Vision CSP23ET35S

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VISIONIAS
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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3819 (2023)
Q 1.C
x The Ashtadhyayi is a grammar that describes a form of an early Indo-Aryan language: Sanskrit. Authored
by Sanskrit philologist and scholar Pāṇini and dated to around 500 BCE, it describes the language as current
in his time, specifically the dialect and register of an élite of model speakers, referred to by Pāṇini himself
as sista.
x The Ashtadhyayi mentioned two terms Kahapana and Shatamana. Kahapana or Karshapana, according
to the Ashtadhyayi of Panini, refers to ancient Indian coins current during the 6th century BCE onwards,
which were unstamped and stamped metallic pieces whose validity depended on the integrity of the person
authenticating them.
x Shatamana: The Shatamana coins or the coinage system is datable to 600 BC (onward) and continued for a
long period, probably till the time when Chandragupta Maurya conquered Gandhara in 300 BC. The
Shatamanas were also coins used during the period.
x Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 2.D
x Sounding rockets are one or two-stage solid propellant rockets used for probing the upper atmospheric
regions and for space research. They also serve as easily affordable platforms to test or prove prototypes of
new components or subsystems intended for use in launch vehicles and satellites. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
x Unlike a satellite launch vehicle, a sounding rocket performs an observation mission during its
flight in space before impact. It usually comprises one or two stages. When the experiment is completed,
the rocket dives into the sea along with its observation instruments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
x The observation instruments are usually fixed to the rocket's nose fairing and covered by a nosecone like a
pointed hat for protection from aerodynamic heating. When the rocket reaches a given altitude, timer-fixed
functions start to open the nosecone, extend antennas, sometimes release test samples for observation, and
conduct other tasks to prepare for the planned observation. The observation starts before the rocket reaches
its maximum altitude and ends before it splashes down into the sea.
x In 1963, Indian Space Programme started with the first sounding rocket launch from Thumba Equatorial
Rocket Launching Station (TERLS), Kerala. Thumba was selected as it is close to the magnetic equator. In
1967, ISRO launched its own version of the sounding rocket - Rohini RH-75. In 1975, ISRO consolidated
all sounding rocket activities under Rohini Sounding Rocket (RSR) Programme.
x RH-200 (meteorology purpose) is one of three sounding rockets currently operational with ISRO, the
other two being RH-300 Mk 2 and RH-560 Mk 2 (both for Aeronomy). o 200 in the name denotes rocket’s
diameter in millimeters (mm). Rh-200 rocket used polyvinyl chloride (pvc) based propellant. In 2020, first,
rh-200 used a new propellant based on hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (htpb). Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Q 3.D
x Theri Desert:
o It is a small desert situated in the state of Tamil Nadu. It consists of red sand dunes and is confined to
the Thoothukudi district. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
o The red dunes are called theri in Tamil. They consist of sediments dating back to the Quaternary Period
(which began 2.6 million years ago) and are made of marine deposits.
o They have very low water and nutrient retention capacity. The dunes are susceptible to aerodynamic
lift. This is the push that lets something move up. It is the force that is the opposite of weight.
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o Mineral Composition of Theri:
9 The petrographical study (petrography is the study of composition and properties of rocks) and X-
ray diffraction analysis (a method used to determine a material’s crystallographic structure) of the
red sand dunes reveal the presence of heavy and light minerals.
9 These include Ilmenite, Magnetite, Rutile, Garnet, Zircon, Diopside, Tourmaline, Hematite,
Goethite, Kyanite, Quartz, Feldspar, and Biotite.
9 The iron-rich heavy minerals like ilmenite, magnetite, garnet, hypersthene, and rutile present in the
soil had undergone leaching by surface water and were then oxidized because of the favorable semi-
arid climatic conditions.
9 It was due to these processes that the dunes near Tiruchendur, a coastal town of the Thoothukudi
district are red-colored.
Q 4.A
x The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and UN Human Settlements Programme (UN-
Habitat) established the first-ever International Day of Zero Waste day in response to the worsening
impacts of waste on human health, the economy and the environment. Hence, option (a) is the correct
answer.
x The day calls upon all stakeholders, including governments, civil society, businesses, academia,
communities, women and youth to engage in activities that raise awareness of zero-waste initiatives.
x The day was established through a UN General Assembly resolution that followed other resolutions on
waste, including the March 2, 2022 UN Environment Assembly’s commitment to advance a global
agreement to end plastic pollution.
Q 5.D
x The Package of essential non-communicable (PEN) disease interventions for primary health care in low-
resource settings was adopted by the World Health Organisation (WHO) in 2010.
x “PEN-Plus” refers to the approach to address severe NCDs through an integrated outpatient service
at first-level hospitals.
x The new strategy urges countries to put in place standardized programs to tackle chronic and serious non-
communicable diseases by ensuring that essential medicines, technologies and diagnostics are available and
accessible in district hospitals.
x Recently, Africa has adopted the PEN Plus strategy to tackle severe non-communicable diseases (NCD)
such as type 1 diabetes (T1D), rheumatic heart disease (RHD) and sickle cell disease.
x Package of Essential NCD Interventions (PEN) was adopted by the WHO in 2010 to support the
decentralization of services to the primary care level.
x Globally, NCDs are the main cause of morbidity and mortality. They account for 71 percent of global
mortality, according to WHO. In the African Region, the proportion of mortality due to NCDs ranges from
27-88 percent.
x Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 6.B
x The Chamber of Princes (Narendra Mandal) was an institution established in 1920 by a royal
proclamation of King-Emperor George V to provide a forum in which the rulers of the princely states of
India could voice their needs and aspirations to the colonial government of British India. It survived until
the end of the British Raj in 1947. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x According to the recommendations of the Montford Reforms (1921), a Chamber of Princes (Narendra
Mandal) was set up as a consultative and advisory body having no say in the internal affairs of
individual states and having no powers to discuss matters concerning existing rights and freedoms.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
x For the purpose of the chamber, the Indian states were divided into three categories—
o Directly represented—109
o Represented through representatives—127
o Recognized as feudal holdings or jagirs.
x Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 7.B
x The RBI's six-member MPC hiked the repo rate to 6.50 percent, as expected, and maintained the
stance to "withdrawal of accommodation". This comes as retail inflation fell below the RBI's 6
percent threshold for three months in a row and the US Fed is slowing down its increase in interest
rates.
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x RBI Monetary Policy refers to the policy of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the central bank of India,
which deals with the control and regulation of the money supply in the Indian economy. This policy is
aimed at maintaining price stability, employment and economic growth of the country.The RBI uses various
monetary policy instruments to achieve these objectives. The primary instruments used by the RBI to control
money supply are open market operations, cash reserve ratio, statutory liquidity ratio and repo rate.
x A repo rate is a fundamental tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to control and regulate the money
supply in India’s economy. It is the rate at which commercial banks borrow funds from the central bank of
India for short-term financial needs.This rate is primarily used to control inflation and ensure economic
stability. As it is a benchmark rate, it also affects other interest rates like those on fixed deposits, home
loans, car loans and personal loans.
x When the repo rate goes up, borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive and vice versa. The general
public may not feel the impact of a rise or fall in the repo rate directly, but they will feel the effect through
the changes in the interest rate charged by banks on their products. Banks usually increase their lending
rates when the repo rate increases and reduce them when the repo rate decreases.
x For real estate developers, the repo rate hike will increase the cost of borrowing, making it more
expensive to fund new projects or refinance existing debt. This, in turn, could affect project costs.
Developers may also be forced to raise property prices to cover the higher borrowing costs, which
can negatively impact demand for housing. For homebuyers, the repo rate hike will increase the cost
of home loans, making it more expensive to buy a property. This can lead to a decrease in demand
for housing, particularly in markets where property prices are already high. Homebuyers may also
be forced to postpone their purchase plans, which can lead to a slowdown in the real estate market.
x For the common man, a hike in the repo rate has a direct effect on his pocket. It increases the cost of
borrowing from banks and financial institutions. The loan EMIs, credit card payments and other
loan payments become expensive. However, in contrast, fixed deposits become appealing in a rate
increase situation since banks often raise interest rates on this type of investment vehicle. Hence
option (b) is the correct answer.
x A hike in the repo rate also affects inflation. It decreases the money supply in the market and reduces
demand for goods and services. This acts as a deflationary pressure and can lead to lower inflation. Lower
inflation means lower prices and more savings for the common man.Thus, a hike in the repo rate has both
positive and negative effects for the common man. On one hand, it leads to higher loan payments, whereas,
on the other hand, it helps in controlling inflation and encourages saving, leading to more money in the
pocket.
Q 8.B
x Recent context: The United States government extends $250,000 towards the conservation and
restoration of the historic Paigah tombs in Hyderabad under the U.S. Ambassadors Fund for Cultural
Preservation.
x The Paigah tombs, or Maqhbara Shams al-Umara is a necropolis belonging to the nobility of the
Paigah family, who served the Nizam of Hyderabad in various capacities.
o Paigahs were given the responsibility to take care of the security and defence of the region. Abul Fateh
Khan Tegh Jung, the first of the Paigahs, received the title "Shams-ul-Umra." The second Nizam
conferred upon him the title Paigah, meaning pomp and rank, a word of Persian roots. Hence statement
1 is correct.
o The Paigahs were among the most influential and powerful families of Hyderabad in the 18th century.
x The tombs, comprising the resting place of several generations of Paigah nobles, are at least two
centuries old, and the complex of tombs is made of lime and mortar as well as marble. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
x The tombs are the finest examples of enthralling Indo-Islamic architecture, which is a blend of both
features of Asaf Jahi and Rajputana styles. Ornate trellises, beautifully carved pillars, and embellished
domes surround the mini mausoleums and bear some Turkish influence too. An Asaf Jahi-style mosque
inside the complex, complete with a small pond, beautifully reflects the arches. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
Q 9.A
x Recently, with importers continuing to face challenges and glitches in navigating the new “upgraded and
modern” Customs duty payment system introduced from April 1, the Finance Ministry decided to waive
demurrage as well as penal interest charges on delayed customs payments.
x Demurrage charges are liquidated damages owed by a charterer to a shipowner for the charterer's
failure to load or unload cargo by the agreed time.
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o Demurrage charges are levied in order to ensure quick clearance of the cargo from the harbor. These
charges are always fixed in such a way that they would make it unprofitable for importers to use the
port premises as a warehouse.
x In simpler terms, the demurrage charges are the costs paid by the importer/ exporter concerned for delays
caused in the unloading of the goods once the vessel containing the consignment of the importer has arrived
at the port.
x Usually, the demurrage charges are calculated using the concept of lay time, which is essentially the amount
of time allowed in a time or voyage charter to the party to load or unload its goods.
o Once the said time is exceeded, demurrage charges are payable. Thus, the demurrage charges are a
penalty on the importer who delays the unloading of the goods.
x Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 10.C
x Primarily money performs four basic functions which are summed up in the following couplet: "Money is
a matter of functions four: A medium, a measure, a standard and a store. " However, it has become
customary to classify the functions of money under three heads - Primary, Secondary and contingent
functions.
x Primary functions of money: There are two main primary functions of money
o Medium of exchange: Money acts as a medium of exchange as it facilitates exchange through a
common medium i.e. facilitates exchange through currency. With money as a medium, the two
components of a transaction, namely sale and purchase, can be easily separated.
o Unit of value: Money serves as a common medium or unit of value. The goods and services are of
different types and are measurable in different units such as meter, litre, gram etc. Money has provided
a common yardstick to measure all these different units in a common denomination known as price.
This has made different goods and services comparable to each other in terms of their respective prices.
x Secondary functions of money: These are those functions that money performs along with its primary
functions. The secondary functions of money can be divided into the following three parts:
o Store of value: Generally, people have a tendency to save a certain portion of their income in form of
savings to accumulate wealth. Under the barter system, such storage of wealth was not possible due to
the perishable nature of certain commodities. Against this, wealth can be easily stored in the form of
money without any loss in its value. Thus, the store of value as a function of money implies that money
can be easily saved and used for future needs.
o Standard of deferred payments: Deferred payments refer to future payments and contractual
payments such as loans and interest payments, salaries etc. As money is widely accepted as a medium
of exchange and can be used as to store value without much loss in its value, it can be used for future
payments.
o Transfer of value: Money can be transferred easily from one place to another and from one person to
another. Therefore, with the help of money, purchasing power can be transferred. An individual who
has money has purchasing power and he/she can transfer the purchasing power to anyone just by
transferring this money. For example, when a father gives pocket money to his son, he transfers
purchasing power to his son to buy different goods and services.
x Contingent function of money: The functions performed by money in assisting various economic agents
such as consumers, producers, etc., in making economic decisions are called contingent functions of money.
The money income of the consumer and the money prices of the commodities influence the consumption
decisions of different individuals. Some of the contingent functions of money in economics are as follows:
o Distribution of National Income: Money helps in optimum distribution of national income among
different factors of production (land, labor, capital and enterprise). Total output of the country is jointly
produced by these factors. So, the output should be distributed among them. Money helps in distribution
of the national product in the form of rent, wage, interest and profit, which are expressed in money
terms.
o Basis of Credit Creation: Credit creation by commercial banks was not possible until money was
introduced. Money as a store of value has encouraged savings by people in the form of demand deposits
in banks. Such demand deposits are used by the commercial banks to create credit.
o Productivity of Capital: Money increases the productivity of capital as it is the most liquid asset and
can be put to any use. Due to liquidity of money, capital can be easily transferred from less productive
uses to more productive uses.
o Maximization of Satisfaction: Money helps consumers and producers in maximizing their
satisfaction. A consumer derives maximum satisfaction by equating the price (expressed in terms of

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money) of each commodity with its marginal utility (satisfaction). Similarly, a producer maximises his
satisfaction (profit) by equating the marginal productivity of a factor with price of such factor.
o Liquidity: Money is the most liquid of all assets and wealth. Gold, silver, land, cheques etc. are not as
liquid as money. If need arises, these assets have to be converted into money, but on the other hand,
money need not to be converted into any other form as it is readily acceptable.
Q 11.A
x Article 145(3), which deals with the rules of the court, provides for the setting up of a Constitution Bench.
Article 145(3) says a minimum of five judges need to sit for deciding a case involving a “substantial question
of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution”, or for hearing any reference under Article 143, which
deals with the power of the President to consult the SC.
x Other scenarios in which a Constitution Bench can be constituted are:
o If two or three-judge Benches of the Supreme Court have delivered conflicting judgments on the same
point of law
o If a later three-judge Bench of the SC doubts the correctness of a judgment delivered by a former Bench
with as much strength and decides to refer the matter to a larger bench for reconsideration of the
previous judgment.
o The judiciary hasn’t determined so far what constitute “substantial questions of law” that “involve
Constitutional interpretation”.
x A larger Bench can, however, overrule the pronouncement of a five-judge Constitution Bench. But before
that, a five-judge Bench must be convinced that the previous order was incorrect, following which it may
refer the matter to a larger Bench of seven judges.
x The Chief Justice of India, who is also the master of the roster, decides which cases will be heard by
a Constitution Bench ,the number of judges on the bench and even its composition. While there are no
clear guidelines, the sole discretion lies with the CJI. It is not binding on the CJI to be a part of a Constitution
Bench. The Supreme Court registry – the back-end office that receives and processes all documents – makes
the allocation based on his orders. The registry consists of six registrars and is headed by a secretary-
general. Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
x To date, the largest-ever Constitution Bench was that of 13 judges in the case Kesavananda Bharati v. State
of Kerala, headed by the then CJI S. M. Sikri. A ground-breaking judgment was delivered as the SC, by a
thin majority of 7:6, holding that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution so long as it did not
alter or amend “the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.”
Q 12.B
x The Government of India has adopted a Digital India vision to transform India into a digitally empowered
society & knowledge economy. To realise this vision, it is imperative that the focus be sharpened on the use
of innovative digital initiatives to not only enable governance & services on demand but also to empower
citizens.
x Indian government entities at all levels - Centre, State & local bodies - continue undertaking various
initiatives to fulfil the Digital India vision. Due recognition should be accorded to such digital initiatives
along with the teams that help build & implement them.
x Digital India Awards (DIA) presents an opportunity to bring to the fore such digital initiatives. These
awards are instituted under the aegis of the National Portal of India to encourage and honour
innovative digital solutions by government entities at all levels. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x DIA 2022 aims to inspire and motivate not only government entities but also startups in fulfilling the
Digital India vision. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x The seventh edition of the Digital India Awards witnessed more firsts, the most distinctive being the
conferring of the awards in person by the Hon'ble President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu. The awards
ceremony was held in the presence of the Hon'ble President, and Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw, Minister of
Electronics & Information Technology, Railways, and Communications etc. The awards were onboarded
to the Rashtriya Puraskar portal for the first time.
x This edition witnessed the awards being conferred on 22 teams across seven categories. These 22 digital
initiatives exhibit the inspirational spirit of a resurgent nation, emerging stronger after the pandemic, and
empowering all citizens including the differently abled to experience the fruits of digital governance that
include a better quality of life, enhanced ease of doing business, safer & secure access to authentic & open
information from Government entities even at the grassroots level, in the farthest corners of the country.

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x National Informatics Centre (NIC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
is the technology partner of the Government of India. NIC was established in the year 1976 with the
objective to provide technology-driven solutions to Central and State Governments.
x National Portal of India is a Mission Mode Project under the National E-Governance Plan and is
owned, designed and developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics &
Information Technology, Government of India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 13.A
x The betel plant is an evergreen and perennial creeper, with glossy heart-shaped leaves and white
catkin. Betel leaf (Paan) is a highly profitable crop which lasts for two to three years; harvesting is
done once every month. The leaves, however, are sensitive to variations in temperatures and rainfall. Too
much rain, or temperatures below 6°C or above 45°C, destroy them.
x Betel leaves, along with areca nuts and other assorted condiments, are chewed as mouth fresheners across
the Indian subcontinent.
x There are various types of leaves, the most popular being – Calcutta, Banarasi, Magahi, Venmony
and Tirur etc.
Q 14.B
x 'Religious paintings with a royal heritage' is the best definition for Thanjavur paintings, popularly known
as Tanjore paintings.
x Originating in Thanjavur about 300 km from Chennai, this form of art was patronized by the mighty
kingdoms of Cholas, Vijayanagara, Deccani Sultanate, Marathas, and as well as Mughals. Hence
x A Thanjavur Painting was generally made on a canvas pasted over a plank of wood (Jackfruit or teak)
with Arabic gum.
o The canvas was then evenly coated with a paste of French chalk (gopi) or powdered limestone and a
binding medium and dried.
o The artist then drew or traced using a stencil, a detailed outline of the main and subsidiary subjects on
the canvas.
o A paste, made of limestone powder and a binding medium called sukkan or makku, was used for
creating the Gesso work.
o Gold leaves (foils) and gems of varied hues were inlaid in selected areas like pillars, arches, thrones,
dresses, etc.
o Finally, colors were applied to the sketch.
x Thanjavur paintings were made in various sizes depending on the function, the subject, and the choice
of the patron.
o Large paintings of deities and the Maratha rulers, their courtiers and nobility, were painted and
installed to serve as architectural accents in the Maratha palaces and buildings
o The themes, as in painted albums, (made for European patrons) were usually gods and goddesses, holy
places, religious personalities, and occasionally portraits.
o The conical crown appearing in the miniature is a typical feature of the Tanjore painting.
o Their color palette consisted generally of vivid reds, deep greens, chalk white, turquoise blues, and the
lavish use of gold (foil) and inset glass beads.
o The base used for Tanjore paintings is wooden planks. Earlier, the artists used to go for teak wooden
planks, though now these paintings are made on plywood.
o Sometimes precious stones and pearls were also used in the paintings. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
o This school was greatly inspired by European techniques and was the most popular in Tamil Nadu
until the early twentieth century.
o It has received a GI Tag.
Q 15.A
x Three categories of Advocates are entitled to practice law before the Supreme Court. They are:
x Senior Advocates: These are Advocates who are designated as Senior Advocates by the Supreme Court of
India or by any High Court. The Court can designate any Advocate, with his consent, as Senior Advocate
if in its opinion by virtue of his ability, standing at the Bar or special knowledge or experience in law the
said Advocate is deserving of such distinction. A Senior Advocate is not entitled to appear without an
Advocate-on-Record in the Supreme Court or without a junior in any other court or tribunal in
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India. He is also not entitled to accept instructions to draw pleadings or affidavits, advise on evidence or
do any drafting work of an analogous kind in any court or tribunal in India or undertake conveyancing work
of any kind whatsoever but this prohibition shall not extend to settling any such matter as aforesaid in
consultation with a junior. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Advocates-on-Record: Only these advocates are entitled to file any matter or document before the
Supreme Court. They can also file an appearance or act for a party in the Supreme Court.
x Other Advocates: These are advocates whose names are entered on the roll of any State Bar Council
maintained under the Advocates Act, 1961 and they can appear and argue any matter on behalf of a
party in the Supreme Court but they are not entitled to file any document or matter before the Court.
Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 16.D
x Animal manure, excess fertilizer applied to crops and fields, and soil erosion make agriculture one of the
largest sources of nitrogen and phosphorus pollution.
x When precipitation falls on our cities and towns, it runs across hard surfaces - like rooftops, sidewalks and
roads - and carries pollutants, including nitrogen and phosphorus, into local waterways.
x Our sewer and septic systems are responsible for treating large quantities of waste, and these systems do
not always operate properly or remove enough nitrogen and phosphorus before discharging into waterways.
x Electric power generation, industry, transportation and agriculture have increased the amount of nitrogen in
the air through use of fossil fuels.
x Fertilizers, yard and pet waste, and certain soaps and detergents contain nitrogen and phosphorus, and can
contribute to nutrient pollution if not properly used or disposed of. The amount of hard surfaces and type of
landscaping can also increase the runoff of nitrogen and phosphorus during wet weather.
x Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 17.C
x Delhi HC dismisses plea against appointment of CJI Chandrachud in a Public Interest Litigation. Ruling
that the plea is "wishful thinking" by the litigant, the HC said although it is not a prohibited activity, however
when it forms part of the grounds of a petition before the court, it "amounts to an abuse of the process of
the court".
x Public interest Litigation (PIL) is litigation filed in a court of law, for the protection of “Public Interest”.
Any matter where the interest of the public at large is affected can be redressed by filing a Public Interest
Litigation in a court of law. Public interest litigation is not defined in any statute or in any act. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
x As per the Supreme Court guidelines, Letter petitions falling under the following categories alone will
ordinarily be entertained as Public Interest Litigation:-
o Bonded Labour matters
o Neglected Children
o Non-payment of minimum wages to workers and exploitation of casual workers and complaints of
violation of Labour Laws (except in individual cases)
o Petitions from jails complaining of harassment, for (pre-mature release)* and seeking release after
having completed 14 years in jail, death in jail, transfer, release on personal bond, speedy trial as a
fundamental right.
o Petitions against police for refusing to register a case, harassment by police, and death in police custody
o Petitions against atrocities on women, in particular harassment of bride, bride burning, rape, murder,
kidnapping, etc.
o Petitions complaining of harassment or torture of villagers by co-villagers or by police from persons
belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes and economically backward classes.
o Petitions pertaining to environmental pollution, disturbance of ecological balance, drugs, food
adulteration, maintenance of heritage and culture, antiques, forest and wildlife, and other matters of
public importance
o Petitions from riot -victims
o Family Pension.
x Cases falling under the following categories will not be entertained as Public Interest Litigation and these
may be returned to the petitioners or filed in the PIL Cell, as the case may be:
o Landlord-Tenant matters.
o Service matters and those pertaining to pension and gratuity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Complaints against Central/ State Government Departments and Local Bodies except those relating to
items bonded labor and family pension.
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o Admission to medical and other educational institutions.
o Petitions for early hearing of cases pending in High Courts and SubordinateCourts.
x The Supreme Court in Indian Banks’ Association, Bombay & Ors. vs. M/s Devkala Consultancy Service
and Ors held:- “In an appropriate case, where the petitioner might have moved a court in her private interest
and for redressal of the personal grievance, the court in furtherance of Public Interest may treat it a necessity
to enquire into the state of affairs of the subject of litigation in the interest of justice.” Thus, a private
interest case can also be treated as a public interest case. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
x Any citizen can file a public case by filing a petition:
o Under Art 32 of the Indian Constitution, in the Supreme Court.
o Under Art 226 of the Indian Constitution, in the High Court.
o Under sec. 133 of the Criminal Procedure Code, in the Court of Magistrates.
x A Public Interest Litigation can be filed against a State/ Central Govt., Municipal Authorities, and
not any private party. The definition of State is the same as given under Article 12 of the
Constitution. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
Q 18.A
x The provision for the NOTA has been made since the assembly elections of Madhya Pradesh in 2013. It
has been used in the General Elections to the sixteenth Lok Sabha. The votes polled against the NOTA
option are not taken into account for calculating the total valid voters polled by the contesting
candidates for the purpose of the return of security deposits to candidates. Even if the number of
electors opting for NOTA options is more than the number of votes polled by any of the candidates, the
candidate who secures the largest number of votes has to be declared elected. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x A VVPAT is intended as an independent verification system for voting machines designed to allow
voters to verify that their vote was cast correctly and to provide a means to audit the stored electronic
results. It contains the name of the candidate for whom the vote has been cast and the symbol of the
party/individual candidate. The VVPAT system allows a voter to challenge his/her vote on the basis of
the paper receipt. As per the rules, the Presiding officer of the polling booth will have to record the
dissent of the voter, which would have to be taken into account t the time of counting, if the challenge is
found to be false. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x The Supreme Court in 2013 approved an amendment to the Representation of the People's Act and
observed any person in jail or in police custody can contest elections. The Representation of People's
Act 1951 mentions that 'by the reason of the prohibition of the vote, a person whose name has been
entered in the electoral roll shall not cease to be an elector.' and Member of Parliament or the State
legislature shall be disqualified only if he is so disqualified under the provisions contained in the RPS' 1951
and on no other ground. Consequently, the persons in jail or in police custody are allowed to contest
the elections. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 19.C
x The Great Vehicle (The Mahayana) school of Buddhism chiefly has two philosophical
schools, the Madhyamika and the Yogachara. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x The Yogachara (The Way of Union) or Vijnanavadin school completely rejects realism and maintains a
thorough-going idealism, not allowing even the qualified realism of the Madhyamikas. According to this
school, the world is built by consciousness and has no more reality than a dream. The only reality is
"Tathata" (suchness). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Asanga's Sutralankara is the earliest text of the Yogachara school of Buddhist philosophy. It is said the
text was compiled sometime around the 4th-5th century. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 20.A
x Recently, some developmental changes were opposed in the islands of Lakshadweep and Andaman&
Nicobar.
x The reasons cited for this opposition include poor precedence of the two-child policy, the need for strong
legislation like Prevention of Anti-social activities, and on the broader level on grounds of lack of
sustainability and interference.
x In a similar connotation, India’s turtle researchers have been opposing NITI Aayog’s development plans
for Little Andaman and Great Nicobar Islands.
x The islands’ rich biodiversity will be greatly affected if the plans reach fruition. These events bring into
focus the issues with the current island development policies.

.
x Lately, the sixth meeting of the Island Development Agency(IDA) was held in New Delhi in 2020. The
Union Government constituted the Island Development Agency on 1st June 2017 for the development of
islands.
x For the first time in the country, under the guidance of IDA, an initiative of sustainable development in the
identified Islands within scientifically-assessed carrying capacity has been taken up.
x Development Plans with a focus on the creation of jobs for the islanders through tourism promotion as well
as export of seafood and coconut-based products made in the Islands have been prepared and are being
implemented in four islands of Andaman & Nicobar and five islands of Lakshadweep.
x The meetings of the Agency are chaired by the Union Home Minister and include secretaries of
various ministries. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 21.A
x Recent context: The European Commission, the executive arm of the European Union, recommended
on June 17, 2022, that Ukraine be formally granted candidate status in the EU, the first step in the
long journey to becoming a member state of the bloc.
x The Eastern Partnership (EaP) is a joint initiative involving the European Union (EU), its Member
States and six Eastern European Partner countries: Armenia, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Georgia, the
Republic of Moldova and Ukraine.
x Launched in 2009, the EaP is a strategic and ambitious partnership based on common values and rules,
mutual interests and commitments, as well as shared ownership and responsibility.
x It aims to strengthen and deepen the political and economic relations between the EU, its Member States
and the partner countries, as well as support sustainable reform processes in the countries of the Eastern
Partnership.
x As a specific Eastern dimension of the European Neighbourhood Policy (ENP), the Eastern Partnership
combines bilateral and multilateral tracks.
x The EaP contributes to the overall goal of increasing the stability, prosperity and resilience of the EU’s
neighbours, as set out in the Global Strategy for the foreign and security policy of the EU and the 2015 ENP
Review. It supports the delivery of many global policy objectives, including the Paris Agreement on Climate
Change and the UN 2030 Agenda and its Sustainable Development Goals. It is fully aligned with the
European Commission’s Strategic Agenda 2019-2024 and reflects all relevant flagship strategies adopted
by the Commission.
Q 22.D
x Khajuraho temples were built between 9th and 11th centuries by the different kings of the Chandella
dynasty.
.
x Khajuraho presently has about 40000 people, and is located in the Chhatarpur district of Madhya Pradesh,
near Orchha.
x The backdrop of these temples is formed by the Vindhyan mountains – which form a natural demarcation
line between north and south India.
x Built in the Indo-Aryan architecture style, Khajuraho temples depict the Nagar style of temple
architecture, which has:
o a ground plan and an elevation and
o the cruciform spread and curvilinear spire.
x Most of these temples are built by sandstone, brought from the quarries of Panna.
x All the temples follow a certain layout, consisting of a platform as a base, entrance steps leading to ‘Ardh-
mandap’ (entrance porch), led into ‘Mandap’ (Assembly Hall), further into ‘Maha Mandap’ (Large
Assembly Hall), into the ‘Antaral’ (Vestibule) and finally to where the deity is placed – ‘Garbha Griha’
(Sanctum Sanctorum). Thus, each temple has a ‘Kalash’ or pot kept at the top of the main spire, with several
half spires around it.
x The temples being a UNESCO world heritage site have been kept in the same form, without any
change in the interiors or the exteriors.
x The temples in Khajuraho are dedicated to and inspired by both Hinduism and Jainism. Although
built over different years and by different rulers, the existence of both Hindu and Jain temples side by side,
reflect the co-existence and acceptance of both these religions amongst the rulers and the people.
x The Khajuraho temples are made of sandstone, with a granite foundation that is almost concealed
from view. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 23.C
x India remained a safe haven during the global financial crisis triggered by the collapse of investment bank
Lehman Brothers in 2008, with domestic banks, backed by sound regulatory practices, showing strength
and resilience. A decade and a half on, Indian banks remained unaffected by the failure of Silicon Valley
Bank (SVB) and Signature Bank in the US, despite the global interconnectedness in the financial sector.
x A reason why an SVB-like failure is unlikely in India is that domestic banks have a different balance sheet
structure. In India we don’t have a system where deposits are withdrawn in such bulk quantities. Household
savings constitute a major part of bank deposits in India — this is different from the US, where a
large portion of bank deposits are from corporates. Hence option 2 is not correct.
x A large chunk of Indian deposits is with public sector banks, and most of the rest is with very strong
private sector lenders such as HDFC Bank, ICICI Bank, and Axis Bank. Customers need not worry about
their savings as the government has always stepped in when banks have faced difficulties. In India, the
approach of the regulator has generally been that depositors’ money should be protected at any cost. The
best example is the rescue of Yes Bank where a lot of liquidity support was provided. Hence option 1 is
correct.
x According to the central bank, D-SIBs are financial institutions that are large enough where they cannot be
allowed to fall. As a result of their importance, the government is expected to bail out these banks in times
of economic distress to prevent widespread harm. Additionally, D-SIBs follow a different set of regulations
in relation to systemic risks and moral hazard issues. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named the
top three lenders in India – State Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank – as Domestic
Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs). Hence option 3 is not correct.
Q 24.A
x The Keeling Curve is a graph that represents the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in Earth’s
atmosphere since 1958. The Keeling Curve is named after its creator, Dr. Charles David Keeling.
x The measurements are recorded at Mauna Loa Observatory in Hawai'i, United States. Recently the
eruption of Mauna Loa Volcanoe halted the Keeling Curve CO2 Measurements.
x The Keeling Curve is considered the icon of scientific evidence that human activities are altering the
planet’s climate. It has provided incontrovertible evidence that the amount of the gas carbon dioxide has
risen far above any levels experienced on Earth for at least three million years. Additional study has shown
that the only plausible cause of the warming caused by the increase in concentrations of that gas is the use
of fossil fuels by society. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 25.A
x Recent context: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (Sebi) approved a framework for Application
Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) like facility being made available to investors for secondary market
trading.
.
x ASBA is an application containing an authorization to block the application money in the bank
account, for subscribing to an initial public offering (IPO). Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
x The facility is based on blocking of funds for trading in the secondary market through UPI (unified
payments interface) and will be optional for investors as well as stock brokers
x Under the framework client will continue to earn interest on his blocked funds in his savings account till
the time amount is debited. There will be a direct settlement with clearing corporation (CC), without passing
through pool accounts of the intermediaries, thereby providing client level settlement visibility to CC and
thus avoiding the risk of co-mingling of clients’ funds and securities.
x The Sebi board introduced an alternative route to enable a diverse set of entities to become sponsors of
mutual fund (MF). Such entities, who otherwise may not have been eligible to be sponsors, include private
equity funds, with requisite safeguards included in the proposal.
x The board approved a framework to provide for an institutional mechanism for prevention and detection of
fraud or market abuse by stock brokers. For this, the stock broker regulations will be amended to provide
systems for surveillance of trading activities and internal controls and whistle blower policy.
x The amendment will be made with regard to escalation and reporting mechanisms and obligations of the
stock broker and its employees.
x These amendments will come into effect from October 1, 2023.
x In order to bring more transparency and to ensure timely disclosure of material events or information by
listed entities,the board approved a few amendments to Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements
(LODR) Regulations.
x It introduced a quantitative threshold for determining materiality of events and information.
x The board approved a stricter timeline for disclosure of material events / information for which a decision
has been taken in the meeting of the board of directors (within 30 minutes) and which are emanating from
within the listed entity (within 12 hours).
x The regulator also announced to set up a Corporate Debt Market Development Fund (CDMDF) in the
form of an Alternative Investment Fund to act as a backstop facility for purchase of investment grade
corporate debt securities during times of stress to instill confidence amongst the participants in the corporate
bond market. The fund will enhance secondary market liquidity.
Q 26.C
x Project Elephant (PE) was launched by the Government of India in the year 1992 as a Centrally Sponsored
Scheme with the following objectives:
o To protect elephants, their habitat and corridors.
o To address issues of man-animal conflict.
o Welfare of captive elephants.
o To promote not harming elephants for their tusks.
o Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x Financial support is being provided to major elephant-bearing States in the country. The Project is being
mainly implemented in 16 States / UTs, viz. Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Chhattisgarh,
Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu, Tripura,
Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal.
x Under the project, Tamil Nadu has the maximum number of elephant reserves, namely, Nilgiri ER,
Coimbatore ER, Anamalai ER, Srivilliputtur ER and Agsthyamalai ER. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x The elephant was declared the National Heritage Animal of India in 2010. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x World Elephant Day is observed every year on August 12.
Q 27.C
x Posidonia Australis
o The world’s largest plant has recently been discovered off the West Coast of Australia. Hence, option
(c) is the correct answer.
o Posidonia Australis also known as ribbon weed is a species of seagrass.
o It was discovered in the shallow waters of the World Heritage Area of Shark Bay in Western Australia.
o The plant is estimated to be at least 4,500 years old.
o It stretches across 180 km in length. This makes it the largest known plant on Earth.

.
o The plant appears to be extremely resilient without successful flowering and seed production.
o Plant’s Size
9 The ribbon weed covers an area of 20,000 hectares. The next on the podium, the second largest
plant, is the clonal colony of a quaking Aspen tree in Utah, which covers 43.6 hectares. The largest
tree in India, the Great Banyan in Howrah’s Botanical Garden, covers 1.41 hectares.
9 The existence of the seagrass was known, that it is one single plant was not.
Q 28.C
x Prosopis chilensis
o Prosopis chilensis is a drought-resistant plant.
o It is also commonly known as Chilean Mesquite.
o It is a small to medium-sized legume tree. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Similarity - It is very similar to Prosopis Juliflora (known as Mesquite) in both genetic and physical
features.
o Spread - It is native to the arid regions of South American countries namely, Argentina, Bolivia, Chile,
and Peru.
o The species has migrated to Africa and naturalized in many African countries.
o Threat - Prosopis chilensis is an alien invasive species in the 21 islands divided into the Tuticorin,
Vembar, Kilakkarai, and Mandapam groups in the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
(GoMBR). Hence statement 2 is correct.
o The invasiveness of this species and how they came to India is not known so far.
o Corals, seagrass, and mangroves are among the 3 unique ecosystems present on the islands.
o Like any invasive species on an island, Prosopis chilensis will slowly kill the native trees as well as the
mangroves.
o The GoMBR, India’s first marine biosphere reserve, is one of the important habitats for coastal birds
migrating as far as the Arctic Circle.
Q 29.A
x Recent context: India and the US were prime movers behind the UN Democracy Fund in 2005, when they
were negotiating the civilian nuclear co-operation deal. That India, a founding member of UNDEF, has
no objections to the Fund giving grants to NGOs funded by George Soros, while he is put on the watchlist
in India underlines a contradiction that’s not new. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x UNDEF was established in 2005 as a United Nations General Trust Fund to support democratization
efforts around the world. Hence statement 3 is correct.
The UNDEF was part of the World Summit’s outcome document. At the World Summit during the UN
General Assembly in September 2005, India & USA co-sponsored a fund-raising event for UNDEF. Hence
x UNDEF plays a unique role in complementing the UN's other work with governments to strengthen
democratic governance around the world.
x UNDEF's Mandate and Projects:
o UNDEF funds projects that empower civil society, promote human rights, and encourage the
participation of all groups in democratic processes.
o The majority of UNDEF funds go to local civil society organizations (CSOs).
9 The Advisory Board of the UNDEF offers policy guidance and funding guidelines, considers
proposals for funding, and recommends funding proposals for approval by the Secretary-General.
Q 30.A
x Somadeva’s “Ocean of Story” (Kathā-sarit-sāgara), written in the 11th century in easy but polished verse.
The stories are told with comparative simplicity and directness, and with many touches of humour and
pathos, quote from the tale of the thief and the merchant’s daughter. A wealthy merchant, Ratnadatta, has
no sons, and his only daughter, Ratnavati, much loved and pampered by her father, refuses to marry, despite
the pleading of her parents. Meanwhile a desperate thief has been captured by the king, and is led through
the streets to execution by impalement. Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
x In the category of narrative poems must include Kalhana’s great chronicle of Kashmīr “The River of Kings”,
and several other medieval works of comparatively small literary value. Midway between the purely
.
narrative poem and the courtly “epic” are a number of historical works partly descriptive, partly panegyric,
and partly sober history.
x The most famous of these is “The Deeds of Harsa”, by Bana, written in ornate poetic prose, Of some literary
merit is “The Deeds of Vikramānka” (Vikramānkadevacarita), of Bilhana , dealing with the life and
adventures of the great Chalukya emperor Vikramaditya VI (c. 1075–1125). Hence, pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
x Yet another is the work of a Jaina monk, Nayachandra Sūri, the Hammīra-mahākāvya, which is among
the latest important works of Sanskrit literature. This beautiful but little known poem deals with the life of
Hammīra, the last of the dynasty of the Cahamanas, who was defeated and killed by the Delhi sultan
Alauddīn Khaljī in 1301, after a long siege of his capital Ranasthambhapura (in the vernacular,
Ranthambhor). Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
Q 31.C
x Article 28 prohibits completely state-run educational institutions from giving any religious instructions. It
provides freedom in choosing to attend any religious instruction by educational institutions either
recognised by the state or receiving state funds. In the case of a minor, guardian consent is needed for the
same. This article doesn't prohibit educational institutions maintained by religious groups thus permitting
them to disseminate religious instruction. Furthermore, without his agreement, no individual attending any
educational institution recognised by the State or getting help from State money will be obliged to attend
any religious teaching or service in such institution.
x Article 28 distinguishes between four types of educational institutions:-
o Institutions wholly maintained by the State. Here religious instruction is completely prohibited.
Hence option 1 is not correct.
o Institutions administered by the State but established under any endowment or trust. Here
religious instruction is permitted. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Institutions recognised by the State. Here religious instruction is permitted on a voluntary basis.
Hence option 3 is correct.
o Institutions receiving aid from the State. Here religious instruction is permitted on a voluntary
basis. Hence option 4 is correct.
Q 32.D
x The White Mutiny was the unrest that occurred at the dissolution of the "European Forces" of the
British East India Company in India during the mid-19th century in the wake of the Indian Rebellion
of 1857.
x On November 1st, 1858, a Durbar was assembled at Allahabad to hear Lord Canning, Governor-General of
India, who read out the Queen’s Proclamation abolishing the 250-year rule of the East India Company and
transferring the government of India direct to the Crown. The transfer of power meant that the soldiers of
the three Presidency Armies of Bengal, Madras, and Bombay (of East India Company) would now be
required to make over their allegiance from the defunct ‘East India Company’ to the Queen, as in the British
Army.
x Units of the EIC received batta – extra allowances of pay to cover various expenditures relating to operations
out of the home territories while British Army units did not. Officers of the British Army were senior to
those of the same rank in the EIC. Fearing a decline in status, European troops operating on behalf of the
East India Company rebelled against their transfer to the service of the Queen of England which is known
as the White Mutiny.
Q 33.B
x The WPI measures the price of a representative basket of wholesale goods in India. The index is divided
into three groups namely primary articles (22.6 per cent of total weight), fuel and power (13.2 per cent) and
manufactured products (64.2 per cent).
x WPI is compiled and released on monthly basis by the Office of Economic Adviser, Department for
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
x The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.

.
x Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

.
Q 34.B
x The IUCN Red List of Ecosystems Categories and Criteria is a global standard for how they assess the
status of ecosystems, applicable at local, national, regional and global levels. Assessments determine
whether an ecosystem is not facing imminent risk of collapse, or whether it is vulnerable, endangered, or
critically endangered.
Q 35.A
x Ivory Trade:
o The ivory trade is the commercial, often illegal trade in the ivory tusks of the hippopotamus, walrus,
narwhal, mammoth and most commonly, African and Asian elephants.
o Ivory has been traded for hundreds of years by people in Africa and Asia, resulting in restrictions and
bans.
x Proposal to allow a regular form of controlled trade in ivory was defeated at CITES COP 19
o The proposal moved by Zimbabwe to allow a regular form of controlled trade in ivory from Namibia,
Botswana, South Africa, and Zimbabwe, was defeated 83-15 at CITES COP 19 held in Panama
City. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Earlier Namibia’s similar proposal for allowing a regular form of controlled trade in ivory by delisting
the elephant populations of the four countries from Appendix II was rejected at CoP17 (2016) and
CoP18 (2019). On these two occasions, India voted against the proposal.
o But abandoning its decades-old stance of strongly opposing the ivory trade, India for the first
time abstained from voting at COP 19.
x International ivory trade was banned in 1989 when all African elephant populations were put in
CITES Appendix I. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Q 36.A
x The Government of India recently announced the sites for setting up of 7 PM Mega Integrated Textile
Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks for the textile industry. The Parks will come up in Tamil Nadu,
Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. Hence
x Inspired by the 5F vision of the Hon’ble Prime Minister (i.e. Farm to Fibre to Factory to Fashion to Foreign),
the PM MITRA Parks are a major step forward in realising the Government's vision of making India a
global hub for textile manufacturing and exports.
x PM MITRA Parks will help in creating world-class industrial infrastructure that would attract large scale
investment including foreign direct investment (FDI) and encourage innovation and job creation within the
sector.

.
x The Ministry of Textiles will oversee the execution of these projects. A Special purpose vehicle owned by
the Centre and State Government will be set up for each park which will oversee the implementation
of the project. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The Ministry of Textiles will provide financial support in the form of Development Capital
Support up to Rs. 500 crore per park to the Park SPV. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o A Competitive Incentive Support (CIS) upto Rs 300 crore per park to the units in PM MITRA Park
shall also be provided to incentivise speedy implementation.
o Convergence with other GOI schemes shall also be facilitated in order to ensure additional incentives
to the Master Developer and investor units.
x State governments will provide contiguous and encumbrance-free land parcel of at least 1000 acres of land
and will also facilitate provision of all utilities, Reliable Power Supply and Water availability and Waste
Water Disposal system, an effective single window clearance as well as a conducive and stable
industrial/textile policy.
x PM MITRA Parks represent a unique model where the Centre and State Governments will work together
to increase investment, promote innovation, create job opportunities and ultimately make India a global hub
for textile manufacturing and exports. Nearly Rs. 70,000 crores investment and 20 lakhs employment
generation is envisaged through these parks.
Q 37.D
x Tomar dynasty in India, it was a Rajput dynasty that ruled in the region of present-day Delhi and its
surrounding areas from around the 9th century until the 12th century. The Tomar dynasty is believed to
have been founded by Anangpal Tomar, who is credited with building the famous Lal Kot fortress in
Delhi.
x Anangapala Tomara is widely believed to be the ruler who established Dhilika Puri which eventually
became Delhi. The Tomars were known for their military prowess and their patronage of art and
architecture. They built several forts, palaces, and temples in their territories, some of which can still be
seen today.
x The citadel of Lal kot in the Mehrauli region was established by Anangapala II, who also oversaw the
construction of the Anang Tal reservoir. Likewise, it is believed that the renowned Suraj Kund reservoir
was commissioned by Surajpala, a king from the Tomara dynasty.
Q 38.D
x Durgabai Deshmukh was born on 15th July 1909, in Rajahmundri, Kakinada. She was involved in the
Indian freedom movement from a very young age. At the age of 14, she volunteered at a conference held
by the Indian National Congress in Kakinada.
x In May 1930, she participated in Salt Satyagraha in Madras and was imprisoned in 1930 and 1932. In 1936,
she established Andhra Mahila Sabha to coach young girls in Madras.
x Durgabai was elected to the Constituent Assembly from the Madras Province. She made several key
interventions on issues that include the national language, judicial independence and human trafficking. She
was the only woman in the panel of chairmen in the Constituent Assembly. She was the one who
proposed Hindustani (Hindi+Urdu) as the national language of India. Hence, option (d) is correct.
x Sarojini Naidu was the first Indian woman to hold the position of governor of an Indian state and president
of the Indian National Congress. Naidu was appointed to the Constituent Assembly from Bihar. She spoke
about the importance of adopting a national flag in the Assembly.
x Dakshayani Velayudhan was the first and only Dalit woman in the Constituent Assembly. In 1942, she
was nominated to the Cochin Legislative Council seat and in 1946 to the Constituent Assembly.
x Begum Aizaz Rasul was born in Malerkotla, into a princely family and was married to the young landowner
Nawaab Aizaz Rasul. She was the only Muslim woman member of the Constituent Assembly.
Q 39.A
x The Carlyle Circular was related to the withdrawal of government grants and affiliations from
educational institutions from which students took part in the Swadeshi and Boycott movement. It
condemned the use of school boys and students for political purposes as absolutely subversive and called
upon teachers to prevent boys from taking part in political activities. Withdrawal of the right of competing
for government scholarships was prescribed for activities as a penalty for disobedience. The District
Officers were requested to report to heads of schools and colleges, the names of the students who took part
in the Swadeshi Movement. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

.
x Imposition of restrictions and censorship on the newspapers and magazines published in vernacular
language was put under the vernacular press act in 1778 during the tenure of Lord Lytton.
x The maximum age limit for candidates was lowered from 23 to 22 years in 1860, to 21 in 1866, and to 19
years in 1878. It was later fixed between 22 to 24 years in 1906.
x The Wood’s dispatch recommended setting up of vernacular primary school and Anglo–vernacular high
schools and an affiliated college at the district level
Q 40.C
x Recent context: A long-term study has revealed that fire corals (Millepora) are thriving even as other corals
disappear and could help preserve some of the 3D environment that helps make reefs such great homes to
fish and other organisms.
x Fire corals resemble typical stony corals but are actually close relatives of jellyfish.
x They have the ability to grow either as sheets—expanding as a flat coating across rocks and other surfaces—
or as “trees,” sprouting upward with a stem and branches.
x Fire corals are hydrozoans, and thus have different type of polyps with different functions than anthozoan
corals. The polyps of hydrozoans are near microscopic size and are mostly imbedded in the skeleton and
connected by a network of minute canals.
o Anthozoans include sea anemones, a variety of corals, sea fans, and sea pens.
o The Hydrozoa is a subgroup of cnidarians containging approximately 3700 species. It is a diverse group
with a variety of life cycles, growth forms, and specialized structures. Like many cnidarians, hydrozoans
have both polyp and medusa stages in their life cycle.
x The fire corals gain nutrients via their special symbiotic relationship with algae known as
zooxanthellae. The zooxanthellae live inside the tissues of the coral, and provide the coral with food, which
they produce through photosynthesis, and therefore require sunlight. In return, the coral provides the algae
with protection and access to sunlight. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
x Reproduction in fire corals is more complex than in other reef-building corals. The polyps reproduce
asexually, producing jellyfish-like medusae, which are released into the water from special cup-like
structures known as ampullae.
Q 41.D
x Recently, Defense Minister has inaugurated the strategically important Steel Arch Bridge (Siyom Bridge)
built on the Siyom River in Arunachal Pradesh. The Siyom River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River,
and it originates from the eastern Himalayas near the China border in Arunachal Pradesh. River Siyom
flows along the western borders of the Mouling National park, while a number of smaller rivers are also
passing through the park namely the Semong, Krobong, Subong and Siring, all of which flow into the Siang
River, which is at the eastern boundary.
x The Kaveri rises in Brahmagiri hills (1,341 m) of Kogadu district in Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and it
drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. Since the upper catchment area receives rainfall during the southwest
monsoon season (summer) and the lower part during the northeast monsoon season (winter), the river
carries water throughout the year with comparatively less fluctuation than the other Peninsular rivers. About
3 per cent of the Kaveri basin falls in Kerala, 41 per cent in Karnataka and 56 per cent in Tamil Nadu. Its
important tributaries are the Kabini, the Bhavani and the Amravati.
x The Damodar river occupies the eastern margins of the Chotanagpur Plateau where it flows through a rift
valley and finally joins the Hugli. The Barakar is its main tributary. Once known as the ‘sorrow of Bengal’,
the Damodar has been now tamed by the Damodar Valley corporation, a multipurpose project.
x The Sarda or Saryu river rises in the Milam glacier in the Nepal Himalayas where it is known as the
Goriganga. Along the Indo-Nepal border, it is called Kali or Chauk, where it joins the Ghaghara. Hence
option (d) is the correct answer.
x The Mahananda is an important tributary of the Ganga rising in the Darjiling hills. It joins the Ganga
as its last left bank tributary in West Bengal.
Q 42.B
x The Chalukya dynasty governed significant portions of central and southern India between the 6th and
12th centuries. They were known for their patronage of art, architecture, literature, and religion, and were
responsible for building many notable monuments and temples.
x Pulakesin II ruled between 608-642 AD, he was one of the notable rulers of the Chalukyas.
x Ravikirti was the court poet of Pulakesin II who composed the Aihole inscription. The most important
event in the reign of Pulakesin II was the visit of Hiuen Tsang to his kingdom.
.
x Vikramaditya I: Vikramaditya I was the third son and followed his father, Pulakeshi II on to the Chalukya
throne. He restored order in the fractured kingdom and made the Pallavas retreat from the capital Vatapi.
Vikramaditya inherited the traditional titles of the dynasty, including Satyashraya and Shri-prithvi-vallabha.
x Pulakesin I: Pulakeshin I or Pulakeshin was the first sovereign ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi.
He ruled parts of present-day Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana states in the western
and central Deccan region of India. He was succeeded by his son Kirtivarman.
x Kirtivarman I: Kirttivarman I was a ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi in India. He ruled parts of
present-day Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Andhra Pradesh. Kirttivarman was the son of his predecessor
Pulakeshin I, the first sovereign ruler of the dynasty.
x Kirtivarman II: Kirtivarman II also known as Rahappa was the last ruler in the Badami Chalukya dynasty.
He succeeded his father Vikramaditya II. His reign was continuously troubled by the growing power of the
Rashtrakutas and Pandyas and finally succumbed to them.
Q 43.A
x The year 2022-23 saw the highest number of changes introduced in the 2006 notification in the last five
years. Office memorandums are available in public domain but the changes introduced in them do not have
to undergo public consultation since they are not considered an act of change in law.
x On January 17, 2022, the Centre rolled out a star-rating system for state environment impact
assessment authorities (SEIAAs) to make them more efficient, transparent and accountable. The
rating system, to be updated every month, is based on seven parameters that are geared towards pressurising
SEIAAs to fast-track clearances. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x The 2006 EIA notification has defined the sectors that have to undergo the process of public hearing for
project appraisal. The process involves public consultation wherein comments on the draft EIA report
uploaded on the ministry’s website are considered by the proponent.
x The second component of it is “public hearing”, wherein advertisement is given in the local newspapers to
hold a gathering, presided over by the district magistrate/district collector/deputy commissioner, to hear the
concerns of the stakeholders, especially the local residents, on the project. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x In December 2017, MoEFCC made provision to grant “post-facto” clearance to the projects that are
in violation of the 2006 EIA notification. Later, in July 2021, MoEFCC issued a standard operating
procedure to regulate the projects under violations. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 44.D
x The exception to Equality:The President of India and the State Governors enjoy certain immunities
like no criminal proceedings, no arrest, not being answerable to certain courts, etc. (Article 361).
Hence statement 3 is correct.
x No person shall be liable to any civil or criminal court proceedings in respect of the publication in a
newspaper (or by radio or T.V.) of a substantially true report of any proceedings of the Parliament (Article
361-A).
x No MP or a member of the State Legislature shall be liable to any court proceedings in respect of
anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof (Article 105 and
Article 194). Hence statement 2 is correct.
x Article 31-C is a huge exception to Article 14 and provides that laws made by the state for
implementing the Directive Principles contained in Articles 39 (b) and (C) cannot be challenged on
the ground that they are violative of Article 14 (constitutional validity upheld by Supreme Court in
the Keshavananda Bharti Case, 1978). Hence statement 1 is correct.
x The foreign sovereigns, ambassadors, diplomats enjoy immunity from civil and court proceedings and the
UNO agencies enjoy diplomatic immunity.
Q 45.C
x Recent context: A study has highlighted accelerated breeding in mosquitoes due to presence of
Bisphenol A in urban drains. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
x Bisphenol A or BPA:
o It is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in production of polycarbonate plastics.
9 It is commonly used in shatterproof windows, eyewear, water bottles, and epoxy resins.
o It can leach into food and beverages as well, exposing adults to ill effects of it such as high blood
pressure, diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
o It can disrupt the endocrine system by interfering with hormones and affects brain and prostate gland
of foetuses, infants and children.

.
x Organochlorine insecticides are chlorinated hydrocarbons, which are known to be effective to control
mosquito populations.
o Polychlorinated Dibenzodioxins (Dioxins) and Polychlorinated Dibenzofurans (Furans) are byproducts
of burning chloride-containing materials, especially organochlorides (most commonly burning
polyvinyl chloride, the third most widely produced synthetic plastic polymer).
x Pyrethroids and pyrethrins used to control mosquitoes break down faster in the sunlight as opposed
to chemical or microbial breakdown.
Q 46.C
x Bandipur Tiger Reserve completed 50 years as a Project Tiger Reserve
o It was established in 1973 under Project Tiger. In 1985, by including adjacent areas from Venugopala
Wildlife Park, it was enlarged and named as Bandipur National Park.
o It was among the first nine reserves to be brought under the flagship programme and it included
most areas that were already a protected area as Venugopal Wildlife Park. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
x Location:
o Located in the Mysore District of Karnataka, the reserve lies adjacent to the Nagarhole National
Park, Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary in Kerala
and forms part of Nilagiri Biosphere Reserve.
x Biodiversity:
o The Bandipur tiger reserve has a high density of tiger in the Western ghats landscape,( The Corbett
Tiger Reserve has the highest density in India) bounded by other important tiger habitats, namely
Mudumalai, Waynad, Nagarahole and BRT. Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
o Bandipur Tiger Reserve is teeming with rich and varied wildlife and some of the endemic and
endangered species of animals spotted here include Tiger, Leopard, Elephant, Gaur, Sambar,
Spotted deer, Sloth bear, Mouse deer, Wild dog, Four horned Antelope, Flying Squirrel, Nilgiri
Langur, Panther, Crocodiles, Python, Osprey, Pea fowl, etc.
o The Bandipur along with Nagarahole, Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam & Wayanad constitutes the single
largest Wild population of Tigers in the world.
x Rivers:
o Three rivers flow through the main area of the Bandipur Tiger Resrve. Of these, the Nugu River flows
through the middle, while the Moyar River forms the southern boundary between Bandipur and
Mudumalai. The third river - Kabini, forms the boundary of Bandipur and Nagarhole
Sanctuary. Hence statement 2 is not correct. The rivers Baitarani and Subarnarekha flows through
Simlipal National Park.
Q 47.B
x Seoul Forest Declaration:
o Recently, the Seoul Declaration was adopted at the XV World Forestry Congress, held in Seoul,
South Korea. The Declaration was signed by 141 participant countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o This was the second congress held in Asia, with Indonesia hosting the first Congress in Asia in 1978.
o It identifies priority areas with the potential to lead to a green, healthy, and resilient future.

.
o It urges that responsibility for forests should be shared and integrated across institutions, sectors, and
stakeholders.
o Earlier, the State of the World’s Forests 2022 (SOFO 2022) was released by the United Nations Food
and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
o Seoul Forest Declaration was an outcome of the discussions held at the recently concluded XV World
Forestry Congress in Seoul, South Korea.
x World Forestry Congress:
o It is held every six years. The first Congress was held in Italy in 1926. Hence, statement 1 is not
correct.
o This year's event, hosted by the Republic of Korea and co-organized with FAO, was the second congress
held in Asia.
o Indonesia hosted the first Congress in Asia in 1978.
o The Congress has been providing a forum for inclusive discussion on the key challenges and way
forward for the forestry sector.
o The theme for 2022: Building a Green, Healthy, and Resilient.
o The Congress is not an intergovernmental meeting; it has no formal constituencies or country
delegations.
o The Congress is a forum for the exchange of views and experiences on all aspects of forests and forestry,
which may lead to the formulation of broad recommendations applicable at national, regional, and
global levels.
Q 48.A
x Due Process of Law Due process requires the court to examine not just the procedural legitimacy of
legislation, but also whether it is just, fair, and reasonable. The doctrine presents an actual and true image,
any unfair methods employed while adopting laws are deemed invalid. The phrase “due process of law”
is not mentioned explicitly anywhere in the Indian Constitution. It has a wider scope as it not only
checks if the procedure is according to the law but also if the law is just and fair. Hence statement 1
is correct.
x Individuals are protected by due process of law not only against arbitrary executive actions but also
from arbitrary legislative actions. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x The Supreme Court of India follows a mix of both procedures established by law and the due process
of law. It sometimes follows the basic procedure defined by law, while other times it puts the law to the test
in accordance with the law's due process requirements. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x In the ADM Jabalpur v. ShivKant Shukla case (Habeas Corpus case), 1976 the honourable Supreme Court
followed the process of procedure established by law. In Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India,1978 the
Supreme Court gave its judgement based on the due process of law. The court ruled that the behaviour in
question was illegal. It highlighted that the reasoning behind legislation is more essential than the process.
x In the K.S. Puttaswamy case, The Supreme Court stated that the word "due process of law" poses
interpretation challenges and is vague. It also underlined once more that the phrase was purposely omitted
from the language of Article 21 by the Constitution's drafters.
Q 49.C
x Recently, the first case of a plant fungus, Chondrostereum purpureum (causes Silver Leaf disease)
infecting human beings has been reported from Kolkata. Fungal infections are expected to pose a greater
threat to human beings in the years to come due to rising temperatures, caused by climate change and other
reasons such as growing resistance to the small number of treatments available.
o Powdery mildew is a fungal disease that affects many plants, flowers, vegetables and fruits. This
fungus thrives during low soil moisture conditions combined with high humidity levels on the upper
parts of the plant surface.
o Tobacco mosaic disease is caused by the Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV). Symptoms include light
green, yellow, or white mottling on leaves that may resemble symptoms of some nutrient deficiencies.
Leaves may be stringy or distorted.
o Silver leaf is a fungal disease of trees caused by the fungus plant pathogen Chondrostereum
purpureum. It attacks most species of the rose family Rosaceae and is progressive and often fatal.
x Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 50.D
x Living Land Charter:
o The non-binding ‘Living Lands Charter’ mandates that member countries will safeguard global land
resources and arrest land degradation while acting against climate change, and biodiversity loss and
towards sustainable management.
.
o The Commonwealth leaders have adopted the Living Lands Charter at the 2022 Commonwealth
Heads of Government meeting in Kigali, Rwanda. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o It is a non-binding agreement adopted by Commonwealth member countries. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.
o The Living Lands Charter helps to encapsulate the combined effort to hold the global average
temperature increase to 1.5 degrees Celsius.
o The charter aims to achieve climate goals through a mixture of policy influence, financing, technical
assistance, governance, and sharing knowledge across nations.
o Commonwealth governments have been asked to submit their emission reduction targets by 23rd
September 2022.
o It is aimed to support member countries to effectively deliver their commitments under the three Rio
Conventions — UN Convention on Biological Diversity, UN Convention to Combat Desertification
(UNCCD), and UN Framework Convention on Climate Change.
Q 51.C
x The first confirmed object from another star to visit our solar system, this interstellar interloper appears to
be a rocky, cigar-shaped object with a somewhat reddish hue. The object, named ‘Oumuamua by its
discoverers, is up to one-quarter mile (400 meters) long and highly-elongated—perhaps 10 times as long as
it is wide. That aspect ratio is greater than that of any asteroid or comet observed in our solar system to date.
While its elongated shape is quite surprising, and unlike objects seen in our solar system, it may provide
new clues into how other solar systems formed. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 52.B
x The Saiga Antelope:
o The saiga antelope is a ‘Critically Endangered’ ungulate which during antiquity migrated across the
Eurasian steppes in their millions. Today, they are found in only three parts of Kazakhstan – Ural
(west), Ustyurt (southwest), and Betpak-Dala (central). Hence statement 1 is not correct and 2 is
correct.
x Altyn Dala Conservation Initiative: Large landscape-scale steppe grassland conservation in
Kazakhstan:
o In Kazakh language, ‘Altyn Dala’ means ‘Golden Steppe’, reflecting the heritage and vibrancy of
Kazakhstan’s landscapes.
o The Altyn Dala Conservation Initiative is an international partnership driven by large-scale and long-
term efforts to reestablish fully functional ecosystems of the steppe, semi-desert, and desert in the
historical range of the saiga antelope spanning over 750,000 km² (75 million hectares) and
encompassing a unique assemblage of flora and fauna.
o Since the formation of the Initiative, saiga antelope populations in Kazakhstan have made a
remarkable recovery from less than 50,000 in 2005 to over 1,300,000 in 2022.
x U.N World Restoration Flagships:
o The United Nations has recognised ten ground-breaking efforts from around the globe for their role in
restoring the natural world. It unveiled the winning initiatives at the UN Biodiversity Conference
(COP15) in Montreal, Canada, on the 13th December 2022.
x The ten World Restoration Flagships are
o Trinational Atlantic Forest Pact (Brazil, Paraguay and Argentina)
o Abu Dhabi Marine Restoration (UAE)
o Great Green Wall (African Union),
o Namami Gange (India),
o Multi-Country Mountain Initiative (Serbia, Kyrgyzstan, Uganda and Rwanda),
o Small Island Developing States Restoration Drive (Vanuatu, St Lucia and Comoros),
o Altyn Dala Conservation Initiative (Kazakhstan).
o Central American Dry Corridor (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras, Nicaragua and
Panama),
o Building with Nature (Indonesia),
o Shan-Shui Initiative (China).
Q 53.D
x Article 360 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credibility of India or any part of
its territory is threatened.When the Financial Emergency is proclaimed,the President may issue directions,
.
which may include the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the
President after they are passed by the legislature of the state. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial
Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was
subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is
not beyond judicial review. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 54.B
x Jog Falls is formed by the Sharavathi River in the Shimoga District of Karnataka, gushing down from 253
meters. The river originates at Ambuthirtha in Thirthahalli taluk and flows northwest through the Western
Ghats, forming the Jog Falls before joining the Arabian Sea at Honavar.
x Located near the Masthikatte-Hulikal on the Shimoga -Udupi border in Karnataka, Kunchikal Falls is
formed by the River Varahi. The waterfall from a height of 455 meters in a cascading form on these rocky
boulders giving an impressive sight. The Kunchikal waterfalls rank 116th in height in the world and India’s
highest waterfall. The River Varahi flows down from a greater altitude in a cascading manner over these
rocky structures close to the Hulikal Ghati Temple. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x Dudhsagar Falls also known as the Sea of Milk is referred to as India’s one of highest waterfalls which is
approximately 310 meters high and 30 meters wide. It is located on the Mandovi River in the state of Goa.
The location of the Dudhsagar Falls is in the Bhagwan Mahaveer Sanctuary and Mollem National Park
which is in the middle of the Western Ghats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x Shivanasamudra is a popular waterfall on river Kaveri. Shivanasamudra consists of two waterfalls-
Gagana Chukki and Bhara Chukki. At Shivanasamudra / Shivasamudra, the river Kaveri splits into two,
falls into a valley in two separate places namely Gaganachukki and Bharachukki. It re-unites at the
downstream while falling down with great velocity and is of an average width of 849 meters along with 90
meters of height. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x Chuliya falls is located at the Chambal river in the state of Rajasthan. Hence statement 4 is not correct.
Q 55.B
x Starred question are those where oral answer is required and hence supplementary questions can
follow. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x Unstarred question requires a written answer and hence, supplementary question cannot follow. Hence,
x Short notice question is the one that is asked by the giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered
orally. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 56.A
x Silent Valley National Park
o It is located on the border of Mannarkkad Taluk of Palakkad district, Nilambur Taluk of Malappuram
district, Kerala, and Nilgiris district of Tamil Nadu.
o This national park has some rare species of flora and fauna. This area was explored in 1847 by the
botanist Robert Wight.
o It is located in the rich biodiversity of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
o The park is one of the last undisturbed tracts of South Western Ghats mountain rain forests and tropical
moist evergreen forests in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The park harbors a viable population of Lion-tailed macaques which also is the flagship species of the
Park. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Mukurthi Peak, the fifth-highest peak in South India, and Anginda Peak are also in its vicinity.
o Bhavani River, a tributary of the Kaveri River, and Kunthipuzha River, a tributary of the
Bharathappuzha River, originating in the vicinity of Silent Valley. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
o The Kadalundi River also has its origin in Silent Valley.
o Flora: Humid wet Evergreen Rain Forests. The major plants of the park are Teak, Amla, Semal, and
Rosewood along with bamboo.
o New species spotted
9 Brown wood owls, Banded bay cuckoo, Malabar wood shrike, White-throated kingfisher, Indian
nightjar, Jungle nightjar, and Large cuckoo shrike were among the 17 species newly identified in
the Silent Valley.

.
Q 57.B
x The great famine of 1876-78 was perhaps the most grievous calamity experienced since the beginning of
the 19th century. It affected Madras, Bombay, Uttar Pradesh and the Panjab. In 1880 the Government of
Lytton appointed a Commission under the presidency of Sir Richard Strachey to formulate general
principles and suggest particular measures of a preventive or protective character. The Commission
recommended the adoption of the following basic principles:
o Employment on works must be offered before the physical efficiency of applicants had been impaired
by privation. Wages paid should be adjusted from time to time to provide sufficient food for a labourer's
support.
o It should be the duty of the state to provide gratuitous relief to the impotent poor and listed the category
of persons entitled to receive it.
o Supplies of food in the distressed areas should be carefully watched. However, the Government must
trust private trade in supply and distribution of food and prohibit export of grain only if a became
reasonably certain that action was necessary to conserve the resources of India as a whole.
o The Commission made suggestions in regard to suspensions and remissions of land revenue and rents.
o The cost of famine relief should be borne by the provincial governments. However, Central assistance
was to be made available whenever necessary.
o In times of excessive drought facilities should be provided for migration of cattle to grassy forest areas
where abundant pasturage was available.
o The Government accepted in general the Commission's recommendations and steps were taken to find
new resources for the creation of a Famine fund to meet extraordinary charges. Hence option (b) is
the correct answer.
x The great famine of 1896-97 affected almost every province, though in varying degrees of intensity, the
total population affected was estimated at 34 millions.
o A commission presided over by Sir James Lyall, ex-Lt. Governor of the Panjab, adhered largely to the
views expressed by their predecessors in 1880 suggesting some alterations which were designed to
impart greater flexibility to the maxims then adopted.
x MacDonnell Commission:
o Appointed by Lord Curzon in 1900 for investigation of 1899-1900 famine.
o Most of the recommendations of the commission were accepted and before Curzon left India he had
taken various measures to prevent and combat famine.
x George Campbell commission:
o It was appointed to report on the Orissa Famine 1866.
Q 58.C
x The Famine of (1896-97) - Between 1880 and 1896 there were two famines and five scarcities, all of them
of a more or less local character. The great famine of 1896-97 affected almost every province, though, in
varying degrees of intensity, the total population affected was estimated at 34 million.
x The relief operations were conducted with a fair measure of success except in the Central Provinces where
the death rate rose very high. Extensive relief operations were undertaken and in many parts of the country,
people were relieved in their own homes. The total cost of relief was estimated at 7.27 crores.
x A famine commission was formed in 1897 under the chairmanship of Sir James Lyall. The commission
presided over by Sir James Lyall, ex-Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, adhered largely to the views expressed
by their predecessors in 1880 suggesting some alterations which were designed to impart greater flexibility
to the maxims then adopted.
Q 59.A
x The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) had constituted the National Startup
Advisory Council on January 21, 2020, to advise the government on measures required to build a strong
ecosystem for nurturing innovation and startups in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x NSAC includes members from concerned line Ministries, Departments and Organisations and non-official
members, representing various stakeholders such as founders of successful startups, veterans who have
grown & expanded companies in India, persons representing interests of investors, incubators and
accelerators, representatives of associations of stakeholders of startups and representatives of industry
associations.
x The Council, which is chaired by the commerce minister, will consist of non-official members to be
nominated by the Centre, founders of successful start-ups, veterans who have grown and scaled companies
in India, persons capable to represent interests of investors into start-ups. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
.
Q 60.A
x Scientists have successfully trialled a new method i.e., Cryomesh to freeze and store coral larvae, while
working on Australia’s Great Barrier Reef.
x Cryomesh Method:
o Cryomesh was devised by a team from the University of Minnesota’s College of Science and
Engineering.
o This method will help in building reefs threatened by climate change. Hence option a is correct.
o This is lightweight and can be manufactured cheaply.
o It better preserves coral and has the properties of cryoplates.
o The mesh technology will help store coral larvae at -196°C (-320.8°F).
x Significance:
o This cryogenically frozen coral can be stored and later reintroduced to the wild.
o But current process requires sophisticated equipment including lasers, however a new lightweight
“cryomesh” can be manufactured cheaply and better preserves coral.
x About GBR
o GBR is world’s largest barrier reef, located at north eastern coast of Australia in coral sea.
o It was declared a World Heritage Area in 1981 because of its 'outstanding universal value'.
Q 61.C
x Swapnavasavadattam is a Sanskrit play in six acts written by the ancient Indian poet Bhasa. Hence
option (c) is the correct answer.
o It was written during the Gupta period.
o The plot of the drama is drawn from the romantic narratives about the Vatsa king Udayana and
Vasavadatta, the daughter of Pradyota, the ruler of Avanti, which were contemporary to the
poet's time.
o The main theme of the drama is the sorrow of Udayana for his queen Vasavadatta, believed by
him to have perished in a fire, which was actually a rumor spread by Yaugandharayana, a minister
of Udayana to compel his king to marry Padmavati, the daughter of the king of Magadha. It forms, in
context, a continuation of his other drama, Pratijnayaugandharayana.
x Kalidasa literary works include:
o Malavikagnimitra: It is a Sanskrit play by Kālidāsa.
9 The play tells the story of the love of Agnimitra, the Sunga Emperor at Vidisha for the beautiful
handmaiden of his chief queen. He falls in love with the picture of an exiled servant girl named
Mālavikā.
o Meghaduta: It is a lyric poem written by Kālidāsa. A poem of 120 stanzas, it is one of Kālidāsa's
most famous works.
9 The work is divided into two parts, Purva-Megha and Uttara-Megha.
9 It recounts how a yakṣa, a subject king Kubera (the god of wealth), after being exiled for a
year to Central India for neglecting his duties, convinces a passing cloud to take a message
to his wife at Alaka on Mount Kailāsa in the Himālaya mountains.
o Ritusamharam: The poem has six cantos for the six Indian seasons - griṣma (summer), varṣa
(monsoon/rains), sarat (autumn), hemanta (cool), sisira (winter), and vasanta (spring).
o Vikramorvasiyam: It describes the Vedic love story of king Pururavas and an Apsara, a celestial
nymph named Urvashi.
x Harshavardhana wrote three Sanskrit plays, Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika.
o Ratnavali (About the love story of princess Ratnavali, daughter of the King of Ceylon and King
Udayana. The mention of celebration of Holi for the first time can be found here).
o Nagananda (Story of how Prince Jimutavahana gives up his own body to stop a sacrifice of serpents
to the divine Garuda. One unique character in this drama is invocation to Lord Buddha in the Nandi
verse)
o Priyadarsika (Union of Udayana and Priyadarsika, daughter of King Dridhavarman)
x Mudrarakshasa: It is a Sanskrit -language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of the
king Chandragupta Maurya to power in India.
Q 62.D
x Almost 50 per cent of the storms do not sustain since the west-central and the north Arabian Sea have a
relatively colder sea temperature (due to Findlater Jet or Somali Current that causes local upwelling).
x In the usual course, there was an occurrence of one extremely severe cyclone every four-five years. Now
the Arabian Sea started receiving tropical cyclones of high intensity in a small-time interval. For instance,
.
in 15 years (1998 to 2013), five extremely severe cyclones originated in the Sea. In October 2014, the west
coast of India saw an extremely severe cyclonic storm, 'Nilofar (Category 4). In 2015, within one week, the
Arabian Sea experienced two more cyclones, even stronger than Nilofar: Cyclone 'Chapal' followed by
Cyclone 'Megh'.
x El Niño Modoki (pseudo El Niño) creates conditions which are not conducive for cyclogenesis in the
Bay of Bengal. On the other hand, it offers large convergence over the Arabian Sea, explaining a large
number of cyclones in that region. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The reason why El Nino Modoki brings only fewer number of cyclones in the Bay of Bengal is because
one of the two descending limbs of the Walker Cell is over the western Pacific and Bay of Bengal. The
descending limb causes dry conditions not conducive for cyclone formation. The ascending limb of the
Walker Cell, on the other hand, brings rain. Also, an El Nino Modoki creates stronger divergence over
the western Pacific and Bay of Bengal compared to El Nino. Divergence (opposite of convergence)
means surface winds move away from each other and result in low relative vorticity (rotational flow of
winds). These conditions are not conducive for cyclones. This explains why Bay of Bengal region (close
to western Pacific) has fewer cyclones during an El Nino Modoki.
9 El Niño Modoki is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon in the tropical
Pacific. Conventional El Niño is characterized by strong anomalous warming in the eastern
equatorial Pacific. Whereas, El Niño Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the
central tropical Pacific and cooling in the eastern and western tropical Pacific.
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x When a pair of tropical cyclones form on each side of the equator, they are called twin cyclones. In
May 2022, twin tropical cyclones Asani (northern hemisphere - counter-clockwise) & Karim (southern
hemisphere - clockwise) formed at nearly the same time on opposite sides of the Equator. The Madden-

.
Julian Oscillation (MJO) coupled with Rossby waves helped fuel the twin storms by promoting
convection. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o The MJO can influence tropical cyclone numbers and strength in nearly all ocean basins. Hence
x Madden-Julian Oscillation (MJO):
o MJO is an eastward moving trough (series of thunderstorms) in the tropics that recurs every 30 to 60
days. Unlike ENSO, which is stationary (in the Pacific Ocean), the MJO is an eastward moving
disturbance. ENSO is associated with persistent features that last several seasons over the Pacific Ocean
basin. On the other hand, multiple MJO events occur within a season (i.e., weather varies on a week-
to-week basis).
o The MJO consists of enhanced rainfall convective phase and suppressed rainfall convective phase.
These two phases produce opposite changes in rainfall and this entire dipole propagates eastward. The
effect is witnessed mainly in the tropical region, in the band between 30 degrees North and 30 degrees
South of the equator.
Q 63.C
x Freedom of Speech and ExpressionIt implies that every citizen has the right to express his views, opinions,
beliefs and convictions freely by word of mouth, writing, printing, picturing or in any other manner.
x The Supreme Court held that the freedom of speech and expression includes the following:
o Right to propagate one’s views as well as views of others. Hence option 1 is correct.
o Freedom of the press.
o Freedom of commercial advertisements.
o Right against tapping of telephonic conversation. Hence option 4 is correct.
o Right to telecast, that is, government has no monopoly on electronic media.
o Right against bandh called by a political party or organisation. Hence option 2 is correct.
o Right to know about government activities.
o Freedom of silence.
o Right against the imposition of pre-censorship on a newspaper.
o Right to demonstration or picketing but not right to strike. Hence option 3 is not correct.
x The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech and expression on
the grounds of sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states,
public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
Q 64.C
x Mangrove pitta birds:
o They are a nearly threatened species found in a few pockets of eastern India.
o The habitats of these beautiful birds are confined to mangrove forest areas in Odisha's Bhitarkanika
and Sundarban in West Bengal. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
o Mangrove pitta is a resident non-migratory bird that generally feeds on crustaceans, mollusks, and
insects.
o The breeding season of this species ranges from April to August in Bhitarkanika.
o The census – The census was carried out by point count method, either by walking in the forest or
using country boats in the creeks.
o In this census, a total of 179 individual mangrove pitta birds were counted.
o The highest concentration of the birds has been found in the mangroves near the Mahipura river
mouth inside the Bhitarkanika National Park.
x Bhitarkanika National Park :
o It is a suitable congenial breeding place for this bird species. Bhitarkanika National Park is located in
Kendrapara district in Odisha. The national park is mostly a wetland and a mangrove forest. It is a
Ramsar Site.
Q 65.B
x Multi-Track Diplomacy is an expansion of the “Track One, Track Two” paradigm that has defined
the conflict resolution field during the last decade.
o It looks at the web of interconnected activities, individuals, institutions, and communities that operate
together for a common goal: a world at peace.
o Track One and a Half Diplomacy is unofficial interactions between official representatives of states.
These are those “diplomatic initiatives that are facilitated by unofficial bodies, but directly involve
officials from the conflict in question.
x Track 1 – Government, or Peacemaking through Diplomacy. This is the world of official diplomacy,
policymaking, and peacebuilding as expressed through formal aspects of the governmental process. Hence
pair 1 is correctly matched.
.
x Track 2 – Non-government/Professional, or Peacemaking through Conflict Resolution. It is
“unofficial, informal interaction between members of adversary groups or nations that aim to develop
strategies, to influence public opinion, organize human and material resources in ways that might help
resolve their conflict”. It is also known as "backchannel diplomacy".
x Track 3 – Business, or Peacemaking through Commerce. This is the field of business and its actual and
potential effects on peacebuilding through the provision of economic opportunities, international friendship
and understanding, informal channels of communication, and support for other peacemaking
activities. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
x Track 4 – Private Citizen, or Peacemaking through personal involvement. This includes the various
ways that individual citizens become involved in peace and development activities through citizen
diplomacy, exchange programs, private voluntary organizations, nongovernmental organizations, and
special-interest groups.
x Track 5 – Research, Training, and Education, or Peacemaking through learning. This track includes
three related worlds: research, as it is connected to university programs, think tanks, and special-interest
research centers; training programs that seek to provide training in practitioner skills such as negotiation,
mediation, conflict resolution, and third-party facilitation; and education, including kindergarten through
Ph.D. programs that cover various aspects of global or cross-cultural studies, peace and world order studies,
and conflict analysis, management, and resolution.
x Track 6 – Activism, or Peacemaking through Advocacy. This track covers the field of peace and
environmental activism on such issues as disarmament, human rights, social and economic justice, and
advocacy of special-interest groups regarding specific governmental policies.
x Track 7 – Religion, or Peacemaking through faith in action. This examines the beliefs and peace-
oriented actions of spiritual and religious communities and such morality-based movements as pacifism,
sanctuary, and nonviolence.
x Track 8 – Funding, or Peacemaking through providing resources. This refers to the funding
community-those foundations and individual philanthropists that provide financial support for many of the
activities undertaken by the other tracks.
x Track 9 – Communications and the Media, or Peacemaking through information. This is the realm of
the voice of the people: how public opinion gets shaped and expressed by the media-print, film, video, radio,
electronic systems, the arts. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched.

.
Q 66.D
x Captain William Hawkins visited Mughal Emperor Jahangir’s Court in Agra in the year 1609. He was
sent by the East India Company to obtain formal permission for the establishment of an English factory in
Surat. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Portuguese governor Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Bhatkal from Sri Krishna Deva Raya of the
Vijayanagar in 1510. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x Nadir Shah: Nader Shah Afshar was the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Iran and one of the most
powerful rulers in Iranian history, ruling as Shah of Iran from 1736 to 1747 when he was assassinated during
a rebellion. He took away the famous Koh-i-Noor diamond and the jewel-studded Peacock Throne of
Shahjahan from India. In 1738, Nadir Shah was prepared to invade India. That time the Mughal
emperor was Muhammed Shah (and not Shah Jahan). The excuse for the invasion was that the Mughal
emperor Muhammad Shah had humiliated the Persian envoy at the royal court of Delhi. In 1739, The
Kohinoor, mounted at the head of one of the peacocks on Shah Jahan's Peacock Throne, left India
and the Mughal treasury when Nader Shah carved the Peacock Throne out of the Delhi Cloth. Hence
Q 67.C
x The Central Government has recently made major changes in the organ transplant regulations in the
country.
o The primary legislation governing organ transplantation in India is the Transplantation of Human
Organs Act, passed in 1994. It provides a system to regulate the removal, storage, and transplantation
of human organs for therapeutic purposes and for the prevention of commercial dealings in human
organs.
o Directorate General of Health Services, Government of India is implementing the National Organ
Transplant Programme for carrying out the activities as per amendment Act, training of manpower
and promotion organ donation from deceased persons.
x Highlights of the New Guidelines?
o Removed Age Cap: The upper age limit has been removed as people are now living longer. Earlier,
according to the NOTTO (National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organization)guidelines, an end-stage
organ failure patient above 65 years of age was prohibited from registering to receive the organ. Hence
o No Domicile Requirement: The ministry has removed the domicile requirement to register as an
organ recipient in a particular state under a ‘One Nation, One Policy’ move. Now a needy patient can
register to receive an organ in any state of his or her choice and will also be able to get the surgery done
there. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o No Fees for Registration: There will be no registration fee that states used to charge for this purpose,
the Centre has asked states that used to charge for such registration to not do so. Among the states that
sought money for registration were Gujarat, Telangana, Maharashtra, and Kerala.Certain states asked
for anything between Rs 5,000 and Rs 10,000 to register a patient on the organ recipient waitlist.
x The opt-out system — it assumes all citizens to be donors unless they “opt out” — adopted in some
Western countries may not be apt for a country such as India, where awareness of organ donation is low.
This system is adopted in western countries but not in India. Hence stetement 3 is not correct.
Q 68.D
x Kuttiyattam, the mode of Sanskrit theatre from Kerala, is one of the oldest performing art forms in
India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The word Koothu used as a generic term for dance appears for the first time in Sangam literature (in the
Dravidian language Tamil) dating back to the first century C.E.
o The flourishing of a mature theatre tradition in South India is testified by its mention in the Tamil
classic Silappadikaram by Ilango Adigal, composed in the 5th century C.E. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
o The reference is to Parayur Koothachakyyar, identified as Chakyar, a member of the Chakyar
community, whose members took to acting in Kutiyattam. At that time, Koothachakyar staged the story
of Tripuradahanam before the king. This has become the textual evidence to surmise the antiquity of
Kutiyattam.
o Kutiyattam became codified and sophisticated during the time of Kulasekhara, the ruler of
Kerala from 978 to 1036 C.E.
9 The first family of actors called Chakiyars appears to have come with the chieftains; serving them
as storytellers (soothas). The descendants of these Chakiyars, together with the other caste
.
- Nambiars and their women Nangiars, established a familial hierarchy in Kutiyattam. This
was the scenario till the middle of the 20th Century. Hence statement 2 is correct.
9 At a time when Kutiyattam was confined to the temples, the performances were held in
specially raised theatre structures called Koothambalams, forming part of the temple complex.
These stage halls have exquisite carvings and intricate art works, besides having excellent acoustics.
9 It uses elaborated costumes.
9 The important Koothambalams are at the Vadukumnathan temple Thrissur, the Subrahmanya
temples at Harippad and Kidangoor.
9 Kutiyattam caught the world's attention when it was proclaimed as one of the 'Masterpieces of
the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Mankind' in May 2001, by the UNESCO.
o Source/Textual material: Its primary sources are the dramatic texts - the Sanskrit plays, namely by
Bhasa, Kulasekhara Varman, Mahendra Vikrama, Harsha, and Neelakanta.
Q 69.A
x Scheduled Tribes are defined in clause (25) of Article 366 of the Indian Constitution: “Scheduled Tribes
(STs) means such tribes/tribal communities/parts of or groups within such tribes as deemed under Article
342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of this Constitution.”
x Article 342 (1) says that the President may with respect to any State or UT, and where it is a State, after
consultation with Governor, by public notification, specify the tribes/tribal communities or part as
Scheduled Tribe in relation to that State or UT. The subsequent additions and subtractions occur only
through an Act of Parliament (and not state government). The state government only recommends such
additions or subtractions for their respective state. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x The criterion for the same is not spelled out in Constitution but has become well established with certain
traits including:
o primitive traits
o distinctive culture
o geographical isolation
o shyness of contact
o backwardness
x The procedure of addition of STs includes:
o State government recommendation
o Reviewed by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs which then sends it to the Registrar General of India for
approval.
o This is followed by the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST) approval and then
the Cabinet takes the final decision. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x As per the Census of 2011, the Gonds comprise of one of the largest tribal populations in India.
Q 70.A
x The state of Hyderabad was founded by Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah in 1724. He was one of the leading nobles
of the post-Aurangzeb era. From 1722 to 1724, he was the wazir of the Empire. But he soon got disgusted
with that office as Emperor Muhammad Shah frustrated all his attempts at reforming the administration. So
he decided to go back to the Deccan where he could safely maintain his supremacy. Here he laid the
foundations of the Hyderabad State which he ruled with a strong hand. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x He never openly declared his independence from the Central Government (Mughal empire) but in practice,
he acted like an independent ruler. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x He waged wars, concluded peace, conferred titles, and gave jagirs and offices without reference to Delhi.
He followed a tolerant policy towards the Hindus. For example, a Hindu, Puran Chand, was his Dewan. He
consolidated his power by establishing an orderly administration in the Deccan. He forced the big, turbulent
zamindars to respect his authority and kept the powerful Marathas out of his dominion. He also made an
attempt to rid the revenue system of its corruption. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 71.C
x Recent Context: The Framework of National Digital University (NDU), as envisioned under the National
Education Policy, 2020 was recently published.
x About NDU and its framework
o NDU is a university designed to bring together various (both public and private) higher educational
institutions (HEIs) for providing online higher education courses. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Framework for NDU
o Online Courses: Offered by partner institutes (both private and public universities).

.
o Functioning Model: Hub-and-spoke model where the courses will be offered ‘Study Webs of Active
learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM)’ portal.
9 IT and administrative services will be provided through the government’s Samarth portal.
o Courses Type: The students can opt for certificate, diploma, or degree courses.
9 Credit based university degree: Courses will hold a certain number of credits. ✓ Students will be
eligible for a degree from a particular institute on accumulating 50% of the credits.
9 NDU degree: If a student earns credits from multiple institutions and crosses the credit threshold,
the degree awarded will be by NDU.
o Number of seats: There will be an unlimited number of seats for every course. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
o ABC system: Use of a standardised Academic Bank of Credits (ABC) system, established by the
University Grants Commission (UGC) to facilitate academic mobility.
Q 72.D
x After the death of C.R. Das in 1925, the Bengal Congress broke up into two factions—one led by J.M.
Sengupta (Anushilan group joined forces with him) and the other led by Subhash Bose (Yugantar group
backed him).
x The actions of the reorganised groups included an assassination attempt on the notorious Calcutta
Police Commissioner, Charles Tegart (another man named Day got killed) by Gopinath Saha in 1924.
x The government, armed with a new ordinance, came down heavily on revolutionaries. Many including
Subhash Bose were arrested.
x Gopinath Saha was hanged. Because of government repression and factionalism among the revolutionaries,
revolutionary activity suffered a setback, but soon many of revolutionaries started regrouping.
x Among the new ‘Revolt Groups’, the most active and famous was the Chittagong group under Surya Sen.
x Chittagong Armoury Raid (April 1930): Surya Sen had participated in the Non-Cooperation
Movement and had become a teacher in the national school in Chittagong. He was imprisoned from
1926 to 1928 for revolutionary activity and afterwards continued working in the Congress.
x He was the secretary of the Chittagong District Congress Committee. He used to say ”Humanism is
a special virtue of a revolutionary.” He was a lover of poetry and an admirer of Tagore and Qazi
Nazrul Islam.
x Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
x Surya Sen decided to organise an armed rebellion along with his associates—Anant Singh, Ganesh Ghosh
and Lokenath Baul—to show that it was possible to challenge the armed might of the mighty British Empire.
x They had planned to occupy two main armouries in Chittagong to seize and supply arms to the
revolutionaries to destroy telephone and telegraph lines and to dislocate the railway link of Chittagong with
the rest of Bengal.
x The raid was conducted in April 1930 and involved 65 activists under the banner of Indian Republican
Army—Chittagong Branch.
x The raid was quite successful; Sen hoisted the national flag, took salute and proclaimed a provisional
revolutionary government.
x Later, they dispersed into neighbouring villages and raided government targets.
x Surya Sen was arrested in February 1933 and hanged in January 1934, but the Chittagong raid fired the
imagination of the revolutionary-minded youth and recruits poured into the revolutionary groups in a steady
stream.
Q 73.A
x The Cantillon effect refers to the idea that changes in the money supply in an economy cause a
redistribution of purchasing power among people, disturbs the relative prices of goods and services,
and leads to the misallocation of scarce resources. The Cantillon effect is named after the 18th-century
French economist Richard Cantillon who published his ideas in the 1755 book Essay on the Nature of Trade
in General. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
x It is generally accepted by economists today that an increase in the overall money supply in an economy
causes a proportionate rise in the prices of goods and services over the long-run. This is in line with the
quantity theory of money, according to which the total amount of money in an economy plays a crucial role
in determining the general price level. So, if the money supply in an economy doubles this should lead to a
rough doubling of prices across the economy. In other words, money has largely been considered to be
“neutral,” in the sense that changes in its supply have no real effect on the economy.
x Cantillon, however, noted that when the money supply is expanded, the fresh money does not get evenly
distributed across the economy all at once as assumed by most economists. Fresh money is rather injected
.
into particular sections of the economy first and thus people in these sections of the economy are enriched
when compared to people in the rest of the economy. In other words, when the money supply is expanded,
the purchasing power of people who first receive the freshly-created money is enhanced at the cost of the
rest of society. When the first recipients of freshly-created money spend their money on certain goods and
services, the prices of these goods and services begin to rise before the prices of other goods and services.
This is because the freshly-created money takes time to percolate through the wider economy and causes
the prices of all goods and services to rise proportionately. Thus, there is a disturbance in relative prices of
goods as fresh money is injected into the economy, and, contrary to what economists have traditionally
assumed, this can lead to real effects on the economy.
x The Cantillon effect has been widely cited by economists who are critical of expansionary central bank
policy to tackle economic downturns. Mainstream economists believe that recessions are the result of a drop
in aggregate spending, which can be sorted out by expansionary monetary policy that compensates for the
drop in aggregate demand.
Q 74.A
x Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs) are payment methods that can be used to purchase goods and
services and send/receive money by using the stored value in the wallet. Users have to pre-load the
wallet with a desired amount. The amount can be loaded/reloaded against cash or through debit to bank
account, or by using credit/debit cards, UPI, or any other approved payment method in India. PPIs can only
be used in Indian rupees. PPIs can be in the form of mobile wallets, physical smart cards, secure tokens,
vouchers, or any other method that allows access to prepaid funds. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Previously, to use PPI at any merchant, it was necessary that the concerned merchant was engaged directly
by the specific PPI issuer (specific network). All PPIs with which the merchant did not have a direct tie-up
would get rejected. The most prevalent form of PPI used in the country is the mobile wallet, and this
restriction meant that customers of one specific mobile wallet could spend the money in the wallet only at
specific merchant locations which were directly tied up with the same PPI wallet provider. For example, if
you had a Paytm or Mobikwik wallet, you could only use it at merchants that accepted Paytm or Mobikwik
QR codes. To overcome this limitation of PPIs, the RBI has mandated interoperability among different
PPI issuers. Subsequently, PPI issuers tied up with NPCI for issuing (a) interoperable RuPay PPI
cards or (b) creating interoperable wallets on UPI rails. Prepaid instruments in the form of wallets
can now be linked to UPI, thus creating interoperable wallets on UPI rails. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.
x The PPI-enabled merchants were already paying charges to the PPI issuer for the acceptance of mobile
wallets or prepaid cards. Now the charges are aligned at a network level with some standardisation.
However, each merchant can work with their preferred acquiring entity. Officially there are no charges to
be paid by the customer. However, merchants may pass on the additional burden to customers by
way of price increases or some other means. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
x Also, earlier in 2022, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has allowed linking of credit cards with the Unified
Payments Interface (UPI) platform.
Q 75.D
x Saprophytes:
o Saprophytes are living organisms that live and feed on dead and decaying organisms. They are
considered extremely important in soil biology. They break down the complex organic matter into
simpler substances that are taken up by the plants for various metabolic activities. Thus, saprophytes
play a significant role in the ecosystem. Fungi and a few bacteria are saprophytes.
o Saprophytic Nutrition
9 Saprophytes undergo extracellular digestion to digest the dead and decaying matter. They secrete
digestive substances into the surrounding environment and break down the organic matter into
simpler substances. The nutrients thus produced are absorbed directly through the cell membranes
of the organisms.
9 In saprophytic nutrition, the proteins are digested into amino acids, starch is broken down into
simple sugars, and fats are broken down into glycerol and fatty acids. These end products are
transported through the cell membranes.
o Saprophytes Examples
9 Mucor: It is also known as mold and grows on decaying detritus, especially those rich in
carbohydrates; it is primarily found on stale bread, vegetables, and dung.
9 Yeast: It is found in sugary stuff mainly, present in grape juice, nectar, and in vineyards in ample
amounts.
.
9 Penicillium: It grows on decaying matter and is a major cause of food spoilage; it thrives on stale
bread and jam, jellies, fruits, and vegetables. It's also found in damp leather shoes and jackets.
9 Fungi: These are the most popular saprophytes. Examples include molds, mushrooms, yeast, etc.
9 Bacteria: Some bacteria like Vibrio japonicas break down polysaccharides, and some nitrogen-
fixing bacteria are saprophytic. Saprophytic bacteria break down lignin, cellulose, and
hemicellulose.
9 NOTE: Lichens, unicellular algae, and ferns are autotrophic in nature. Hence, option (d) is the
correct answer.
Q 76.B
x Recently, Switzerland became the first WTO member to formally submit its acceptance of the WTO's
new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies.
o Agreement was adopted during the 12th Ministerial Conference of WTO in 2022 held in Geneva,
Switzerland under 'Geneva Package'.
o Acceptances from two-thirds of WTO members are needed for the Agreement to come into effect.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x Salient Features
o Prohibition on subsidies contributing to IUU (illegal, unreported and unregulated) fishing (Article 3)
9 Special and Differential Treatment (S&DT), provides for a 2-year "peace clause" for
developing country and LDC members within their EEZs. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o Prohibition on subsidies for fishing or fishing-related activities regarding overfished stocks(Article 4)
9 Responsibility for recognizing that a stock is overfished rests with the coastal state for areas under
its jurisdiction.
9 Regional Fisheries Management Organization or Arrangement (RFMO/A) for areas and species
under its competence.
o Prohibition on all subsidies to fishing and fishing-related activities in areas outside the jurisdiction of
coastal members and non-members
9 Two "due restraint" clauses:
One for subsidies provided to vessels not flying the subsidizing member's flag.
The other for subsidies for fishing when the status of the stock is unknown.
o Notification and Transparency
9 Members will be required to notify the type or kind of fishing activity being subsidized and,
to the extent possible, to provide information on stock status, conservation measures, fleets and
vessels being subsidized, along with catch data. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x Further, In December 2021, 112 World Trade Organizations members co-sponsored a Joint Statement on
Investment Facilitation for Development, in which they recognize the Consolidated Document by the
Coordinator as the basis for their ongoing negotiations and state their objective to conclude the text
negotiations by the end of 2022.
Q 77.A
x Men who marry girls between 14 and 18 years are booked under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act,
2006. Whereas, men who marry girls under 14 years of age are booked under the Protection of Children
From Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act,2012. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 says that child marriages are illegal but not void, they are
voidable only when the minor partner asks the court to declare the marriage void.
x The Act punishes child marriage with rigorous imprisonment which may extend to two years or with
a fine which may extend to one lakh rupees or both.The punishment also extends to anyone who performs,
conducts, directs, or abets any child marriage.
x At the time of India’s independence, the minimum marriageable age stood at 15 years for females and
18 years for men.In 1978, the government increased it to 18 for girls and 21 for men. Hence, statement 1
is correct.
x In 2021, the Central government sought to introduce the Prevention of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill
2021, to raise the marriageable age for women across all religions, from 18 to 21 years.
Q 78.A
x The Nilgiri tahr is an ungulate that is endemic to the Nilgiri Hills and the southern portion of the Western
and Eastern Ghats in the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala in southern India. It is the state animal of Tamil
Nadu.

.
x Sela Macaque: A new species of old-world monkey recorded from Arunachal Pradesh has been named
after Sela Pass, which is a strategic mountain pass at 13,700 ft above sea level, and the New Species has
been named Sela Macaque. It was identified and analyzed by a team of experts from the Zoological Survey
of India (ZSI) and the University of Calcutta.
x Sela is situated between Dirang and Tawang towns in western Arunachal Pradesh. Sela macaque has a tail
longer than the Tibetan macaque, Assamese macaque, Arunachal macaque and the white-cheeked macaque
but shorter than the bonnet macaque and toque macaque. Sela macaque is a major cause of crop loss in the
West Kameng district of the State.
x Painted Leopard Gecko: It belongs to the gecko genus Eublepharis. It appears to be a common species in
the forests of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.
o Habitat: This species lives in dry evergreen forests mixed with scrub and meadows.
o Nocturnal Species: It is strictly nocturnal, actively foraging along trails in the forest after dusk.
o Significance: With this new gecko species, the gecko genus Eublepharis now contains seven species.
The new species differs from all members of the genus Eublepharis except for the East Indian Leopard
Gecko.
o The Brahmani River, which runs through the Eastern Ghats separates it geographically from the East
Indian Leopard Gecko with which it shares a lot of similar traits.
Q 79.C
x Starberry-Sense is a star sensor developed by researchers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA).
It is a low-cost star sensor for astronomy and small CubeSat-class satellite missions.
x ‘Starberry-Sense’ has been developed by using Raspberry Pi Zero a compact size computer with low
power consumption. The Raspberry Pi is a low-cost, credit-card-sized computer that plugs into a computer
monitor or TV and uses a standard keyboard and mouse.
x Starberry-Sense has been developed by coupling some highly optimized algorithms with a Raspberry Pi
and turning it into a potent star sensor. Based on commercial/off-the-shelf components, this star sensor costs
less than 10% of those available in the market.
x Starberry-Sense can help small CubeSat class satellite missions find their orientation in space. Any
satellite needs to know where it is pointed in space, and the instrument used for this purpose is called a star
sensor. The position of stars in the sky is fixed relative to each other and can be used as a stable reference
frame to calculate the orientation of a satellite in orbit. This is done by correctly identifying the stars in the
sky towards which the star sensor is pointed. The star sensor is essentially a celestial compass.
x According to the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Starberry-Sense is ready for launch on
the PS4-Orbital Platform by ISRO and can be used for CubeSats and other small satellite missions in the
future.
Q 80.D
x Government has notified Guidelines for sale of biodiesel for blending with High Speed Diesel for
transportation purposes. Through this Notification Government has granted permission exclusively for sale
of biodiesel (B-100) only and not for any mixture thereof of whatever percentage.
x Bio-diesel is an environment friendly fuel, which has almost no sulphur, no aromatics, and has about 10%
built-in oxygen. Bio-diesel needs no separate infrastructure for storage and dispensing and the existing
tankage and dispensing stations of conventional diesel can be used.
x Bio-diesel is safe to handle and the flash points of bio-diesel are higher than conventional diesel. Blending
of bio-diesel with diesel would result in the reduction of un-burnt hydrocarbons, Carbon Monoxide and
particulate matter in auto emissions, and will be in line with the objectives of the Auto Fuel Policy of the
Government.
x Bio-diesel can be made from any feedstock oil or fat, and the cost of the feedstock is the most important
constituent in the economics of bio-diesel production.
o In the USA and the European Union, where bio-diesel is commercially being made from edible oil like
soybean or rapeseed oil, the cost of production is one and a half times to twice the cost of producing
diesel. India however is deficient in edible oils. In selecting possible feedstock for the indigenous
production of bio-diesel, care should therefore be taken that only non-edible oil is used for the purpose.
o Presently, bio-diesel is being produced in the country primarily from imported palm stearin oil. In order
to phase-out palm stearin, and as a measure towards import substitution, it has been decided to promote
domestically available used cooking oil (UCO) as the feedstock.

.
o UCO has been identified as a potential raw material for biodiesel production in National Policy on
Biofuels-2018. UCO can be collected from Bulk Consumers such as hotels, restaurants, canteens, etc.
for conversion. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 81.C
x The term euthanasia is commonly known as ‘mercy killing'. It is legally and medically defined as ‘an
act of terminating or ending the life of an individual who suffers from an incurable disease or situation
especially painful’.
x There are different types of euthanasia practiced across the world-
o Active euthanasia is where a patient is killed by active means, for example, by injecting a lethal dose
of a drug.
o Passive euthanasia is described as letting a patient die by withholding artificial life support such
as a ventilator or a feeding tube.
x Euthanasia in India:
o In a landmark judgment, the Supreme Court of India legalized only passive euthanasia in 2018,
stating that it was a matter of ‘living will’. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
o According to the judgment, an adult in his conscious mind is permitted to refuse medical treatment
or voluntarily decide not to take medical treatment to embrace death in a natural way, under
certain conditions.
o It also laid down guidelines for ‘living will’ made by terminally ill patients who beforehand
know about their chances of slipping into a permanent vegetative state.
o The court specifically stated that “Dignity in the process of dying is as much a part of the right to
life under Article 21. To deprive an individual of dignity towards the end of life is to deprive the
individual of a meaningful existence.” Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Recently, the Supreme Court in India has made changes to the rules for passive euthanasia with the
primary objective to make the process less difficult and less time-consuming:
o It has done away with the necessity of a judicial magistrate to attest or countersign a living will.
o SC held that attestation by a notary or a gazetted officer would be sufficient for a person to make a
valid living will.
o Instead of the living being in the custody of the district court concerned, SC said that the document
will be a part of the National Health Digital Record which can be accessed by hospitals and doctors
from any part of the country. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o If the hospital’s medical board denies permission to withdraw medical treatment, the family
members of the patient can approach the relevant high court, which forms a fresh board of medical
experts to enable the court to take a final call.
Q 82.C
x Sarin, Tabun and Novichok are different types of chemical weapons. Chemical weapons are toxins or
chemical substances deployed using types of munition such as artillery shells or grenades to harm, cause
sensory irritation or death. The use of such weapons in geopolitical conflicts started during World War I
when commercial chemicals such as Chlorine, phosgene (a suffocating gas) and mustard gas (which can
cause skin burns) were used by both sides.
x Sarin (military designation GB) is a nerve agent that is one of the most toxic of the known chemical
warfare agents. It is generally odorless and tasteless. Exposure to sarin can cause death in minutes. It affects
the nervous system and causes the person's body to paralyze slowly.
x Novichok life-threatening nerve agent. Like other binary nerve gases, Novichok too is absorbed through
the lungs or skin and interferes with the nervous system, leading to paralysis. In November 2019, the
Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) added Novichok to its list of banned toxins,
in one of the first major changes to the treaty since it was signed in the 1990s.
x Tabun is a man-made chemical warfare agent classified as a nerve agent. Nerve agents are the most toxic
and rapidly acting of the known chemical warfare agents. They are similar to insecticides (insect-killing
chemicals) called organophosphates in the way they work and the harmful effects they cause.
x Chemical Weapons Convention (1993) prohibits “the development, production, acquisition, stockpiling,
retention, transfer or use of chemical weapons by States Parties”.
Q 83.C
x The Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) announced the Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya
Yojana (DDU-GKY) Antyodaya Diwas, on 25th September 2014. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
x DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM), tasked with the dual objectives of
adding diversity to the incomes of rural poor families and catering to the career aspirations of rural youth.
.
x Its objective is to bridge the skill gap that prevents India’s rural poor from competing in the modern market,
such as the lack of formal education and marketable skills.
x DDU-GKY is uniquely focused on rural youth between the ages of 15 and 35 years from poor
families. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x As a part of the Skill India campaign, it plays an instrumental role in supporting the social and economic
programs of the government like the Make In India, Digital India, Smart Cities and Start-Up India, and
Stand-Up India campaigns. Over 180 million or 69% of the country’s youth population between the ages of
18 and 34 years, live in its rural areas. Of these, the bottom of the pyramid is the youth from poor families
with no or marginal employment number about 55 million.
x Salient Features:
o It is a sub-scheme under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-
NRLM).
o Provides funding support for placement-linked skilling projects. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
o Demand-led skill training at no cost to the rural poor.
o Mandatory coverage of socially disadvantaged groups (SC/ST 50%; Minority 15%; Women 33%).
o Providing incentives for job retention, career progression and foreign placements.
o Guaranteed Placement for at least 70% trained candidates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o Post-placement support, migration support and alumni network.
o Nurturing new training service providers and developing their skills.
o Greater emphasis on projects for poor rural youth in Jammu and Kashmir (HIMAYAT), the North-East
region and 27 Left-Wing Extremist (LWE) districts (ROSHNI).
o Mandates independent third-party assessment and certification.
Q 84.C
x The Proclamation of Mahzar was issued by Akbar in 1579. It was the culmination of the breakaway
from the ulama. It asserted that if there were conflicting views among those who were considered fit to
interpret the Quran, that is mujtaddids, Akbar, by virtue of being a most just and wise king’, and his rank is
higher in the eyes of God than of the mujtaddids, was entitled to choose any one of the interpretations,
which would be of benefit to the nation and in the interests of good order.’ Hence, option (c) is the correct
answer.
x Other measures taken by Akbar for religious harmony are
o In 1575 Akbar established Ibadat Khana, originally established for the purpose of the religious
discussion with Muslim theologians. However, later its doors were opened for scholars of all
religions. Ibadat Khana debates were finally stopped by Akbar in 1582.
o This was accompanied by the declaration of his Tauhidi Ilahi. Tauhidi Ilahi literally means ‘Divine
Monotheism. The tauhid-i-Ilahi was really an order of the Sufistic type. Those who were willing to join,
and whom the emperor approved, were allowed to become members. Sunday was fixed as the day for
initiation.
o Akbar abolished the tax on pilgrimage in 1563 and jizya in 1564 as the two were based on religious
discrimination.
Q 85.A
x At the G20 Summit 2019, the world leaders came together to launch of “Osaka track”, an overarching
framework promoting cross-border data flow with enhanced protections launched by Japan. Hence
x Osaka Track is a process which demonstrates the commitment to promote international policy discussions,
inter alia, international rule-making on trade-related aspects of electronic commerce at the WTO.
x Along with the United States, the European Union (which represents 28 countries at the WTO), Australia,
and Singapore among others, Japan pushed hard for the plurilateral negotiations on digital trade with the
avowed intention of crafting sweeping rules on data flows, removal of prohibitions on data localization, and
cloud computing among others.
x India, South Africa, and Indonesia have boycotted the “Osaka Track" on the “digital economy. Much
of the proposed plurilateral rules on digital trade are based on the Comprehensive and Progressive
Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPATPP). Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Q 86.A
x The government has approved the Indian Space Policy 2023 which seeks to institutionalize the private
sector participation in the space sector, with ISRO focusing on research and development of advanced
space technologies. The ISRO chief has said that the Space Policy would focus on increasing the
participation of private players. Hence statement 2 is correct.
.
x The Indian Space Policy-2023, approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security chaired by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi, also delineated the roles and responsibilities of ISRO, space sector PSU
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), and Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Center (IN-
SPACe). Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre (IN–SPACe) is a single-window autonomous
agency under the Department of Space of the Government of India. It was formed in 2020. It is not going
to replace the PSU NSIL. Rather, the new space policy will delineate the roles and responsibilities of ISRO,
space sector PSU NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), and the Indian National Space Promotion and
Authorization Center (IN-SPACe). Hence statement 3 is not correct.
x Features of the Indian Space Policy:
o The operational part of ISRO's missions will be moved to the NewSpace India Limited, a public sector
undertaking under the Department of Space.
o The INSPACe, created recently, will be the interface between Indian Space Research Organisation and
non-governmental entities
o ISRO will not do any operational and production work for the space sector and focus its energies on
developing new technologies, new systems and research and development.
o India's share in the global space economy was less than 2 percent at present and the space policy
will help it increase substantially to 10 percent in the future.
Q 87.B
x The INS Androth is the second in a series of eight Anti-Submarine Warfare Shallow Water Crafts (ASW
SWC) recently launched in Kolkata. It is built by Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE) in
Kolkata.
x INS Androth is a watercraft propelled by diesel-driven water jets. These ships can attain a maximum speed
of 25 knots. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x The primary role of INS Androth and the other ships of the same series is to conduct anti-submarine
operations in coastal waters, low-intensity maritime operations and mine-laying operations. These ships
are also capable of full-scale sub-surface surveillance of coastal waters and various surface platforms and
coordinated ASW operations with aircraft. These ships may be smaller in size but will pack a lethal punch.
x These ships also carry lightweight torpedoes, ASW rockets and mines, a close-in weapon system (with a 30
mm gun) and 16.7 mm stabilized remote-controlled guns. The Androth and its fellow craft will be fitted
with hull-mounted sonar and a low-frequency variable depth sonar. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Q 88.B
x National Recruitment Agency (NRA) is a testing agency which would conduct the Common Eligibility
Examination (CET) for non-gazetted Group B and C posts. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x Initially, it will conduct the recruitment examinations for Railway Recruitment Boards (RRBs), Institute
of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS), and Staff Selection Commission(SSC) and will gradually
expand its operations.
x National Recruitment Agency will be a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act, of
1860. The NRA will be a specialist body bringing state-of-the-art technology and best practices to the field
of Central Government recruitment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
x Recently, The National Recruitment Agency has asked people to be aware of fake websites offering
jobs in its name.
Q 89.C
x Adjournment Motion
x It is introduced in the Parliament to draw attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public
importance, and needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.
x As it interrupts the normal business of the House, it is regarded as an extraordinary device. It involves an
element of censure against the government and hence Rajya Sabha is not permitted to make use of this
device. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x The discussion on an adjournment motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.The
right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following
restrictions:
1. It should raise a matter which is definite, factual, urgent and of public importance;
2. It should not cover more than one matter;
3. It should be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence and should not be framed in general terms;
4. It should not raise a question of privilege;
.
5. It should not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session;
6. It should not deal with any matter that is under adjudication by court; and
7. It should not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion.
Q 90.D
x The total liability of the monetary authority of the country, RBI, is called the monetary base or high powered
money. It refers to the amount of cash circulating in the economy.
x It is composed of two parts: currency in circulation and bank reserves.
o Currency in circulation consists of currency (notes and coins in circulation with the public and
vault cash of commercial banks).
o Bank reserves are cash deposits held by the Government of India and commercial banks with
RBI.
x The two components above account for an economy’s most liquid assets – cash and cash deposits. Overall,
the monetary base provides a measure of how much cash currency is circulating in the economy.
x It is not to be confused with the money supply, the monetary base only includes cash and cash deposits,
such as banknotes, coins, cash held by commercial banks, and cash held in bank reserves. It does not
include non-cash assets, such as demand deposits, time deposits, or checks.
x In contrast, the money supply is a broad term that encompasses the entire supply of money in a country.
Money supply includes fewer liquid assets, such as demand deposits (money in a checking account), time
deposits (CD, GIC), or checks. The assets will be included in the money supply but not in the monetary
base. Therefore, we can view the money supply as an extension of the monetary base.
x Adjusting the monetary base is another tool that central banks use to modify interest rates. By using
monetary policy to maintain the monetary base, central banks can also ensure that a steady supply of cash
is always available for use.
Q 91.A
x The Development Committee (DC) is a ministerial-level forum of the World Bank Group and the
International Monetary Fund for intergovernmental consensus-building on development issues.
Known formally as the Joint Ministerial Committee of the Boards of Governors of the Bank and the
Fund on the Transfer of Real Resources to Developing Countries, the Committee was established in
1974. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x The Committee has 25 members, usually Ministers of Finance or Development, and who represent
the full membership of the Bank and Fund. They are appointed by each of the countries, or groups
of countries, represented on the Boards of Executive Directors of the Bank and Fund. The Chair is
selected from among the Committee's members and is assisted by an Executive Secretary who is
elected by the Committee. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x The Committee's mandate is to advise the Boards of Governors of the Bank and the Fund on critical
development issues and on the financial resources required to promote economic development in
developing countries. Over the years, the Committee has interpreted this mandate to include trade
and global environmental issues in addition to traditional development matters. Hence, statement 3
is not correct.
x The Development Committee meets twice a year; in the spring and in the fall at the time of the joint Bank-
Fund Annual Meetings. Its meetings are held in tandem with the meetings of the International Monetary
and Finance Committee (IMFC) of the Fund. The agenda for the meetings is based on issues recommended
by the Chair, the President of the Bank, the Managing Director of the Fund, and the Executive Boards of
the Bank and Fund. Given the Committee's focus, the President of the Bank has a special responsibility to
propose topics that he believes require the attention of the Governors. The StAR initiative, which was
established in 2007, is a partnership between the Bank Group and the United Nations Office on Drugs and
Crime. The unit works with client countries as well as with donors to improve the legal framework for asset
retrieval, and it provides training, guidance and practical assistance.
x The Multilateral Debt Relief Initiative (MDRI) was adopted by the IMF in late 2005. This initiative puts
into action a debt relief proposal initially advanced by the G-8 in June 2005, which called for the
cancellation of 100 percent of the claims of three multilateral institutions--the IMF, the International
Development Association (IDA) of the World Bank, and the African Development Fund (AfDF)--on
countries that have reached, or will eventually reach, the completion point under the enhanced Initiative for
Heavily Indebted Poor Countries (HIPC Initiative).
o The Bretton Woods twins refers to the two multilateral organizations created at the Bretton Woods
Conference in 1944. Both twin organizations functioned to enact and maintain the Bretton Woods
system of proscribed international currency exchange rates. They are the World Bank and the
International Monetary Fund.
.
Q 92.B
x Government of India had launched Discovered Small Field (DSF) Policy in 2015 which was a monumental
step for awarding discovered acreages and monetize the unmonetized discoveries of state-owned Oil and
Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) and Oil India Ltd (OIL). Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x There areas has been discovered long back but these reserve could not be put into production due to various
reasons such as Isolated locations of oil field; Small size of hydrocarbon reserve; high development costs
and constraint in technology etc.
x The DSF policy has multiple attractive features like revenue sharing contract model with low
regulatory burden, no minimum biddable work programme, no prior technical qualification required, no
upfront signature bonus, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The new DSF policy is based on the principle of ‘ease of doing businesses’. This policy is an outcome of a
long consultation process between the government and the industry. Some of the key highlights of the DSF
policy are as follows:
o Revenue sharing with the government instead of the existing cost-recovery based production sharing
o Permission to explore all kinds of hydrocarbons such as shale, tight rock, coalbed methane
o Prior technical experience not required for bidders
o No restrictions on exploration activities during the contract period
o Favourable royalty rate and waiver of oil cess
o Customs duty on goods and services imported for petroleum operations not to be imposed
o Royalty on crude oil is 12.5% and 10% for on land and shallow water respectively.
o International competitive bidding with no mandatory national oil companies (NOC) participation
Q 93.B
x Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has granted an ‘Infrastructure Finance Company (IFC)’
status to Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA). It was earlier classified as
‘Investment and Credit Company (ICC). Hence statement 2 is correct.
o With the IFC status, IREDA will be able to take higher exposure in RE financing
x Infrastructure Finance Company is a non-deposit-accepting loan company which complies with the
following criteria of RBI. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o A minimum of 75 percent of the total assets of an IFC-NBFC should be deployed in infrastructure loans
o The company should have minimum net-worth of Rs 300 crore
o The CRAR of of the company should be at 15% with Tier I capital at 10% and
o The minimum credit rating of the company should be at 'A' or equivalent of CRISIL, FITCH, CARE,
ICRA, BRICKWORK or equivalent rating by any other accrediting rating agencies.
x Infrastructure loan” means a credit facility extended by NBFCs to a borrower for exposure in the following
infrastructure sub-sectors.

.
Q 94.C
x Recent context: The National Stock Exchange (NSE) issued a string of notices naming entities involved in
‘dabba trading’.
x Dabba (box) trading refers to informal trading that takes place outside the purview of the stock
exchanges. Traders bet on stock price movements without incurring a real transaction to take physical
ownership of a particular stock as is done in an exchange. In simple words, it is gambling centred around
stock price movements. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
x For example, an investor places a bet on a stock at a price point, say ₹1,000. If the price point rose to ₹1,500,
he/she would make a gain of ₹500. However, if the price point falls to ₹900, the investor would have to pay
the difference to the dabba broker. Thus, it could be concluded that the broker’s profit equates the investor’s
loss and vice-versa. The equations are particularly consequential during bull runs or bear market.
x The primary purpose of such trades is to stay outside the purview of the regulatory mechanism, and thus,
transactions are facilitated using cash and the mechanism is operated using unrecognised software terminals.
Other than this, it could also be facilitated using informal or kaccha (rough) records, sauda (transaction)
books, challans, DD receipts, cash receipts alongside bills/contract notes as proof of trading.
x Since there are no proper records of income or gain, it helps dabba traders escape taxation. They would not
have to pay the Commodity Transaction Tax (CTT) or the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) on their
transactions.
x ‘Dabba trading’ is recognised as an offence under Section 23(1) of the Securities Contracts (Regulation)
Act (SCRA), 1956 and upon conviction, can invite imprisonment for a term extending up to 10 years or a
fine up to ₹25 crore, or both.
Q 95.D
x The Virupaksha temple is part of Pattadakal temple complex which is a UNESCO world heritage site.
x The most important of the temples at Pattadakal date from the first half of the 8th century and show the
strongest possible evidences of Pallava influence.
x The great Virupaksha temple, dedicated to Siva as Lokesavara, by the queen of Vikramaditya II datable
to 740 A.D., was most likely built by workmen brought from Kanchipuram, and in direct imitation of the
Kailasanath at Kanchipuram.
x It is likely that the very choice of the site of Vijayanagara was inspired by the existence of the shrines of
Virupaksha and Pampadevi. The Vijayanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha.
All royal orders were signed “Shri Virupaksha”, usually in the Kannada script.
Q 96.A
x The weaponization of space is gaining prominence in recent times. In this context, counter-space weapons
have also gained significance. Counter-space weapons can be grouped into four broad groups of capabilities:
kinetic physical, non-kinetic physical, electronic, and cyber.
x Kinetic Physical counter-space weapons attempt to strike directly or detonate a warhead near a satellite or
ground station. The three main forms of kinetic physical attack are direct-ascent ASAT weapons, co-orbital
ASAT weapons, and ground station attacks.
x Direct-ascent ASAT weapons are launched from Earth on a suborbital trajectory to strike a satellite
in orbit, while co-orbital ASAT weapons are first placed into orbit and then later maneuvered into or near
their intended target. Attacks on ground stations are targeted at the terrestrial sites responsible for the
command and control of satellites or the relay of satellite mission data to users. Kinetic physical attacks
tend to cause irreversible damage to the systems affected and demonstrate a strong show of force that would
likely be attributable and publicly visible. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Electronic counter-space weapons target the electromagnetic spectrum through which space systems
transmit and receive data. Jamming devices interfere with communications to or from satellites by
generating noise in the same radio frequency (RF) band. Spoofing is a form of electronic attack where the
attacker tricks a receiver into believing a fake signal, produced by the attacker, is the real signal it is trying
to receive.
x Electronic forms of attack can be difficult to detect or distinguish from accidental interference,
making attribution and awareness more difficult. Both jamming and spoofing are reversible forms of
attack because once they are turned off, communications can return to normal. Hence, statement 2 is not
correct.

.
Q 97.B
x The Eliza effect refers to people’s tendency to falsely attribute human thought processes and emotions
to an AI system, thus believing that the system is more intelligent than it actually is. The phenomenon was
named after ELIZA, a chatbot created in 1966 by MIT professor Joseph Weizenbaum.
x A trivial example of the specific form of the Eliza effect is an automated teller machine that displays the
words "THANK YOU" at the end of a transaction. A (very) casual observer might think that the machine
is actually expressing gratitude; however, the machine is only printing a preprogrammed string of symbols.
x More generally, the ELIZA effect describes any situation where, based solely on a system's output, users
perceive computer systems as having "intrinsic qualities and abilities which the software controlling the
(output) cannot possibly achieve" or "assume that [outputs] reflect a greater causality than they actually
do. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
x A commonly used laboratory procedure to detect antibodies in the blood is called ELISA. ELISA
stands for enzyme-linked immunoassay. It is a commonly used laboratory test to detect antibodies in the
blood. An antibody is a protein produced by the body's immune system when it detects harmful substances,
called antigens. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
x The Fujiwhara effect, sometimes referred to as Fujiwara interaction or binary interaction, is
a phenomenon that occurs when two nearby cyclonic vortices orbit each other and close the distance
between the circulations of their corresponding low-pressure areas. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
x A chemical phenomenon that is observed in the characteristic compounds having double bonds in the
organic compounds is called the resonance effect. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
Q 98.B
x Microbial Fuel Cells (MFCs) have been described as “bioreactors that convert the energy in the chemical
bonds of organic compounds into electrical energy through the catalytic activity of microorganisms
under anaerobic conditions”.
x Microbial Fuel Cell (MFC) is a type of bioelectric chemical fuel cell system that generates electric current
by diverting electrons produced from the microbial oxidation of reduced compounds is called fuel or
electron donor on the anode to high-energy oxidized compounds including oxygen it is also called as an
oxidizing agent or electron acceptor on the cathode through an external electrical circuit. The working of
microbial fuel cell technology is based on the principle of redox reactions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Microbial Fuel Cell generates Direct current (DC) in millivolts. It has applications in various fields
such as power generation systems, bio-recovery, waste-water treatment, etc. MFCs are attractive for power
generation applications that require only low power, where replacing batteries may be impractical such as
wireless sensor networks. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x MFCs convert energy more efficiently than standard internal combustion engines, which are limited
by the Carnot efficiency. In theory, a microbial fuel cell is capable of energy efficiency far beyond
50%. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 99.B
x Recently RBI has released a survey titled Headwinds of COVID-19 and India’s Inward Remittances. As
per this report during 2021-22, India received foreign inward remittances of $89,127 million, the highest
ever inward remittances received in a single year.
x The data for the past five years on inward remittances is as below

.
x Source: RBI Remittance Survey, 2021 as published in RBI Bulletin article on remittances, “Headwinds of
COVID-19 and India’s Inward Remittances”, July 2022.
Q 100.C
x The Vakataka dynasty was a Brahmin dynasty of ancient India that emerged in the Deccan region in the
middle of the 3rd century CE. Vindhyashakti I was the founder of the Vakataka dynasty.
x The Vakatakas were contemporary of the Guptas in northern India. Their history can be reconstructed
on the basis of a large number of copper-plate land grant charters issued to the Brahmanas. Even though
they promoted Brahminism, they were liberal in outlook and patronized Buddhism as well. Hence
x In peninsular India, the Vakatakas, were a local power that ruled over northern Maharashtra and
Vidarbha. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The Vakatakas are noted for having been patrons of the arts, architecture, and literature. Under the
patronage of the Vakataka king Harisena, the rock-cut Buddhist viharas and chaityas of the Ajanta
Caves, which are now UNESCO World Heritage Site, were constructed. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x Pravarasena (c. 270-330 CE) is credited with establishing the true power and greatness of the Vakataka
dynasty. He expanded the empire into Vidarbha and neighboring regions of the Deccan, with Kanchanaka
serving as his capital. Among the Vakataka kings, Pravarasena was the only one to adopt the title of
Samrat, while the others preferred the more humble title of Maharaja.

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4 www.visionias.in ©Vision IAS

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x Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

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x Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

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