Test Full Questions

Acute intestinal diseases
Theme I
1. What are the shigell’s?
A The Gram positive stick
B The Gram negative stick
C Gram positive cock
D The Gram negative cock
E The primary organisms
2. What age category of children are most sensitive of dysentery? What is the age of
children?
A The 6 month old
B The year old
C From 1 till 2 years
D From 2 till 7 years
E From 7 till 14 years
3. What is the main way of transmission of Grigoreva-Shiga’s dysentery?
A Contact
B Food
C Water
D All answers are right

4. What factor has the main role on the formation of the chronic dysentery?
A The shigell’s ability for in the l-forms
B The transgression of immunologic reactivity
C The transgression of regime and the incorrect feeding
D The functional invaluable of digestive system
5. What factor is not characterized the morphologic changes and the seriousness of
dysentery?
A The infection dose.
B The invasive ability of microorganism
C The bacteriemia
D The eudo- and the exotoxin of exciter
E The immunologic firmness of child organism
6. What is not the variant of clinical course of shigellosis?
A The acute move
B The long move
C The chronic move
D The plain move
E The generalized move
7. What action is not necessary in the nidus of dysentery?
A The disinfection
B The control of evacuation for contact persons
C The bacteriological inspection of the all children
D The looking after contact persons
8. What are the symptoms of severity of dysentery?
A The character of evacuation
B The frequency of evacuation
C The stomachache
D The gaping of anus
E All answers are right
9. What are the most typical and specific complications for children with dysentery?
A The split, the erosion of anus
B The falling of rectum
C The invagination
D The perforation of intestine, the peritonit
E The intestinal bleeding
10. What is the duration of the prolonged form of dysentery?
A Till 1 month
B Till 6 months
C Till 3 months
D Till 2 months

11. What serological reaction can’t be used for diagnostic of dysentery?
A The reaction of agglutination
B The reaction of straight haemagglutination
C The increase in the dynamics
D The reaction of fixation the complement
12. What features are not typical for reactive arthritises, the development of which is
connected with enteroidea?
А monoarthritis of knee joints in general
B asymmetry of joint disease
C progression from 3-rd to 40-th day after the beginning of diarrhea
D septic character of arthritis
E development in HLA B27 positive individuum
13. What are the complications of dysentery?
A The falling of rectum, the inflammation of cellular tissue near the rectum
B The infectional and toxic shock
C The intestinal bleeding
D The peritonit, the invagination
14. What kinds of shigell’s to secretion of the excotoxin?

A Zonnes
B Grigorev-Shiga’s
C Flexnera’s
D All answers are incorrect
15. What morphological changes in intestines are peculiar for early years children with
dysentery?
A The cataral colitis
B The fibrinous colitis
C The ulcerative colitis
16. A baby of 10 months is ill with a severe form of acute Flexner’s dysentery. There are
hyperthermia, 6 times repeated vomiting, watery stool with plenty of green mucus and blood
streaks 15 times, in defecation it makes an effort, jerks its legs. What complications can arise?
A. Infectious-toxic shock
B. Intestinal bleeding
C. Peritonitis, invagination
D. Prolapse of the anus, paraproctitis
E. All answers are true
17. What is the main way of transmission of dysentery Zonne?
A Contact- manners B All answers are right C Food D Water
18. Differential diagnosis of diarrhea persisting more than two weeks includes:
A enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC), enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
B Shіgеllа dуsеntеrіае, Sаlmоnеllа tурhіmurium, Aeromonas caviae
C enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC), Norwalk viruses, rotaviruses
D Саmруlоbасtеr jеjunі, Shіgеllа Flexneri, Helicobacter pylori
19. What are the symptoms of distal colitis?
A The spasm of sigmoid intestine
B The inflammation of sphincter
C The gaping of anus
D The ache of large intestine
20. What is the reliable characteristic for confirmation the diagnosis of dysentery?
A The high level of specific antisolids in blood
B The separation of exciter
C The seriousness of intoxication
D The syndrome of distal colit
E The haemocolitis
21. A child of 8 years old has a syndrome of hemocolitis (frequent watery stool with mucus
and blood, tenderness in the left iliac area) without substantial increase of the temperature.
What diseases are necessary to exclude?
A. Amebiasis
B. Balantidiasis
C. Chronic nonspecific inflammatory diseases of the intestine
D. Gastrointestinal bleeding as a result of diverticulitis
E. All the aforesaid
22. A 5-year-old boy fell ill acutely: fever up to 38.5°C, anorexia, nausea, diarrhea, stools
occur 8 times daily, contain a lot of mucus and blood, thenesmus are present, sigmoid colon is
tender and hardened. What is your diagnosis?
A. Staphylococcal enterocolitis B. Salmonellosis C. Dysentery D.

Escheriosis E. Viral diarrhea
23. A child of 1 year old was admitted to the clinic with a severe form of intestinal
dysfunction, signs of neurotoxicosis. On bacterial examination of shigella Grigoriev-Shiga. What
is not characteristic of Grigoriev-Shiga dysentery?
A. Rapid development of colitis syndrome B. Mild course C. Severe course
D. Hyperthermia E. The expressed syndrome of infectious toxicosis
24. What is the prolonged (chronic) dysentery?
A Till 1 month
B Till 3 months
C Longer then 12 months
D Longer then 3 months
E Longer then 6 months
25. What changes is not typical for the colit syndrome of dysentery?
A The slime in evacuation

B The often evacuation with water
C The tenesmes and its variants
D The spasm of sigmoid intestine
26. What conception is right for shigellos?
A The peropal dose of cefalosporines is the therapy of choice
B Fish and pigs are the reserves of infection among animals
C 40% among ill children has the neurotoxicos
D Bacteriemia is often process
27. Reactive arthritises can not develop on a background or after the carried infection,
predefined by:
А shigella
В rotaviruses
C salmonellas
D campilobacteriosis
E Yersiniae
28. A child of 5 years old was admitted to the clinic with complaints on watery stool with
mucus 5 times a day, cramp-like pains in the abdomen. On bacteriological examination Shigella
Sonnei was isolated. The symptoms reflecting severity of the disease are:
A. Character of excrements B. Frequency of stool C. Pains in the abdomen
D. Incompletely closed anus E. All answers are true

29. What is not the characteristic of dysentery Grigorieva-Shiga?
A The hyperthermia
B The quick progress of colit syndrome
C The sharp expressive of syndromes of infection toxicosis
D The easy move of illness
E The hard move of illness
30. What is the characteristic of dysentery’s exciter?
A The Gram «-» stick
B Flexner’s and Zonne’s are often the cause of illness
C It is belonged to the shigell’s generation
D There are no capsules and spores
31. Who is not the source of infection of dysentery?
A The patient with acute dysentery
B The ill animal
C The carrier of bacterium
D The patient with chronic dysentery
32. What action is not necessary in the nidus of dysentery?
A The disinfection
B The control of evacuation for contact persons

C The bacteriological inspection of children with intestinal dysfunction
D The looking after contact persons
33. Reactive arthritises can develop from the 3-rd till the 40-th day from the beginning of
diarrhea, conditioned by:
А Salmonella
B Campilobacter
C Yersinia
D Shigella
E All the answers are not correct
F All the answers are correct
34. A child of 3 years old is ill with a severe form of Flexner's dysentery. What factor does not
determine morphological changes in an organism and severity of dysentery?
A. Bacteriemia
B. Invasive features of the causative agent C an infecting dose
D. Endo- or exotoxin formation of the causative agent
E. Immunologic resistance of an organism
35. A baby of 6 months is ill with a mild form of acute dysfunction of the intestine. On
bacteriological examination Shigella Sonnei was isolated. What morphological changes prevail
in the intestine in a similar case?
A. Catarrhal colitis
B. Follicular colitis
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Fibrinous colitis
E. Diphtheric colitis
36. What is the duration of observation for contact persons?
A 5 days
B 7 days
C 10 days
D 14 days
E 30 days
Salmonellosis
1. The basis of classification of salmonellas contains:
A antigenic structure due to flagellar antigen
В antigenic structure due to capsular antigen
C infection source
D antigenic structure due to somatic antigen
E disease-evoking power

2. The factors of salmonella virulence:
А Antiphagocytic activity of salmonella
В Mobility of salmonella
C Capability of production of endotoxin A
D Ability to survive in phagocytes
E Constance to lysis
F all the answers are correct
3. The great risk of development of generalized form of Salmonellosis have:
A children taking course of immunosuppressive therapy
В children with born T- cellular immunodeficient diseases
C newborn infants
D AIDS-illed children
E all the answers are correct
4. Source of salmonellosis infection is:
А Big horned cattle
B Poultry, culvers, turtles
C Sick person or carrier
D Hogs, sheep
5. The factors of salmonella transfer:

А meat В eggs C feesh D milk E All answers are
correct
6. The main link of salmonellosis pathogenesis:
A haemodynamic abnormalities
B endotoxemia
C bacillemia
D hydrotherapeutic electrolytic loss
7. A material for carrying out of bacteriological researches in case of salmonellosis is:
A blood
B intestinal discharge
C vomit mass and flushing water of stomach
D urine
8. What clinical form of salmonellosis abundantly have infants?
A obliterate form
B generalized
C bacterioexcretion
D gastrointestinal

9. What symptoms have children aged to 3 years according to the clinical symptoms of
salmonellosis?
A colitis
B gastroenteritis
C generalization of infection
D absence of clinical symptoms, screening of microorganisms from feces
10. What features are not typical for gastrointestinal syndrome in case of salmonellosis?
A algesia in case of palpation at epigastric, navel, ileocecal area
B frequent feces with a mucus
C water, stinking feces
D steady nausea, vomit
E griping pains of anus, increasing before faeces
11. What character of feces is not typical for salmonellosis?
A like stagnant water

B rare water with faeces
C like raspberry jelly
D mucus-bloody
E like meat slops

12. What manifestations can not be the criteria of hard form in case of salmonellosis?
A Intoxication
B toxic lesions of myocardium
C fever
D continuation of incubation period
E frequency of faeces
13. What manifestations has septic variant of generalized form of salmonellosis?
A fever of anomalous type
B long-period gastroenteritis syndrome
C hepatosplenomegaly
D forming of secondary septicopyemic focus
14. Salmonellosis osteomyelitis is a frequent disease of children, who:
А had long-term antibiotic-therapy
В have crescent anemia
C had a contact with animals
D drank not-pasteurized milk in anamnesis
15. Clinically salmonellosis has other features than:
A yersiniosis
B food poisoning
C botulism
D dysentery
E cholera
A blood
D urine
17.What form of salmonellosis more often occurs in the newborns?
A gastrointestinal (gastritis)
B gastrointestinal (gastroenteritis)
C gastrointestinal (enterocolitis)
D septic
E typhoid
18.Main signs of salmonellosis are: (2)
A Respiratory syndrome
B rush
C toxic syndrome
D disuria
E dyspepsia

19. Name the main laboratory test to prove salmonellosis: (2)
A Blood analysis B Coprogram C Bacteriological (feces culture, blood

culture) D Serological
20.Typhus-like form of salmonellosis is charactersed by: (4)
A hectic fever, duration of fever is 1-2 weeks
B toxic syndrome
C roseolous rush on skin
D meningitis
E osteomyelitis
F dyspepsia
21. Septic form of salmonellosis is charactersed by: (5)
A hepatosplenomegaly
B toxic syndrome
C roseolous rush on skin
D meningitis
E osteomyelitis
F dyspepsia
22. What diseases must be salmonellosis differentiated from? (3)
A escherichiosis
B viral diarrea
C invagination of the bowel
D staphylococcal diarrhea
E diphtheria
23. What statement is not typical for salmonellosis as nosocomial extrahuman infection?
A internallyhospital breakout of salmonellosis differ because long-term course
B the majority of the sick is among of one year old children
C internallyhospital salmonellosis is often coursed by stocks of microorganisms with

low antibiotic resistance
D the number of cases of internallyhospital salmonellosis grows.
24. What features are typical for salmonellosis epidemiology of 1 year old children?
A community - acquired way of rendering
B internallyhospital contamination
C often causes by antibiotic-resistant stocks
D in case of food way of rendering the leading factor is milk food.
E long-term discharge of causative agent are typical for newborn infants and children
sufferring from generalized form
F all the answers are correct
25. In typical cases of salmonellosis stools are:
A liquid, green, without mucus
B liquid with nonfermentated parts of food
C liquid, green with mucus, like mud

D a small amount with mucus blood like spit
E Liquid, dark-yellow with large amount of water
26. What is the often results after intestinal infections for children of early age?
A The transgression of the function of nervous system
B The delay of tall
C The stenos of intestines
D The secondary enzymopathy
E Enumerated changes are not typical
A blood
D urine
28. What is the order of discharge the children from hospital is not correct?
A The normalization of general condition
B The normalization of the form evacuation during 3 days
C The normalization of blood analysis and coprogram
D The negative result of once bacteriological exploration of evacuation for dysentery

the course of antibioticotherapy
E The negative result of once bacteriological exploration of evacuation for dysentery two
days later the course of antibioticotherapy
The treatment
1. What medicines are necessary for lowering the death rate after acute intestinal infections
for children?
A The early discovering of patients and it’s treatment
B The hospitalization of hard patients
C The correct oral and parenteral regidration in stationary
D The oral regidration for patients with the first symptoms of acute intestinal infection at
home
2. What is the peculiarity of antibiotics therapy for patients with dysentery?
A The minimal course is 5-7 days
B If the therapy has not been effective during 3 days we must change the antibiotic
C The way of introduction for antibiotics is depend of the seriousness of children’s conditions
and of medicine’s quality
D The maximum long is determined by the seriousness of children’s conditions and of the
speed of syndrom’s disappearance
3. What is the minimal longing for the course of antibiotic therapy?
A 1-3 days
B 5 days
C 5-7 days
D 7-10 days
E 10-14 days
4. What medicines are not necessary for acute intestinal infection?
A Ampicillin
B Fluoroquinolones
C Nifurocsazid
D The first and second generation of cerhalosporines
E The third and fourth generation of cephalosporines
5. What medicines are not used for etiotropical therapy of intestinal infections?
A Levomytsetini succinatis
B Nifyroxazid
C Biceptol
D Сefazolin
E Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin)
F Cefotoxamin
6. How are the antibiotics prescribed for patients with mild form of acute intestinal infection?
A Per os
B Into muscles
C Into veins
D Into muscles + per os
E Into veins + per os
7. For treatment of patients with the generalized forms of salmonellosis, antibiotics must be
injected:
A intravenously
B perorally
C intramuscularly
D Intravenously, perorally
8. Taking into account the growth of antibioticresistance of salmonella at the present stage,
treatment of sharp forms of salmonellosis for children to one year should be started with:
A aminoglycosides of the 3-rd generation
B ampicillin
C cephalosporins of the 3-rd generation
D nitrofurans
E chloramphenicol

9. What medicines can’t be used for children with colit form of dysentery?
A Nifurocsazid
B Ampicillin
C Cefatoxin
D Oxacillin
E Ceftriaxon
10. What medicines must we used as a start therapy for severe forms of dysentery with
regard of increasing the shigell’s firmness to antibiotics?
A The third generation of cefalosporines, fluoroquinolones as a reserve
B Polymyxin, laevomycetin as a reserve
C Gentamycin, laevomycetin as a reserve
D Ampicillin gentamycin as a reserve
11. The choice of start antibiotic therapy is used according to:
A Shigell’s sensibility for antibiotics in such region
B The seriousness (severity of clinical course)
C The children’s age
D All answers are right
12. While treatment of severe forms of salmonellosis of the younger children it is not
important:
A oral and parenteral rehydration
B oral rehydration
C parenteral rehydration
D therapy by enzymes, sorbents and eubiotics
E antibacterial therapy
13. A child of 12 years old is ill with a severe form of dysentery. Taking into consideration
increase of antibiotic resistance of the causative agent at the modem stage, it is necessary to
use for starting therapy of severe forms:
A. Cephalosporins of III generation, as a reserve — fluoroquinolones
B. Polymixin, as a reserve — levomycetin
C. Gentamycin, as a reserve — levomycetin
D. Ampicillin, as a reserve — gentamycin
E. Nifuroxazid, as a reserve — ampicillin
14. A child of 10 years old is ill with dysentery. On the 2nd day the body temperature was
38.4°C, there were flaccidity, weakness, loss of appetite, stool was scanty, mucous, with blood,
10 times. The choice of starting antibacterial therapy in dysentery is determined by:
A. Form of the disease
B. Age of the child
C. Sensitivity of shigella to antibiotics in the given area
D. Premorbid background

15. A child of 8 years old had a fever of 38.6°C, repeated vomiting, stool 15 times with
admixture of mucus and blood streaks, on examination he was pale, the sigmoid intestine is
spasmodic. Choose optimum criteria of antibacterial therapy:
A. Maximal duration of 5-7 days
B. Maximal duration is determined by dynamics of clinical manifestations
C. In absence of the effect during 3 days it is necessary to change the antibiotic
D. Way of introduction depends on severity of the disease and properties of the drug
16. What dose of polymyxin M sulfate is used to treat severe cases of salmonellosis?
A 100 mg/kg per day
B 40-50 mg/kg per day
C 50-100 mg/kg per day
D 150 mg/kg per day
E 200 mg/kg per day
17. What etiological treatment should be used in mild cases of salmonellosis?
A ferments B cephalosporines C furazolidone D rehydrates E bacteriophages
18. What antibiotics should be used in severe cases of salmonellosis?
A Nifuroxazid B polymyxin M sulfate, ampicillin, cephalosporins C furazolidone D

enterosorbents
19. What is the exciter of acute intestinal infection which is treated by medicines oppressed
the motoric function of intestines of children?
A Salmonella typhimurium
B Shigella
C All answers are not right
D Enteropatogenetic
E E. Coli
20. What medicines are not used for etiotropical therapy of intestinal infections?
A Sulfanilamid’s medicines B Sorbents C Nitrofuran’s medicines D

Bacteriophages E Antibiotics
21. What solutions of second generation are used for oral regidration?
A Oralit
B Regidron
C ORS 200 flip
D Glucose 10%
E Ringer’s solution
22. What is the duration of first stage of oral regidration for the 1st degree of exicosis?
A 2 hours
B 4 hours
C 6 hours
D 12 hours
E 24 hours

23. What is the duration of first stage of oral regidration for the 2st degree of exicosis?
A 2 hours
B 4 hours
C 6 hours
D 12 hours
E 24 hours
24. While treatment of severe forms of salmonellosis of the younger children is not important:
A oral and parenteral rehydration
B oral rehydration
C parenteral rehydration
D therapy by enzymes, sorbents and eubiotics
E antibacterial therapy
25. A сhild aged 2 was hospitalized on the second day after the onset of disease with
complaints about watery diarrhea to 5-6 times a day, vomit to 2 times a day. Body temperature
is 37,8 C, an appetite is reduced, xerostomia, flaccidity. What kind of therapy do you prefer?
A prescription of intramuscular injection of cefotaxime
B prescription of polymyxin and oral rehydration
C to begin intensive oral rehydration, to put a child under observation, do not

prescribe antibiotics
D prescription of furasolidone and parenteral rehydration
26. Suckling has profuse diarrhea during 3 days. Heart rate – 200 per minute, perfusion is
reduced, peripheral pulse is slow. Chose the most optimal treatment.
A Dopamine infusion
B hemodialysis infusion
C prescription of atropine
D infusion of glucose-saline solutions
27. Oral rehydrative therapy is the primary stage of children treatment with the symptoms of
gastroenteritis, except for:
A dysentery
B ileus, coma or shock
C vomit, fever
D cholera
E skin turgor is reduced, crown of the head is hollow, xerostomia, two vomits a day.
28. Solutions for drink during of first stage of oral regidration:
A The rice boil
B The carrot boil
C Regidron, Oralit,ORS
D Tea, 5% glucose solution
29. The child, 2 y.old, has watery diarrhea 2 days duration 5-6 times a day. The most
appropriate therapy is:
A to prescribe enzymatic agents
B to prescribe chloramphenicol
C to explain to the mother conduction and method of intensive oral rehydration in
order to prevent development of dehydration
D all answers are true
30. All of the indicated colloid medications are administered in the dosage of:
A 10 ml/kg/day
B 20 ml/kg/day
C 15 ml/kg/day
D 30 ml/kg/day
31. Contraindications to injections of K + ions are:
A evident oligohydruria
B exsicosis
C vomit
E gaseous detention
F enteroplegia
32. For what conditions is not used oral rehydration?
A Vomiting
B Oliguria
C Exicos
D Transgression in microcirculation
E There are no such conditions

33. In order to diminish diarrheal syndrome it is better not to use:
A biological preparations
B Imodium, papaverine
C enzymatic preparations
D Enterosorbents
E anastaltic facilities
Colibacillosis
1. The main link of colibacillosis pathogenesis is:
A enterotoxin affection
B bacteriemia
C allergic reactions
2. The typical place of colibacillosis reproduction is:
A large intestine
B stomach
C mesenterial lymph glands
D small intestine
3. The main link of colibacillosis pathogenesis is:

A enterotoxin affection
B bacteriemia
C allergic reactions
4. What is the most reliable method of confirmation of colibacillosis diagnosis?
A bacteriological method
B all the answers are correct;
C immunefluorescence method
D agglutination reaction
E indirect hemagglutination reaction
5. The main way of colibacillosis transmission caused by enteroinvasive Escherichia coli:
A contact
B all the answers are correct
С food
D water
6. What group of Escherichia causes a disease more often at children 1 year old?
A enterotoxigenic
B enteropathogenic
C enterohemorrhagic
D all groups
E enteroinvasive

7. A boy 20 months old has got a hemolytic anemia, oliguria, azotemia and
thrombocytopenia after having afebrile bloody diarrhea. What is the most probable pathogen of
this disease?
A cаmруlоbасtеr jеjunі
B sаlmоnеllа tурhі
C enterohemorrhagic Е.соlі О157Н7
D aerоmоnаs
8. What type of microorganisms cause a disease similar to shigellosis according to

it’s clinical features:
A Enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (colon bacillus) (EIEC)
B All answers are correct
С Enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC)
D Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
E Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
9. 10 babies fell ill with a dysfunction of the intestine in the somatic postnatal department.
The diarrheal syndrome prevails in the clinical picture. The most reliable method of confirmation
of the diagnosis is:
A. Bacteriological
B. Reaction of agglutination
C. Reaction of indirect agglutination
D. Reaction of passive agglutination

10 12 children fell ill with a dysfunction of the intestine in the postnatal department of
children's home. The diarrheal syndrome prevails in the clinical picture. What serovara of
escherichia cause the disease in children more often in the first year of life?
A. Enteropathogenic
B. Enterotoxigenic
C. Enterohemorrhagic
D. Enteroinvasive
11. Abundant watery bloodless diarrhea without mucus got by a child in acute form in case of
absence of fever is the most characteristic feature of:
A enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
B enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
С all the answers are correct
D enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
E enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC)
12. Watery diarrhea without fever, persistening more than 2 weeks of children 1 year old is
most characteristic feature of:
A enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC)
B enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (EIEC)
С enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
D enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
E all answers are correct

13. Acute diarrhea with fever under the temperature of 38 C, bloody feces with mucus, with
tenesmus, leukocytes in feces is the most characteristic feature of:
A enteroinvasive Escherichia coli (colon bacillus) (EIEC)
B enteropathogenic Escherichia coli (EPEC)
С enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
D enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli (EHEC)
14 20 children fell ill with an acute dysfunction of the intestine in the village kindergarten.
On bacteriological examination E. Coli O14 was isolated. Specify the most probable source of
infection:
A. Cattle
B. Pigs
C. Human
D. Domestic birds
15 A child of 4 years old was brought to the clinic with acute dysfunction of the intestine.
Signs of enterocolitis prevail in the clinical course. On the third day blood streaks were found in
feces. On the fifth day the hemolytic-uraemic syndrome (The Gasser's syndrome) developed. In
what kind of escherichiosis is the hemolytic-uraemic syndrome observed?
A. Enteroinvasive
B Enterohemorrhagic
C. Enterotoxigenic
D. Enteropathogenic
16. A boy aged 20 month has got a hemolytic anemia, oliguria, azotemia and
thrombocytopenia after having afebrile bloody diarrhea. What is the most probable reason of
this disease?
A Sаlmоnеllа tурhі
B Enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli О157Н7
C Саmруlоbасtеr jеjunі
D Аеrоmоnаs
E Sаlmопеllа tурhіmurіum
17. A baby of 6 months was admitted to the clinic with acute dysfunction of the
gastrointestinal tract. On bacteriological examination enteropathogenic E. Coli O11, was
isolated. What affection of the gastrointestinal tract is characteristic of this causative agent?
A. Stomach
B. Duodenum
C Small intestine
D. Large intestine
18. Colibacillosis diagnosis can be made out on the evidence of:
A epidemiologic evidence
B rise of temperature, intoxication
C gastroenteritis syndrome
D bacteriological confirmation
E coprological investigation
19. A child of 6 years old is ill with an acute intestinal infection. He has a fever up to 39°C,
refuses food and drinking, vomits up to 5 times, stool is frequent, watery, with admixture of
mucus and greens. For bacteriological examination we use:
A. Blood
B. Feces and urine
C. Lavage of the stomach and intestine
D. Vomit
E. All answers are correct
20. What group of bacteriae produces toxins with identical mechanism of action?
A Lеgіоnеllа рnеumоіnае and Sаlmоnеllа tурhі
B Strерtососсus руоgеnеs and Shіgеllа dуsеntеrіае
C Васіllus аnthrасіs and Сlоstrіdіum реrfrіngеns
D Еsсhеrісhіа соlі and Vіbrіо сhоlеrае
E Кlеbsіеllа рnеumоnіае and Мусоbасtеrіum tubеrсulоsіs
21. What group of drugs is one of basic in treatment of children with the mild form of clinical
course of colibacillosis?
A enzymes
B antibiotics
С sorbents
D bacterial

Intestinal Yersiniosis
1. Intestinal Yersiniosis is:
A anthroponotic infection
B zoonotic infection
C anthropozoonotic infection
D all variants are incorrect
2. The pathogen of intestinal yersiniosis is:
A Gram-negative bacillus
B Gram-positive bacillus
C virus
D simplest organism
3. The pathogen of intestinal yersiniosis is divided into:
A 34 serotypes according to the O-antigen
B 14 serotypes according to the O-antigen
C 7 serotypes according to the O-antigen
D 52 serotypes according to the O-antigen
4. Which serotypes of Y.enterocolitica are isolated from humans most frequently?
A O2-O5
B O3 & O9
C O10-O20
D O13 & O19
5. The pathogen of intestinal yersiniosis reproduces in:
A proximal part of small intestine
B stomach
C distal part of the small intestine, the caecum and the appendix
D all variants are correct
6. The method of transference of intestinal yersiniosis is:
A alimentary
B contact method
C water method
7. Point out the age categories which fall ill for intestinal yersiniosis most frequently :
A Children from 2 to 5 years old
B School age children
C Teenagers
D Adults
8. Point out the infectious-allergic signs of intestinal yersiniosis as a result of persistence of

the pathogen in the lymph nodes: (3)
A arthritis, eruptions on the skin
B erythema nodosum
C cardiovascular disorders, myositis
D gastroenteritis or enterocolitis
9. Enumerate pathogenicity factors of Y.enterocolitica:
A has an ability to invasion, produces endotoxin and attacks cells of the intestine
mucous membrane
B produses exotoxin
C produses erythrogenic Dick toxin
10. The method of transference of intestinal yersiniosis is:

A alimentary
B contact method
C water method
11.The incubate period of intestinal yersiniosis is:
A 2 to 7 days
B 11- 21 days
C from 4-5 to 15 days
D 30-50 days
12. The next clinical forms are distinguished in intestinal yersiniosis:
A gastrointestinal
B pseudoappendicular
C septic
D arthralgia, erythema nodosum, hepatitis
13. Rash in intestinal yersiniosis appears on:
A 3rd-7th day after the onset of the disease
B 1st-2nd day after the onset of the disease
C it is untypical sign
D 10-12 day after the onset of the disease

14. Describe the character of desquamation of the skin in intestinal yersiniosis:
A branny desquamation – on trunk and the limbs
B laminar desquamation can be noted on the palms
C all answers are correct
15. The pathogen of intestinal yersiniosis may be isolated from, except:
A feces
B blood
C urine
D oropharyngeal mucus
E all answers are incorrect
16. A child of 10 years old experiences the signs of arthritis of the knee and ankle joints.
What causative agent causes diarrhoea with probable development of reactive arthritis?
A. Campylobacter jejuni
B. Yersinia enterocolitica
C. Salmonella
D. Shigella
E. All the following
17. The next clinical forms are distinguished in intestinal yersiniosis, except:
A gastrointestinal
B pseudoappendicular
C septic
D arthralgia, erythema nodosum, hepatitis
E serous meningitis
18. Gastrointestinal forms of yersiniosis are more frequently observed in:
A teenagers
B adults
C school-age children
D babies younger than 3 years of old
19. Rash elements in erythema nodosum disappear:
A after 9-22 days
B after 1 month
C on 23-25 day after onset of the disease
D after 5-7 days
20. Erythema nodosum in intestinal yersiniosis is found more frequently in:
A adults
B infants
C children older than 10 years old
D preschool children

21. Small joints of the bands and the feet in intestinal yersiniosis are attacked:
A frequently
B rarely
22 What statements are not peculiar for signs of bowels paresis?
A meteorism
B horizontal fluid’s level in bowels in roentgenogram
С vomit
Rotaviral infection
1 What type of rotaviruse’s genome leads to the appearance of virus neutralizing antibodies?
A VP-3, viral hemagglutinin
B VP-6, the main antigen of the virus
C VP-7, typospecific antigen
D All enumerated
2. The followiong groups of rotaviruses have been identified in humans:
A.From A to F
B. A, B, C
C. A-E
D. All answers are incorrect
3. The source of rotaviral infection is:
A sick human and virus carriers
B birds
C animals
D rodents
4. The main route of rotaviral infection transference is:
A air-droplet
B fecal-oral
C transmissible
D All enumerated
5. Contagious index for rotaviral infection is:
A 10-20%
B 50-60%
C 90-98%
D 30%
6. The majority cases of the rotaviral infection occur:
A in spring
B in summer
C spring-summer period
D from November to February
7. Point out the age categories which are the most frequent virus carriers:
A adults
B newborns
C teenagers
D children older than 2 years of old
8. Duration of the incubative period in rotaviral infection is:
A 1-7 days
B 11-21 days
C from 1 to 5 days
D 1-5 hours
9. Rotaviral infection is characterized by:
A toxemia
B diarrhea
C lesions of the upper respiratory tract
D All answers are true
10. Excreting the rotaviruses with feces disappears:

A on the 7th-10th day after the onset of the disease
B from the 3rd-5th day after the onset of the disease
C after 10 days from the onset of the disease
D all answers are incorrect
11. Rotaviral infection unlike salmonellosis is accompanied by:
A mild or moderate toxemia with monosyndromic gastroenteritis
B yellow stools with strong unpleasant smell
C lesions of upper respiratory tract
D all answers are correct
12. Point out the peculiarities of rotaviral infection in neonates:
A mainly mild forms of the disease
B gradual development of the symptoms
C rotaviral infection is caused by particular type of rotaviruses (VP-3 protein)
13. Point out the peculiarities of rotaviral infection in 1-year-old babies: (3)
A frequently severe forms of the disease with abrupt onset
B cardiovascular disorders may occur
C the disease is caused by VP-3 type of pathogens
D rotaviral infection may be combined with bacterial lesions of the intestine

14. The most typical signs of rotaviral infection are:
A gastroenteritis
B enteritis
C vomiting is distinguished in 80% of the patients
D catarrhal symptoms may appear since the 3rd-4th day after manifestation of diarrhea
E older children complain of abdominal cramps
F All answers are true
15. What type of dehydration occurs more frequently in rotaviral infection?
A salt deficit dehydration of the Ist-IInd degree
B water dificiency dehydration of the Ist-IInd degree
C isotonic dehydration of the Ist-IInd degree
16. Rotaviral infection unlike salmonellosis is accompanied by:
A mild or moderate toxemia with monosyndromic gastroenteritis
B yellow stools with strong unpleasant smell
C lesions of upper respiratory tract
Infectious toxicosis

1. Name the leading pathogenetic mechanism of infectious toxicosis:
A hypoxia
B microcirculation disturbance
C metabolism disturbance
D blood pressure decline
2. What features are typical for dehydration of the 1st stage?
A mild dehydration
B loss of body weight is not more than 5% of the primary one
C the child is restless, drinks thirstily
D turgor of tissues decreases insignificantly
E there is mild dryness of the mucous membrane in the oral cavity
F all answers are correct
3. What features are typical for dehydration of the 2nd stage?
A moderate dehydration
B loss of body weight up to 10% of the primary one
C skin is dry and flabby; oral cavity mucous membranes are dry, the fontanel is sunken
D mental confusion can come to sopor, CVS disorders

4. What laboratory indices mentioned below are the most informative in the case of
exsiccosis ?
A indices of acid-base balance
B number of leucocytes in peripheral blood
C osmolarity of plasma
5. Lack of potassium in plasma has such manifestations:
A nausea, vomit
B dens T reduction, ST elevation
C bowels paresis
D apathy, muscle weakness
6. Clinically hypotonic dehydration can not be diagnosed on the base of following symptoms:
A frequent vomit
B mild thirst
С Cold, pale skin, acrocyanosis
D wet “ marmorate ” skin
E dried-up, warm skin

Treatment
1. What principles are used in treatment of acute intestinal dissases?
A Proper diet
B Antimicrobial therapy
C Rehydration therapy (in case of dehydration)
D Detoxication therapy (if indicated)
E All answers are true
2. It is recommended to reduce the daily volume of food in acute stage on:
A 10 %
B 80 %
C one half – one third
D All answers are incorrect
3. Using the infant formulas with soy in acute stage can leads to:
A lactase deficiency
B higher risk of development of protein enteropathy
C toxic neuropathy
D intestinal paresis
4. In which cases is used oral rehydration?
A dehydration of 1-2 degree, in combination with parenteral rehydration in

dehydration of the 3rd degree
B dehydration of 2-3 degree
C All answers are incorrect
D In all enumerated cases
5. Detoxication therapy includes all enumerated measures except:
A irrigation of the stomach and intestine
B intestinal sorbefacients
C infusions
D prescribing of imodium
6. Indications for oral rehydration are:
A severe form of pneumonia
B hemorrhagic colitis
С exicosis of the III-rd stage
D watery diarrhea
7. What simple clinical criteria provide the control of effectiveness of infusion therapy?
A arterial pressure
B bodyweight of sick persone
С rheological-blood properties
D diuresis

8. Syndromic therapy includes all enumerated measures except:
A treatment of hyperthermia
B irrigation of the stomach and intestine
C treatment of convulsions
D treatment of DIC-syndrome
E treatment of intestinal paresis, toxic neuropathy
9. What drugs are used for etiotropic therapy of enteroinvasive colibacillosis?
A ciprofloxacin
B ampicillin
C cefotaxime
D all the answers are correct
10. Antibacterial therapy is administered in following cases except:
A in shigellosis and amebiasis irrespective of the child’s age and severity of the condition
B in moderate and severe forms of invasive diarrhea
C in hemorrhagic colitis irrespective of its severity and child’s age
D in severe forms of secretory diarrhea
E for prophylaxis
11. Indicate erroneous assertion:
A antibacterial therapy is administered to children with hemolytic anemia
B antibacterial therapy is administered in secondary bacterial complications
C antibacterial therapy is used in all forms of secretory diarrhea
D antibacterial therapy is administered in inherited immunodeficiency and AIDS
12. The main principles of antibiotic therapy in childhood with acute infectious diseases are
the following except:
A bacteriostatic preparations should be preferred
B antibiotics are not administered for prophylaxis
C the choice of antibiotic depends on sensitivity of the revealed strain or supposed agent
D the maximal duration of the course usually lasts 10-14 days
13. In case of moderate course of the disease, antibiotics may be introduced:
A orally+ intramuscularly
B orally
C intravenously
D intramuscularly
14. Indicate the dosage of Ampicillin for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
A 150-200 mg/kg/day tid-qid; IV, IM
B 10 mg/kg/day bid; PO
C 100 mg/kg/day tid-qid; IV, IM
D 100 mg/kg/day (1-2 times a day); IV, IM

15. Indicate the dosage of Cefepime for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
A 0.1-0.2 g bid-tid (2-3 times a day); PO
B 10-15 mg/kg/day bid-tid (2-3 times a day); IV, IM
C 7.5 mg/kg/day tid (3 times a day); IV, IM
D 100 mg/kg/day bid; IV
16. Indicate the dosage of Meronem for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
D 60 mg/kg/day tid; IV
17. Indicate the dosage of Metronidazole for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
E 30-40 mg/kg/day PO
18. Indicate the dosage of Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for treatment of acute intestinal

infectious diseases:

C 200 mg/kg/day qid; IV, IM, PO
D 100 mg/kg/day qd-bid (1-2 times a day); IV, IM
19. What antibiotics are administered in life-treatening cases?
A Ampicillin
B Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin
D Nifuroxazide
20. In mild and moderate forms of acute intestinal infectious diseases it is usually
administered:
A Amicacin
B Ceftriaxone
C Ciprofloxacin, Ofloxacin
D Nifuroxazide
21. In moderate and severe forms of acute intestinal infectious diseases are administered all
following medications except:
A Cefotaxime
B Ceftriaxone
C Amicacin, netilmicin
D Nifuroxazide

22. Indicate the dosage of Cefotaxime for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
23. Indicate the dosage of Ceftriaxone for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
24. What antibiotics are the line of choice for treatment of acute intestinal infectious
diseases: (2)
A Ampicillin, Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
B Ceftriaxone
C Ciprofloxacin
D All answers are correct
25. Indicate the dosage of Nifuroxazide for treatment for chid from 6 month to 6 years of
acute intestinal infectious diseases:

26. Indicate the dosage of Amicacin for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
27. Indicate the dosage of Netromycin for treatment of acute intestinal infectious diseases:
28. What drugs are not used for etiotropic therapy of enteric infections?
A Sorbents
B Bacteriophagies
C Antibiotics
29. What statement is not characteristic for the principles of rational antibiotic therapy?
A detection of optimal dose and mode of drug introduction
B taking note of the age of patient, existance of concomitant diseases

C prescription of antibacterial therapy to all patients who is under suspicion of
infection
D drug prescription with taking note of pharmacological intervention
E detection of sensitivity of causative agents to antibiotics
F detachment and identification of causative agent
30. Which antibacterial medication is administered in case of amebiasis or balantidiasis?
A Netilmycin
B Metronidazole
C Cefepime
D Meronem
31. Indicate the combination of two preparations which is used in severe and septic forms of
the disease:
A Netilmicin+Metronidazole
B Metronidazole+Cefepime
C Cephalosporin of the 3rd-4th generations+aminoglycosides
D all enumerated
32. Indicate the medicine of 2nd generation which is used for oral rehydration?
A rehydron
B oralit
C ORS
D all answers are incorrect

33. The necessary volume of liquid in 1st stage of rehydration in dehydration of the 1st degree
is:
A 100 mL/kg
B 20 mL/kg
C 30-50 mL/kg
D 80 mL/kg
34. The necessary volume of liquid in 1st stage of rehydration in dehydration of the 2nd degree
is:
A 100 mL/kg
B 20 mL/kg
C 30-50 mL/kg
D 80 mL/kg
35. Water and salt deficiency in 1st stage of rehydration is compensated during:
A 6-8 hours
B 4-6 hours
C 2-4 hours
36. An approximate volume of solution for supportive rehydration is:
A 20 mL/kg after every defecation
B 30-50 mL/kg/ day

C 50 to 100 mL/kg/day or 10 mL/kg after every defecation
37. Parenteral rehydration is indicated in following stages except:
A dehydration of the 3rd degree
B oliguria, anuria
C severe toxicosis
D dehydration of the 1st-2nd degree
38. The plan of rehydration therapy should take into account:
A Required daily volume of liquid and electrolytes
B Type and degree of dehydration
C Volume of liquid deficiency
D Current losses of liquid
E All enumerated
39. The daily volume of introduced liquid includes:
A liquid deficiency by the beginning of treatment
B daily physiological need in water
C volume of current pathological losses
D liquid deficiency by the beginning of treatment + daily physiological need in water +

volume of current pathological losses

40. Daily volume of liquid deficiency compensation in compensated (<5%) degree of
dehydration is:
A 60-90 mL/kg
B Up to 50 mL/kg
C 100 mL/kg and more
D 20 mL/kg
41. Daily volume of liquid deficiency compensation in subcompensated (6-9%) degree of

dehydration is:
A 60-90 mL/kg
B Up to 50 mL/kg
D 20 mL/kg
42. Daily volume of liquid deficiency compensation in decompensated (>10%) degree of

dehydration is:
A 60-90 mL/kg
B Up to 50 mL/kg
D 20 mL/kg
43. Physiological needs in liquid if body weight is 5400 g (by Holiday Segar method) is:
A 1000 mL + 50 mL/kg per every kilogram over 10 kg
B 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg per every kilogram over 20 kg

C 100 mL/kg
44. Physiological needs in liquid if body weight is 14,5 kg (by Holiday Segar method) is:
C 100 mL/kg
45. Physiological needs in liquid if body weight is 21 kg (by Holiday Segar method) is:
C 100 mL/kg
46. Correlation between colloid/crystalloid and glucose solutions in salt-deficiency

dehydration in newborns is:
A 1:2
B 1:3
C 1:1
D 1:4
47. Correlation between colloid/crystalloid and glucose solutions in water-deficiency

dehydration in newborns is:
A 1:2
B 1:3
C 1:1
D 1:4

dehydration in children up to 6 months is:
A 1:2
B 1:3
C 1:1
D 1:4

dehydration in children up to 6 months is:
A 1:2
B 1:3
C 1:1
D 1:4

dehydration in children after 6 months is:
A 1:2
B 1:3
C 1:1
D 1:4

dehydration in children after 6 months is:
A 1:2
B 1:3
C 1:1
D 1:4
52. Physiological daily needs in potassium is:
A 3-4 mmol/kg/day
B 1-2 mmol/kg/day
C 7-8 mmol/kg/day
D 5-6 mmol/kg/day
51. The maximal amount of daily potassium should not exceed:
A 3-4 mmol/kg/day
B 1-2 mmol/kg/day
C 7-8 mmol/kg/day
D 5-6 mmol/kg/day
1. Which virus is the cause of laryngotracheobronchitis?
A. influenza virus
B. respiratory syncytial virus
C. parainfluenza of 1st type virus
D. epidemic parotiditis virus

E. roseola virus
2. The source of parainfluenza infection is:
1. animals
2. convalescent
3. all answers are right
4. ill person
5. birds
1. Mechanism of the parainfluenza's transmission is:

1. Contact
2. Drip
3. Transmissible
4. Food
1. Seasonal morbidity of parainfluenza is:

1. spring-summer
3. spring-winter
4. morbidity is marked during whole year with raisings in autumn- spring
period
5. autumn-winter
1. Which of age group is suffered in parainfluenza most often?

1. Children of preschool and primary school age
2. All age groups
3. Adults
4. Babies
5. Old people
1. For parainfluenza is not typical:

1. low intensity of toxicosis
2. defeat of gastrointestinal tract
3. moderate fever
4. clinical course is extended
5. high intensity changes on mucosa of upper respiratory tract

1. Which of the following signs has no importance in croup pathogenesis?
A. edema of larynx mucous tunic
B. intoxication of bacterium toxins
C. accumulation of slime and pleura in respiratory tract gleam
D. larynx muscles spasm
E. organism sensitization by viral bacterial and antigen
1. For parainfluenza is typical such clinical forms:
A. Laryngitis
B. Pneumonia
C. Rhinitis
D. Pharyngitis
E. All answers are right
1. For parainfluenza is typical such changes in mucosa of fauces:
1. Edema of uvula
2. Edema of tonsils, regional increase of lymph nodes
3. Purulent-fibrinogenous plaque on the tonsils
4. Hyperemia of uvula and posterior wall of throat
5. Grain of soft palate
1. What are the main signs of parainfluenza infection? (3)
A. incubation period 2-7 days
B. croup
C. tonzylopharingitis
D. bronchiolitis
E. small intoxication
F. subfebril temperature
1. For parainfluenza is not typical:
1. Hyperemia of throat
2. Hyperthermia
3. Acute beginning
4. Dry cough
5. Hoarseness of voice
1. For parainfluenza croup is not typical:
A. Wheezing
B. Rough cough
C. Aphonia
D. Participation of the accessory muscular system in breathing
E. Difficult in breath
1. There such manifestations of children’s virus croup except:
A. low body temperature
B. swelling of lungs on the roentgenogram of thorax
C. inspiratory stridor
D. infection of parainfluenza virus
E. acute evolution

1. 1 year-old baby fell ill with abrupt fever up to 38°C, coryza, cough. Hoarseness of voice,
dry barking cough, heavy breathing and motor anxiety occur at night. What etiological
agent causes this disease?
A. Adenovirus
B. Corynebacterium diphtheria
C. Parainfluenza virus
D. Rhinovirus
E. Reovirus
1. The most frequent complication of parainfluenza is:

1. pyelonephritis
2. myocarditis
3. otitis
4. croup
5. antritis
1. Clinic of the complicated parainfluenza is characterized by:
A. Stenosis of the larynx
B. Pneumonia
C. Exacerbation of the concomitant chronic diseases
D. Leukocytosis
1. For parainfluenza infection is typical such changes in blood:

A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Leukopenia
C. Neutrophiliccytosis
D. Leukocytosis
E. Eosinopenia
1. We can see the increase of antibody titre in blood among ill persons with parainfluenza:
1. Since 4-th day of the disease
2. Since 8-10-th day of the disease
3. Since 15-th day of the disease
4. At the end of third week of the disease
5. Is not defined
1. Which of named features are not typical for adenovirus?

1. pathogen is stable in environment
2. it has hemagglutination features
3. it is sensitive to disinfection method
4. main source of infection is ill person
5. it is DNA virus
1. There are such mechanisms of transmissions of adenovirus infection except:

1. contact
2. air-droplets
3. transmissional
4. food
1. Point out the age group which is damaged by adenovirus infection most frequently?
1. Babies
2. Adults
3. Children to 1 year
4. Old people
5. All age groups
1. We can see the increase of the morbidity of adenovirus infection in:
A. Autumn-winter period
B. There is no seasonality
C. In summer period
D. All seasons
E. In spring period
1. The rarest clinical manifestations of adenovirus infection are:

1. rhinopharyngitis
2. bronchiolitis
3. pneumonia
4. tonsillitis
5. laryngotracheitis
1. Specific clinical variant of adenovirus infection is:

1. tonsillar pharyngitis
2. catarrh of upper respiratory tract
3. mesenteric lymphadenitis
4. pharingoconjunctival fever
5. pneumonia
1. For adenovirus infection is uncharacteristic:

1. Conjunctivitis
2. Pneumonia
3. Recurrence of the clinic course
4. Rhinopharyngotonsillitis
5. Pharingoconjunctival fever
1. For clinic of the adenovirus pharyngotonsillitis is not typical:

A. Injection of the sclera's vessel and hyperplasia of the tonsils
B. Aphthous rash in the tonsils
C. Edema of the posterior wall of the throat
D. Hyperemia of the throat, grain of the mucous tunic of the gullet
1. For kid's adenovirus infection is uncharacteristic:

1. Recurrent clinical course
2. Acute beginning of the disease
3. Conjunctivitis
4. Absence of the respiratory symptom
5. Gastroenteritis
1. Presence of what sign is typical for adenovirus infection?
A. lymphadenitis
B.hepatolienal syndrome
C. exanthema
D. fever
E. membranous conjunctivitis
F. all answers are right
1. Acute hemorrhagic adenovirus conjunctivitis is not accompanied by:
A. Hyperemia and edema of the conjunctiva of eyelids
B. Affection of the superior respiratory tract
C. Superficial infiltration of the cornea
D. Edema of the eyelids
E. Lymphoadenopathy, dyspepsia

1. The typical feature of adenovirus infection in newborns:
A. low expressiveness of fever
B. the appearance of obstructive syndrome bronchitis is prevailed
C. it happens rarely because of passive immunity
D. increase of lymph nodes and conjunctivitis are rarely occur
E. all answers are right
1. Features of babie’s adenovirus infection:
A. increase of neck lymph nodes
B. frequent disorders of stool
C. fever duration
D. evidence catarrhal appearance
E. tracheobronchitis presence
1. What is typical for adenovirus infection temperature reaction?
A. it is 2-3 weeks long sometimes
B. it does not accompanied by toxicosis
C. it can be undulating (wavy-like)
D. normalization starts on 5-7th day of illness most frequently
1. The most typical feature of adenovirus infection is:

A. conjunctivitis
B. increase of neck lymph nodes
C. fever
D. catarrhs of respiratory tract
1. The clinical variants of adenovirus conjunctivitis are:
A. membranous
B. catarrhal
C. follicular
D. all answers are right
1. The child is 16 years old. The beginning of the illness is sudden, with fever, tonsillitis,
rhinorrhea, cough, moderate abdominal ache. During the medical inspection on the
4th day there are fauces hyperemia and painful neck lymph nodes. What is the most
possible etiology of the disease?
A. β-hemolytic streptococcus of A-group
B. Neisseria gonorrhoea
C. Adenovirus
D. Epshtein-Barr virus
1. What are the main signs of adenoviral infection? (3)
A. normal body temperature
B. conjunctivitis
C. tonzylopharingitis
D. bronchiolitis
E. intoxication
F. high temperature
1. Name rare typical initial complaints on adenovirus infection:

1. ache in a body
2. fever
3. indisposition
4. urination dysfunction’s appearance
5. headache
1. What are complications of adenovirus infection?
A. otitis
B. bronchopneumonia
C. intensification of chronic diseases
D. croup
1. For adenovirus infection is uncharacteristic such changes in blood:

1. Eosinopenia
2. Normal amount of leucocytes
3. Leukopenia
4. Considerable increase of the ESR
5. Lymphocytosis
1. Adenoviral infection differs from other respiratory illnesses by:
A. respiratory ways of transmission mostly

B. most morbidity in cold season of the year
C. high contagious for children
D. expressed tropism of lymphoid tissue
E. tropism to mucous tunic’s epithelium
1. Adenovirus disease is differ from RS infection by:
A.lympho-, monocytosis in the blood
B. liver increase
C. spleen increase
D. conjunctivitis
E. moist cough
42. Adenovirus conjunctivitis is differ from ocular diphtheria by:
A. preferred affection of lower eyelid
B. thickness of membranous plaque
C. one-sided affection
D. increase of regional lymph nodes
43. The adenovirus infection is differ from mononucleosis by
A. hematological index
B. catarrhal appearance
C. increase of neck lymph nodes

D. gradual increase of liver and spleen
E. slight clinical course
44. RS infection is caused by next virus groups:
A. enteroviruses
B. picornaviruses
C. paramyxoviruses
D. rotaviruses
E. herpes viruses
45. The source of RS-infection is:
1. Birds
2. Animals
3. Sick person
4. Convalescent
46. What is the main way of spreading in case of RS-infection?
A. hand-by-hand
B. droplet
C. by water
D. by products
E. parenteral
47. Mechanism of the transmission of RS-infection is:
1. Air-droplet
2. Contact
3. Transmissible
4. Food
48. Seasonality of morbidity of RS infection:
A Is absent
B. Spring
C. Winter
D. Autumn-summer
49. Next persons ill by RS infection more often:
A. Adults
B. all age groups
C. Childs of preschool age
D. Babies (breast-feeding age
50. Incubation of RS-infection is lasting:
A. 10-15 days
B. to 7 days
C. 2-5 days
D. to 1 day
51. Point out the peculiarity of RS-infection among newborns:
1. fast development of pneumonia

2. difficulty of nasal breathing
3. refusal of breast, regurgitation, vomiting
4. gradual start
1. Typical features of RS-infection are:

1. expressed fever
2. bronchiolitis
3. high frequency of bronchial obstruction syndrome’s development
4. expressed oxygen insufficiency
1. We can see such clinical symptoms among patients with RS infection

1. tympanitis at lungs percussion
2. breathlessness
3. cyanosis
4. fine moist rales
54. RS-infection among children of first 6 months of life is characterized by:
A. Bronchitis
B. Bronchiolitis
C. Atelectasis development
D. Interstitial pneumonia
E. Pneumonia complicated by an abscess
55. For clinic of RS-infection is not typical:
A. Acute beginning
B. Gradual beginning
C. Fever
D. Gastroenteritis
E. The enlargement of the lymph nodes
56. Severity of RS infection is caused by:
A. respiratory compromise
B. fever
C. intoxication
D. hepatolienal syndrome
57. The duration of fever period in RS infection:
A. 5-10 days
B. 5 days nearly
C. 10-15 days
D. 24 hours
E. fever isn’t typical
58. The clinic of RS infection is characterized by the following symptoms, except:
A. cough
B. a lot of moist crepitation
C. respiratory compromise
D. fever
59. Complicated form of RS infection is:
A. bronchiectasis
B. pneumonia
C. pyelonephritis
D. myocarditis
E. pleuropneumonia
60. RS infection is differ from whooping cough by:
A. sticky expectoration
B. stuffy nose, sneezing
C. a lot of fine moist and crackling rales in lungs
D. paroxysmal cough
E. appetite decrease
61. The following changes of blood picture are typical for RS infection except:
A. ESR is a little bit higher
B. leucopenia
C. lymphocytosis
D. thrombocytopenia
E. moderate leukocytosis

62. Which of these viruses is the most often etiological agent of cold?
A. Coronavirus
B. ECHO-virus
C. Adenovirus
D. Rhinovirus
E. Virus of parainfluenza type 1
63. Rhinovirus infection defeats:
1. Children of school age

2. Infants (breast-feeding age)
3. Toddlers
4. Children of preschool age
5. All age groups
64. The base of clinical diagnosis of rhinovirus infection is:
A. epidemiologic evidence
B. a lot of allocation from nose
C. maceration of skin of nose
D. delicacy with normal temperature of the body
65. For rhinovirus infection is typical:
A. a lot of watery allocations from nose, sneezing
B. acute beginning
C. high fever
D. stuffiness in nose
66. What are the main signs of rhinoviral infection? (2)
A. normal body temperature
B. rhinitis with large effusion
C. croup
D. bronchiolitis
E. intoxication
F. high temperature
67. A baby of 9 months fell ill sharply: the temperature rose up to 37.8°C, there was a cough,
hoarse voice. In some hours the condition sharply aggravated, symptoms of laryngotracheitis
with stenosis of I-II degree developed. Which of causative agents has most likely caused croupe
in the baby?
A. Virus of influenza
B. Virus of parainfluenza
C. Adenovirus
D. RS-virus
E. Rhinovirus

68. Laboratory express diagnostics of rhinoviral infection is accomplished by:
1. CFT
2. laboratory diagnostics isn’t developed
3. definition of antigen in allocation from nose by immunofluorescence method
4. allocation of virus on tissue culture
5. neutralization reaction
69. The family of picornavirus doesn’t include following groups of viruses:
A.Reovirus
B. Coxsackie virus
C. ECHO virus
D. Rhinovirus
E. Hepatitis A viruses
70. For reovirus infection uncharacteristic is:
1. Air-droplets way of transmission

2. Sick person and virus carrier is the source of infection
3. All age groups are sensitive, including adults
4. Faecal-oral way of transmission
5. Children of 3-5 years are ill more often
71. There are such clinical forms among reoviral infection’s course:
1. subclinical
2. gastro-intestinal
3. mixed
4. catarrhal
1. Reovirus infection differs from ARVI by:

1. low intensity of catarrh
2. there are no typical differences
3. hyperemia of throat’s back side
4. increasing of neck lymph nodes
5. presence of intestinal syndrome
1. We can diagnose the reovirus infection on basis of:

1. Virological and serologic researches
2. Typical clinic
3. Hematologic changes
4. Epidemiologic facts
5. All answers are right
1. Which of these viruses is not associated with syndrome of cold?
A. Coronavirus
B. Adenovirus
C. Rhinovirus
D. Virus of parainfluenza
E. Virus of the chicken pox
1. For coronavirus infection is typical:
A. adults only affection
B. expressed seasonality
C. children only affection
D. rhinitis and pharyngitis combination

1. Pathomorphological changes in mucous tunic of respiratory tract during the influenza is

characterized by:
A. the immunity mechanism violation
B. the proliferation of epithelium
C. desquamation of epithelium
D. cellular infiltration
E. microcirculation violation, edema
1. The main sign of different forms of ARD are:
A. source of infection is ill person
B. high receptivity of people
C. morbidity is highest among kids
D. the way of transmission is respiratory secretions
1. The next methods is used for diagnostic of viral encephalitis:
A. Virus allocation from blood and liquor
B. CFT
C. nucleic acid virus allocation from liquor by the PCT
D. specific antibody of IgM class presence definition

1. Main characteristics of ARD:
A. etiologically heterogeneous illnesses
B. speed and mass character of expansion
C. the most wide expansion among babies
D. all answers are right
1. A 10-year-old boy fell ill abruptly after staying at a beach. Recurrent vomiting, severe
headache, fever appeared in the evening. Meningeal signs are positive. Cerebrospinal
fluid is transparent, its pressure increases, the number of CSF leukocytes is 350 cells
/mm3 (lymphocytes -80%), glucose level-2.21 mmol/l, protein level-0.66 g/1. Pandi's
reaction (+).What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Forest-spring encephalitis
B. Purulent meningitis
C. Tuberculous meningitis
D. Food poisoning
E. Viral meningitis
1. There is such basic therapy of ARD except:
A. Antiviral preparations
B. Confinement to bed for 5-7 days
C. Consumption a lot of liquid
D. Milk-vegetable diet
E. Hyperthermia–fighting, elimination of the ARD symptoms
2. The dosage of Tamiflu for child with body weight 18 kg is:
A. 75 mg twice a day
B. 60 mg twice a day
C. 45 mg twice a day
D. 30 mg twice a day
3. Tamiflu is prescribed to children:
A. From first 2 days of disease for 10 days
B. From first 2 days of disease for 7 days
C. From first 2 days of disease for 5 days
D. From first 2 days of disease for 14 days

6. The dosage of Tamiflu for child with body weight higher than 40 kg is:
8. Zanamivir is applied in inhalation form for children from the ages of:
A. 1 year
B. 7 years
C. 3 years
D. 12 years
9. Oseltamivir is used for children from the ages of:
1. 1 year
2. 2 years
3. 3 years
4. 7 years
10. We use Ribavirin for children in the form of:
A. Pills
B. Inhalation
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Intravenous injection
E. We don't use it
11. There are such side effects of using Ribavirin, except:
A. Bronchiolitis
B. Bronchospasm
C. Bradycardia
D. Cardiac arrest
E. Respiratory standstill
12. Ribavirine aerosol is applied during 12-18 hours per day for 7 days in case of:
A. RS-infection, parainfluenza
B. Influenza
C. Adenoviral infection
D. All answers are correct
13. For treatment of the adenovirus infection is recommended to use all except:
A. Instillation of the 0,05 % deoxyribonuclease solution into the nose
B. Confinement to bed
C. Adequate diet
D. Symptomatic aids
E. Instillation of the 0,05 % ribonuclease solution into the nose
14. The special preparation for treatment of the adenovirus infection is:
A. Rifampicinum
B. Ribavirin
C. There is no right answer
D. DNA-sa
E. Ribonuclease
15. DNA-sa is used in case of:
A. RS-infection, parainfluenza
B. Influenza
C. Adenoviral infection
16. The 2nd class of antiviral drugs (amantadine, rimantadine) is used in:
A. Influenza type A outbreaks
B. Influenza type B outbreaks
C. Against both influenza A & B strains

17. Rimantadine is prescribed for 7-11 year old children in following dosage:
A. 0,1 g 2 times a day for 5 days
B. 0,05 g 3 times a day for 3 days
C. 0,05 g 2 times a day for 3 days
D. 0,05 g 3 times a day for 5 days
18. Rimantadine-polysaccharide complexes are prescribed to children of 1 year of life in

such dosage:
A. 7 to 8 mg/kg/daily orally in 2 divided doses for 5 days
B. 4 to 6 mg/kg/daily orally in 2 divided doses for 5 days
C. 0,1 g/kg 2 times a day for 5 days
D. 30 mg/kg twice a day for 3 days
19. Amantadine is applied for 11-14 year-olds in following dosage (3rd day of treatment):
A. 0,1 g 2 times a day
B. 0,05 g 2 times a day
C. 0,1 g 3 times a day
D. 0,1 g 1 times a day
20. Amantadine is applied for 11-14 year-olds in following dosage (2nd day of treatment):

21. Amantadine is applied for 11-14 year-olds in following dosage (1st day of treatment):
22. Arbidol for 2-6 year old children is prescribed in dosage:
A. All answers are incorrect
23. Arbidol for 7-12 year old children is prescribed in dosage:
24. Arbidol for children older than 12 years is prescribed in dosage:

25. Leucocytal interferon for preventive measures must be given not longer than:
A. 1-7 days
B. 1-2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. all answers are incorrect
26. For prevention of ARVI it is recommended to use leucocytal interferon:
1. 2 drops 4 times a day

27. Dosage of Immunoglobulin (intramuscular injection) for children older than 7 years:
A. 1,5 ml
B. 3 ml
C. 4,5 ml
28. Dosage of Immunoglobulin (intramuscular injection) for children to 2 years:
A. 4,5 ml
B. 3 ml
C. 1,5 ml
29. Dosage of Immunoglobulin (intramuscular injection) for children to 2-7 years:
A. 4,5 ml
B. 3 ml
C. 1,5 ml
30. Normal human Ig with the high level antiinfluenza antibodies in first days of the diseases
is prescribed in dosage:
A. 0,5 ml/kg
B. 1 ml/kg
C. 0,2-0,3 ml/kg
D. 1,5 ml/kg
1. Point out preventive measures against ARVI:
1. Leucocytal interferon 2 drops 4 times a day

2. Recombinant interferons for nasal injection
3. Arbidole
4. All answers are correct
32. Indications to conducting antipyretic therapy:
A. In 3 days from onset of the disease

B. Convulsion syndrome
C. Rising in temperature to 38ºC
D. Rising in temperature to 38,5-39ºC
E. We must not conduct antipyretic therapy
33. Ibuprofen is administered in a following single dose:
A. 1,5 mg/kg
B. 5 mg/kg
C. 5-10 mg/kg
D. 10 mg/kg
E. 15 mg/kg
34. Possible intervals between prescribing ibuprofen is:
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. 3 times
D. 4 times
E. 6 times
35. Possible response ratio (intervals between prescribing) of paracetamolum dose for 24
hours is:
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. 3 times
D. 4 times
E. 6 times
36. One-time dose of paracetamol for children is:
A. 1,5mg/kg
B. 5 mg/kg
C. 10 mg/kg
D. 5-10 mg/kg
E. 10-15 mg/kg
37. Prescribing of which antipyretics can cause agranulocytosis?
A. Analgin
B. Panadol
C. Nize
D. Ibuprofen
E. Aspirin
38. Application of Acetylsalicylic acid with the purpose of decreasing fever is forbidden
because of the:
A. Risk for Reye syndrome

B. Risk for bronchospasm
C. All answers are right
D. Risk of agranulocytosis
39. Acetylsalicylic acid is indicated to children from:
A. 6 years and more
B. 12 years and more
C. 14 years and more
D. Is not applicable
40. We prescribe Seduxen for rapid relief of hyperthermia cramps in one-time dose:
A. 0,05 ml/kg
B. 0,1 ml/year
C. 0,1 ml/ kg
D. 0,5 ml/ year
E. 0,5 ml/kg
41. Steroids are prescribed for treatment of croup syndrome in such dosage:
A. 0,3 mg/kg every 4 hours for 5 days
B. 3 mg/kg every 12 hours for 2 to 3 days
C. 1-2 mg/kg every 4 hours for 5 days

42. There are such indications to prescribe antibacterial medicines to children with ARD,
except:
A. Temperature higher than 38ºC more than 3 days
B. Increase of the body temperature to 38ºC on 3-5 day after normalization
C. Breathlessness
D. Children to 1 year old
E. Asymmetric wheezes in lungs
43. Indications for an antibiotics prescription at influenza are:
A. Treatment of common cold
B. Prevent complication
C. Otitis media, sharp tonsillitis, bronchitis, pneumonia
44. Decongestants are prescribed to children older than 6 months in drops or peroral forms
but not longer than:
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 5 days
D. 3 days

45. Decongestants are not recommended for children younger than:
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 1 year
D. 1 moth
46. As for productive cough with severe discharge of sputum are applied:
A. Mucolithic drugs
B. Antitussive drugs
C. Pectoral tea
47. As for dry painful cough are applied:
A. Mucolithic drugs
B. Antitussive drugs
C. Pectoral tea
48. The final step in treatment of croup syndrome is:
A. Prescription of steroids
B. Mist tent with 25-30 % oxygen inhalation
C. Antianxiety medicines
D. Decision to insert mechanical airway

49. Point out indications for obligate vaccination against influenza:
A. Children with HIV-infection
B. Diabetes
C. Children with chronic renal diseases
1. Point out incorrect statement:
1. Arbidol is used for specific prevention of influenza

2. Vaccination should be performed 7-14 days before seasonal increase of influenza
sickness rate
3. Presense of metabolic diseases in a child is indication for obligate vaccination against
influenza
4. Oseltamivir is used for children from the ages of 1 year
51. For prophylaxis of adenovirus infection we must:
A. After ictus in children's collective we can isolate children for 10 days
B. Using gauze bandage
C. Disinfection of the ophthalmologic instrument
D. All answers are right
1. The exciter of chickenpox belongs to:
A. Family Paramyxoviridae, genus Varicellavirus
B. Family Togaviridae, genus Rubivirus
C. +Family Herpesviridae, genus Varicellavirus
D. Family Orthomyxoviridae, genus Ortomiksovirus

2. What group of viruses chickenpox virus belongs to?
A. rhinoviruses;
B. adenoviruses;
C. paramyxoviruses;
D. +herpesviruses;
E. rotaviruses.
3. Virus of chickenpox and herpes zoster virus belong to:
A. Arboviruses
B. Enteroviruses
C. +Herpes viruses
D. Retroviruses
4. The exciter of chickenpox belongs to:
A. Family Раrаmухоvіrіdае, Vаrісеllаvіrus
B. Family Тоgаvіrіdае, Rиbіvіrus
C. +Family Hеrреsvіrіdае, Vаrісеllаvіrus
D. Family Оrthоmухоvіrіdае, Оrthоmухоvіrus
5. Virus of chickenpox and shingles belong to:
A. Arboviruses
B. Enteroviruses
C. +Herpes viruses
D. Retroviruses
6. The source of infection on chickenpox and shingles is NOT:
A. Sick on typical form of disease
B. Sick on atypical form of disease
C. +Convalescent after the 5 day from latest rash day
D. Convalescent before the 5 day from the beginning of rash
7. Specify atypical routes of transmission of varicella:
A. +Fecal-oral
B. Airborne route of transmission
C. By the contact and domestic way
D. Transplacental
8. We can see chickenpox most often among children at the age of:
A. First year living
B. +2-6 year
C. 8-10 year
D. 11-14 year
E. Morbidity isn't depend on age
9. For the innate chickenpox is atypical:

A. Grave course, especially if the women was infected in the last days before the
childbirth
B. +Appears among children whose mother has virus revivification
C. Appears among children whose mother never hasn't chickenpox before the pregnancy
D. Appears during first 11 days after the childbirth
10. Point to atypical ways of transmission for chickenpox:
A. +Faecal-oral
B. Respiratory way
C. By the contact and domestic way
D. Transplacental
11. The main way of the transmission of chickenpox and shingles is:
A. +Respiratory
B. By the contact and domestic way
C. Parenteral
D. Vertical (from mother to child)
12. Possible consequences of falling sick on chickenpox among pregnant:
A. Haven't action upon child-bearing
B. Heavy influence is possible
C. Embryo-fetopathy are rare
D. If mother was sick not long before the childbirth, innate chicken pox is possible
E. +All answers are right
13. What pathogenetic mechanism is at the heart of scarlatinal-like rash on chickenpox?
A. Influence of the chicken pox virus, virus of the shingles
B. Hypersensitivity reaction immediate type
C. +Result of erythrogenic toxin of streptostaphylococcus effect, which complicate the

course of chickenpox
D. Drug toxicodermia
E. There is no right answer
14. On chickenpox the site of entry is:
A. +Respiratory organs
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Skin covers
D. Mucosa
E. Blood
15. In diagnostics of the chickenpox is NOT important:
A. Virusemia
B. Lymphatic diffusion of the virus
C. Fixation of the virus in ectodermal tissue
D. +Toxaemia

16. Frequency of reactivation of VZV in childhood is higher:
{C}A. Yes
B. +No
17. After you're having chickenpox, virus…
A. Is completely inactivated by the immune mechanisms
B. +Protractedly persists in the intervertebral ganglions
C. Is keeping in the lipoid tissue, in the form of latent infection
D. Forms slow infection
18. Virus of chickenpox and shingles has tropism to:
A. Epithelial cover of skin and mucosa
B. +Cells of acanthceous layer of epidermis
C. Cells of papillary stratum of epidermis
D. Lymphoid and macrophage phagocytal cells
acanthceous layer of epidermis
19. What are the reasons of the lingering persistence of chickenpox virus and virus of the
shingles in the organism?
A. Deficient production of the specific antibodies
B. Weak evidence of the cell cytotoxicity reaction
C. Deficient production of the interferon

D. +Intracellular parasitism of the virus and its interference into the human’s
genome
20. On chickenpox the site of entry is:
A. +Respiratory organs
B. Gastrointestinal tract
C. Skin covers
D. Mucosa
E. Blood
{C}21. Herpes simplex virus-1 commonly infects:
{C}A. Skin
{C}B. Mucosa
{C}C. +Skin and mucosa above waist
D. The genitalia and neonate
22. After the disease virus of the chickenpox:
A. Quickly disappeared from organism
B. +Is persisting in the organism for a long time
C. Disappeared in 10 days of the normal temperature
D. Disappeared during the year

23. Duration of incubation period in chickenpox is:
A. 30 days
B. 21 days
C. 7 days
D. +11-21 days
24. Duration of incubation period (averages) on chickenpox and herpes zoster virus

infection is:
A. 5-10 days
B. +14 days
C. 18-23 days
{C}25. The incubation period of herpes simplex virus infection is:
{C}A. 9-17 days
{C}B. 2-10 days
C. +2-12 days
{C}D. 10-21 days
26. Duration of incubation of chickenpox is:
A. 30 days
B. 21 days
C. 7 days
D. +11-21 days

27. Maximum duration of the rash period of chickenpox is:
A. 1-2 days
B. 2-3 days
C. 4-5 days
D. 6-7 days
E. +8 days and more
28. Duration of incubation (at the average) on chickenpox and shingles is:
A. 5-10 days
B. +10-17 days
C. 18-23 days
D. 15-24 days
29. What duration of incubation period of varicella?
A. 5-10 days,
B. +11-21 days,
C. 15-19 days,
D. 21-25 days,
E. 30 days.
30. During what time ill child may be the source of varicella?
A. 3 days;
B. + till 5 days from the appearing of last elements of rashes;

C. till 9 days from the appearing of last elements of rashes;
D. 25 days;
E. 40 days.
31. What part of skin is NOT defeat on shingles?
A. Face
B. Auricle
C. Chest
D. +Lower extremities
E. Localization of the process is not important
32. What is the evolution of chickenpox rashes?
A. +spot → papule → vesicle → crust;
B. papule → pustule → cicatrix;
C. vesicle → pustule → desquamation
D. spot → papule → crust;
E. papule → vesicle → crust → cicatrix.
33. Characterize skin changes in case of varicella:
A. Maculopapular eruption, pallor-pink, on the normal skin, on the unbend surfaces, are
separated from each other, without pigmentation;
B. +Begins as a maculae and progresses rapidly through the stages of papule,

vesicle, and crusted lesion. The spots first appear on the face or trunk and, at the height
of the illness, are more numerous centrally than distally. The rashes are in different
stages (polymorphism).
C. Initial lesions are noted on the forehead and face. During 3-4 days they spread
downward, involve the trunk and extremities. The rashes consist of an erythematosus
maculopapular eruption. They are initially discrete but then became confluent on the areas of
initial involvement. Pigmentation progresses in the same fashion as the appearance of the
rashes. As the rashes resolve, a brownish desquamation may occur.
D. Dusky red, blanching tiny papules that have a rough texture. Papules are usually
absent from the face, palms, and soles, but the face characteristically shows flushing with
circumoral pallor. On the body, the rashes are intensified in skin folds and at sites of pressure.
E. Dusky red, tinypapules. The rashes are present on face, intensified periorbitally, on the
neck (“glasses” symptom, “hood” symptom); on the body the rashes are intensified in skin folds,
at the sites of pressure (red dermographysm), on the hands, feet, (“gloves”, ”socks” symptom ),
round the joints.
34. The characteristic feature on shingles among children is:
A. Recurrent course
B. +Seldom is accompanied by neuralgias
C. Sharp pain in the defeat areas even after disappearance of the skin manifestations
D. Often is localize in the zone of innervation of the intercostal nerves
E. Lymphadenopathy
35. For the innate chickenpox is atypical:
A. Grave course, especially if the women was infected in the last days before the
childbirth
B. +Appears among children, if the mother has virus revivification
C. Appears among children, whose mother never hadn't chicken pox before the
pregnancy
D. Appears during first 11 days after the childbirth

36. Sick person with chickenpox is infectious:
A. Only till rise in temperature
B. During all rash period
C. From the beginning of rash period to the end of rash period
D. +From the beginning of rash period till 5th day from the last day of rash
37. For the innate chickenpox is typical:
A. Plentiful rash
B. Fever, significant toxicosis
C. Bacterial complications
D. Frequent stool
E. Flabbiness, anorexia
F. +All answers are right
38. For clinic of chickenpox is NOT typical:
A. Acute onset of disease
B. Fever
C. Polymorphous maculovesicular rash on the skin and mucous tunic
D. +Large liver mass and spleen enlargement
E. Rash breaks out is accompanied by fever
{C}39. Name the NOT correct statement, which describe clinical features of herpes

simplex virus infection:
{C}A. In the skin and mucosa the typical lesion is multilocular vesicle
{C}B. Viremia is often present
{C}C. HSV-1 and HSV-2 may be differentiated by DNA analysis
{C}D. +Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is the most common cause of

stomatitis in adults
40. The typical lesion of chickenpox virus infection is:
{C}A. multilocular vesicle
{C}B. +unilocular vesicle
{C}C. papule
{C}D. macule
41. For rash on chickenpox is NOT typical:
A. Maculovesicular nature
B. Polymorphism as a result of jerky eruption
C. Rash on a hair part of head
D. +Phased rash
42. A 9 -year-old boy has fever, polymorphic rash - maculas, papulas, vesicules and crusts
on his face, skin of the head, trunk, limb and extremities. Severe headache, vomiting, ataxia,
slow down and discoordination of motion have occured on the 10th day of illness. What is the
complications is diagnosed?
A. +Encephalitis
B. Serous meningitis
C. Neyrotoxycosis
D. Encephalitis reaction
E. Meningo- encephalitis
43. Typical symptoms of sporadic HSV-1 encephalitis include:
{C}A. Altered consciousness, headache
{C}B. Personality changes, seizures
{C}C. Dysphasia, focal neurorigic signs
{C}D. {C}+All listed are right
44. What syndrome is the most often on varicella encephalitis?
A. Spasmodic
B. Ophthalmoplegic
C. +Ataxic
D. Bulbar
45. Primary localized infections with HSV usually lasting:
A. +1-2 weeks
B. 1-5 days
C. 1-2 months
D. All listed are wrong
46. The acute phase of herpetic gingivostomatitis lasts:
{C}A. 1-2 days
{C}B. 24-72 hr
{C}C. +4-9 days
{C}D. All answers are right
47. What stage of forming of the typical rash elements is NOT obligatory?
A. Spot
B. Papule
C. Vesicle
D. +Pustule
E. Scab
48. For varicella rash atypical is:
A. Allocation on skin and mucosa
B. Appearance on a first 24 hours of the disease
C. +The simultaneous appearance of rash
D. False polymorphism
49. For rash on chickenpox atypical is:
A. Allocation on skin and mucous tunic
B. Appearance on a first 24 hours of the disease
C. +Simultaneity of the appearance
D. Seeming polymorphism

50. Complete resolution of skin lesions in herpes zoster infection usually occurs within:
{C}A. 1 month
{C}B. +1-2 weeks
{C}C. 2-4 weeks
{C}D. 10-21 days
51. For primary chickenpox pneumonia is not typical:
A. Expressed respiratory insufficiency
B. +Effect from using of antibiotics
C. Hemoptysis (spitting blood)
D. Grave course
52. Severely immunocompromised children (with HIV infection) may have:
{C}A. Unusual, chronic or relapsing cutaneous disesase
{C}B. Retinitis
{C}C. CNS (central nervous system) disease without rash
{C}D. +All listed
53. What is NOT typical for chickenpox fever?
A. 38-39ºC
B. Coincide with rash breaks out
C. +Constant type
D. Disappears with rash breaks out

E. Duration of the fever is 5-8 days
54. After you were having disease, virus of the chickenpox:
A. Quickly disappeared from organism
B. +Is persisting in the organism for a long time
C. Disappeared on 10 day of the normal temperature
D. Disappeared during the year
55. The main clinic feature on shingles is:
A. Presence of the conjoint bladders, localized on the erythematic spots
B. Inclination of the rash for confluence
C. Accordance of the skin manifestations to the location of the peripheral nerves
D. Pain and disorder of the sensitivity in the form of hyperesthesia, hypoesthesia and
anesthesia.
56. For virus of chicken pox and shingles is NOT typical:
A. Low temperature– resistant
B. +High temperature – resistant
C. Quickly dies from ultraviolet light effect
D. Disinfectant– resistant
E. Drying– resistant

57. What clinical forms are atypical?
A. Rudimentary
B. Hemorrhagic
C. Gangrenous
D. Generalized
58. There are such indices of degree of heaviness:
A. Hyperthermia
B. Hemorrhagic syndrome
C. Meningoencephalitis
D. Croup syndrome
59. What form of chickenpox we practically can't meet among newborns and babies?
A. Rudimentary
B. +Typical, mean degree of heaviness
C. Grave, with hemorrhagic syndrome
D. Grave, with purulent complications
60. The main criterion of diagnosis of innate chickenpox is:
A. Long premonitory period
B. +Symptoms of the disease appear at the latest of 11th day of life

C. Stoppage of the rash maturation on phase of papule
D. Presence of the visceral defeats
E. Quick development of the septic complications
61. What form of chicken pox we practically can't meet among newborns and babies?
A. Rudimentary
B. +Typical, mean degree of heaviness
C. Grave, with hemorrhagic syndrome
D. Grave, with purulent complications
63. Clinical signs of herpes zoster include:
{C}A. Vesicular lesions clustered unilaterally in the dermatomal distribution of one or

more adjacent sensory nerves
{C}B. Localized pain, hyperesthesia, pruritus
{C}C. Low-grade fever
{C}D. +All listed
64. 10. Sick girl (13 years old) has fever, intensive pain along VI intercostal nerve on right.
In two days in this area break out vesicular elements, pain is lasting. What statement about this
disease is wrong?
A. Using of the nonsteroid resolvents is expedient
B. She had chicken pox before
C. +After having disease virus disappeared from organism
D. She can be the source of infection for other children

E. Prevention of the bacterial defeats of the skin by using topical anti-infective agent is
expedient

65. Possible complications of varicella except:
A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
B. Pneumonia
C. +Orchitis
D. Encephalitis
66. We don't attribute to complications of the chickenpox:
A. Laryngotracheobronchitis
B. Pneumonia
C. +Orchitis
D. Encephalitis
67. Name the rare complication of herpes zoster:
{C}A. +Transverse myelitis with transient paralysis
{C}B. Retinitis
{C}C. Acute neuritis
{C}D. All listed
68. What are viral complications of chickenpox? (3)
A. synoviitis,
B. +meningoencephalitis,
C. +croup,
D. otitis media,
E. nephritis.
69. What of this specific for chickenpox complication we can see among children, which
get corticosteroids:
A. Itsenko-Cushing syndrome
B. Syndrome of hypokaliemia
C. Rhine’s syndrome
D. +Hemorrhagic syndrome
E. Gasser's syndrome
70. We must differentiate chickenpox with:
A. Smallpox
B. Strophulus
C. Impetigo
D. +All answers are right
71. Common features between chickenpox and smallpox are:
A. Premonitory period with high temperature, pains in sacral area, and rash
B. Rash period is accompanied by temperature decrease
C. Severe consecution of the rash
D. Rash is vesicular papulous on the thick infiltrative base, multi-stage with umbilicate
impression in the centre
E. +Polymorphism of the rash
72. Impetigo is differing from chicken pox by:
A. The rash breaks out mainly on the face and hands
B. The bladders are flabby with yellowy purulent contents
C. Presence of the purulent scabs
D. +All answers are right
73. Name diseases which must be differentiated from typical varicella? (3)
A. +scabies;
B. +measles;
C. pneumonia;
D. +rubella;
E. influenza.
74. Name bacterialcomplications of varicella? (3)
A. +abscess;
B. +pustules;
C. +pneumonia;
D. meningitis;
E. encephalitis.
75. Which of these complications is typical for chickenpox?

A. Streptococcal impetigo
B. Staphyloderma
C. Erysipelas
D. Phlegmon
E. +Nephritis
76. Sick (9 years old) on 5th day from the beginning of chickenpox has headache, vomiting,
shaky walk. Objective: positive meningeal symptom. What checkup is not expedient for this
patient?
A. +Excretory urography
B. Investigation of the eye ground
C. Lumbar puncture
D. Blood test
77. Name the correct statement:
{C}A. +VZV IgG antibody tests are valuable to determine the immunre status of
individuals whose clinical history of varicella is unknown
{C}B. Acyclovir therapy interfere with induction of VZV immunity
{C}C. Acyclovir is effective for treatment of herpes zoster in immunocompromised

patients
{C}D. Patients with uncomplicated herpes zoster have an expressed lymphocytic

pleocytosis
78. The definitive diagnosis of VZV infection requires (name the most right answer):
{C}A. +The recovery of infectious virus using tissue culture

{C}B. Detecting of IgG antibodies
{C}C. Testing for VZV IgM antibodies
{C}D. All mentioned are wrong
79. The diagnosis of HSV is based on:
{C}A. Typical clinical signs
{C}B. Development of specific antibodies
{C}C. Demonstration of characteristic cells, histologic changes, viral antigen, or HSV DNA

in scrapings or
biopsy material
D. +All listed are right
80. Acyclovir as the drug of choice for VZV is presribed:
{C}A. +10 mg/kg/ every 8 hr (intravenously) for 7 days or until new lesions have
appeared for 48 hr
{C}B. 10 mg/kg/ every 8 hr (intravenously) for 7 days
{C}C. 10 mg/kg/ every 8 hr (intramuscularly) until new lesions have appeared for 48
hr
{C}D. 20 mg/kg/ every 8 hr (intramuscularly) until new lesions have appeared for 48
hr
81. Patients at higher risk for disseminated disease should receive acyclovir in doses:
{C}A. 20 mg/kg/ every 8 hr (intramuscularly) until new lesions have appeared for 48
hr
{C}B. 80 mg/kg/ every 12 hr (intravenously) until new lesions have appeared for 48
hr
{C}C. +500 mg/m2 or 10 mg/kg every 8 hr intravenously
{C}D. All mentioned are wrong
{C}82. The treatment of choice for herpes encephalitis is:
{C}A. Intramuscularly administered acyclovir (10 mg/kg/dose given over 1 hr every 8

hr for 14-21 days)
{C}B. Intravenously administered acyclovir (10 mg/kg/dose given over 1 hr every 4

hr for 14-21 days)
{C}C. Intramuscularly administered acyclovir (0,1 mg/kg/dose given over 1 hr every

8 hr for 14-21 days)
{C}D. +Intravenously administered acyclovir (10 mg/kg/dose given over 1 hr

every 8 hr for 14-21 days)
83. What is the etiotropic medicine to treatment of chickenpox in immunocompromised

persons?
A. Acetaminophen;
B. ibuprophen;
C. varicella-zoster immune globulin;
D. varicella-zoster vaccine;
E. +acyclovir.
84. The drug of choice for acyclovir-resistant HSV is:
{C}A. {C}+Foscarnet, 40 mg/kg/dose every 8 hr (intravenously)
{C}B. Foscarnet, 40 mg/kg/dose every 8 hr (intramuscularly)
{C}C. Specific γ-globulin, 3 ml intramuscularly

{C}D. All answers are right
85. In the treatment of chickenpox and herpes zoster virus infection we DON'T use:
A. Antiviral medication
B. Interferon and its inductors
C. +Reflexotherapy
D. Solution of aniline dye
E. Antibiotics
86. For primary chickenpox pneumonia is not effective:
A. Expressed respiratory compromise
B. +Effect from using of antibiotics
C. Phlegm with blood
D. Grave course
87. In the treatment of chickenpox and shingles we DON'T use:
A. Antiviral medication
B. Interferon and its inductors
C. +Reflexotherapy
D. Solution of aniline dye
E. Antibiotics
88. We use corticosteroids on chickenpox when:

A. Grave course
B. Septic complications
C. Complication in the form of nephritis
D. +Complication in the form of meningoencephalitis
89. In treatment of typical form of chickenpox is contra-indicated using of:
A. Aniline dyes
B. Antibiotics
C. Hygienic bath
D. +Corticosteroids
E. Antihistamine
90. A 4-year-old girl has severe form of varicella. What medication should be administered
except one:
A. Acyclovir
B. Specific immunoglobulin
C. Recombenated interferon
D. Inductor of endogenous interferon
E. +Steroid hormones
91. For the prophylaxis of chickenpox we use such arrangement except:
A. Isolation of the recovers to 5 days after the last rash

B. Separation of the contact persons from 11 to 21 day
C. Vaccination
D. +Antibiotic prophylaxis to contact person
E. Isolation of the ill person with herpes zoster virus infection to 5 days after the last rash
92. We don't apply such prophylactic measures on chickenpox:
A. Isolation of the sick persons for a 5 days from the moment when latest element of rash
breaks out
B. Children preschool age which were in contact with sick must be separated in child's
collective from 11 to 21 day
C. Antibiotics to child which hasn't chickenpox
D. Vaccination
E. +To child which hasn't chickenpox we must do intramuscular injection of 3 ml

specific γ-globulin
93. For the prophylaxis of chicken pox we use such arrangement, except:
A. Isolation of the recovers to 5 days after the last rash
B. Separation of the contact person from 11 to 21 day
C. Vaccination
D. +Antibiotic prophylaxis to contact person
E. Isolation of the ill person with shingles to 5 days after the last rash
94. Convalescents after chickenpox may visit child's collective:
A. After clinic recovery

B. After the end of rash period
C. After scab shedding
D. In 5 days after beginning of rash
E. +In 5 days after last day of rash provided clinic recovery
95. We don't do such prophylactic measures on chicken pox:
A. Isolation of the sick for a 5 days from the moment when latest element of rash breaks
out
B. Children preschool age, which were in contact with sick, must be separated in child's
collective from 11 to 21 day.
C. +To children which hadn't chicken pox we must do intramuscular injection of 3 ml

specific gamma globulin.
D. Vaccination
E. Wet cleaning and frequent aeration
96. How long must be isolated contacts after the contact with person who has varicella?
A. on 5 days,
B. on 7 days,
C. from 5 to 11 days,
D. +from 11 to 21 days,
E. on 25 days.
Examples of test control

1. The causative agent of diphtheria is:
1. Arbovirus.
2. Corinebacterium diphtheria.
3. Neisseria meningitides.
4. Bordet-Gengou bacillus Haemophilus.
2. How many biotypes of diphtheria’s pathogens are distinguished?
1. 2.
2. 4.
3. 3.
4. 5.
3. What type is the most virulent?
А. Mitis.
B. Gravis.
C. Intermedius.
4. The leading role in the pathogenesis of diphtheria belongs to:
1. Immunity violation.
2. Bacteriemia.
3. Toxemia.
4. Sensitization.
5. The principal factor in virulence of diphtheria’s pathogen is:
1. Endotoxin.
2. Exotoxin.
3. Endotoxin, exotoxin.
4. All answers are incorrect.
6. The portal of entry of C. diphtheria is:

1. Mucous membranes and skin.
2. Mucous membranes of small intestine.
3. Mucous membranes of large intestine.
4. All answers are correct.
7. Choose ways of transmission of diphteriae (2):
А. Food.
В. Dust.
С. Water.
D. Fecal-oral.
E. Air-droplets.
F. Direct contact.
7. Laryngeal Diphtheria or Diphtheritic Croup is still often encountered in:
1. Toddlers (1‒3 years or 4 years of age).

2. Preschool children.
3. Teenagers.
4. Newborns.
8. Driving part in pathogenesis of diphtherias is:
1. Homeostasis violation.
2. Bacteraemia.
3. Sensitization.
4. Toxaemia.
5. Immunity violation.
9. A patient may prove to be contagious from the:
1. 1-st day of the incubation period.

2. 3-rd day of the incubation period.
3. Last day of the incubation period.
10. Point out the erroneous statement:
1. C. diphtheria is an exclusive inhabitant of human mucous membrane and skin.

2. A patient may prove to be contagious from the 1st day of the incubation period.
3. Asymptomatic respiratory carriers are important in transmission.
4. Appropriate therapy in diphtheria is erythromycin given orally or parenterally (40‒50
mg/kg/24 hr.).
11. The incubation period of diphtheria is:
1. From 3 to 20 days.
4. 7 days.
12. The most common form of faucial diphtheria is:
1. The localized form.

2. A toxic form.
3. A diffuse form.
13. Characterize a Diphteriae film (5):
1. Hardly to remove.
2. Easily to remove.
3. White-yellowish colour.
4. White-greyish colour.
5. Creamy.
6. Dense.
7. Insoluble in water.
8. Can be grounded between lab. glasses.
9. Cannot be grounded between lab. glasses.
14. Name three main localizations of diphtheria (3)

1. Sex organs.
2. Umbilical wound.
3. Pharynx.
4. Larynx.
5. Nose.
6. Eyes.
15. The most frequent localization of diphtheria in the children of the first year:
1. Oropharyngeal.
2. Nose.
3. Larynx.
4. Eyes .
16. 5-year-old child. Complains on throat aches when swallowing, Т ‒ 38.5 °С. 2nd day: Т ‒
37.8 °С. Pharynx and tonsils are edematic, moderately hyperaemic, covered with grey
membranes, elevated over mucosa, hardly detached, mucosa is cyanotic, hyperaemic,
Submandibular lymphatic nodes are enlarged − 2 cm, painless. What disease is most likely with
those clinical features?
1. Necrotic tonsillitis.
2. Paratonsillar abscess.
3. Infectious mononucleosis.
4. Tonsils diphtheria.
5. Adenovirus infection.
17. In a child was discovered the signs of catarrhal tonsilitis and Corynebacterium
diphtheriae, type of gravis, toxigenic strain. Place the diagnosis:
1. Simanovsky-Plaza-Ventsan tonsillitis.
2. Catarrhal angina.
3. Healthy bacterial-carrier of diphtheria.
4. Mycotic angina.
E. Diphtheria of tonsils.
18. A 7-year-old child is sick for 2 weeks with running nose, was taking nasal drops. The boy
suffers with alimentary allergy. He applied to doctor due to suppurative and bloody discharges
from nose, maceration of nose wings and upper lip. Rhinoscopy results: there are whitish-
greyish areas at nasal septum. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is not changed. What is the
most probable disease?
1. Diphtheria of the nose.

2. Adenovirus.
3. Rhinovirus.
4. Allergic rhinitis.
5. Sinusitis (maxillar sinus).
19. 7 -year-old boy has been ill for 2 weeks, when coryza occured. Vaccination terms were
not kept to. Now he has difficulty of nasal breathing, serous nasal discharge, excoriations on the
skin at the entrance into the nose and on the upper lip. Fibrinous membranes are discovered by
rhinoscopy on the mucous membrane of the nose. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is intact.
What is your diagnosis?
1. Nasal diphtheria.
2. Adenoviral infection.
3. Rhinoviral infection.
5. Maxillary sinusitis.
20. Child of 7 years, has been sick for about two weeks, the cold has appeared, receives
nasal drops. Attended the ENT-doctor due to the purulent-bloody excretion from a nose,
macerating lesions. Mucous membranes are not changed. What disease is the most probable?
1. Sinusitis.
3. Rinovirus infection.
5. Nose diphtheria.
21. 2-year-old child. Complaints: cough, hoarseness, dyspnoea, Т ‒37.4 °С. The
condition gradually became worse. 3rd day of the disease: Т ‒ 37.2 °С, inspiratory dyspnoea.
Cough soundless, voice is aphonic cyanosis of the perioral area, acrocyanosis and cold sweat,
anxious. Resonant breath in the lungs. What is the primary diagnosis:
1. Parainfluenza, stenotic laryngotracheobronchitis.

2. Larynx polyposis.
3. Pertussis (spasmodic period).
4. Larynx diphtheria.
5. Foreign body on the larynx.

22. A-5-year-old boy has been ill for 3 days: low-grade fever, malaise, anorexia, dry cough,
then hoarseness. Now he has striking pallor of the skin, perioral cyanosis, soundless cough,
aphonia, stenotic breath, retraction of complaisant places of the thorax, tachycardia 150 strokes
per min. The boy was not vaccinated. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
1. Laryngeal diphtheria.
2. Whooping cough.
3. Foreign body.
4. Epiglottitis.
5. Parainfluenzal laryngotracheitis.
23. 5-year-old child. Complains on difficulty breathing, pallor, Т ‒38.2 °С, soundless
cough. Child didn’t have vaccinations. 4th day of the disease: sits, bents onward, pale, face is
edematic, respiration is noisy, aspiratory dyspnoea, 48 per min, cough soundless. Throat
mucosa is pale and cyanotic. Severe tachycardia. About what disease do you think?
2. Larynx diphtheria, croup.
3. Mumps.
5. Parainfluenza, stenotic laryngotracheobronchitis.
24. Child 6,5 years. Т ‒ 38.2 °С. 4th day of the disease. Sits, having bent forward, pale. The
person bloated. Inspiration is superficial, 48 per minute, aphonic, silent cough. Mucous
membranes are pale -cyanotic. The tachycardia is expressed. What is your preliminary
diagnosis?
1. Diphteria throats, croup.

2. Foreign a body of a throat.
3. Whooping cough pneumonia.
4. Adenovirus an infection, croup.
5. Para influenza croup.
25. Identify 3 main signs of Toxic diphtheria:
1. Edema of subcutaneous tissues of neck.

2. Acute onset.
3. Meningeal signs.
4. Spread membranes.
5. Cough.
26. Disease of 5 years old child began acutely with a high temperature, single vomiting. For
the second day of disease the throat is sore, hoarseness of voice has appeared, tonsils greatly
enlarged with dirty gray films. During examination of the pharynx the unpleasant order is
sensed. Submaxillary and cervical lymph nodes are increased, painful at palpation. Edema of
cervical subcutaneous tissue of the neck. What from the listed attributes is the basic at
diagnostics of the toxic form of a diphtheria tonsil?
1. A Hoarseness voices.
B. Patch on tonsils.
C. Stagnant hyperemia of tonsils.
D. Impossibility to open a mouth.
E. Edema hypodermic cellular tissue necks.
27. Disease of the 4 years old child started acutely with high temperature, single vomiting.
On the second day of disease sore throat, a hoarseness voice has appeared, tonsils greatly
enlarged with dirty gray films. During examination of the pharynx the unpleasant order is
sensed. Submaxillary and cervical lymph nodes are increased, painful at palpation. Edema of
cervical subcutaneous tissue of the neck. What is the most probable diagnosis?
1. Scarlet fever.
2. Phlegmonic paratonsillitis.
4. Lacunary quinsy.
5. Toxic form of a diphtheria tonsil.
28. 12-year-old child. Complaints are fever Т ‒ 38.9 °С, sore throat. 3rd day: Т ‒ 39.2 °С,
pale, adynamic. Submandibular lymphatic nodes ‒ 3 cm; Edema of the neck subcutaneous
tissue up to the middle of the neck. The pharynx is edematous, hyperaemic with cyanosis,
tonsils are enlarged, there is a greyish-white colour thick membrane, firmly adherent on them
and upon the uvula there’s. What is the primary diagnosis?
2. Epidemic parotitis (Mumps).
3. Toxic diphtheria of tonsils.
4. Localized diphtheria of tonsils.
5. Paratonsillar abscess.
29. A toxic form of pharyngeal diphtheria is characterized by:
1. Extensive lesions in the fauces.

2. Toxic edema of the tissues of the neck.
3. General toxaemia.
30. The localization of edema in toxic diphtheria of 3rd degree is:
1. To the middle of the neck.

2. To the clavicles.
3. Below the clavicles.
31. Choose one of rare forms of diphtheria:
1. Localized pharyngeal diphtheria.

2. Diffuse form of pharyngeal diphtheria.
3. Conjunctive diphtheria.
32. Point out one of the rare clinical forms of diphtheria:
1. Localized pharyngeal diphtheria.

3. Toxic form of pharyngeal diphtheria.
4. Diphtheria of the skin & wounds.
33. A 5-year-old child has tonsillar diphtheria, which is complicated by myocarditis. What is a
pathogenesis of this complication?
1. A Autoimmune lesion.
2. Cytotoxic influence of corynebacteria.
3. Diphtheritic toxin.
4. Middlmolecular peptides.
5. Metabolic product of bacteria.
34. Name main complications of diphtheria:
1. Central nervous palsies.

2. Peripheral nervous palsies.
3. Pneumonia.
4. Myocarditis.
5. Arthritis.
6. Nephritis.
35. The first evidence of cardiac toxicity in diphtheria occurs more often in the:
1. 1st week of illness.
2. 4th week of illness.
3. 2nd‒3rd week of illness.
4. All mentioned is right.
36. Symmetric polyneuropathy has its onset:
1. 1st week of illness.
2. 21‒28 days from the beginning of the disease.
3. 2nd‒3rd week after oropharyngeal infection.
4. 10 days to 3 months after oropharyngeal infection.
37. Enumerate complications associated with specific toxaemia in diphtheria:
1. Cardiovascular disturbances.
2. Nasal diphtheria.
3. Conjunctival diphtheria.
38. A 3-year-old boy has had severe form of tonsillar diphtheria. What complication may lead
to lethal outcome?
1. Nephrosonephritis.
2. Pneumonia.
3. Myocarditis.
4. Polyneuropathy.
5. Soft palate paralysis.
39. Child of 3 years old the diagnosis is a diphtheria of tonsils, the toxic form is established.
He has been sick for 2 weeks. What is most severe complication can develop at the patient with
the current of disease?
1. Violation of brain blood circulation.

2. Paresis of the soft sky.
3. Polyradiculoneuritis.
4. Glomerylonefritis.
5. Myocarditis.
40. A 11-year-old girl had had tonsillitis and taken erythromycin at home 3 weeks ago. Now
she complains of nasal quality to the voice and nasal regurgitation. Soft palate is immovable in
phonation. Vaccination terms were not kept to. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
1. Poliomyelitis.
2. Diphtheritic polyneuropathy.
3. Encephalitis.
4. Botulism.
5. Poliomyelitis-like form of enterovirus infection.
41. The common complication of diphtheria croup is:
1. Pneumonia.
2. Paralysis of the diaphragm.
3. Local paralysis of soft palate.
4. All mentioned is right.
42. Amount of What cells is increased in infectious mononucleosis:
1. Basophill.
2. Eosinophil.
3. Stab.
4. Segments.
5. Lymphocyte.
6. Monocyte.
43. Which laboratory investigation may confirm the diagnosis of diphtheria of tonsils?
1. General blood analysis.

2. Bacteriological methods.
3. Serological methods.
4. Bacterioscopical.
5. The study of a "thick drop of blood"
44. From what diseases must be differentiated diphtheria of the pharynx?
1. Scarlet fever.
2. Acute bacterial tonsillitis.
3. Measles.
4. Varicella.
45. Differential diagnosis in diphtheria is provided with following diseases:
1. Follicular angina.
2. Fusospirillar angina.
46. Fusospirillar angina differs from diphtheria:
1. In the unilateral affection of the tonsils.

2. Presense of a deep ulcer with dirty-grey or yellow necrotic floor.
3. Fusospirillar flora in bacterioscopic research.
47. Which diseases are accompanied with syndrome of angina?
1. Measles.
2. Scarlet fever.
3. German measles.
5. Chicken pox.
48. In toxic diphtheria of 2nd degree patients are kept in hospital and strictly confined to bed
for:
1. 21‒28 days from the beginning of the disease.

2. 50 days from the beginning of the disease.
49. What specific detoxication is used in treatment of diphtheria?
1. DTP.
2. Serum albumin.
3. DAT.
4. Immunoglobulin.
5. DT.
50. Choose a method of specific treatment in diphtheritic croup:
1. Infusion therapy.
2. Giving antibodies.
3. Glucocorticoids therapy.
4. Antidiphtheric serum.
51. In a child of 3 years old diphtheritic croup is diagnosed. Choose a method of specific
treatment.
2. Antibioticotherapy.
3. Give antibodies.
4. Glucocorticoid therapy.
5. Infusion therapy.
52. 10-year-old child. Complaints are fever ‒ 38.2 °С, sore throat while swallowing. The
2 day – fever – 37.6 °С, the swollen tonsils are observed in the pharynx, all over on the right
nd
tonsil extending to the palatoglossal arch, the upper and centre part of the left tonsil there is a
greyish-white membrane is found, which is firmly adherent. The mucous around tonsils is
hyperaemic, cyanotic; the submandibular lymphatic nodes are enlarged, a little painful. Taking
into consideration the clinical features what medication is most sufficient for that patient?
1. Metronidazole.
2. Biseptolum.
3. Prednisolone.
5. Erythromycin.
53. Name the method of introduction of antidiphtheric serum:
1. After Urbah method.

2. After Bezredko method.
3. Orally.
4. After Tsuverkalov.
54. What is the1st dose of serum need to be injected to patient with localized filmy form of
diphtheria of the tonsils?
1. 15‒40 000 IU.

2. 50‒60 000 IU.
3. 80‒100 000 IU.
4. 150‒170 000 IU.
55. Antimicrobial therapy in diphtheria is given for:
1. 10 days.
2. 21 days.
3. 14 days.
56. Aqueous crystalline penicillin G is prescribed intramuscularly or intravenously in doses:
1. 250 00‒50 000 U/kg/24 hr divided in 2 doses.

4. 140‒150 U/kg/24 hr divided in 2 doses.

57. How to prevent development of the diphtheria? (2)
1. Antitoxin.
3. DTP-vaccine.
4. Anatoxin.
58. What vaccine must be used for diphtheria prevention in healthy child of 18 months?
1. DTP.
2. MMR.
3. DAT.
4. Immunoglobulin.
5. DT.
59. The protective titre in the agglutination test (as retrospective diagnosis of diphtheria) is:
1. 1:30 and higher.

2. 1:50 and higher.
3. 1:80 and higher.
Infectious mononucleosis |
1 Exciter of infectious mononucleosis| is|appears|:
1. Bacterium
2. Lystherella|
3. Rickettsia |
4. Virus
5. Spirochete
|
2 Exciters of infectious mononucleosis| belongs|behaves|:
1. Herpes viruses
2. Enteroviruses |
3. Togaviruses|
4. Arboviruses |
5. Myxoviruses
1. What type of herpes viruses is the cause of infectious mononucleosis?
A I,
B II,
C III,
D IV,
E VII.
4 Infectious mononucleosis | causes by the virus of Herpes |of:
1. Type 1
2. Type 2
3. Type 3
4. Type 4
5. Type 5
5 Exciter of infectious mononucleosis| able to cause|calls| unlike other viruses:
1. Cytolysis |
2. Reproduction staggered cells
6. What is the typical entrance for infectious mononucleosis?
A Bronchial mucosa;
B Pharyngeal mucosa;
C Genital-urinary tract;
D Damaged skin;
E Alimentary tract.
7 Virus is Epstein-Barra |of finds out tropism to:
1. To all lymphoid mews

2. В-Lymphocytes
3. Neutrophils |
4. T- lymphocytes
5. Macrophages
8 Source of infections at infectious mononucleosis| can be healthy man – the carrier of virus
1. Yes
2. No|
9. Name the source of infectious mononucleosis: (3)
A Healthy carrier;
B Ill people;
C Ill animals;
D Reconvalescent;
E Ill birds.
10. What way of spreading is typical for infectious mononucleosis? (3)
A Alimentary through food;
B Alimentary through water;

C By air;
D Hand-to-hand;
E During kisses.
11 The most common infectious mononucleosis | occurs:
1. Summer
2. The winter
3. Spring
4. Autumn
5. Spring - autumn periods
12 Among children|kids| in 1st infectious mononucleosis |meet:
1. Very often
2. Often
3. Seldom
4. Does not meet quite
5. Only in the first 6 Months lives
13 Immunities after carried|transferred| infectious mononucleosis|:
1. Absent
2. Not proof|firm|
3. Proof|firm|
4. Proof|firm| only at children|kids| to 3rd
14 Most early symptoms of infectious mononucleosis| are|appears|:
1. Increase|rise| of temperature of body

2. Increase of neck lymphonoduses |
3. Tonsillitis
4. All answers|replies| faithful|correct|
5. Labouring nasal|noses| breath

15 For infectious a mononucleosis |characteristic|characters,typical|:
1. Nasopharyngitis|, quinsy
2. The sharp began the diseases
3. The general |lymphadenopathy
4. Hepatolienal |syndrome
16 | The typical symptom-complex infectious mononucleosis |is opened out:
1. From the first days of disease

2. In the period of the maximally expressed fever
3. To 3-4 days disease
4. In the end first week of illness
5. On the second week of disease |
17 For the clinic of infectious Mononucleosis| at the children|kids| of early age
characteristic|characters,typical|:
1. Cough, cold, conjunctivitis

2. Had expressed of The hepatolienal| syndrome
3. Dyspepsia| disorders
4. All answers|replies | faithful|correct |
5. Possible appearance of exanthemas
18 That not characteristically for infectious mononucleosis|?
1. Turgidity| never
2. The complicated| nasal|noses| breathing
3. Hyperplasia | of lymphoid | fabric of drinks
4. Hepatolienal | syndrome
5. Tussis
6. Increase of peripheral, including Back cervical lymphonoduses|
19 What are typical clinical features of infectious mononucleosis in children? (3)

A Tonzylopharingitis,
B Lymphadenopathy,
C “Raspberry” tongue,
D Suppurative tonsillitis,
E Hepatosplenomegaly.
20. Name groups of lymph nodes, which are more often involved in pathological process in
case of infectious mononucleosis.(2)
A Occipital;
B Cervical;
C Submandibular;
D Axillary;
E Inguinal.
21 At infectious mononucleosis |not characteristically:
1. Tussis
2. Turgidity |never
3. Difficulty| nasal|noses| breathing
4. Hyperplasia | of lymphoid | fabric of drinks
5. Hepatolienal |syndrome
6. Increase of peripheral lymphonoduses |
22 Defeat of what groups of lymphonoduses | of earlier is observed|exists| and is more

frequent met at lymphogranulomatosis at children|kids|?
1. The inguinal|oxters|
2. The cervical
3. Axillary |
4. Mediastinal |
5. Subclavial |
6. Mesentherial |

23. Found typical peculiarities of infectious mononucleosis in infants. (3)
A Often catarrhal syndrome;
B Expressed polyadenia;
C Purulent tonsillitis is not typical;
D Rashes are rare;
E Dyspepsia.
24 Defeats of the central nervous system can at infectious mononucleosis |to show up the
following clinical forms|shapes|:
1. By an encephalitis
2. By transversal myelities
3. By poliomyelitis
4. By meningitis
25. To the boy, 7 years, the infectious mononucleosis was diagnosed. Indicate what cases
are typical for this disease.
A. Epidemics
B. Sporadic
C. Sporadic only in cold time of year
D. Epidemics in cold time of year
E. Epidemics in hot time of year
26 A boy, 15 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, complicated by

thrombocytopenia. His mother is interested in frequency of lethal consequences. What doctor
answers for her?
A. Lethality is high

B. Lethality is low, only single cases
C. Lethality is absent
D. Lethality is high only in new-borns
E. Lethality is high only in preschool age
27. A girl, 5 years, has infectious mononucleosis a severe form, nonsmooth duration, is
treated in he hospital. A mother worries from what complications children die more frequent:
A. Lymphadenitis
B. Stenosis of the larynx
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. Paresis of cranial nerves
28. A boy, 10 years, has infectious mononucleosis, atypical form. Indicate the possible
variant of duration of this form:
A. Asymptomatic
B. Clinical
C. Mild
D. Moderate
E. Severe
29 In 14-years old annual child high temperature during|for| 3rd weeks, somnolence. At the
review considerably megascopic neck lymphonoduses| megascopic tonsils with stratifications,
spleen + 2sm|. At suspicion on mononucleosis|, that does not answer diagnosis:
1. Enanthema| and petechias on the mucus shell of oral cavity

2. In the leukocytic| formula of blood lymphocytes |of make 60%, from them 10% are
atypical |
3. Vesicular exanthema
4. Positive title of the heterophil antibodies to the red corpuscles of ram
30. A 3-year-old girl has had fever, difficulty of nasal breathing, enlarged cervical lymph
nodes. Ampicillin was prescribed by a physician. Fever up to 38,3oC, lacunar tonsillitis,
maculopapular rash on the skin, enlarged liver and spleen had occured on the 3rd day of illness.
Blood count contained leucocytosis, limphomonocytosis, atypical mononuclear cells - 20 % .
What is your diagnosis?
A. Measles
B. Rubella
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Scarlet fever
E. Adenoviral infection
31. A boy, 5 years, with infectious mononucleosis, is treated in the hospital. Among the
adopted
symptoms choose the main diagnostic sign of the disease:
A. Short duration fever
B. Hepatosplenomegaly
C. Catarrhal syndrome
D. Exanthema
E. Lymphadenitis
32. A boy, -7 years, has infectious mononucleosis. During the last 2 weeks he-has
the increases body temperature to 38.5 °C, head ache, poor appetite. Objective examination
revealed edema of the face, considerably enlarged neck lymph nodes, liver, spleen, purulent
tonsillitis. Indicate the disease severity:
A. Compensated
B. Subcompensated
C. Mild
D. Moderate
E. Severe
33. A 10-year-old boy had complained of malaise, sore throat, difficulty of nasal breathing,
fever up to 39 C on the 4th day of illness. Now he has pallor of the skin, edema of his upper
eyelids, enlarged postcervical lymphnodes. Mucous membrane of oropharynx is hyperemic,
tonsils are enlarged, covered by membranes, which are separated easily. Liver and spleen are
enlarged.
What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Lymphogranulomatosis
B. Adenoviral infection
C. Tonsillar diphtheria
D. Scarlet fewer
E. Infectious mononucleosis
34. A 2 year-old boy has been hospitalized with measles-like rash, tonsillitis,
lymphoadenopathy, difficulty of nasal breathing and hepatosplenomegaly. What is your
preliminary diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononusleosis
B. Cytomegaloviral infection
C. Measels
D. Serum sickness
E. Rubella
35 Girl, 15 years, is treated in the hospital with suspicion on infectious mononucleosis.
Indicate
the most characteristic time of atypical mononuclears appearance in the peripheral blood:
A. 1st day
B. 3rdday
C. 1st week
D. 2st week
E. 3rd week
36 Name typical blood analyses in case of infectious mononucleosis.(3)
A Eosynophylia,
B Leucocytosis,
C Lymphopenia,
D Lymphocytosis,
E Appearing of typical mononuclear cells.
37 Not characteristic|character,typical| for the blood of patients infectious mononucleosis| is:
1. Leukocytosis |
2. Atypical | mononuclears|
3. Depression amounts|quantities | of red corpuscles
4. Lymphocytosis|
5. Insignificant increase of ESR

38 For the picture|painting| of blood at patients no the typical is|appears| infectious
mononucleosis |:
1. Neutrophil shift to the left

2. Neutropenia |
3. Thrombocytopenia |
4. Leukocytosis |
5. Normocytosis |
39. A 6 -year-old child has infectious mononucleosis.
Which blood cells may confirm the diagnosis?
A. Polymorphonuclear cells
B. Basophilic leukocyties
C. Atypical mononuclear cells
D. Eosinophils
E. Erythrocytes
40. A 10-year-old child is seen in clinic and diagnosed an having infectious
mononucleosis. Point to the laboratory method which helps confirm the diagnosis.
A. Urinalysis
B. Blood count with atypical mononuclear cells
C. Coagulogram
D. Smear from oropharynx
E. Transaminase level
41 As often appear the heterophil antibodies at infectious mononucleosis |:
1. In 85-90% adults at the end of|at close of| the third week of disease
2. Possible erroneous the positive results at the children|kids| of early age
3. In 75% children|kids| of senior age and adults at the end of|at close of| the first week of
disease
4. In 50 % children|kids| of early age
42 Which of results of the serologic inspection infectious mononucleosis| testifies to carry|

transferred| a few|a little| years ago:
1. Antibodies class Іg m to the viral capsyd antigen ( - ), Antibodies of class Іg To

the G viral capsyd antigen (+), Antibodies to the viral nuclear antigen (+)
2. Antibodies of class Іg м to the viral capsyd antigen (+), Antibodies of class Іg To the G
viral capsyd antigen (+), Antibodies to the viral nuclear antigen (+)
3. Antibodies of class Іg м to the viral capsyd antigen (+), Antibodies of class Іg To the
G viral capsyd antigen ( - ), Antibodies to the viral nuclear antigen (+)
43. A boy, 3 years, with infectious mononucleosis, is treated in the hospital. What from the
serological laboratory investigations does it follow to apply in the late period to confirmation the
diagnosis?
A. Determination of the Ig M against viral capsid antigen (immune enzyme analysis)
B. Determination of the Ig G against viral capsid and nuclear antigens

( immune enzyme analysis)
C. Polymerase chain reaction
D. Reaction of hetero agglutination
E. Complete blood analysis
43 Infectious mononucleosis it is possible to confirm |at revealing at the patient | of

antibodies to the virus of Epstein-Barr|:
1. Antibodies of class Іg to the G viral capsyd antigen

2. Antibodies class Іg M to the viral capsyd antigen
3. Antibodies to the viral early antigen
4. Antibodies to the viral nuclear antigen
44 What complication| improbable|unlikely| at infectious mononucleosis |:

1. Meningocephalitis |, poliomyelitis
2. Break of spleen
3. Sharp hepatic insufficiency
4. The hemorrhagic syndrome
5. Bronchitis, pneumonia
45. Between what diseases infectious mononucleosis must be differentiated? (3)
A “Mononucleosis like” syndrome caused of AIDS;
B Diphtheria;
C Adenoviral infection;
D Varicella;
E Pertussis.
46 Diagnostic criterion of confirmation of diagnosis of lymphogranulomatosis is revealing at

punctate of lymphonoduses|:
1. Crowds of eosinocytes|
2. The big amounts|quantities| of the plasmatic| mews
3. Epithelioid |mews
4. Huge mews of Berezovsky-Shtenrberg|
5. Giant mews of Pirogov-Langans |accumulation
6. Atypical |anaplasia of mews
47 General|common| symptoms of lymphogranulomatosis, after the exception such are |

exclusion|:
1. High fever
2. Polyuria, polydipsia
3. The profuse| nightly sweats
4. Loss of mass of body
5. The general| itch of skin
48|appears| Basic|main| clinical signs of high quality of lymphoreticulosis, except for:

1. Lymphonoduses, that soldered with fabrics
2. Appearances of papulae near scratches
3. Regional lymphadenitis|
4. The general infectious symptoms
49 Lymphogranulomatosis| differs from infectious mononucleosis |:
1. By duration of flow|stream,current| of illness

2. By absence of defeat of stomatopharynxes
3. By the undulating fever
4. By the increase of one Any group of lymphonoduses |
50 At what pathology least It appears association with the virus of Epstein-Barr|:
1. V-cellular| lymphoma |of CNS

2. Arisen after transplantation lymphoproliferative diseases
3. Illness of Hojkin|
4. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma|
5. |LL Lymphoma of Burkett
51 At patients by viral hepatitis by comparison to patients by infectious mononucleosis |

such symptoms are absent|absents|, except for:
1. Quinsy
2. Polyadenitis |
3. Leukopenia |
4. Hepatomegalia
5. Difficulty of nasal breath |
52 Exciters cause|calls| a mononucleosis liked syndrome at children|kids|, except for:
1. German measles
2. Virus of Herpes| of 6th type
3. AIDS-1
4. Toxoplasma|
5. Mycoplasma
6. Cytomegalovirus|

53 Lymphogranulomatosis| distinguishes from infectious mononucleosis|:
1. Undulating fever
2. Presence in the blood of mews of Berezovsky-Shtenrberg|
3. Presence of atypical | mononuclears |in a blood
4. Absence of the inflammatory phenomena in to stomatopharyn
54 Viral hepatitis from infectious mononucleosis |differs to all, except for:
1. The acute by beginning|origin|

2. By the gradual beginning|origin|
3. By the presence of The preicteric period
4. Icterus runs across on a background a normal temperature
55 Hgh quality lymphoreticulosis appears at the contact with:
1. By rats
2. Mice
3. Kittens, by lady-cats
4. By a cattle
5. By birds
56 A boy aged of 6.5 years is ill for three days: subfebrile temperature, catarrhal changes
in the pharynx, insignificant increase of neck lymph nodes. After the reception of amoxicillin on a
trunk, extremities red maculous-papulous exanthema has appeared, forming large erythema
which rises above the level of skin, in the blood analysis: leucopenia, lymphocytosis, and 10%
of atypical mononuclears. What infectious disease does it follow to differentiate?
A. Medicinal allergy: hives
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. URT infections
E. Pseudotuberculosis
57 What method of research finally confirms the diagnosis of lymphogranulomatosis?

1. Palpation | of lymphonoduses|
2. Histological research of staggered a lymphonodus |
3. On the basis of therapy eh juvаntіbus
4. On the basis of results of myelograms |
58 What methods of treatment is it necessary to apply at revealing the hyperplasia| of

lymphonoduses|?
1. Anything from of transferred|enumerated|
2. Paraffin appliques
3. Ultra-violet radiation
4. Electrophoresis| antibiotics
5. Dry thermal compress
59 For treatment of infectious mononucleosis |applies mainly:
1. Globulin of gamut
2. Antiviral preparations
3. The antibacterial| preparations
4. Symptomatic therapy
5. Glucocorticoids |
60 What is the reason, which need to use antibiotics in the treatment of infectious
mononucleosis?
A Expressed polyadenia;
B Rashes;
C Hacterial complications;
D Hepatosplenomegaly;
E Snore.
61 The antibacterial| preparations at patients by infectious mononucleosis| not shown:
1. To the protracted|prolonged| temperature of More then 6-8 days

2. To the Serious quinsy with the considerable increase of lymphatic knots
3. To the typical flows|streams,currents| of illness
4. To appearance of symptoms of pneumonia
62 What the antibacterial| preparation of categorically contra-indicated at infectious

mononucleosis |?
1. Penicillin
2. Ampicillin
3. Ceftriaxonum|
4. Lynkomycinum |
5. Cefoperazonum
63 A boy, 15 years, is treated in the hospital with infectious mononucleosis. A doctor
diagnosed concomitant bacterial infection. Which from antibiotics is impossible to use for
treatment in this ase?
A. Penicillin
B. Roxythromycin
C. Amikacin
D. Ampicillin
E. Cefazolin
64 Testimony to the to setting|purpose| of glucocorticoids at the complicated forms|shapes|

infectious mononucleosis|:
1. Obstruction of overhead|upper,top| respiratory tracts megascopic tonsils

2. Hepatic insufficiency
3. The autoimmune| hemolitic |anaemia
4. Neurological complications
5. The aplastic| anaemia

65. A boy of 8 years is ill by infectious mononucleosis, severe form, nonsmooth duration,
is
treated in the hospital. What daily dose of prednisolone is appointed in such case?
A. 0.5-0.8 mg/kg B.0.8-1.0mg/kg
C. 1.0-1.5 mg/kg
D. 2.0-2.5 mg/kg
E. 2.5-5.0 mg/kg
66. A girl aged 10 years had infectious mononucleosis. Two days ago she was
discharged from
the hospital. Indicate how long she must be on the dispensary observation:
A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
E. 12 months
Name generalized forms of meningococcal infection: (3)
-bacteriocarrier
-nasopharyngitis
+meningococcemia
+meningitis
+meningoencephalitis
What changes in CSF occurs in meningococcal meningitis? (2)
+protein enlargement
+enlargement of polymorphonuclear cells
-enlargement of lymphocytes
-enlargement of glucose level
-enlargement of chlorides
What is the duration of quarantine in a case of meningococcal infection?
-7 days
-9 days
+10 days
-14 days
-21 days
Name localized forms of meningococcal infection: (2)
+carrying
+nasopharyngitis
-meningococcemia
-meningitis
-meningoencephalitis
Specify characteristics which display encephalitic syndrome: (4)
-hyperesthesia
+bulbar frustration
+infringement of consciousness
-rigidity of occipital muscles
+repeated seazures
-positive symptom Lessage’s
+infringement of cranial nerves function
Which features determine the severity of a condition in patient with a meningitis? - (3)
-expressivity and duration of a fever
+degree of hypertensive syndrom’s expressiveness
+development of a hypostasis swelling
+level of CSF cytosis
-dehydration
What infectious diseases are accompanied by development encephalitic syndrome:
-ARVI
-AID
-encephalitis
+all answers are true
What dosages of levomitsetin succinate sodium (daily) are prescribed at

meningococcal infection accompanied by infectious-toxic shock:
-20-30 mg/kg
-150 mg/kg
-30-40 mg/kg
+100 mg/kg
4-month-old child. Disease has developed acutely, T - 39,8° C, anxiety, vomiting,

short convulsions. 2nd day of the disease: somnolence. The enlargement of the big
fontanelle is observed. Hyperesthesia. On the legs and buttocks haemorrhagic rash with
necrosis in the center. Pharynx is hyperemic. Muffled heart sounds, tachycardia. Neck
stiffness is revealed. CSF: cytosis – 1203, protein - 0,59 g/L, neutrophils - 88 %. What is
the primary diagnosis:
-Encephalitis
-Influenza
-Enterovirus infection
-Measles
+Meningococcal infection
Specify characteristic sign of meningeal syndrome: (3)
-bulbar disorder
+headache
-presence focal violations
+vomiting
+positive meningeal symptoms
Specify features of meningeal syndromes in children of the first months of life: (3)
+Prevalence of all infectious symptoms in clinic of meningitis
-Prevalence of meningeal symptoms
+Kernig’s sign “+” as the physiological phenomenon, “+” Lessage’s symptom
+Positive Lessage’s symptom
-“sun set sign”
What dosage of prednisolon (daily) is prescribed at the hypertoxic form of

meningococcal infection with ITS III degree:
+15-20 mg/kg
-10 mg/kg
-5 mg/kg
-100 mg/kg
What syndrome is prevalent in clinic of meningitis in children of early age:
-meningeal
-syndrom of general intoxication
+encephalitic
4-year-old child. Complaints are fever - 39°C, anxiety, twice vomiting, rash on the
thigh and buttocks. 2nd day of the disease: condition is severe, on the skin mainly on
legs haemorrhagic rash with necrosis in the centre. The neck stiffness, Kernig's and
Brudzinski’s signs are elicited. Cerebrospinal fluid: cytosis - 990, protein - 4,2 g/L,
neutrophils - 100 %. What is the primary diagnosis:
+purulent meningitis (meningococcal infection)
-enteroviral infection
-influenza
-poliomyelitis
-tuberculosis
-serous meningitis (meningococcal infection)
1,8-month-old child. Acutely have got ill: T - 39,2° C, malaise, sleeping disturbances,
shudders, vomiting twice. 1st day of the disease. Pallor. Pharynx is hyperemic.
Hyperaethesia. Sever neck stiffness, positive Kernig's and Brudzinski's symptoms from
both sides. CSF: cytosis - 2320. protein - 1,23 g/L, neutrophils - 95%, lymphocytes -
5%. Clinic and data of cerebrospinal fluid examination are characteristic for:
+purulent meningitis
-serous meningitis
-arachnoiditis
-brain tumour
-neurotoxicosis
5-month-old child. Have got sick acutely, T - 39,2°C, malaise, vomiting, skin rash.
2nd day of the disease: somnolence, convulsion readiness, big fontanel is tensed.
There are hemorrhagic, bluish-red rashes with irregular shape and necrosis in the
middle on the back, buttocks and thigh. The symptoms of meninges irritation are
revealed. Cerebrospinal fluid: protein - 5,6 g/L, cytosis - 1235 per 1 mkL. neutrophils -
83%. What disease caused that?
-viral meningoencephalitis
-pneumococcus meningitis
-tuberculous meningitis
+meningococcal infection
-influenza
5-year-old child. Complains on headache, repeated vomiting, T - 38,9°C.

Examination: 2nd day of the disease: pallor, rests upon one side, moans, vomiting. On
buttocks, thighs and shanks there's star-like haemorrhagic rash with necrosis in the
center, the neck stiffness is revealed. Positive Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs. What is
your primary diagnosis?
+meningococcal infection
-influenza
-enterovirus infection
-haemorrhagic vasculitis
-viral meningoencephalitis
Child 8 months, was admitted to the infectious hospital with the expressed
intoxications phenomena: temperature 39.5°, with anxiety, repeated vomiting. Disease
began suddenly 2 days ago. At survey the phenomena hyperesthesia are marked,
anxiety, sharp "brain" shout, big fontanel is protruding, expressed rigidity muscles of a
nape, FHR 180 in one minutes. What inspection is the most informatively for
specification of the diagnosis?
-general analysis of blood
-biochemical analysis of blood
+lumbar puncture
-computer tomography
-USI of the brain
What dosage of penicillin is used in the treatment of generalizated forms of

meningococcus infections - purulent meningitis?
-1000000 U/KG
+500 000 U/KG
-100 000 U/KG
-50 000 U/KG
-10 000 U/KG
7-month-old child had been admitted to infectious department with a diagnosis ARVI.
A body temperature 39.9°, restless, paleness of the skin, hyperemia of pharynx. In 5
hours has appeared star-shaped rash on a skin of buttocks, the bottom finitenesses,
dense to the touch, different sizes. The tachycardia is marked, heart sounds are
weakened. What diagnosis is most probable in this case?
+meningococcemia
-thrombocytopenia purple
-scarlatina
-purpura nervosa
-nettle-rash
Child 11 months was ill sharply from rise in temperature up to 39°, slackness. In 8
hours plentiful spotty elements eruption on the bottom extremities, buttocks, stomach
have appeared. The amount of eruption quickly increased, some elements of it have got
a character of hemorragis irregular-shaped, asymmetrically located, from 3 up to 5 mm,
dark - cherry color. A mucous membrane of a pharynx hyperemia on a back wall drinks
purulent - mucous allocation. Tachycardia, tachypnea. Arterial blood pressure is normal.
Verify the diagnosis:
-influenza with hemorrhagic syndrome
-measles with hemorrhagic syndrome
+meningococcal infection, meningococcemia
-hemorrhagic vasculitis (Shonleyn-Genoh illness)
-thrombocytopenia purple (Verlgof illness)

?
Before the body temperature of the healthy 3-years child increased up to 39.5°C, on
the skin of buttocks, hands and legs, trunks hemorrhagic rash star-shaped forms, with
necrosis in the center has appeared. The condition is severe; consciousness is absent,
vomiting 2 times, pulse -140 of times per mines, the BP - 75/45 mm hn/cr, oliguria, there
are new elements of a rash. What from below listed antibiotics is necessary for
appointing?
-penicillini natrii salt
+levomitsetini succinatis
-gentamicini sulfate
-ceftriacsoni
-ampicillini
Child 3th years have been examined concerning sudden rise of temperature,
occurrence symptoms of an intoxication and presence meningeal syndrome. The lumbal
puncture was done. The spinal liquid cloudy, follows out under a high pressure, the
maintenance of proteine - 1,8g/l; reaction Pandy (++++), sugar - 2, 2mmol/l, chlorides -
123 mmol/1, cytos-2350 x106/l (80 % neutr, 20 % lym). Diagnose:
-meningitis virus
-tuberculos meningitis
-meningism
+purulent meningitis
-encephalitis
What changes in CSF are characteristic for meningococcal infection: (3)
+high protein
-low protein
-lymphocytic cytosis
+neutrophilic cytosis
+positive Pandy's reaction
-negative Pandy's reaction
What dose of penicillin is more often used for the treatment of meningitis in children
of 5 years old, who is admitted in the clinic on the 2 day of the disease?
-50 - 100 thousand / kg/day
-100-200 thousand/ kg/day
-200 - 300 thousand/ kg/day
+300 - 500 thousand/ kg/day
-400 - 800 thousand/ kg/day
-800 thousand - 1 million/ kg/day
What material can be taken for analyzing meningococcus: (4)
+blood
-urine
+nasopharygeal secretions
+liquor
-saliva
+smear from eruptions
Define specific symptoms which are described in acute adrenal insufficiency: (6)
-hyperthermia
+hypothermia
+multiple or repeated vomiting
+cyanosis of skin
-hyperemia of skin
+Tachycardia
-Bradycardia
-Increased Arterial Pressure
+Decreased Arterial Pressure
-Pain in the abdomen
+Cold limbs
To meningeal symptoms belong: (3)
+Kernig's symptom
-Ortner's symptom
-Ker’s symptom
+Lassage’s symptom
+Upper Brudzinski’s symptom
Mumps
1. The exciter of epidemic parotiditis belongs to:
A. Group of gerpesvirus
B.+ Paramyxovirus
C. Coronavirus
D. Rhinovirus
E. Arbovirus
2. Specify the exciter of parotidion infection:
A. Virus from family of Gerpesvirus
B. +Virus from family of Paramyxovirus
C. Virus from family of Adenovirus
D. Virus from family of Poliovirus
E. Virus from family of Kalicivirus
3. Resistance of virus to the physical and chemical factors is:
A. Absent
B. +Low
C. High
4. Exciter of parotitis infection in an environment:
A. Does not perish
B. + Perishes quickly
C Perishes only at the low temperatures
D. Firmness of virus to the chemical factors is high
E. Firmness of virus to the physical factors is high
5. A mumps: bilateral parotitis is diagnosed to the girl. What is the atrium?

A. Mucosa of the mouth, nose, throat, conjunctiva
B. + Mucosa of the mouth, nose, throat
C. Mucosa of the mouth, nose, throat, tonsils
D. Mucosa of the mouth, nose, throat, external orifices of salivary glands ducts
E. External orifices of salivary glands ducts
6. A child has mumps: bilateral submaxillitis. What way does a virus spread to the
glands?
A. By lymph
B. By contact way
C. +By blood
D. By blood and by lymph
E. By a contact way and by blood
7. Second virusemia is observed through:
A. 3 - 4 days from the beginning of disease
B. 4 - 5 days from the beginning of disease
C. +5 - 10 days from the beginning of disease
D.10 - 14 days from the beginning of disease
E. Is not observed
8. Specific source of infection at a mumps:
A. Pets
B. Rodents
C. Transmitter
D. +Sick man
E. Convalescent
9. Sources of infection at epidemic parotitis is:
A. +Man
B. Animal
C. Birds
D. Man and animal
E. Man and birds
10. Durations of contagious period lasts:
A. 5 day
B. 8 day
C. +9 day
D. 14 day
E. 21 day
11. Mumps is not transmitted through:
A. + Transmissible
B. By the contact and domestic way
C. Respiratory way

12. Exciter of mumps mainly gets in an organism through:
A. Mucous tunic of eyes
B. +Mucus tunic of respiratory tracts
C. Damaged surface of skin
D. Duct of parotid salivary gland
E. Mucous tunic of the gastrointestinal tract
13. Mumps is more common in the aged:
A. 30 to 40
B. 15 to 29
C. +Preschool and junior school age
D. 40 and more
E. Children in age of first year
14. Special danger is presented by mumps patients with:
A. + Asymptomatical, atypical forms
B. Serous meningitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Submaxillitis
E. Parotiditis
15. Disease becomes contagious in mumps:

A. +At the end of incubatory period
B. In the premonitory period
C. In the period of clinical displays
D. At the obligatory defeat of salivary glands
E. At the defeat of the nervous system
16. A girl, 5 years old, is ill for 4 days. The disease has begun from high body
temperature. Home pediatrician has noted edema of parotid, submandibular, sublingual
salivary glands and diagnosed mumps. Name type and form of the disease according to
classification.
A. +Typical, isolated
B. Atypical, isolated
C. Atypical, combined
D. Typical, combined
E. Atypical, subclinical
17. The incubation lasts:
A. 9 days
B. 11 days
C. +11-21 day
D. 21-23 days
E. 23-26 days
18 What organs and systems are affected in Endemic parotitis?

A. +CNS
B. Cardio –Vascular system
C. Pancrease
D. Submandibular Lymphnodes
E. +Ovary
F. +Testes
G. +Parotid gland
H. +Mammarygland
19. For the mumps is typical defeat of:
A. Ductless glands, nervous system
B. Glands of external secretion
C. + Glands of external secretion, nervous system
D. Glands of external secretion, ductless glands, nervous system
E. Glands of external secretion, ductless glands
20. At a child with mumps positive Filatov's sign is exposed. Give its description.
A. Edema and hyperemia of the external orifice of Stensen's duct
B. White points on cheeks mucosa
C. Dryness in the mouth, fissures on the tongue
D. Tear of the tongue bridle (frenula)
E. +Pain behind and in front of an ear-lobe when talking, chewing

21. The symptoms of Filatov is:
A. Edema of the external aperture of Stenoni canal
B. +Pain in front and behind the lobe of the ear
D. Filled of retromandibular pit
C. Tension and brilliance of skin above the gland
E. Painful infiltration under a tongue
22. Defeat of what organs is not typical in mumps:
A. Nervous system
B. Salivary glands
C. +Liver
D. Ovaries
E. Pancreas
F. Testicles
23. For the glandular form of mumps is typical:
A. Positive sign of Murson
B. Fever
C. The enlarged sickly salivary glands
D. +All of answers are correct
24. There are characteristic changes for epidemic parotitis excepting:
A. +Trismus of masticatory muscles

B. Increase of salivary glands
C. Change of neck configuration
D. Strengthening of pain syndrome during the meal
E. Characteristic changes on mucous coat of mouth cavity
25. Mumps is not characterized by the following clinical symptoms:
A. Increase of testicles
B. Rise of temperature
C. Increase of salivary glands
D. +Appearance of toxicosis
E. Appearance of meningeal signs
26. Glandular form of mumps include:
A. Mastitis
B. Submaxillitis
C. Orchitis
D. Pancreatitis
27. Functional ability of salivary glands recommences only:
A At the end of the first week
B. After the second week
C. +At the end of 3 - 4 weeks

D. In 4 - 5 weeks
E. In 8 weeks
28. At epidemic parotitis the successive bringing in the pathological process of

different glands and nervous system can proceed to:
A. Normalization of body temperature
B. +7-8-th day from the beginning of illness
C. All of answers are correct
D. 3-rd day from the beginning of illness
E. There is no right answer
29. What form of epidemic parotitis is observed mainly for adults?
A. dacryocystitis
B. +prostatitis
C. submaxillitis
D. parotiditis
E. pancreatitis
30. Five-years old boy has the increases of temperature, edema and increase of
parotid salivary glands, headache. The most possible complication for the child is:
A. Loss of hearing
B. Pankreatitis
C. Myocarditis
D. +Meningitis
E. Orhitis
31. At parotitic meningitis for liquor is not typically:
A. Proteins content is a bit reduced
B. Number of cells to 1000 and more
C. +Neutrophils are prevail in liquor
D. Lymphocytes are prevail in liquor
E. Fluid is clear
32. What is not characteristically for meningitis at a parotiditis infection?
A. Liquor is clear
B. Lymphocytic cirrhosis
C. +Neutrophilic cirrhosis
D. Maintenance of sugar is reduced
E. Maintenance of protein is normal
33. A 7-year-old boy fell ill abruptly: fever up to 39C, headache, recurrent vomiting.
Positive meningeal signs are present. The boy had been in contact with patient with
mumps. He is not vaccinated against mumps. What is the probable diagnosis?
A. +Mumps meningitis
B. Meningococcal meningitis
C. Pneumococcal meningitis
D. Staphylococcal meningitis
E. Tuberculosis meningitis

34. For Parotitic meningitis , the characteristic changes in CSF are (3) :
A. High content of proteins (High 1 g/l)
B. Insignificant increase of protein
C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis
D. +Lymphocytic Pleocytosis*
E. Cloudy Liquor
F. +Transparent liquor*
35. Child 8 months, was admitted to the infectious hospital with the expressed
phenomena intoxications: temperature 39.5° C, anxiety, repeated vomiting. Disease
began suddenly 2 days ago. At survey the phenomena hyperesthesia are marked,
anxiety, sharp "brain" shout, big fontanel is protruding, expressed rigidity muscles of a
nape, FHR 180 in one minutes. What inspection most informatively for specification of
the diagnosis of disease?
A. + Lumbar puncture
B. General analysis of blood
C. Biochemikal analysis of blood
D. Computer tomography
E. USI brain
36. In a boy, 7 years old, who has mumps, has increased body temperature to 39 °C,
appeared: headache, sleepiness, vomiting, nuchal rigidity. The child was hospitalized to
the infectious department. What changes in spinal fluid are probable?
A. Decreased liquor pressure
B. Expressed neutrophyl pleocytosis

C. Moderate neutrophyl pleocytosis
D. + Moderate lymphocyte pleocytosis
E. Expressed lymphocyte pleocytosis
37. In kindergarten disease an epidemic parotitis is registered. What the longest

duration of the incubatory period at an epidemic mumps?
A. +20-23 day
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 30 days
E. More then 40 days
38. The child of 9 years defeat parotid gland, symptoms of the general intoxication has
appeared. The doctor suspects parotitis an infection, appoints serologic test. What will
be a diagnostic level?
A. +1: 160
B. 1: 80
C. 1: 401
D. 1: 200
E. 1: 120
39 Is it possible the isolated lesion CNS at the mumps?
1. YES
2. NO

40 Spinal fluid at the viral meningitis consider:
A. Neutrophils
B. Lymphocytes
41. To the meningeal symptoms belong:
A. +Symptom Kerniga
B. Symptom Lasaza
C. Symptom Kera
D. +Symptom Lasaga
E. +Symptom of Upper burudinsky
F. Symptom Babinsky
42 For Parotitic meningitis , the characteristic changes in CSF are :
A. High content of proteins (High 1 g/l)
B. Insignificant increase of protein
C. Neutrophilic pleocytosis
D. +Lymphocytic Pleocytosis
E. Cloudy Liquor
F. +Transparent liquor
43. Specify the possible variant of nervous system defeat in mumps:
A. Meningoencefalitis
B. Neuritis of n.kohlearis
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Serous meningitis
E. + All of answers are faithful
44. A 4-year-old boy complains of fewer up to 38,9 C, pain in chewing and opening the
mouth, headache. Right parotis gland is enlarged and painful in palpation. The skin over
the parotis gland is without changes. On the lesioned side the stensen's duct is
reddened and edematous. What is your diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis
B. +Mumps
C. Rubella
D. Cervical lymphadenitis
E. Sialoademitis
45. A 6-year-old boy complains of headache, malaise, pain in chewing, fever up to

39C.The following day the enlarged parotid glands are noticeable. Swelled parotid glands
obliterate the fossas are retromaxillaris. The skin over the inflamed glands is tense and
lustrous, remains of normal colour. Stensen's ducts are reddened and edematous. What
is your diagnosis?
A. Tumor of parotid glands
B. +Mumps
C. Cervical lymphadenitis
D. Sialolithiasis
E. Toxic form of tonsillar diphtheria

46. A 10-year-old boy had mumps. On the 5th day of illness the child's general
condition become worse. Abdominal pain, nausea, norexia and then vomiting occurred.
The amylase in the blood and diastase in the urine increased highly. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Appendicitis
B.+Pancreatitis
C. Mesadenitis
D. Cholecystitis
E. Gastritis
47. Children of the 1-st year of life have such features in mumps course excepting:
A. Observed extraordinarily rarely
B. The clinic course is not grave
C. +The clinic course is grave
D. More frequent as parotiditis or submaxillitis
E. Nervous system is damage very rarely
48. Virus of parotitis infection can not be found in the first 3-4 days from the beginning
of illness in:
A. Saliva
B. Blood
C. Spinal liquid
D. +Faeces

49. Critical in diagnosing mumps is:
A. Serologic methods of research
B. Increase of parotid glands
C. Injury of the CNS
D. Changes in peripheral blood – leucopenia with lymphocytosis
E. +All answers are correct
50. Complement- linking antibodies utilize for diagnostics:
A. Does not utilize
B. Utilize sometimes
C. +Early and retrospective
51. Determinations of what index in urine apply for confirmation of diagnosis of

pancreatitis at epidemic parotitis:
A. kreatine
B. urobilin
C. acetone
D. +amylase
E. uropepsin
52. To the child of 8 years mumps is diagnosed. What environments of organism is it

possible to select a virus from?
A.Urine, excrements, bile

B.Urine, blood, CSF
C.Urine, excrements, blood
D.+Saliva, blood, CSF
E: Saliva, excrements, bile
53. Complement-linking antibodies appear on:
A. +2 - 5 day illnesses
B. 5 – 7 day illnesses
C. 7 – 14 day illnesses
D. 14 – 21 day illnesses
E. After 21 day of illness
54. Four-years old child has mumps. All of the following is correct for mumps, except:
A. CNS can be damaged without presence of glands injury
B. Illness can be warned a vaccination
C. +The increase level of α-amylase always testify about pancreatitis
D. Orhitis arise up in boys after pubertal period
E. Possible defeat of kidneys as hematuria, polyuria.
55. A 10-year-old girl has mumps with fever, recurrent vomiting and severe
surrounding pain in upper part of her abdomen occurred on the 4th day of illness. What
laboratory test should be prescribed to determine the diagnosis?
A. Bilirubin level
B. Glucose level
C. Thymol test
D. Activity of ALT
E. +Blood amylase
56. To the child of 6 years for confirmation of mumps CBR is done on a 2th week from
the illness beginning. What tirle of antibodies will be diagnostic in this case?
A. 1:400.
B. 1:200
C. 1:160
D. + 1:80
E. 1:40
57. At a child parotitis is diagnosed. How secondary bacterial parotitis differs from the
mumps one?
A. +Tenderness at palpation is expressed
B. Skin above the gland has usual color
C. Slight painful swelling
D. Gland is not firm
E. Bilateral parotitis
58. For epidemic parotiditis unlike the secondary injury of salivary glands is typical:
A Hyperemia of skin above the staggered gland, a skin is hot by touch
B. +Defeat of glands mainly bilateral
C. The palpation of gland is painful

D. Process one-sided
E. In the hemogram leukocytosis, neutrophilic shifting, increase of ESR
59. A patient with mumps on 5-th days from the beginning of illness has vomiting,
sharp pain in the overhead departments of abdomen. Erroneous assertion in relation to
this patient is:
A This condition is the display of parotiditis infection
B. + Patient needs excretory cholangiography
C. Is needed intensive therapy for treatment of this patient
D. Because of the increase of α-amylase is impossible to set the diagnosis
E. For setting the diagnosis is possible to do USR, tomography
F. Expedient is prophylactic antibiotic therapy
60. Salivary calculus illness from epidemic parotitis is distinguished for:
A Strengthening of pain at mastication
B. Relapsing clinical course
C. Normal temperature of body and satisfactory general condition
D. Periodic pain in the area of parotid gland
E. +All of answers are correct
61. Name complications, which can arise up after injection of parotitic vaccine:
A. Bronchospasm, croup
B. Colloidal scars
C. Maculopapulous rashes
D. +Increase of parotid salivary glands
E. Serous meningitis
62. What testimonies are for hospitalization of patients with epidemic parotitis?
A. Virology confirmation of diagnose
B. Fever of 38-39 º C
C. Change of neck configuration
D. +Sign of complications and involvement in the process of other organs
63. For treatment of patients with mumps we apply:
A. Corticosteroids
B. Sulfanilamides
C. + Symptomatic therapy
D. Physiotherapy
E. Antibiotics
64. With mumps do not recommend:
A. Milk diet
B. Limitation of fats and proteins
C. + Warm on the epigastric area
D. Cold on the epigastric area
E. Enzymic preparations

65. Duration of the bed regimen at the glandular form of mumps:
A. First 3-4 days
B. Till 7 day
C. +Not less than 9 days
D. To normalization of clinical course
E. To normalization of body temperature
66. Indicate the etiotropic remedy for patients with mumps:
A. Cyclosporin
B. Ribavirin
C. Prednizolon
D Acyklovir
E. +Does not exist
67. What is prescribed as a specific antivirus preparation during mumps infection?
A. Cycloferon
B. Arbidor
C. Amixin
D. Deoxyribonuclease
E. +Ribonuclease
68. To the boy of 10 years mumps, typical form is diagnosed (parotitis + orchitis).
What dose of prednisolone does it follow to appoint?
A. 0.5-l mg/kg
B. 0.8-1.5 mg/kg
C. +2 mg/kg
D. 3 mg/kg
E. 5 mg/kg
69. Point the duration of quarantine for a contact with mumps:
A. Is not conducted
B. 9 days
C. 11 days
D. +21 day
E. 9-21 day
70. Disinfection after the isolation of patient with mumps:
A. Is obligatory
B. +Is not obligatory
C. Only if we diagnose glandular form of infection
D. Only if we diagnose serous meningitis
E. Only if we diagnose combined form
71. In the nidus of epidemic parotitis is inexpediently:
A +Prophylactic introduction of interferon

B. To set on quarantine in child's establishment from 11 to 21 day from the moment of the
last contact
C. Isolation of patient to the decline of clinical displays of illness, but not less than on 9 days
72. Duration of postvaccinal immunity:
A. For life
B. 1 year
C. 2-3 years
D. +3-6 years
73. For the prophylaxis of mumps is necessary:
A. Sick child are not supposed to organized collective until clinical recovery
B. Final disinfection in the nidus of infection is not conducted
C. In child's establishments to enter quarantine on 21 day
D. The isolation of patient
E. + All answers are correct
74. In kindergarten disease an epidemic parotitis is registered. What the longest

duration of the incubatory period at an epidemic mumps?
A. +20-23 day
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 30 days
E. More then 40 days

75. Vaccination for epidemic parotitis are conducted at:
A. +12 months of life
B. 3 months
C. 15 months
D. 18 months
76. A boy of 5 years today became ill by the typical form of mumps. When the
contagiousness of the patient is the greatest?
A. First 3-5 days
B. +Till 9 days
C. 1-3 days
D. First 5-7 days
E. 7-9 days
77. To the child of 5 years mumps, typical form is diagnosed. He is ill for the first day,
visits kindergarten. How many days does it follow to isolate him?
A. 4 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. + 9 days
E. 14 days

78. A boy of 5 years today became ill by the typical form of mumps. When the
contagiousness of the patient is the greatest?
A. First 3-5 days
B. +Till 9 days
C. 1-3 days
D. First 5-7 days
E. 7-9 days
79. A boy, 12 years old, has recovered from mumps, combined form (parotitis +
orchitis). He was treated at home: anti-inflammatory, antiviral medicine, was consulted
by urologist. Name the duration of dispensary observation by urologist for this child:
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. + 6 months
D. 2 years
E. 3 years
1. Exciter of whooping-cough is:
1. Virus of Epstein-Barr.
2. Borde-Zhangu bacillus.
3. Afanasev-Pfeiffer's bacillus.
4. Gerpesvirus.
5. Paramyxovirus.
2. The Exciter of pertussis is:
1. Unstable in environment.
2. Not very resistant in environment.
3. Very resistant in environment.
4. Insensitive to various influences.
3. How we can explain appearance of cough reflex on whooping-cough?
1. Toxins effect on respiratory center and neurons, which provide for cough reflex.
2. The exciter's tropism to epithelium of upper airways.
3. Allergenic action of whooping-cough microbe.
4. Bacteriemia.
5. Autoimmune mechanism.
4. In pathogenesis of whooping-cough is unimportant:
1. Allergenic effect of whooping-cough microbe.

2. Hypoxia.
3. Bacteriemia.
4. Appearance of a stable excitation focus in medulla.
5. Effect on the organism exciter's toxins.
5. Main clinical symptoms concerned with:
A. Bacteriemia.
B. Toxemia.
C. Allergic manifestations.
D. Autoimmune manifestations.
E. Organism sensitizing.

6. Name the source of whooping-cough infection:
1. Sick person with clinical infection, subclinical infection.

2. Sick persons in incubation.
3. Convalescents.
4. Carriers.
7. Ways of passing to the pertussis:
1. Contact domestic.
2. All answers are right.
3. Aerial-droplet route.
4. Transmissible.
5. Parenteral.
8. When can we see the highs contagious of whooping-cough depending on duration of

disease stage?
1. 1-2 week.
2. 2-3 week.
3. 3-4 week.
9. What periods of pertussis do you know?
1. Incubation.
2. Prodromal.
3. Catarrhal.
4. Paroxysmal.
5. Complications.
6. Decreasing of clinical signs.
10. There are such clinical periods of whooping-cough, except:
1. Incubation.
2. Initial period.
3. Catarrhal.
4. Spasmodic.
5. Recession of symptoms.
11. What period is absent with whooping cough?

1. Spasmodic cough.
2. Incubation.
3. Catarrhal.
4. Residual.
5. Convalescence.
12. The incubation of the whooping-cough on average is…
1. 2-3 days.
2. 5-8 days.
3. 10-15 days.
4. 16-20 days.
5. more than 20 days.
13. What is the duration of prodromal period of pertussis in older children?
1. 1-3 days.
2. 3-5 days.
3. 10-14 days.
4. 9-21 days.
5. 15-20 days.
14. What are clinical features of pertussis in catarrhal period?
1. High body temperature.

2. Subfebril temperature.
3. Progressing dry cough.
4. Hard toxic syndrome.
5. Sneezing, corryza.
15. There are such main clinical symptoms, except:
1. Normal temperature reaction.

2. Spasmodic cough.
3. Syndrome of croup.
4. Hemorrhage into mucous.
5. Apnea.
16. On basis of what facts we can suspect of whooping-cough in catarrhal period?

1. Rise of body temperature.
2. Dry progressive cough.
3. Pathological physical changes in lungs.
4. Expressed manifestations of intoxication.
5. Presence of temperature reaction.
17. For the typical form of whooping-cough the followings clinical symptoms are not
characteristic:
1. Subfebrile temperature.
2. During a cough face hyperemia, scleral vessels injection.
3. Appearance of spastic cough.
4. The bright signs of tonsillitis.
5. Appearance of dry cough.
18. During subclinical forms of Whooping-cough is not observed:
1. Puffed up face.
2. Ulcer on the frenulum of tongue.
3. Subfebrile temperature.
4. The Catarrhal phenomena.
5. Cough with the difficult expectoration.
19. For clinical course of whooping-cough for the children of 1st year is not typical:
1. Reduction of incubation to 4 -5 days.

2. The State of asphyxia is accompanied localized spasms and encephalopathy.
3. Time of spasmodic period to 4-5 weeks.
4. The reprises are obligatory in a height of the disease.
5. Reduction of the catarrhal period to 5-7 days.
20. For the whooping-cough cough atypical is:
1. The paroxysm of cough finished with thick expectoration.

2. At the time of cough the face turns red.
3. Productive cough with a flux expectoration.
4. Dry cough.
5. Cough paroxysm finished with vomiting.

21. At the time of serious whooping-cough cough paroxysm we can see
1. Nosebleeds.
2. Sclera hemorrhage.
3. Apnea.
4. Involuntary urination.
22. A 3-month-old girl was diagnosed with Pertussis. On 14-th day of illness she has low
concussions and partial seizures. What is the pathological base of those neurological signs?
1. Hypoxic encephalopathy.
2. Encephalitis.
3. Bacterial meningitis.
1. Peripheral neuritis.
1. Blockage of CSF outflow.
23. For the typical course of whooping-cough is not characteristic
A. Puffed up face.
B. Sores on the frenulum of tongue.
C. Swell of the eyelids.
D. A lot of rales in the lungs.
E. Sclera hemorrhage.
24. There are such clinical features of baby's whooping-cough, except…
1. Shortening incubation to 4-5 days.

2. Lengthening incubation to 3 weeks.
3. Shortening of catarrhal period to 1 week.
4. Frequent apneas.
5. Catarrhal period may be absence.
6. The illness may start with attack of spasmodic cough
7. Fits
8. Lengthening spasmodic period
25. On a whooping-cough are ill:
1. Adults.
2. Kids from the first months of life.
3. Teenagers.
4. Children of any age.
26. Find main clinical features of pertussis in young infants.
1. Small incubation period.

2. Long incubation period.
3. Long paroxysmal period.
4. Apnea.
5. Cough with reprise.
6. Paroxysmal sneezing.
27. A 5-year-old boy was ill 2 weeks ago. The disease began from dry cough, which
increased gradually. Paroxysmal cough appeared and whoops occurred. In paroxysm the
patient's face is read, the cervical wins are engorged. There are haemorrhages in the sclera.
Leukocytes level is 16xl09/l, lymphocytes-72%, ESR-4 mm/h. What is your preliminary
diagnosis?
A. Whooping cough.
B. Adenoviral infection.
1. Foreign body in respiratory tract.
1. Parainfluenza with laryngotracheitis.
E. Tuberculosis bronchodenitis.
28. A 2-year-old girl complains of paroxysmal cough with whoops. There is edematous face,
haemorrhages in the sclera, shallow ulcer on the frenulum of the tongue. Auscultation reveals
dry rales. Examination of the oropharynx leads to cough paroxysms. What is your preliminary
diagnosis?
A. Whooping cough.
B. Obstructive bronchitis.
C. Foreign body in respiratory tract.
D. Pneumonia.
E. Stenosis laryngotracheitis.
29. For clinical diagnostics of whooping-cough in catarrhal period you must orient to:
A. Stable, obsessive cough.
B. Absence of the physical effects in the lungs.
C. Insufficient efficacy of the antibacterial therapy.
D. Leukocytosis with lymphocytosis in the blood.
E. All answers are right.
30. For the blood test n the typical course of the whooping-cough not characteristic is:
A. Normal ESR.
B. Lymphocytosis.
C. Neutrophilic left shift.
D. Monocytosis.
E. Leukocytosis.
31. For confirmation of clinical diagnosis of whooping-cough does not use:
1. Imunofluorescence method.
2. Selection of exciter from blood.
3. RCFT, CR.
4. The Bacteriological method.

32. List for laboratory methods of whooping-cough diagnostics:
A. Bacteriological analysis of blood.
B. Bacteriological analysis of slime and phlegm.
C. Immunofluorescence method.
D. Clinical blood test: leukopenia, lymphopenia.
E. Clinical blood test: leukopenia, lymphocytosis.
33. The differential diagnosis of pertussis in prodromal period should be performed with:
1. Scarlet fever.
2. Adenoviral infection.
3. Influenza.
4. Parapertussis.
5. RS-infection.
34. We must differentiate whooping-cough in spasmodic cough period from such diseases,
except:
1. Outside body in upper airways.

2. Obstructive bronchitis.
3. Stenosing laryngotracheitis.
4. Tubercular bronchoadenitis.
5. Spasmophilia with laryngospasm.
6. Tumor of mediastinum.
35. What are complications of pertussis?
1. Pneumonia.
2. Otitis media.
3. Apnea.
4. Meningoencephalitis.
5. Encephalopathy.
36. Among complications of whooping-cough is not observed:

1. Pneumothorax, hypodermic, mediastinal emphysema
2. Defeat CNS.
3. Myocarditis.
4. Prolapses of the rectum.
5. Nose-bleeds.
37. Among septic complications of whooping-cough observed rarely:
1. Purulent meningitis.
2. Insular or confluent pneumonias.
3. Purulent pleurisy.
4. Pleuropneumonia.
38. A 3-month-old girl was diagnosed with Pertussis. On 14-th day of illness she has low
concussions and partial seizures. What is the pathological base of those neurological signs?
A. Hypoxic encephalopathy
B. Encephalitis
C. Bacterial meningitis
D. Peripheral neuritis
E. Blockage of CSF outflow
39. A 2 -year- old girl has been ill for 2 weeks. Now she has paroxysmal cough with whoop
and vomiting, hemorrhages in her sclera, shallow ulcer on the frenulum of the tongue.
Auscultation reveals dry rales. Point to medication for prophylaxis of this disease:
A. Antibiotics
B. APDT-vaccine
C. ADT-anatoxin
D. ADT-M-anatoxine
E. Bacteriophages

40. In antibiotic therapy of pertussis we give advantage to:
1. Thrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazol.
2. Ampicillin.
3. Erythromycin or other macrolide.
4. Rifampicin.
41. We must use antibiotics it the therapy of the whooping-cough:
A. In atypical form.
B. In catarrhal period.
C. In a period of paroxysm cough.
D. In presence of the reprise.
E. In presence of the apnea.
42. A 1-year-old baby has whooping cough. In one of cough paroxysms the child becomes
cyanosis and its breathing disappears. Point to the cause of breathing disappearance.
A. Inhibition of respiratory center
B. Edema of larynx mucous membrane.
C. Brain edema
D. Lung edema
E. Laryngospasm
43. In complex treatment of patients with a whooping-cough does not use:
1. Medication which repress the cough center.

2. Spasmolytics.
3. Neuroleptic medication.
4. Antibiotics.
5. Corticosteroids.
44. What is the time of isolation on whooping-cough?
1. 7 days.
2. 14 days.
3. 21 days.
4. 30 days.
5. 40 days.
45. How long must be isolated an ill person in case of uncomplicated pertussis?
1. For all prodromal period.

2. 14 days of paroxysmal period.
3. For 30 days from the beginning of the disease.
4. During all duration of the disease.
5. Isolation isn’t necessary.
46. How long must be isolated contact person in case of contact with person who has
pertussis?
1. On 4 days from the contact.

47. Determine time of the whooping-cough vaccination beginning
1. 1 month.
2. 2 months.
3. 3 months.
4. 6 months.
5. 18 months.
48. Revaccination against the pertussis is performed in:
1. 3 months.
2. 6 months.
3. 12 months.
4. 18 months.
5. 3 years.
49. A 2 -year- old girl has been ill for 2 weeks. Now she has paroxysmal cough with whoop
and vomiting, hemorrhages in her sclera, shallow ulcer on the frenulum of the tongue.
Auscultation reveals dry rales. Choose the best medication for prophylaxis of this disease:
A. MMR vaccine
B. DTP-vaccine
C. DT-anatoxin
D. DT-M-anatoxine
E. BCG vaccine
50. Vaccination against pertussis is made together with vaccination against:
1. Rubella, mumps.
2. Tuberculosis.
3. Hepatitis B.
4. Diphtheria.
5. Measles.
51. For parapertussis is not typical:
1. Nidus of infection in the children collective.

2. Passing in respiratory way.
3. Passing in transmissible way.
4. The greatest morbidity among 2-7 year children.
5. Periodic periods of the morbidity increase.
52. What clinical form of the parapertussis we can meet most often?
1. Obliterated.
3. Asymptomatic.
4. Whooping-cough like.

53. Decisive sense for the diagnostics of the parapertussis have all, except:
1. The increase of the specific antibodies titre in reactions: CR, RCFT.

3. Identification of the parapertussis exciter after the inoculation of slime from the
nasopharynx.
4. Clinical facts.
54. The main in the diagnostics of parapertussis is:
1. Dry cough.
2. Duration of the cough 2-3 weeks.
3. Lymphocytosis in the blood.
4. Identification of the parapertussis exciter in the slime from nasopharynx.
5. Increase the titre of antibodies in a CR.
55. Quarantine measures on parapertussis conduct for contact persons
1. In all age groups.

2. Quarantine measures don't conduct.
3. Organized children.
4. Children to 1 year.
56. What sick persons with parapertussis must be separated for 25 days?
1. There is no separation of children.

2. Children to 1 year.
3. Children in all age groups.

Poliomyelitis, enteroviral infection
1. Give definition of poliomyelitis:
A. Acute viral disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and the damage of
the nervous system.
B. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and CNS
damage in the form of flaccid paralysis.
C. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the common signs and CNS
damage in the form of spastic paralysis.
D. Acute viral-bacterial disease which is characterized by the toxic signs and CNS
damage.
E. Acute infectious disease which is characterized by the heart and CNS damage in
the form of languid paralysis.
2. What type of immunity is formed after poliomyelitis?
A. Unstable immunity.
B. Typospecific immunity.
C. Familyspecific immunity.
D. Persistent immunity.
E. Absent immunity.
3. The causative agent of polyomyelitis is:
A. Shigella.
B. Poliovirus hominis.
C. Y.enterocolitica.
D. Reoviruses.

4. The causative agent of polyomyelitis belongs to the group of:
A. Rotaviruses.
B. Arboviruses.
C. Enteroviruses.
D. All answers are incorrect.
5. How many types of polyoviruses are known for nowadays?
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
6. The sourses of polyomyelitis infection are (2):
A. Patients with clinically manifest poliomyelitis, healthy carriers.
B. Birds.
C. Fish.
D. Persons suffering from atypical and abortive forms.
7. The carrier state after clinically manifest form of polyomyelitis infection may last as
long as:
A. 30 to 40 days.
B. 15 to 20 days after an attack.
C. 7 to 10 days.
D. All answers are incorrect.
8. A 9-month-old baby has spinal form of poliomyelitis. What group of viruses does
the causative agent of the disease belong to?
A. Picornaviruses.
B. Paramyxoviruses.
C. Togaviruses.
D. Adenoviruses.
E. Rotaviruses.
9. An 8-month-old non-vaccinated baby fell ill acutely: fever up to 38.5°C, anorexia,

weakness, motor anxiety, mild catarrhal signs and diarrhea. Loss of muscle tone,
absence of active movement and tendon reflexes occurred on the right leg on the 5th
day of illness. Cutaneous sensitivity is present. What is your preliminary diagnosis?
A. Polymyelitis.
B. Viral encephalitis.
C. Acute respiratory viral infection.
D. Acute intestinal infection.
E. Osteomyelitis.
10. A 2-year-old boy is having low-grade fever, mild catarrhal signs for 3 days. The
body temperature decreases on the 4th day of illness and flabby paralysis on his right
leg occurs. What clinical form of poliomyelitis is present?
A. Spinal.
B. Abortive.
C. Meningeal.
D. Pontine.
E. Bulbar.
11. What is the most frequent and typical form of paralytic poliomyelitis?
A. Spinal form.
B. Bulbar form.
C. Pontine form.
D. Encephalitic form.
E. Visceral form.
12. An 18-month-old non-vaccinated baby was hospitalized due to flabby paralysis of

the left leg. There is a loss muscle tone, absence of active movement and tendon
reflexes. Cutaneous sensitivity is present. Where is the CNS lesion localized?
A. Truncus cerebri.
B. Postenor cornua of the spinal cord.
C. Anterior cornua of the spinal cord.
D. Cerebellum.
E. Pia matter.
13. A child is 2 years old. The disease started sharply with the rise of the temperature
up to 38.8°C, vomiting, headache, flaccidity, pains in the abdomen, softening of stool. In
3 days there were weakness in the left leg, hypotonia, hyporeflexia, hypodynamia at the
same place, the skin on the left leg was pale and cold. What are the ways of distribution
of the causative agent of this disease?
A. Respiratory.
B. Fecal-oral.
C. Respiratory and fecal-oral.
D. Respiratory and inoculable.
E. Fecal-oral and parenteral.
14. A child of 8 years old is hospitalized with complaints on sharp onset of the
disease, febrile fever, marked headache, repeated vomiting. On the 2nd day of the
disease nystagmus, dysphagia and aphasia developed. Respiration is superficial, cough
is silent. What form of poliomyelitis should we think of?
A. Nonparalytic, a meningeal form.
B. Paralytic, a spinal form.
C. Paralytic, a bulbar form.
D. Nonapparent form.
E. Paralytic, an encephalitic form.
15. A child of 4 years old is hospitalized with complaints on sharply developed

paralysis of the right leg against a background of temperature elevation up to 39° C. 4
days before there was a subfebrile fever with insignificant catarrhal symptoms, pain in
the abdomen, sweating. Poliomyelitis is suspected. What symptoms, except one, will be
characteristic of poliomyelitis?
A. Atonia (hypotonia).
B. Adynamia (hypodynamia).
C. Areflexia (hyporeflexia).
D. Anesthesia (hyposthesia).
E. Atrophy (hypotrophy).
16. The incubation period of poliomyelitis is ranged:
A. From 2-4 to 35 days.

B. 3-7 days.
C. 11-21 days.
D. 15-20 days.
17. In a clinical course of the disease are distinguished:
A. 3 stages.
B. 4 stages.
C. 5 stages.
D. all answers are incorrect.
18. Point out variants of clinical symptoms of preparalytic stage:
A. Catarrh of the upper respiratory tract.
B. Gastrointestinal disturbances.
C. Symptoms pointing to irritation of the nerve roots and meninges.
D. All answers are correct.
19. The preparalytic stage usually lasts from:
A. 2-3 hours.
B. 2 to 5 days.
C. 7-10 days.
D. 1-12 days.
20. What is the characteristic pose of children who has poliomyelitis?
A. The Lesage symptom.

B. Orthopnoe.
C. Pose of ballet-dancer.
D. Pose of frog.
E. A symptom of tripod.
21. Indicate the correct answer:
A. Paralysis may develop at the height of the fever, usually suddenly.
B. The lower limbs are most often affected (58 to 82 % of cases).
C. Spinal paralysis may be combinated with lesions of the cranial nerves nuclei.
D. The paresis and paralysis are characterized by signs of damage of the peripheral
neuron.
E. All answers are correct.
22. The paralytic stage may lasts (the most complete answer):
A. Several months.
B. Several days or one or two weeks, but seldom longer.
C. 1-10 days.
23. An elevation of protein content and reduction of cell count in cerebrospinal fluid
begin in the:
A. Initial, or preparalytic stage.
B. Paralytic stage.
C. Restitution stage.
D. Stage of residual phenomena.
24. Indicate the type of paresis or paralysis in poliomyelitis.
A. Central type.
B. Peripheral type.
C. Spinal paralysis or paresis (peripheral type) may be combinated with lesions

of the cranial nerves.
25. Paralysis in poliomyelitis is usually:
A. Symmetrical.
B. Predominantly affects the distal parts of the extremities.
C. Asymmetrical, and predominantly affects the proximal parts of the

extremities.
26. Indicate the symptoms of the restitution stage beginning.
A. Restoration of movement in individual groups of muscles.
B. The headache and hyperhidrosis abate.
C. The pain in the spine and limbs.
27. The stage of restitution may continue for:
A. 1-2 months.
B. 1-3 years.
C. 20-40 days.
D. several days.
28. Describe the clinical features of spinal form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
A. Is accompanied with swallowing, speech, and respiratory disturbances.
B. Is characterized by flaccid paralysis of the limbs, trunk, neck, and

diaphragm.
C. Is expressed in implication of the nucleus of the facial nerve with paresis of the
facial muscles.
D. Is characterized by general cerebral phenomena and symptoms of focal lesions in

the brain.
29. Describe the clinical features of bulbar form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
B. Is characterized by flaccid paralysis of the limbs, trunk, neck, and diaphragm.
facial muscles.

the brain.
30. Describe the clinical features of pontine form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
C. Is expressed in implication of the nucleus of the facial nerve with paresis of

the facial muscles.

the brain.

31. Indicate the clinical features of encephalitic form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
facial muscles.
D. Is characterized by general cerebral phenomena and symptoms of focal

lesions in the brain.
32. Specify the frequency of visceral (abortive) form of poliomyelitis.
A. 25 to 80 % or more of the total number of poliomyelitis cases.
B. 2-3-5%.
C. 10-20 %.
D. All answers are true.
33. Describe the clinical features of visceral form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
A. Symptoms of the initial stage of poliomyelitis.
B. Headache, adynamia.
C. Sleep disturbances.
D. Pain in the muscles of the back, paresthesia.
E. All answers are correct.
34. Describe the clinical features of meningeal form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
A. Symptoms of the initial stage of poliomyelitis.

B. Headache, adynamia.
C. Sleep disturbances and meningeal symptoms in addition.
35. Indicate the symptomatic treatment in case of respiratory disorders lesions of the
brain:
A. 1% lobeline solution, 0,1% adrenalin, and oxygen.
B. Ascorbic acid, vitamins of group B.
C. Neostigmine methylsulfate.
D. Dibazol.
36. Indicate the stimulants of interneural and myoneural conduction:
A. 1% lobeline solution, 0,1% adrenalin.
C. Neostigmine methylsulfate (0,1 to 1 ml from 0,05 % solution IM), dibazol.
D. Glutamic acid.
37. Glutamic acid is prescribed:
A. 0,1 to 1 ml from 0,05 % solution IM.
B. Orally in a dose of 0,5 to 2 g daily in powder form or in glucose solution for

10-15 days.
C. 0,001 to 0,005 g once a day for 20 to 30 days.
D. 0,3 to 0,5 g twice a day.

38. Indicate the thermal procedures which are widely employed during the stage of
restitution, except:
A. Warm and hot baths.
B. Hot packs.
C. Paraffin and ozokerite therapy.
D. Transthermia.
E. Stimulants of intraneural and myoneural conduction.
39. Indicate the term of isolation for patient with poliomyelitis:
A. Till 7th day from the beginning of the disease.
B. For 21 days from the onset of the disease.
C. Till 11 days from the beginning of the disease.
D. Till 10th day from the beginning of the disease.
40. In children's institutions (creches, nurseries, kindergartens etc.) the group in

which a case of poliomyelitis has been discovered is quarantined for:
A. 20 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 11 days.
D. 7 days.
41. The main measure to control poliomyelitis is:
A. Antibiotic therapy.
B. γ-globulin prescribing.
C. Prophylactic vaccination.
D. All answers are right.
42. Enumerate measures for prophylaxis of poliomyelitis:
A. Earliest isolation of poliomyelitis patient and suspected cases.
B. Final disinfection is performed in patient’s dwelling.
D. Contacts are observed for 20 days after isolation of the patient, but are not
quarantined.
43. Antibiotics in case of poliomyelitis are indicated:
A. For prophylaxis.
B. To combat complications resulting from secondary infection.
C. Should be appointed since the beginning of the disease.
D. Should be appointed to all patients with bulbar form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
44. Indicate the stimulants of interneural and myoneural conduction:
A. 1% lobeline solution, 0,1% adrenalin.
C. Neostigmine methylsulfate (0,1 to 1 ml from 0,05 % solution IM), dibazol.
D. Glutamic acid.
45. Glutamic acid is prescribed:

A. 0,1 to 1 ml from 0,05 % solution IM.
B. Orally in a dose of 0,5 to 2 g daily in powder form or in glucose solution for

10-15 days.
C. 0,001 to 0,005 g once a day for 20 to 30 days.
D. 0,3 to 0,5 g twice a day.
46. Indicate the thermal procedures which are widely employed during the stage of
restitution, except:
A. warm and hot baths.
B. Hot packs.
C. Paraffin and ozokerite therapy.
D. Transthermia.
E. Stimulants of intrneural and myoneural conduction.
47. Indicate the term of isolation for patient with poliomyelitis:
A. Till 7th day from the beginning of the disease.
B. For 21 days from the onset of the disease.
C. Till 11 days from the beginning of the disease.
D. Till 10th day from the beginning of the disease.
48. In children's institutions (crèches, nurseries, kindergartens etc.) the group in

which a case of poliomyelitis has been discovered is quarantined for:
A. 20 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 11 days.
D. 7 days.

49. The main measure to control poliomyelitis is:
B. γ-globulin prescribing.
D. All answers are right.
50. Enumerate measures for prophylaxis of poliomyelitis:
A. Earliest isolation of poliomyelitis patient and suspected cases.
B. Final disinfection is performed in patient’s dwelling.
D. Contacts are observed for 20 days after isolation of the patient, but are not
quarantined.
51. Antibiotics in case of poliomyelitis are indicated:
A. For prophylaxis.
B. To combat complications resulting from secondary infection.
C. Should be appointed since the beginning of the disease.
D. Should be appointed to all patients with bulbar form in paralytic poliomyelitis.
52. The children of what age most often have poliomyelitis?
A. In the first months of life.
B. In the first year of life.

C. In school age.
D. In 15-17 years.
E. Before 7 years.
53. What system is most sensitive to the virus of poliomyelitis?
A. Nervous system.
B. Cardio-vascular system.
C. Lymphatic system.
D. Bone-muscular system.
E. System of blood.
54. What typical features of muscles and joints damage in case of poliomyelitis?
A. Hypotonia, hyporeflexia, atrophy, tetraparesis, osteoporosis.
B. Hypertonia, and hyperreflexia, "mosaic" damage, osteoporosis.
C. Atony, arefiexia, "mosaic" damage, atrophy, shakiness of joints.
D. Hypertonia, and hyperreflexia, joints ankylosis.
E. Atony, arefiexia, hemiparesis, deformation of spine.
55. Indicate the clinical diagnostic criteria of poliomyelitis:
A. Presence of hemiparesis and hyperpyrexia.
B. Appearance of spastic palsies after a catarrhal period.
C. Flaccid paralyses of especially lower extremities that had appeared after the
period of hyperthermia.
D. Spontaneous appearance of flaccid paralyses.

E. Appearance of tetraparesis after the protracted fever.
56. What vaccination is used in the prophylaxis of poliomyelitis?
A. Specific active prophylaxis by anatoxin.
B. Specific active prophylaxis by the living loosened vaccine.
C. Unspecific active prophylaxis.
D. By specific Ig.
E. By gamma globulin.
57. When is vaccination against poliomyelitis given?
A. From 3 months triply with an interval of 1 week.
B. In 1 year, 3 and 6 years.
C. Only by an epidemic confirmation.
D. From 3 months triply with an interval of 1 month.
E. It is not conducted.
58. Indicate the way of vaccine introduction in poliomyelitis at the third vaccination
and next revaccinations.
A. Through a mouth.
B. Subcutaneous.
C. Intradermal.
D. Intramuscular.
E. Intranasal.

Enteroviral infections
1. Enteroviral infections are caused by:
A. By reovirus.
B. By herpes virus.
C. By poliovirus.
D. By the respiratory syncitial virus.
E. By ECHO and Coxsackie virus.
2. Way of the agent transmission in Enteroviral infection is:
A. Contact-domestic and water.
B. Water, domestic and transmissible.
C. Orally-fecal and air-droplet.
D. Transmissible and ascending.
E. Air-droplet and domestic.
3. What clinical signs from enumerated are the most typical for Enteroviral infection
and differentiate it from other diseases?
A. Meningeal signs.
B. Sings of conjunctivitis and rhinitis.
C. Presence of papulous rashes and itch.
D. Hectic temperature and signs of intoxication.
E. Hyperemia the face and neck, sometimes with appearance of the maculo-
papulous rashes.
4. What is needed for confirmation of enteroviral infection?
A. Virology of nasopharyngeal smears, urine, CSF and complement binding reaction

with paired sera.
B. Virology of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, CSF and indirect hemagglutination

reaction.
C. Virology of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, CSF and complement binding

reaction with paired sera.
D. Virology of urine, feces, CSF and bacteriological research of feces.
E. Virology of nasopharyngeal smears, feces, urine and reaction of indirect

fluorescence.
5. What treatment of enteroviral infection is the most correct?
A. Diet. Only pathogenetic and symptomatic treatment.
B. Specific treatment is not present. Antibiotics and symptomatic treatment.
C. Diet. Purpose of antiviral and pathogenetic therapy.
D. The changes on diet are not needed. Gamma-globulin and ribonuclease is

specific treatment.
E. A diet is not appointed. Antibiotics and dehydration treatment.

6. Point out the specific sign of enteroviral diarrhea:
A. Gastrointestinal disorders are combined with catarrhal signs from the first
days of the disease.
B. Tenesmus is present.
C. The disease course is malignant.
D. All variants are incorrect.
7. Indicate clinical features which specify enteroviral infection:
A. Various clinical manifestations which are connected with toxemia, fever,

lesions of nervous system and muscles.
B. Predominantly lesions of nervous system.
C. Predominantly lesions of intestinal tract.
D. Predominantly lesions of respiratory system.
8. What is the specific prophylaxis of enteroviral infection?
A. Vaccination by inactivated vaccine in age of 1 year.
B. A specific prophylaxis is not developed.
C. Vaccination by inactivated vaccine in age of 3 and 9 years.
D. Infection of specific Ig in the age of 3 months.
E. Infection of specific Ig in the age of 15 months.
9. Indicate preventive measures in the focus of enteroviral infection:
A. Observation of patients and contacts, final disinfection.

B. Hospitalization of sick and contacts for 10 days, current disinfection.
C. Hospitalization of patients, isolation of contacts for 14 days, current

disinfection.
D. Observation of patients, isolation of contacts for 7 days, final disinfection.
E. Observation of patients and contacts, giving them interferon.
10. What preparations are given to children in the focus of enteroviral infection?
A. Gamma-globulin and interferon 14-15 days.
B. Anaferon for 10 days.
C. Antibiotics for 5 days.
D. Specific Ig 3 for days.
E. Specific anatoxin is given for the first 2 days.
11. The most frequent area of enteroviral infection is:
A. Wound surface.
B. Mucus membranes of the pharynx and intestine.
C. Mucus membranes of the upper respiratory tracts and stomach.
D. Mucus membranes of the intestine.
E. Lymphoid organs and cardio-vasculary system.
12. Encephalomyocarditis enteroviral diarrhea is a typical form in children of:
A. 3-7 year olds.
B. 1-year-olds.
C. Teenagers.
D. Newborns.
13. At what age is paralytic poliomyelitis-like disease characteristic while enteroviral

infection?
A. 3-7 year olds.
B. 1-year-olds.
C. Teenagers.
D. Newborns.
E. Children from 1 to 3 years of age.
14. Which viruses cause enteroviral infection diseases?
A. Picornaviridae family.
B. Rotaviruses.
C. Arboviruses.
D. Ortomiksovirus.
15. The main route of transmission of enteroviral infections:
A. Fecal-oral.
B. Air-droplet (in the first days of the disease especially).
C. There is a possibility of transplacental virus infection.
16. Indicate the clinical form of enteroviral infection which explains tropism of
enteroviruses to muscles:
A. Myocarditis.
B. Gastroenteritis.
C. Epidemic myalgia.
D. Herpangina.
17. Describe the clinical features that distinguish enterovirus infection of bacterial
intestinal infections:
A. Considerable toxemia is absent.
B. Diarrhea appears against a background of catarrhal signs.
C. Diarrhea frequently is combined with serous meningitis, epidemic myalgia,

herpangina, enteroviral exanthemas, acute myocarditis.
D. All variants are correct.
18. Point out the specific sign of enteroviral diarrhea:
A. Gastrointestinal disorders are combined with catarrhal signs from the first
days of the disease.
B. Tenesmus is present.
C. The disease course is malignant.
D. All variants are incorrect.
19. Indicate clinical features which specify on enteroviral infection:
A. Various clinical manifestations which are connected with toxemia, fever,

lesions of nervous system and muscles.
B. Predominantly lessions of nervous system.

C. Predominantly lessions of intestinal tract.
D. Predominantly lessions of respiratory system.
20. The source of enteroviral infection is:
A. Sick human and virus carrier.
B. Rodents.
C. Birds.
D. Fish.
21. What epidemiologic information confirm the diagnosis of enteroviral infection?
A. Presence of group diseases or flashes: the sick children have herpangina,

myalgia, and meningitis.
B. Presence of group diseases: the sick children have diarrhea, fever, meningitis.
C. Presence of flashes: the sick children have herpangina, carditis, and diarrhea.
D. Presence of group diseases or flashes: the sick children have severe toxic
syndrome, meningitis.
E. Presence of periodic flashes: the sick children have herpangina, arthritis, and
diarrhea.
22. Indicate the age category for which enteroviral infection is most common:
A. Adults.
B. Newborns.
C. Children from 3 to 10 years of age (the babies of some months to 4 years of

age – intestinal form).
D. Teenagers.
RUBELLA
1. Virus of rubella belongs to:
A. Paramyxovirus.
B. Arbovirus.
C. Togavirus.
D. Calicivirus.
E. Picornavirus.
2. Choose the feature, which is not typical for rubella virus:
A. Is inactivated at the time of heating.
B. Unstable in environment.
C. Stable to ultraviolet radiation.
D. Is notable for gene homogeneity.
E. Is possible to get attenuated strain.
3. Who is the source of rubella?
A. Ill people.
B. Contacts.
C. Ill animal.
D. Convalescent.
E. Water.
4. Point to atypical ways of transmission for rubella:
A. Faecal-oral.
B. Respiratory way.
C. By the contact and domestic way.
D. Transplacental.
5. The most probable portal of entry of infection for rubella virus is:
A. Injured skin.
B. The mucous membrane of upper respiratory tract.
C. Lungs.
D. Intestines.
E. Tonsils.
6. The main link in rubella pathogenesis is:
A. Toxemia.
B. Central and peripheral nervous system disorder.
C. Bacteriemia.
D. Viremia.
7. Till what age children have absolute unreceptiveness to rubella?

A. Till 3 months.
B. Till 1 year.
C. Till 9 months.
D. Till 6 months.
E. Till 18 months.
8. What antibodies are not found in the sick children at rubella?
A. Virus neutralized antibodies.
B. Complement-fixing antibodies.
C. Antihemagglutination antibodies.
D. Antitoxic antibodies.
E. There is no right answer.
9. There are such periods in the clinic of rubella:
A. Incubation.
B. Premonitory (catarrhal).
C. Rash period.
D. Convalescence period.
10. Duration of incubation period in children with rubella is:
A. 6–7 days.
B. 11–21 days.
C. 17–21 days.
D. 3–9 days.
E. 17 days.
11. Rubella is characterized by the following changes in peripheral blood:
A. Neutrophil leukocytosis.
B. Eosinophilia.
C. ESR increase.
D. Thrombocytosis.
E. Leukopenia and lymphocytosis.
12. A 2-year-old child fell ill acutely: fever and rash appeared. Now he has slight malaise,
coryza and cough, enanthema on the soft palate. There is palered small macular rash on its
back and buttocks. Post-auricular, cervical and suboccipital lymph nodes are the size of a large
pea, hard and slightly tender on palpation. What is your diagnosis?
A. Rubella.
B. Measles .
C. Scarlet fever.
D. Infections mononucleosis.
E. Enteroviral infection.
13. A 5-year-old child has low-grade fever enanthema, enlarged post-auricular cervical and
suboccipital lymph nodes, palered small macular rash, which localizes mainly on the extensor
surface of the extremities, back and buttocks. What is your diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Measles.
C. Scarlet fever.
D. Rubella.
E. Enteroviral infection.
14. A baby was born on the 8th month of gestation. It had microcephalia, cataract, cardiac
defects. On the 2nd month of the pregnancy his mother had low-grade fever, enlarged lymph
nodes, and pale red small macular rash on her face, trunk and extremities. These signs
disappeared after 3 days without residual occurrence. What is your diagnosis?
A. Toxoplasmosis.
B. Cytomegaloviral infection.
C. Herpetic infection.
D. Chlamydial infection.
E. Congenital rubella.
15. Antirubella measles antibodies appear in the blood of sick children :
A. In the catarrhal period.
B. From first days of the rash.
C. In height of the rash period.
D. After the end of the rash period.
E. In 5 days after rash breaks out.
16. We must differentiate rubella with such diseases, except:

A. Measles.
B. Herpetic infection.
C. Spotted fever.
D. Medicamentous exanthema.
E. Yersiniosis.
17. Treatment of the sick with uncomplicated form of rubella includes:
B. Antiviral therapy.
C. Measles virus vaccine injection only.
D. Symptomatic therapy.
18. Vaccination against rubella is made together with vaccination against (2):
A. Measles.
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Mumps.
D. Hepatitis B.
E. Diphtheria, pertussis.
F. Poliomyelitis.
19. Convalescents after rubella may visit child's collective:
A. After clinic recovery.
B. After the end of rash period.

C. After scab shedding.
D. In 10 days after beginning of rash.
E. In 5 days after rash beginning.
20. What vaccine must be used to prevent rubella?
A. BCG.
B. DTP vaccine.
C. MMR.
D. OP vaccine.
E. No one.
21. Has child adequate postvaccinal immunity, if in 7 days after inoculation by live rubella
vaccine, normal human immunoglobulin was injected?
A. Yes.
B. No.
Scarlatina
1 Scarlatina is caused by the following exciter:
A.+By the Beta hemolitic streptococcus of group A
B. By Staphilococcus
C. By the streptococcus of group B

D. By the Alpha hemolitic streptococcus of group A
E. All types of streptococcus
7 Group A Beta hemolitic streptococci is characterized:
A. By firmness to the beta-laktams antibiotics
B. By firmness to action of disinfectant matters
C. By ability to cause proof antimicrobial immunity
D. +By the presence of general groupspecyfic toxin
E. Thermostability
8 The source of infection is at a scarlatina:
A. Patients by streptococcus quinsy
B. Convalescents of scarlatina
C. Patients with a nasopharyngitis
D. Patients by a scarlatina
E. +All answers are faithful
3 Ways of transmission at a scarlatina:
A. Contact-domestic
B. The transmissible
C. Parenterally
D. An air-droplet

1 Factors of transmission of infection can be at a scarlatina:
A. Toys
B. Clothes
C. Food
D. Crockery
E.+All answers are faithful
5 Index of contagious at a scarlatina:
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. +40%
E. 50%
6 As a result of the carried scarlatina is formed:
A. Proof (strong) antimicrobial immunity
B. All answers are faithful
C. Group antimicrobial immunity
D. +Proof (strong) antitoxic immunity
E. Proof typespecyfic antimicrobial immunity
5 Entrances gate can not be at a scarlatina:

A. +Uncrippled skin
B Pharynx
C. Overhead respiratory tracts
D. Lungs
E. The gastroenteric tracts
2 Which from the transferred fractions of toxin of streptococci causes hyperemia of

skin at a scarlatina:
A. Allergen
B. Hyaluronidasum
C.+Toxin of Dick
D. Leukocidin
E. Hemolysin
6 Toxin of exciter of scarlatina has predominant Tropism to:
A. Parasympathetic vegetative nervous system
B.+Sympathy vegetative nervous system
C. Cardiovascular system
D. Lymphatic system
E. All answers are correct
3 Beta hemolitic streptococcus of group A is starting factor of rheumatic attack in

case that:
A. He spreads by blood
B. +It is the reason of disease of overhead respiratory tracts
C. Will strike myocardium
D. Gets to the cavity to the joint
E. Causes the defect of skin
4 The toxin of exciter of scarlatina has Tropism mainly to:
A. parasympathyc vegetative nervous system
B. Cardiovascular system
C. +Vegetative nervous system
D. Lymphatic system
E. All answers are faithful
1 Vegetative violations show up at the beginning of scarlatina:
A. By vagotonia
B.+By sympathicotonia
C. It is not marked
D. Sympathic paralysis
E. By destruction of ganglion mews in the region of neck
7 Erythrogenic toxins to the streptococcus at patients by a scarlatina do not take part

in forming:
A. +Arthralgias
B. Tachycardias
C. Dryness of skin
D. Rash
E. Changes of dermografizm
6 Minimum latent periods at a scarlatina:
A. 7 days
B. +1 days
C. 5 days
D. 2 days
E. 3 days
4. A streptococcus infection can run across in a kind:
A. +Pharyngitis
B Quinsies
C. Otitis
D Adenoflegmone
E All answers faithful
5 Streptococci do not take part in pathogenesis of:
A. Erypsipelases
B. Nephrite
C. Meningitis
D. +Scrofulodermas
E. Pyodermas

6 Quinsy can be at a scarlatina:
A. Follicle
B. Lacunars
C. Catarrhal
D. Pellicle
5 Quinsies are caused more frequent in all by the following exciters:
A. By Adenoviruses
B. By the streptococcus of group B
C +By the Beta hemolytic streptococcus of group A
D. By Staphylococcus
E. By the Alpha hemolitic streptococcus of group A
2 What clinical course is not typical for a scarlatina:
A.+Protracted course
B. With allergic and septic complications
C. Abortive course
D. Without the allergic phenomena and complications
E. With allergic complications

3 Rash at a scarlatina is absent on the following parts of body:
A. Folds of skin
B. Lateral surfaces of breasts
C. Cheeks
D +Nose-labial triangle and chin
E. Bends surfaces of extremities
7 What rash characteristic for a scarlatina?
A.+The fine punctual
B Petechial
C. Hemorrhagic
D.Papular
E. Vesicular
1 Milliar rash at a scarlatina specifies on:
A. Favorable prognosis of disease
B. +Prognostic does not matter
C. Possibility of development of allergic complications
D. Unfavorable prognosis of disease
E. Possibility of development of septic complications
2 Lamellar shelling of skin at a scarlatina more frequent begins:
A. On the first week of disease

B. +Оn the second week from the beginning of disease
C. On the third week from the beginning of disease

D. After falling of temperature of body
E At once after disappearance of rash
7 Septic forms of scarlatina often meet in:
A. +Children of early age
B. Children of preschool age
C. Schoolboys
D. Adults
E. Persons of any age
8 In the blood of patients by a scarlatina does not meet:
A. Leukocytosis
B. Neutrocytosis
C. +Anemia
D. Change of formula to the left
E. Early Eosinophilia
2 Most often differentiate a scarlatina with:

A. By medicinal illness
B. By German measles
C. By Syndrome Kawasaki
D. By pseudotuberculosis
4 Septic complications at a scarlatina more frequent in all develop:
A. At the end of the second week from the beginning of disease
B +During first one and a half weeks from the beginning of disease
C. On the third week from the beginning of disease
D. The term of illness of value does not have
7 To septic complications at a scarlatina does not belong:
A. Festering (suppuration) lymphadenitis
B Adenoflegmone
C. Otitis
D. Synoviitis
E +Mastoiditis
3 To allergic complications at a scarlatina does not belong:
A.+Adenophlegmone
B. Nephrite
C. Myocarditis
D. Synoviitis
E. Reactive Lymphadenitis
1 Allergic complications at a scarlatina more frequent develop:
A. +On a 3-4 week from the beginning of disease
B. On the first week from the beginning of disease
C. On the second week from the beginning of disease
D. Through a one month from the beginning of disease
E. In any period of disease
8 Most frequent complications of scarlatina:
A. Otitis
B. Sinusitis
C. Nephrite
D. Synoviitis
E.+All answers are faithful
4 Do not apply at treatment of typical scarlatina:
A. Antibiotics
B. Sulfanilamidums
C. Physiotherapy
D. +The steroid preparations
E. All answers are faithful\
9. Name antibiotics which are used as etiological treatment of pseudotuberculosis:

(2)
A penicillin,
B erythromycin,
C +chloramphenicol (laevomycetin),
D +cefotaxim,
E cefasolin.
6 At the scarlatina of penicillin apply in doses:
A. 10000 - 25000 EU/kg/day
B. +100000 - 300000 EU/kg/day
C. 25000 - 50000 EU/kg/day
D. 1000 - 5000 EU/kg/day
E. 5000 - 10000 EU/kg/day
8 How many days are it needed to impose quarantine on, when a patient is not
withdrawn from a cell?
A. on 7 days
B. on 10 days
C. +on 17 days
D. on 21 day
E. on 22 days
2 Through what time child who carried a scarlatina, can be admitted to preschool?
A. In 10 days from the beginning of disease
B. In 2 weeks
C. +on 22 days from the beginning of disease
D. From the moment of shelling of skin
E. In 10 days after disappearance of eruptions
8 Duration of infectious period at a scarlatina:
A. +Exactly not set
B. During a feverish period
C. Before ending of shelling
D. Before disappearance of rash
E. To beginning of shelling
5 Isolation of patient by a scarlatina is conducted to:
A. +Clinical convalescence, but not less than 10 days from the beginning of disease
B. Clinical convalescence
C. Stopping of shelling
D. Stopping of discharge to the streptococcus from a pharynx

3 On what days from the beginning of disease not contagious patient by a scarlatina?
A. On 2-3 days
B. +On 7-10 day
C. On 4-5 day
D. From the beginning of disease
E. In the period of shelling
4 What term of isolation of the second child in family, if the first is ill a scarlatina?
A. +17 days from the beginning of illness of the first child
B. 10 days from the beginning of illness of the first child
C. All incorrectly
D. on 22 days from the beginning of disease.

Pseudotuberculosis
10. Who is the source of pseudotuberculosis? (1)
A Ill people;
B contacts;
C +Ill animal;
D Convalescent;
E Water.
9. What are ways of spreading of pseudotuberculosis? (1)
A+ Hand-to-hand,
B Alimentary,
C Transmissive,
D Droplet,
E Transplacentary.

10. What typical forms of pseudotuberculosis do you know? (3)
A +Abdominal;
B +Jaundice;
C Catharrhal;
D Subclinical;
E +Skin.
10. What organs and systems may be involved in case of pseudotuberculosis? (4)
A +joints,
B +cardio-vascular system,
C +lymphoid organs,
D central nervous system,
E +gastro-intestinal tract.
10. Name typical symptoms of pseudotuberculosis: (3)
A +Scarlet fever like rashes,
B Suppurative angina (tonsillitis),
C Meningitis,
D +Abdominal syndrome,
E +Hepatosplenomegaly.
9. Characterize skin changes in case of pseudotuberculosis: (1)

A Maculopapular eruption, pallor-pink, on the normal skin, on the unbend surfaces,
are separated from each other, without pigmentation;
B Hemorrhagic, like stars or papules, different size.
C Initial lesions are noted on the forehead and face. During 3-4 days they spread
downward, involve the trunk and extremities. The rashes consist of an erythematosus
maculopapular eruption. They are initially discrete but then became confluent on the
areas of initial involvement. Pigmentation progresses in the same fashion as the
appearance of the rashes. As the rashes resolve, a brownish desquamation may occur.
D Dusky red, blanching tiny papules that have a rough texture. Papules are usually
absent from the face, palms, and soles, but the face characteristically shows flushing
with circumoral pallor. On the body, the rashes are intensified in skin folds and at sites
of pressure.
E +Dusky red, tiny papules. The rashes are present on face, intensified

periorbitally, on the neck (“glasses” symptom, “hood” symptom); on the body the
rashes are intensified in skin folds, at the sites of pressure (red dermographysm),
on the hands, feet,
(“gloves”, ”socks” symptom ), round the joints.
9. Name diseases which must be differentiated from the typical pseudotuberculosis?

(3)
A +Scarlet fever;
B +Measles;
C Pneumonia;
D +Viral hepatitis;
E Otitis media.
9. What vaccine must be used to prevent pseudotuberculosis? (1)
A BCG,
B DTP vaccine,
C MMR,
D OP vaccine,
E +No one.
10. How long must be persons from the epidemic focus of pseudotuberculosis
looking for? (1)
A 7 days,
B 10 days,
C 14 days,
D +18 days,
E 25 days.
Viral hepatitis
1. All listed viruses can cause hepatitis, except:
A. A virus simple to a herpes
B. A cytomegalovirus of the person
C. A virus of infectional mononucleosis

D. A flu virus
Е Viruses of haemorrhagic fevers
2 Virus of hepatitis A and concerns to:
A. Hepadnaviruses
B. Mixoviruses
C. Retroviruses
D. Abroviruses
E. Enteroviruses
3 Virus of hepatitis B in concerns:
A. Arboviruses
B. Caliciviruses
C. Enteroviruses
D. Hepatoviruses
E. Retroviruses
4 Which of characteristics of a virus of hepatitis B is not the true:
A. Proof to action disinfective substances
B. Proof to drying
C. Quickly perishes under the influence of blood because of action of lower

temperature
D. Proof to action of low temperatures

E. Proof to action of heats
5 Virus of hepatitis Instead of it is peculiar:
A. Rather proof to chlorine actions
B. Has return transkriptaze
C. Proof in a range рH 3,0-9,0
D. A virus gene - RNK
E. Contains 4 structural polipeptides
6 Virus of hepatitis B remains stable in the dried up drop of blood at a room temperature:
A. 4 days
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 3 days
E. 7 days
7 Into liver gate enter: 1) the Hepatic artery, 2) the General hepatic channel, 3) the Portal
vein, 4)Lymphatic vessels:
A. All answers true
B. Right answers 1,3
C. Right answers 2,4
D. Right answers 1,4

8 Source of an infection of HAV is:
A. The patient on a acute hepatitis
B. Virus carriers
C. The patient on a chronic hepatitis
9 For virus hepatitis A characteristic following epidemiological laws, except:
A. The highest disease among children of 5-9 years
B. The highest disease among children of 1st year of a life
C. Disease has a seasonal nature
D. High firmness of the activator in an environment
10. Mechanisms of transfer of a virus of hepatitis B:
A. Parenteral
B. Sexual
C. Perinatal
11. Main mechanism pathogenes virus hepatitis is:
A. Infringement of a pigmentary exchange
B. A straight line cytopathogenic virus action on hepatosits
C. Development of allergic reactions

D.Tsitoliz hepatositisz depends on the immune answer
12. Transfer of a virus of a hepatitis from mother to child:
A. prenatal
B. postnatal
C. intranatal
13. At a virus hepatitis Instead of one of the listed ways of infection is observed:
A. Food
B. Water
C. Contact
D. way of transmission
14. Greatest epidemiological dangers at virus hepatitis and represent:
A. Patients with subclinical forms of illness
B. Persons recovered
C. Patients in the end of the incubatory period and in the preicteric period
D. Patients in the icteric period
E. Virus carriers
15. Basic mechanism of transfer of virus A hepatitis :
A. Sexual
B. perintal
C. parental
D. Drop
E. Fekalno - oral
16. Most frequent variants before the icteric period of Hepatitis B virus: a) artralgic
b) looks like influenza, c) dyspeptic, d) latent, e) asteno-vegetative:
A. Right answers a, c
B. Right answers d, e
C. Right answers а, e
D. Right answers b, d
17. Average duration of the incubatory period at hepatitis A virus
A. 12-24 weeks
B. 3-4 weeks
C. 5-7 weeks
D. 7-11 weeks
E. 2-3 weeks
18. Duration of the incubatory period at HBV:
A. 1-2 months
B. 2-6 months
C. 6-12 months
D. More than one year
E. Less of 1st month
19. Beginning of illness at virus hepatitis B usually:
A. Latent
B. Gradual
C. Acute
20. Average duration of the icteric period at HBV:
A. 4-6 weeks
B. 7-12 weeks
C. 1-3 weeks
21. Most frequent variant before the icteric (prejaundice) period at virus hepatitis A:
A. Latent
B. Dispeptic
C. Artralgic
D. Looks like influenza
E. Asteno-vegetative
22. After jaundice occurrence of hepatitis A virus and state of health of the patient:
A. rsens
B. Remains without changes

C. Improves
23. After jaundice occurrence at HBV a condition of the patient:
A. Improves
B. Remains without changes
C. Worsens
24. What is the general duration of period before jaundice for Hepatites A virus?
A. It is more than 30 days
B. 1-5 days
C. 7-30 days
D.1-14 days
25. For course HBV at children of 1st year of a life is not typical:
A. The sharp beginning of disease, is frequent with a heat
B. To identical weight of a course intensity of jaundice big, than at children of

advanced age
C. Dostatochno a long jaundice, it is frequent with splenomegaly and haemorrhagic a

syndrome
D. Indistinctly expressed displays period before jaundice
E. Frequent development heavy and fulminative forms
26. Sign of intoxication at HBV cannot be:
A. Faintness, vomiting
B. Acholia of stools
C. A tachycardia
D. A headache
E. Obshchaja weakness, adinamia
27. Hipertransferazemia at HBV is usually:
A. Rised in the icteric period
B. Considerabled
C. Normal maintenance in blood whey
D. Moderated
28. Not a typical biochemical indicator of whey of blood at mixed infection HB and HD is:
A. A rack hiperbilirubinemia which remains more for a long time, than at HBV
B. Lowered protrombine index
C. Activity indicators aminotransferaz’s above, than at HBV
D. Indirect bilirubin prevails
E. The expressed syndrome of citoliz
29. Main biological sign of citolis of hepatosits:
A.Gipoalbuminemija
B.Snizhenie of quantity beta-lipoproteins
C. Maintenance increase in bilirubin blood
D. Increase of activity АLТ and АSТ

E. Hypoprotombinemia
30. What symptoms of hepatitis are characteristic signs of holestasis:
A. A nausea, vomiting
B. The decrease of diurez during a day
C. Hypostases, ascitis
D. Asthenic displays
E. A skin itch
31.. Increase does not concern biochemical signs holestasis in blood:
A. Cholesterol
B. Activity АSТ
C. Gall acids
D. Bilious acids
E. Activity of GGTP
32. What the indicator has no great value as criterion of weight HBV:
A. A haemoragichesky syndrome
B. Level of hyperbilirubinemia
C. Expressive of general intoxication
D. Rise of timol’s reaction
E. Decreasing the protrombine’s index

33. What is not the characteristic of haemorrhagic syndrome for HBV?
A. Bleedings from nose
B. Bleedings from gums
C. Decreasing of protrombine index
D. Microhaematuria
E. Hypoalbuminemia
34. Revealings are acknowledgement of diagnosis HAV:
A. A hepatitis virus in excrements
B. Antibodies to a virus of a hepatitis A (anti HBV Ig M) in blood
C. An antigene of a virus of hepatitis A in blood
D. Antibodies to a virus of a hepatitis A (anti ВГА Ig G) in blood
35. Indicators of timol reactions at HBV:
A. Large rise in late term of illness
B. Moderate rise in late term of illness
C. Do not change
36. That correctly characterises Hbe Ag:
A. It appears in Hbs Ag-positive persons, testifies about high replicative activity of a

virus and high level of infectiob
B. A serologichesky marker which testifies to recover and immunity formation
C. The indicator of recently transferred virus hepatitis B

37. What the biochemical indicator is display of haemolises of erythrocytes?
A. rise of level of aminotransferases
B. cowering of protombine index
C. Increase of level of indirect bilirubin
D. Increase of the maintenance of haemoglobin in plasma
38. In peripheral blood in acute period HBV does not happen:
A. lowering of SSE
B. leucopenia
C. neutrophilosis
D. plasmatic reaction
E. reaction of monosits
39. 5 -year-old child. Complaints: Т - 38,7о С, vomiting, abdominal pain. 3rd day of the
disease: malaise, skin and mucosa are without pathology. Tongue has white coating. Pharynx is
clear. Abdomen is soft. Liver is enlarged + 2,5 cm. Faeces and urine are with normal colour.
Child got in touch with person sick with viral hepatitis A and Scarlet fever 2 weeks ago. What
examination do you prefer to found out the right diagnosis?
1. Blood on paired serums

2. Smear from pharynx on haemolytic streptococcus
3. Urine analysis on bile pigments and urobilin
4. Blood on aminotranspherases
5. Blood on bilirubin and fractions
40. To serological to markers of a chronic hepatitis B do not concern:
A. Anti Hbcor IgM B. Anti НВе

C. Anti HAV IgM D. НВе Ag
E. HBs Ag
41. Hypertransferazemia at HAV is often the characteristic:
A. Abstemious
B. Large
C. Normal contents of enzymes in blood whey remain
D. Depends on weight of illness
42. Which of serological markers can be shown in blood in the incubatory period of virus
hepatitis B:
A. Hbe Ag
B. Anti-HB cor
C. Hbs Ag
D. Virus DNA
E. Hbc Ag
43. Increase of immunity releases in organism from a virus of hepatitis:
A. After jaundice decrease
B. Throughout 2-3 weeks of jaundice
C. On the first week of jaundice
D. For 4-5 weeks of jaundice

E. In the period of convalescent
44. Least important indicators - a harbinger of synchronisation HBV is:
A. Hipergammaglobulinemia
B. Preservation in blood Hbs of an antigene is more than 30 days from the illness beginning
C. Degree of hepergammaglobulinemia
D. Revealing of markers delta-virus
45. Most adverse for patient HBV is:
A. hepatitis in without joining delta-virus
B. Association of a chronic hepatitis B with acute delta-superinfection
C. The mixed acute virus hepatitis B and D
46. Differential diagnostics of chronic hepatitis B virus in is spent with:
A. Liver defeat at deficiency an alpha-1-antitripsina
B. A toxic hepatitis
C. autoimmunitive hepatitis
D. Wilson-Konovalov illness
E. Liver defeat at mycoviscidosis
F. All answers are right

47. What pathology is caused by the raised formation of immune complex for hepatitis B
virus in:
A. Crioglobulinemia
B. Defeat of a skin as a wren with swarm looked like spots and papulas
C. Artralgia
D. Knot’s periafterlitis
E. Membranose’s glomerulonefritis
48. The increase in the sizes of a liver is not characteristic:
A. Lambliosis
B. Dysentery
C.Leptospiroza
D dysentery.
E. Kersinosis
49. At which infections liver defeat is marked:
A. Malaria
B. Amebiaz
C. Toxoplasmosis
50. At what gall-moved the activator to a parasite is in a fabric of a liver or in bilious ways:
A. Echinococcosis
B. Fasciollosis
C. Opistorhosis
D. Shistomatosis
Е. All answers are right
51. At what system disease of a connecting fabric liver defeat is marked:
A. Knot’s periarteriit
B. System sklerodermia
C. System red wolf’s illness
D. All answers true
52. For what disease of blood is not characteristic the livers increase?
A. Lymphogranulemathosis
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Sharp and chronic leucosis
D.Erutremia
E. Haemoblastozis
53.. 5 -year-old child. The disease started with appetitie loss and vomiting, Т- 37,8°С. 5th day
– dark urine, pale faeces, jaundiced sclera and skin, liver on 4 cm lower than rib arch, tender,
concrete. Blood: ALT- 2,7 mmol/L, total bilirubin 150 mkmol/L, direct - 110, indirect - 40. What is
the primary diagnosis?
1. Cholecystitis
2. Viral hepatitis
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. Leptospirosis with jaundice
5. Obstructive jaundice
54. 10-month old child on the 5th day of the disease have got vomiting, denied meals,
became anxious, doesn’t recognize parent, have got seizures, haemorrhagic rash, the jaundice
appeared, the liver size became smaller, liver is soft on palpation. Т- 37,5 - 39,9°С. What
caused the worsening?
1. Spasmophilia
2. Encephalitis
3. Meningitis
4. Liver coma
5. Acute intestinal infection
55. Child 3 months was ill with rise in temperature up to 37,5° With, slackness, regurgitation ,
periodic anxiety. In 2 days have noticed, that urine leaves dark stain on the nappy excrement is
not painted. At survey for 3-rd day it is revealed icteritiousnes leather(skin), sclers, increase in a
liver, a spleen. In a maternity hospital concerning hemolytic illnesses of newborns received
hemotransfusions . What disease is the most probable?
1. Hemolitic jaundice
2. Virus hepatitis A
3. Virus hepatites of C
4. Conjugated jaundice
5. Atresia biliary ways
56. 2-year-old. Complaints: malaise, appetite loss. 5th day – dark urine, pale stool. 6th -
jaundice of skin and sclera, Т - 37,4о С, repeated vomiting. Liver enlarged + 7 cm, lien +2,5 cm.
Heart sounds are muted, bradycardia. Child not active. Sleeping disturbances. Bilirubin - 220
mmol/L, direct - 176. Prothrombine - 60%. ALT - 6,4 IU. Found НВS Ag. In age 1,5 years child
have had pneumonia, have got treatment in the hospital. What is the primary diagnosis?
1. Viral hepatitis В
2. Haemolytic anaemia
3. Viral hepatitis А
4. Toxic hepatitis

57. 4-year-old child. Complaints are fever Т- 39оС, abdominal pains, vomiting. The 5th day:
dark urine, skin and mucous are jaundiced. Tongue is covered with white coating. Liver is
enlarged + 3,5 cm. Faeces are pale. Bilirubin 127 (mk/mol/L), direct - 86, indirect - 41. ALT - 1,8
mmol/L/h, prothrombine index – 78 %. What’s the primary diagnosis?
1. Toxic hepatitis
3. Viral hepatitis
4. Haemolytic anaemia Minkovski-Shoffar
5. Leptospyrosis
58. 2,5-month-old child. Complaints: Т - 39,2о С, malaise, cancels breast-feeding,

periodically agitation. 3rd day – sclera and skin are jaundiced, dark urine, pale stool. 4th day
vomiting – with haematemesis, convulsions, consciousness disturbances. Abdomen is
distended. Liver is near the edge of rib arch. Lien enlarged + 1,5 cm. Bilirubin - 234 mkmol/L,
direct -182, ALT - 3,1 mmol/L/h., prothrombine index– 38 %. Found НВS Аg and delta virus. In
the past history – pneumonia and blood transfusion. What is the primary diagnosis?
1. Viral hepatitis А
2. Encephalitis
3. Viral hepatitis В, heavy form
4. Viral hepatitis В + delta infection, malignant form
5. Atresia of biliary ducts
59. For the control of therapy by interferon spend:
A. The control of level of electrolits (calcium)
B. Inspection on presence of antibodies for tureoglobuline
C. Definition НВе Ag / HBV - DNK of 1 time in 3 weeks
D. The clinical analysis of blood, level transaminaz 1 time in 2 weeks
E. Clinical inspection of the patient of 1 time in 2 weeks

60. Criteria of success interferonotherapy patients on chronic HBV is, except:
A. Low level VGV-DNK, presence НBе Ag
B. High level of transminazes
C. Cirrhosis presence
D. The recent beginning of disease (till 5 years)
E. Absence of coinfection (HDV)
61. Mechanism of action of preparations of interferon-alpha at chronic hepatitises:
A. action opposite proliferation: stimulates of proliferation for cages, producted collagen,

detains cirrhosis development
B. Stimulation of production of fibers which depress replication of virus
C. immunomoduative action, stimulation of perceive by citotoxic lymphosit of hepatosits
62. What is collateral effect of interferonotherapy?
A. Systematic
B. Autoimmunity
C. Gematologichesky
D. Psychoneurological
E. All answers arte right

63. Collateral effects interferonotherapy which are observed in patients on the chronic more
often hepatitis:
A. autoimmunity tireoiditis
B. condition looks like influenza, rise in temperature at the first injections of a

preparation
C. leucopenia, trombositopenia
D. Depression
E. Fatigue
64. What is not the exponent of effective interferonotherapy for patients with chronic HBV?
A. Disappearance HBV-DNK
B. Seroconversion Нве Ag on anty-hbe
C. Disappearance Hbs Ag
D. Normalisation АLAТ
65. Which of positions correct about action glucocorticoides at acute virus hepatitis B:
A. Lead to time decrease in bilirubin
B. Raise frequency of relapses
C. Assist synchronisation of virus hepatitis
D. Stimulate replication a virus
66. At the eldest group of the kinder garden in Kyev was a case of viral hepatitis A. 16
children didn’t have hepatitis A before. What do you prefer to use to prevent the viral hepatitis?
1. Interferon
2. Vaccination
3. Immunoglobulin
4. Remantadin
5. Specific prophylaxis is not used
67. The child with a jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, increase of hepatic tests establishes the
typical, easy form of a virus hepatites of A. The main part of treatment is:
1. Prescription glucocorticoids
2. Installation of infusion therapies
3. Prescription hepatoprotectors
4. Prescription antivirus preparations
5. Prescription bases - therapies (a mode, a diet, vitamins)
68. To treatment of patients on chronic HBV apply:
A. Interferon-beta preparations
B. Lamivudine
C. Interferon-alpha preparations
69. Inoculation a genno-engineering vaccine with a superficial antigene of a virus of hepatitis

in by thrice intramuscular introduction can warn the listed diseases, except:
A. Acute fulminative hepatitis
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
C. A dropsy of a bilious bubble
D. A cirrosis of liver
70. Level of coverage by the immunization, which necessary for maintenance high-grade
effect opposite epidemy:
A. 60-65 %
B. 80-85 %
C. 70-75 %
D. 90 - 95 %.
71. Minimum interval between introduction of different vaccinal preparations, except for a
vaccine
against a hepatitis in, makes:
A. 1 month
B. 1,5 monthes
C. 3 monthes
D. 2 monthes
72. Temperature which is necessary for supporting at transportation of vaccines:
A. 0 - 8 C В. + 6 - +8 С C. 0 + 12 С D. 0 - 5 C
73. All listed should be vaccinated against hepatitis B in except:
A. Patients who are on a chronic dialysis
B. Children who live in one family with parents-carriers HBsAg
C. Persons who live in houses boarding schools
D. Newborns from mothers-carriers HBsAg
E. Schoolboys who had contact to the hepatitis carrier B
F. Sick of a hemophilia

74. Accoucheur warns you, that the lying-in woman is the carrier of a superficial antigene of
hepatitis in
(HBsAg). What your prime actions concerning the newborn will be?
A. Isolation of the newborn for the purpose of the prevention of distribution of an infection
B. To observe of the child, to appoint nothing, as parent antibodies which get
tranplasental, protect the child from a hepatitis B
C. Inspection of the child on HBsAg
D. As soon as possible to enter to the child a vaccine against hepatitis B
E. Inspection of mother on hepatitis antigenes B
75. To newborn that was born from mother who is infected by a hepatitis virus B:
A. To spend an inoculation against a hepatitis in on 1st week of a life
B. To spend an inoculation against a hepatitis in on 1st month of a life
C. To spend an inoculation in the first day of a life (it is better at the first 12 o'clock)
D. To spend an inoculation in the first day of a life
76. That does not concern specific preventive maintenance of hepatitis A and:
A. Active immunization by a vaccine against a hepatitis A
B. Internally-muscular introduction haemoglobuline
C. Interferon introduction
77. What positions correctly characterise passive immunization against hepatitis and:
A. Immune protection against a hepatitis A remains throughout 2-4 mounthes
B. Immunoglobuline from whey is introducted not lately then 14 day after contact with
patients on HAV
C. Use usual immunoglobuline from wheys
D. The antigen is entered internally-muscular in a dose of 0,02 ml/kg
78. Consequence of HAV usually is:
A. Development of a chronic active hepatitis
B. A frequent long course
C. Development chronic long hepatitis
D. Recover
E. A cirrhosis liver
79. Consequence HBV cannot be:
A. Chronic persistative a hepatitis
B. A primary cancer of a liver
C. A chronic active hepatitis, cirrhosis
D. Amiloidoisis a liver
E. Persistative Hbs Agemia

Test Full Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test Full Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Acute intestinal diseases

1. What are the shigell’s?

A The Gram positive stick

B The Gram negative stick

C Gram positive cock

D The Gram negative cock

E The primary organisms

A The 6 month old

B The year old

C From 1 till 2 years

D From 2 till 7 years

E From 7 till 14 years

3. What is the main way of transmission of Grigoreva-Shiga’s dysentery?

D All answers are right

A The shigell’s ability for in the l-forms

B The transgression of immunologic reactivity

C The transgression of regime and the incorrect feeding

D The functional invaluable of digestive system

A The infection dose.

B The invasive ability of microorganism

D The eudo- and the exotoxin of exciter

E The immunologic firmness of child organism

6. What is not the variant of clinical course of shigellosis?

A The acute move

B The long move

C The chronic move

D The plain move

E The generalized move

7. What action is not necessary in the nidus of dysentery?

C The bacteriological inspection of the all children

D The looking after contact persons

8. What are the symptoms of severity of dysentery?

A The character of evacuation

B The frequency of evacuation

D The gaping of anus

E All answers are right

A The split, the erosion of anus

B The falling of rectum

D The perforation of intestine, the peritonit

E The intestinal bleeding

10. What is the duration of the prolonged form of dysentery?

11. What serological reaction can’t be used for diagnostic of dysentery?

A The reaction of agglutination

B The reaction of straight haemagglutination

C The increase in the dynamics

D The reaction of fixation the complement

А monoarthritis of knee joints in general

B asymmetry of joint disease

C progression from 3-rd to 40-th day after the beginning of diarrhea

D septic character of arthritis

E development in HLA B27 positive individuum

13. What are the complications of dysentery?

B The infectional and toxic shock

C The intestinal bleeding

D The peritonit, the invagination

E All answers are right

14. What kinds of shigell’s to secretion of the excotoxin?

D All answers are incorrect

A The cataral colitis

B The fibrinous colitis

C The ulcerative colitis

D. Prolapse of the anus, paraproctitis

E. All answers are true

17. What is the main way of transmission of dysentery Zonne?