 15 minutes. Survey of the Natural Sciences. 4100 ‘90 minutes Perceptual Ability Test 90. (60 minutes Optional Break. 15 minutes: Reading Comprehension Test __|50 - across three reading passages| (60 minutes ‘Quantitative Reasoning Test 40 45 minutes ‘The Survey of the Natural Sciences is a test of achievement. The content is limited to those areas covered by an entire first-year course in biology, general chemistry, and organic chemistry. The examination is comprised of 100 items: 40 biology items, 30 general chemistry items, and 30 organic chemistry items. Since separate sub-scores will be given for each of the three science sections, you should pace yourself through each section. A periodic table is available in the front of the Sample Test Items booklet and will be available as an Exhibit button on the actual DAT. The Perceptual Ability Test includes various types of nonverbal visual acuity items. There are six sections to the Perceptual Ability Test. One section covers two-dimensional perception, while the other sections cover three-dimensional perception. It is important that you read and understand the instructions at the beginning of each section. You must pace yourself so that you complete all six sections of the Perceptual Ability Test within the given time frame. You are not permitted to use measuring devices (ie., pencils and fingers) while taking the Perceptual Ability Test. ‘The Reading Comprehension Test consists of three reading passages, each with 16 to 17 items, The reading passages are scientific in nature and may reflect topics covered in dental school. Candidates are encouraged to read each passage before attempting to answer the corresponding questions. On the actual DAT, the Reading Comprehension Test is presented in a split-screen format with the items presented on the Upper half of the screen, while the reading passage is presented in a scrollable format on the lower half of the screen, One reading passage is provided in the Sample Test Items. ‘The Quantitative Reasoning Test measures your ability to reason with numbers, to manipulate numerical relationships, and deal intelligently with quantitative materials. On the actual DAT, a basic calculator will be available as a pop-up image for the Quantitative Reasoning Test only. ‘This booklet contain copytighted material and is epriaed with permission. lights recerved It ay not be reproduced in whole ori pr.‘SANW313 3H Jo 31aVvi St0RI3d 2000 American Dental Association. All rights reserved.This examination is comprised of 100 items: Biology (1-40), General Chemistry (41-70), and Organic Chemistry (71-100) Organisms that obtain their energy from light can be termed A. autotrophic. B. _ holotrophic. C._ chemotrophic. D. heterotrophic, E. heliotrophic. Fermentation A. produces pyruvic acid as an end product. B. yields less energy per mole of glucose than aerobic respiration, C. occurs only in the presence of oxygen, D. prevents glycolysis from occurring E. converts ethanol to glucose. In respiration, oxygen ‘A. combines with lactic acid to form pyruvic acid B. _ acts as a cofactor for glycolytic enzymes. C. yields energy in the form of ATP as it is passed down the respiratory chain. D. acts as an acceptor for electrons (and protons), forming water. E. combines directly with carbon, forming CO2. 4. ‘An enzyme is added to an aqueous solution of ATP, DNA, albumen, fat and glycogen; the reaction mixture is incubated for 10 minutes. If an analysis of the mixture reveals the presence of all of the above compounds plus glucose, it can be concluded that the enzyme hydrolyzed some of the albumen fat. glycogen ATP. DNA. moom> What cellular organelles would you expect to be absent from fungi Mitochondria Lysosomes Ribosomes Golgi bodies Chloroplasts moom> Intracellular organelles that participate in metabolic oxidations involving HO are called centrioles. endoplasmic granules. peroxisomes. lysosomes. macrobodies. moom> ‘This booklet contains copyrighted material and is veprinted with prmitsion. Al rights served. tay nat be reproduced in whole rin pr10. The two daughter cells formed by mitosis 11. and cytokinesis have ‘A. half the number of chromosomes present in the parent cell B. _ half the number of the chromosomes present in the parent cell if this parent cell is found in the testicular or ovarian tissue. C. the same number of chromosomes present in the parent cell D. twice the number of chromosomes 12. present in the parent cell E. a variable number of chromosomes so that an exact prediction cannot be made. Starch, cellulose and glycogen are all A. proteins. B. linked internally by hydrogen bonds. C. water soluble. D. polymers of glucose. E. nucleic acids. 13. Each of the following cell organelles have a membranous structure EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Golgi complex B. Centrioles C. Mitochondria D. Lysosomes 14, E, Endoplasmic reticulum In anaerobic glycolysis in muscle cells, one mole of glucose is oxidized to six moles of carbon dioxide. two moles of acetic aid, two moles of lactic acid two moles of acetyl CoA. two moles of carbon dioxide and six moles of water, moom> This booklet cooiins copyrighted materi 2 The movement of water soluble molecules through cell membranes, from higher to lower concentrations, by attachment to a cartier protein, describes diffusions. osmosis. pinocytosis active transport. facilitated diffusion moom> As far as their products are concerned, all biosynthetic reactions in living cells result in A. amore ordered state, therefore a decrease in entropy. B. amore ordered state, therefore an increase in entropy. energy released in the form of ATP. energy made available for motion. a more ordered state with no entropy change. moo Which is the smallest organelle in the A. Golgi body B. Nucleus C. — Mitochondrion D. Ribosome E. Chloroplast For a given diameter of an axon, one factor which increases the velocity of a nerve impulse is A. the length of the axon. B. the ploidy of the nucleus C. the density of mitochondria along the axon, D. maximal stimulation of the neuron. E, the presence of a myelin sheath, is opined with permission, All ights eserved. may ot be reproduced in whole ot in pe.15. Which chiefly stimulates action of the respiratory center? Carbon dioxide in the blood Relaxin Lack of oxygen in the blood Inflation of the alveolus Vagus nerve moom> 46. The term motor unit refers to an entire muscle. a single muscle fiber. one nerve fiber. mo om> myosin in one muscle fiber. 47. The human heart beat is initiated within the A. sinus venosus. B. Hensen’s node, C. conus arteriosus. D. _ artio-ventricular node. E. _ sino-atrial node. 48, In the nephron of the kidney, filtration occurs between A. Bowman's capsule and Henle's loop. B. the glomerulus and Bowman's capsule. C. the proximal tubule and Henle’s loop. D. Henle's loop and the vasa recta E. the peritubular network and the convoluted tubules, all the muscle fibers innervated by all the motor nerves in one muscle. all the sliding filaments of actin and 19. 20. 2 22. The addition of potassium iodide as a nutritional supplement to common table salt would most directly affect the function of which of these glands? Thyroid ‘Sweat glands Adrenal cortex Kidneys Parathyroid moom> Each of the following is synthesized by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland of vertebrates EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. Thyrotropic hormone B. — Adrenocorticotropic hormone C. Follicle-stimulating hormone D. Growth hormone E. Oxytocin Clotting of human blood ‘A. requires that hemoglobin be present. B. results from fibrin joining globulin C. is a result of platelets releasing fibrinogen. depends on the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen. E, is accelerated when Ca2* is removed. 9 At some stage of development, all chordates have A. apharynx, a vertebral column, and a notochord: B. _ pharyngeal pouches, a notochord, and a dorsal tubular nerve cord. C. _ pharyngeal pouches, a notochord, and a ventral nerve cord D. _ pharyngeal pouches, vertebral column, and a dorsal tubular nerve cord E. _ apharynx and an ectodermally derived, solid nerve cord. ‘This booklet contains copyrighted material and is veprinted with prison. Al rights eserved. tay nat be reproduced in whole ris par 323. 24, 25. 26. Organisms that have the characteristics 27. Assuming no linkage, how many different of radial symmetry, water vascular kinds of gametes can be produced by an system, a spiny skin, and are found organism with the genotype AaBbcc? exclusively in a marine habitat would be in which phylum? A 32 B16 A. Annelida c 8 B. Chordata D6 ©. Cnidaria BE 4 D. Porifera E. Echinodermata 28. Which statement concerning alleles is true for diploid organisms? Of the following, which group of invertebrates is apparently most closely 4. At most only two alleles occur at a related to primitive vertebrates? given locus In an organisms genome. A. Annelida 2. Alleles occupy an identical locus in B. Mollusca homologous chromosomes. Cc. Cnidaria 3. Alleles of a given gene usually D. Arthropoda occur on non-homologous E. Echinodermata chromosomes. 4, Asingle chromosome usually Under the five-kingdom classification, carries two alleles of each gene. members of the kingdom Monera are generally separated from the members of A 4 all the other kingdoms by having B. tand2 ‘A. heterotrophic nutrition versus c 3 autotrophic nutrition, D. 1,2and4 B. unicellular organization versus E. Sand4 multicellular organization ©. microscopic size versus 29. _Inwatermeions, the unlinked genes for macroscopic size. green color {s) and for short length, (s) are dominant over alleles for striped color De prekaryotc cells versus eukaryotic (g) and long length (s). Predict the vores phenotypes and their ratios for the cross E. _ parasite-host relationship versus Gass x ggSs. predator-prey relationship. A. Allgreen short A segment of DNA with the sequence B. 1:2:1 green short: striped long GGCATTAGG would be transcribed into a striped short messenger RNA segment with the ©. Allstriped long sequence D. 4:1:1:1 green short: striped short: green long: striped long 3 Cansoeeee E. 1:1 green short: striped long C. CCGTAATCC. D. AAUGCCGUU. E CCGTUUTGG. This booklet cousin copyrighted mei cis rpited with pension, ll sighs oeeved I my nt be rproduced in who inp 430. Sexual and asexual reproduction usually 33. Embryonic induction is a process in differ in which ‘A. the ability of the new offspring to ‘A. embryonic tissues influence reproduce, adjacent tissues to differentiate. 8. the rate at which mutations occur. 8. anunfertlized egg is induced to C. the amount of genotypic variation develop. between parent and offspring. ©. genes are transferred from one D. the viability of offspring developing tissue to another. E. whether or not natural selection can D. resting potentials are induced in occur. neurons of embryos. E. the matemal parent induces 31. In human beings, color blindness is ‘expression of recessive genes in controlled by an Xinked recessive allele. embryos. In a cross involving this X-linked trait, the male parent has normal color vision, but 34. Which statement is true of the the female parent is a carrier. What are archenteron? the chances (in %) that a male offspring will inherit color blindness? A. The cavity of the archenteron is A 40 called the blastocoele 8, The cavity of the archenteron B28 & 2 represents the beginning of the & 8 primitive gut. 2 ©. The archenteron is formed during blastula formation. D. The cavity of the archenteron 32, Consider a pair of homologous human represents the frst cavity of the Ghromosomes. In his pair one would dercloping heart E, The archenteron is formed by a ‘A. them to be genetically identical closing of the neural tube B. one chromosome to carry dor Siicise ond the other recessive 35. Of the germ layers comprising the early oielcs human embryo, which one forms most of the central nervous system? ©. one chromosome to have been inherited from the mother and the A. Ectoderm other from the father. Bo Mesodorn D. _ the two chromosomes to synapse & esogerm ttn mittic prophase, DB ONoehny yem to have different shapes pe ppc ‘This lt cotsin opal pind wth prin A igh try it pd in wl ori pe 536. 37. 38. 39. Of the following, the rate and type of cleavage occurring after fertilization would be most affected by the 40. Each of the following changes the frequency of alleles in a population EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? ‘A. amount and distribution of yolk B. number of chromosomes. A. Mutation C. thickness of the cell membrane. B. Natural selection D. temperature. C. Immigration E. thickness of the zona pellucida D. Random interbreeding E. Genetic drift The long-term natural process by which a pond eventually becomes a terrestrial 41. A.49-gram sample of sulfuric acid, community is referred to as HSO4 (98 gemol') contains A. environmental disruption A. 1 molof S atoms. B. habitat development. B. 16.0 grams of O. C. organic evolution C. 2.0 grams of H. D. ecological succession. D. 2 moles of O atoms. E. desertification. E. 1 mole of molecules. The initial step in the speciation process 4. 1f 1 mole of Np and 1 mole of Hp are often involves mixed and allowed to react according to the equation No + 3Hy —> 2NH3. What ‘A. _ inbreeding within the species. is the maximum number of moles of NH3 B. geographical separation of that could be produced? populations C. _intraspecific-random mating. A 28 D. the inheritance of acquired B32 characteristics. cn Ea Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. D. 12 BE 1 ‘Acomplex behavioral response to a specific cue or releaser, which is 43. A flask weighs 95 g when empty. When exhibited by all members of the species filed with 200 mL of a certain liquid, the as a stereotyped response to the same weight is 328 g. What volume (in stimulus, is known as a milliliters) would 1,000 g of the liquid occupy? ‘A. conditioned response. 200 B. _ fixed-action pattern. ((@.000\328-95) C. reflex D. — kinesis. [(200)(1,000) E. taxis. (828-95) C. (200(1,000328-95) (328-95) [(200(1, 000) [(200)(1,000)] 328 This booklet seus coprihed sei ci rp with pes, ll sigh oeved ny nt be rproduced in who inp. 644, 45. If 3.00 g of a nitrogen-oxygen compound is found to contain 2.22 g of oxygen, what is the percentage of nitrogen in the compound? A GS)a }00) {@.00+ 2.22) B 0942.23) (100) c. e24 \c1ooy (3.00-2.22)| D. [e052 | (100) E fe 00- 2.22) 400 222 | A.10.0 liter sample of oxygen at 100°C and 1 atm is cooled to 27°C and expanded until the pressure is 0.5 atm, Find the final volume of the oxygen, A 100(4) 4) 0.5)\100, a ol 05 }(300, c welt) 1 )(300 1/300) D. 100( 5) 8) (0.5 \(300 esol?) 46. 47. 48. When the volume of a gas is decreased at constant temperature, the pressure increases because the molecules move faster. move slower. become heavier. become lighter. strike a unit area of the container more often. moom> Water has a higher boiling point than compounds of a similar molecular weight. Which best explains this phenomenon? A. Extensive hydrogen bonding exists between water molecules. B. One of the natural isotopes of hydrogen, deuterium, is present in sufficient quantities to significantly raise the boiling point, Water is a polar covalent compound. D. Van der Waals forces exist between individual water molecules. E. Water is largely dissociated leading to large electrostatic forces between individual water molecules. A substance is non-conducting as a solid and melts at 750°C, The melt conducts electricity. The solid is observed to be soluble in water. This substance would be best classified as molecular. ionic. macromolecular. metallic, polymeric. moop> ‘This booklet contains copyrighted material and is veprinted with prmitsion. All rights served. tay nat be reproduced in whole rin pr49. 51 How many grams of NaOH (40 gemol") are there in 250 mL of 0.4 M NaOH solution? A 04 B04 ca 4 D. 10 E. 40 Which will be the final volume when 400 mL of 0.6 M HCI is diluted to 0.5 M HCI? A B. 9 e m 400 3) 06, (0.8-0.5)(400) “G3) - 400) (2:5 (,.000- 400) ( z $) (22)<1000-400) During a titration it was determined that 30,00 mL of a 0.100 M Ce** solution was required to react completely with 20.00 mL of a 0.150 M Fe** solution. Which reaction occurred? A moo Cott + 3Fe2* + HyO —> 3Fe3+ + CeO" + 2H* 2Ce4t+ + Fe2+ —» Fett + 2603+ Ceft + Fe2* > Fe3t + ced Ceft + 2Fe2+ > 2Fe3* + Ce2* Ceft + 2Fe2+ _» 2Fe4* + C524 +2e° 53. 54, 52. If 25 mL of 0.5 M NaOH neutralizes 35 mL of a monoprotic acid, which is the molarity of the acid? A [0.025)(0.5)} 0.035 5 0.035 [0.025)(0.5)| é 0.025 [@.5)(0.035)] D. — (0.025)(0.5)(0.035) E [0.035)(0.5)] " 0.025 In which reaction is HO considered to be acting as an acid? A. Zn(s) + 2H30* —» Zn2* + Ho(g) +H0 HCi(g) + HO —» H30* + cr HCHO + H20 < H30* + C2H302" D. NH +20 4 NHg* + OH E. NHg +H30*—» NHq* + H20 @ At constant temperature when the following reactions involving gases are at equilibrium, which reaction shifts to the right if the pressure is increased? A. 2Hg + 02 2H20 2NHg #7 No + 3H 2803 + 2809 + O2 2NO 4 Np + 02 B. c D, E. 2002 + 2C0 +0 This booklet cousins copyighled material ad is reprinted with permission Alrighis reserved. may mt be reproduced in while rin pt. 855. For the equilibrium 57. AggSO4(s) 2Ag*(aq) + S34" (aq) The solubility product expression (Ksp) is A. 2[Ag* S04") B. [Ag*ISOF VAg2SO4) ©. (Ag*ySo4") D. 2tAg*IsOFViAgSO4} E. [Ag*P1s097] 56. The concentrations of silver ion and chloride ion in an aqueous solution in equilibrium with solid silver chloride are 1.0 x 10° M, What is the value of Kgp for AgCl equal to? 58. A (2.0 x 10°6)(1.0 x 10°6) B. v1.0x10% Cc. 10x 106 D. 1(1.0 x 10°) E (1.0 x 10°82 59. Determine the heat in kcallmol available from the oxidation of one mole of glucose (CeH1208) CgH420g(8) + 6O(g) —» 6CO2(g) + 6H20(1) The heats of formation are: Substance AHP, kcal/mol CeHy20¢(s) -297 cO2(9) 94 H20() 68 -94 - 68 - 297 6(-94) + 6(-68) + 1(-297) 6(-94) + 6(-68) - 1(-297) 1(-297) - 6(-94) - 6-68) 297 - 94-68 moom> Which process is accompanied by a decrease in entropy? Sublimation of carbon dioxide Evaporation of water Freezing of water Shuffling a deck of cards Heating a balloon filled with a gas moom> if a solution which is 0.50 M in compound X decomposes for 5.0 minutes at an average rate of 0.040 Memin1, the new concentration of X will be 0.04 M. 0.05 M. 0.20 M. 0.30 M. 0.50 M. moom> ‘This booklet contains copyrighted material and is veprinted with prmitsion. Al rights eserved. tay nat be reproduced in whole rin pr 960. 61 62. For the reaction A+ B — C, the experimentally determined rate of formation of C.is given by: Rate = K{AJ[B]2. Doubling the concentration of B will quadruple the initial reaction rate double the initial reaction rate. have no effect on the initial rate. halve the initial reaction rate. reduce the rate to one-fourth its initial value, moom> The following is a spontaneous oxidation- reduction reaction’ 610 F'+ 14H* + 6 > 20r3* 474190 + 3g Which is the best reducing agent? 2 A C207 BoHt Bor Given the following half-cell reactions: Clg(g) + 2e"° —» 2CI(aq) "= +1.36v Cu2*(aq) + 2e° —» Cu(s) E*= +0.34v What is the value of E° for the following reaction? Cu?*(aq) + 2Cr'(aq) —» Culs) + Cla(a) -2.38v -1,70v -1.02v +1.02v +1.70v moom> This booklet contains copyrighted mate: 10 65. In which two compounds does nitrogen have the same oxidation number? A. N03 and HNOg B. No0s and HNO3 ©. NOz and N203 D. N04 and HNO2 E, HNOg and NHg, Which species is linear? A. H20 B. Hye Cc. 80 D. CIO, E. CO The three common isotopes of oxygen 160, 170, 180, have A. the same atomic number and an equal number of protons B. the same mass number and an equal number of neutrons. C. the same atomic number and an equal number of neutrons. D. the same mass number and an equal number of protons E, the same mass number and an equal number of electrons. t is epined with permiesion All ight eerved. It may not be reproduced in whole orn prt66. A Lewis structure for the NO"3 ion is O—N—O| | Oo Including this structure, the total number of ground state resonance structures for this ion is moom> eaeNe 67. The electronic configuration of a particular neutral atom is 1822s22p63s23p2, What is the number of unpaired electrons in this atom? nm. moo@> onuNns 68, Which property increases with atomic number among the representative elements of period two? Atomic radius Electronegativity Metallic character Normal boiling point Melting temperature moom> 69. Which pair would give the bond with the most ionic character? Aland S P and O B and Br Cand S Liand O moom> 70. In the reaction shown below a nitrogen nucleus containing six neutrons emits a positron. What is the second product of the balanced reaction? BN e+ — A ON B. aN Cc. he oe eo A characteristic feature of the Sy2 reaction mechanism is that A. it follows first-order kinetics. B. _ it produces stereochemical inversion of configuration. C. there is no rate-determining step. D, steric factors have little influence on the reaction rate constant. collision of three or more particles is required. m ‘This booklet contains copytighted material and is reprinted with prminson. ll ight served. tay nat be reproduced in whole o in pa n72. 73. Which alkyl bromide will most readily undergo Sy2 reaction with NaOH? CHy A I CHy—C—CH, Br iia B. CHs—CH—Br «On D. CHy—CH)—Br © Oe Ethane reacts with chlorine in the pres- ence of heat or ultraviolet light to give chioroethane. CH3CH3+Clp heaton Te Tgnr CHsCH2Cl + HCI Which is an intermediate in this reaction? CHsCH cr CH:CHe He moogo cr 74. 75. How does the energy content of the transition state of a chemical reaction compare with that of the reactants and products? A. It is greater than products but less than reactants, B. tis greater than reactants but less than products. C. It is equal to both reactants and products. D. itis less than both reactants and products. E. Its greater than both reactants and products. Which intermediate is most likely to be involved in the reaction shown below? cl (CHgCH=CHCHg +HCl —» CHyCH2CHCH3 A. CHsCH2CHCHs q B. CHsCHCHCHs ©. CH3CH2CHCH D. CHsCHaCHCHs ft E. CHsCHCHCHs This booklet cousins copyighed rostral ed is reprinted wi permission Allrighiseseved: It me wl be reprodced in whe rin pt R76. 77. The reaction of \co,H with HNOYH,SO, will give a. € N—co,H and wil be slower than nitration of benzene. NO2 € \—co, and willbe faster BN / thai nitration of benzene. wh Cc. O.N—" 7 \_co,H and will be \=/ slower than nitration of benzene. BD. ow 4% \—co;H and will be faster than nitration of benzene. NO2 4 en and will be faster than nitration of benzene. E. ON A strong infrared absorption band between 1,750 and 1,700 om”! (5.71~ 5.881!) indicates the presence of A NHz 9 ll 8. —c— c. ——oH S D. =c E. =c— 78. 79. If partitioned between equal volumes of ether and water, which would show the greatest preference for the water layer? A. CHgCH2CHpCHyCH3, B. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl ©. CHgCH2CHyCH2CH20H D. HO—CHyCH2CH2CH2CH20H 9H OH OH E, HO—CHy—CH—CH—CH—CH20H Which structure below is an important resonance form of ° Or _ > > H c. ° H DW oH H E hit booklet contin copyrighted material and ie reprinted wih permission All righ reserved, I'may not be reproduced in whole or in past80. Which of the structures below is chiral? 82. Which conformation of H cl 1, 4- dibromocyclohexane is the most pe stable? or " H 8. CHs~C—COOH NH. cl Br \, Br 1 H C. CH3—C—CH3 1 B. ir Br H B h ; H H WH H /H 7 : D. His 6—COOH a c. Eh Gore ct OH OH OH Br 81. What are the following? D. B CHa /\GH and cra A gt : HY “CHs ae 4 Structural isomers E. Hi Enantiomers Br Diastereomers Identical compounds Meso compounds moom> This booklet contains copyrighted material and is reprinted with permission. All rights reeeved may no be reproduced in whole o in pa. 483. Which structure represents a trans (E) 85. isomer? CH 7 0 CHs H F CHs H CH HA ote 86. | c. HO cHs Gm eh NA an C. 7 er a 4 E. ‘f C. N, H ia Br 84. Which is the IUPAC name for this compound? ° c Hyc—" i —cH—" H A. 4-methyl-I-hexene B. 4ethyl-1-pentene Cc. 2-ethyl-4-pentene D. sec-butyl propylene E. 3-methyl-5-hexene The reduction of a ketone 9 —C—R| yields > an aldehyde first, then a primary alcohol a primary alcohol. a secondary alcohol. a tertiary alcohol. a carboxylic acid moop What is the major product of the following reaction? CHs OI” eae NO2 SO” Br 'NO2 Br. .CH3, ° “OL ‘NO Br .CH. 2 SOc NO2 ‘This booklet contains copytighted material and is reprinted with permiasion. All ight served. tay not be reproduced in whole o in pa 1s87. In the reaction, cs) ot +HCH the major product is D. wom ach. E. Hoe Yootcc The feaction of CHCHaMgBr with ti CHgCCHs followed by hydrolysis with dilute aqueous acid gives OH A CHeCHCHs OH B. cryCHcHscHs Cu c. CHsCH2CCH bit OH D. CHsCHOCH,CH, brs a E CHsCOCH.CHs 89. 90. Which reaction is an example of a free radical chain termination step? A. Br'+CH, —»HBr + CHS B. Bry —» 2B C. Br" CHS —> BrCHs D. H3C*+ Bryn —» H3CBr + Br? HOH \ E Br'+ 6: > Bich, cH HoH What is the product of the reaction shown below? Br HNOs — HySOq NOp Br B NOz Br ° NO2 Br 'SO3H Br E NO2 Nop This booklet contains copyrighted material and is reprinted with permission. Allright reeeved may no be reproduced in whole in par. 1691. Which could be used in the following 93. The two Bronsted-Lowry bases in the ? equilibrium below are CH,OH GOH HOAc + NaCN 4 HCN + NaOAc 2 7 A. HoAc + NACN B. HOAc + NaOAc Cc. _NaCN + NaOAc A. LIAIH, D. NaCN+HCN 8 C103, Ht E, HOAc + HCN Cc. SOClz 94. The most acidic type of hydrogen in the D. PBrg following compound is Egor ; OH ° 92. Which of the alkenes shown below reacts \ with ozone to give the products shown? Che Che Chee c cea 2 doc b ao 2403 Fpots-CHe- Ey CMs CHa Ga le moom> eaoee CHs (fHa— CHa—CHs . H CHs CHs—CHa CHa —CHs N\ B. c=C pay H CH3, c. cHy—cH, H oS 7 c=C rN H CHp—CH2—CH3 CHs— CHa, | (Pt2—CHs—CHs rf - H H ‘This booklet contains copytighted material and is reprinted with prminton. Allright served. tay nat be reproduced in whole o in pa a95. The conjugate acid of p-aminophenol 96. The structure below is shown without complete geometrical detail. What is the correct assignment of bond angles? nar—(_)-on is a — 9 A NH2 B. 109.5" OH c. b= 120° D. 120° 8. E, 180° uM 97. Which is stabilized by resonance? OH re ; A. a . ° 2 *NHs : o D, OCH; ane) NH2 HO,LH OH E O D. a NHe o E. O This booklet contains copyrighted material and is reprinted with permission. Allright reeeved It may no be reproduced in whole in pa 1898. Which of the following is aromatic? 99. Treatment of benzoic acid with thionyl chloride followed by addition of ethanol Fe | | gives which as the major product? COW SS » C SOCK CHsCHOHL a™~ c. OCH,CH. oo Aa D Z i C—o—cH:—CHs 0 oO N _/OCH2CHs or c. cr OCH2CHy, ° i c—oH oO cl ° tl c—c ° CH:CHs “his booklet contin oprighed masala is end with pesto. lights everday ate oda in we rin par 9100. What is the final product (8) of the sequence below? CO2H 1) _LiAIHg HBr ———+ +a —+8 2) Hz0, Ht 9 A or oO CH)—Br ° : om 9° i - oOo 2 This booklet contains copyrighted material and is reprinted with permission. Allright reeeved may no be reproduced in whole o in pa 20Perceptual Ability Test ‘Time limit: 60 minutes PAT - Test Number 56 PART/1 For questions 1 through 15 This visualization test consists of a number of items similar to the sample below. A three-dimensional object is shown at the left. This is followed by outlines of five apertures or openings. In cach item the task is exaetly the samit, First, you aré to imagine how the object looks from all directions (rather than from a single direction as shown), Then, pick from the five apertures outed, the opening through which the object could pass direct if the oper side were inseried first. Finally, mark on your answer sheet (after the number of The item) the letter corresponding to the answer you have ‘Here are the rules: 1. Prior to passing through the aperture, the irrcgular solid object may be turned in Beer! ese en an ee ee a ee a2 2. Once the object is started through the aperture, it may not be twisted or turned. It ‘must pass completely through the opening. The opening is always the exact shape of the appropriate external outfine of the object, 3. Both objects and apertures are drawn to the same scale. Thus it is possible for an opening to be the correct shape but too small for the object. In all eases, however, differences ate large enough to judge by eye. 4. Thete are no irregularities in any hidden portion of the object., However, if the igure has symmetric indentations, the hidden portion is symmetric with the part shown, 5, For each abject there is only one correct aperture, Example: (Do not mark the answer to this example on the answer sheet) The correct answer is c since the object would pass through this aperture if the side at the left were introduced first. Proceed to Questions 1 (© 2000 American Dental Associaton. Al rights reserve.DO NOT WRITE IN OR MARK THIS BOOKLET © 2000 American Dental Association, All rights reserve,© 2000 American Dental Associsiion, Ail ghts meer ve.DO NOT STOP - READ DIRECTIONS FOR PART 2 AND CONTINUE 4 © 2000 American Dental Association, Allrigh etenesPART/2 For questions 16 through 30 The pictures that follow are ton, front, and end views of various solid objects. The views are without perspective. ‘That’ is, the points im the viewed surface afe viewed along arallel lines of vision, The projection looking DOWN on it is shown in the upper left-hand comer (TOP VIEW). ‘The projection looking at the object from the FRONT is Shown in the lager lefthand omer (FRONT VIEW). The prgiecton looking at the object from the END is shown in the lower right-hand corner (END) VIEW). ‘These views are ALWAYS in the same positions and are labeled accordingly. Tor MEF Tor view — -— No viEW i — ron view If there were a hole in the black, the views would look like this: co] ec Li) Note that Lines that cannot be scen on the surface in some particular view are DOTTED in that view. In the problems that follow, two views willbe shown, with four alternatives to complete the ‘You are to select the Correct one and mark it On the anewer sheet = cna es Example: Choose the correct END VIEW (Do not mark this on the answer sheet). LO Tor Vie Ea oo |E|tS The front yicw shows that there is a smaller block on the base and that there is no hole. The top view shows that the block is round and in the center of the base. ‘The answer, therefore, must be B. In the problems that follow, isnot always the end view that must be selected, sometimes it isthe top vidw or front View thal ts massing,” Now, proveed to the questions, marking the correct view on your answer sheet FRONT VIEW | esp VIEW Proceed to Questions 5 © 2000 American Rental Association. All rights reserved.51 @ ror view Te “Alzl al a! Z20. cnoose me coreet FRONT VIEW. ade 2 view 24 Cheneethe corect END VIEW. s 10° view \ arlene 22 Choose tha correct END VIEW, 8 c > TOW, i a bo | ae 23 chooee the céeact END VIEW. feaeees 8 ror view = ae salle 4 7 ‘© 2000 American Dental Associaton. All rights reserve.28 chne the core Tor view FRONT View 27 Choose the correct ON2B Choose ne corect TOP VIEW. or view PRONE VIEW ‘veeW 29 Cheese the conect FRONT VIEW, TOP view ia A e ce ° ee eae | | | | t t t 30 Choose the corect TOP VIEW, 19° view ? 6 ° ° Front view | END View 'D0NOT STOW ~ READ DIRECTIONS FOR PART 3 AND CONTINUE 9 (© 2000 American Dental Association. llrightsreserved.