91)Fosfomycin is given as a large single dose to treat which infection?

1-impetigo
2-gonorrhea
3-urinary tract infection
4-traveler's diarrhea
5-syphilis

92)muscle rigidity can be a side effect of which intravenous anesthetic?

1-thiopental
2-midazolam
3-propofol
4-fentanyl
5-ketamine

93)the molecular mechanism underlying the antiepileptic effects of carbamazepine and

phenytoin is best described by which one of the following statements?
1-blocking glutamate receptor excitation
2-inhibiting low-threshold Ca2+ ion channels
3-potentiating the release of GABA by inhibiting GABA reuptake
4-increasing the release of GABA by vesicular fusion
5-prolonging the inactivation of the Na+ ion channel

94)A 34-year-old man is prescribed labetalol for hypertension. The effect on the
cardiovascular system is a result of its action as an antagonist at which of the following?
1--α-adrenoceptor
2-β- adrenoceptor
3-both -- α-and β adrenoceptor
4-muscarilic cholinoreceptors

95)which of the following drugs has the following effects: nausea and vomiting, blurred and
abnormally colored vision, and palpitation?
1-lisinopril
2-furosemide
3-dobutamine
4-mulrinone
5-digoxin

96)which drug increases utilization of cholesterol to synthesize bile acids?

1-gemfibrozil
2-niacin
3-ezetimible
4-colesvelam
5-rosuvastatin

97)which effect is caused by both atenolol and diltiazem?

1-decrease heart rate
2-inhibition of sodium influx
3-decrease cAMP levels
4-increased cGMP levels
5-relaxation of arterial smooth muscle
98)which of the following describes the major difference between a first-and-second
generation antihistamine?
1-effectiveness in treating allergies
2-selectivity at H1 receptors
3-potency at blocking H1 receptors
4-indications for use
5-ability to cross the blood-brain barrier

99)treatment of hyperthyroidism by propylthiouracil (PTU) shows clinical effects due to:

1-acting in thyroid hormone receptors
2-inhibiting release of T3 and T4
3-inhibiting enzymes forming T3 and T4
4-destroying thyroid tissue
5-blocking β- adrenergic receptor

100) A 65-year-old retired military man with hypertension and type II diabetes comes in for
a follow-up visit. Along with making appropriate diet and lifestyle changes, he is taking an
ACE inhibitor-thiazide diuretic combination for his hypertension and metformin for his
diabetes. His blood pressure and diabetes are under acceptable control. Routine blood work
revealed normal electrolytes. renal function, and liver enzymes. He is noted to have elevated
total cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein (LDL) levels, which have remained high in spite
of his lifestyle changes. In an effort to reduce his risk of developing coronary artery disease,
you start him on a 3-hydroxy-3- methylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitor.
Mechanism of action of HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.

1-Competitive inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis results in

compensatory increase in plasma cholesterol uptake in the liver mediated by an increase in
the number of LDL receptors.

2-Competitive inhibition of the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis results in

compensatory increase in plasma cholesterol uptake in the liver mediated by an decrease in
the number of LDL receptors.

3-Competitive inhibition of the rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis results in

compensatory decrease in plasma cholesterol uptake in the liver mediated by an increase in
the number of LDL receptors.

101)a man with chronic heartburn caused by gastric acid reflux is prescribed
metoclopramide. Which mechanism is responsible for its pharmacologic effect?
1-muscarinic receptor blockade
2- α-adrenoceptor activation
3-histamine H2 receptor blockade
4-chloride CIC-2 channel activation
5-dopamine D2 receptor blockade

102)which of the following drugs may cause tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss in case of
large intravenous doses?
1-furosemide
2-hydrochlorothiazide
3-mannitol
4-acetazolamide
5-spironolactone

103)this orally administered inhibitor of active factor X (Stuart factor) is used to prevent and
treat deep vein thrombosis. Select the correct drug from the following choices:
1-dabigatran
2-rivaroxaban
3-eptifibatide
4-prasugrel
5-enoxaparin

104)which drug used for the treatment of asthma inhibits 5-lipoxygenase?

1-zileuton
2-fluticasone
3-zafirlukast
4-roflumilast
5-theophlline

105)which drug inhibits RNA polymerase in Mycobacteria?

1-rthambutol
2-amikacin
3-rifampin
4-isoniazid
5-pyrazinamide

106) Following his third episode of gouty arthritis a 50-year-old man sees you in the clinic.
Each case was successfully treated acutely; however, your patient is interested in trying to
prevent future episodes. He is not on regular medications and has a normal physical
examination today. Blood work reveals an elevated serum uric acid level and otherwise
normal renal function and electrolytes. A 24-hour urine collection for uric acid reveals that
he is under-excreting uric acid. Suspecting that this is the cause of his recurrent gout, you
place him on probenecid. What is the mechanism of action of probenecid?

1-activates secretion of organic bases and decreases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net
increase in secretion

2-Inhibits secretion of organic acids and decreases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net
increase in reabsorbtion

3-Inhibits secretion of organic acids and decreases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net
increase in secretion

4-Inhibits secretion of organic acids and increases reabsorption of uric acid, causing a net
increase in secretion

107)G protein-coupled receptors that activate an inhibitory Gα subunit alter the activity
of adenylate cyclase to
1-decrease the production of cAMP
2-block the ligand from binding
3-generate intracellular inositol triphosphate
4-initiate the conversion of GTP to GDP
5-increase the coupling of receptor to G protein

108)the fact that the degree of reinforcement for morphine is less than that of
heroin is best explained by which one of the following statements?
1-morphine is a partial agonist
2-heroin binds more tightly to opioid receptors
3-heroin is distributed more rapidly to the brain
4-morphine is first metabolized to heroin
5-morphine is metabolized faster than heroin

109)which drug is recommended for treatment of most persons with latent TB?
1-pyrazinamide
2-rifampin
3-isoniazid
4-ethambutol
5-streptomcin

110)which of the following drugs is the same as PGI2 (prostacyclin) and is used for
the treatment of pulmonary hypertension?
1-alprostadil
2-treprostinil
3-travoprost
4-epoprostenol
5-misoprostol

111)A patient with essential hypertension requires a drug that reduces both cardiac
output and peripheral resistance. Select the most appropriate drug therapy
1-betaxolol
2-carvedilol
3-alfuzosin
4-phenoxybenzamine
5-phentolamine

112)after receiving a low dose of dexamethasone, a patient found to have a plasma

cortisol level of 20 mcg/dL the next morning. Which disorder is most likely in this
patient?
1-chronic adrenal insufficiency
2-congenital adrenal hyperplasia
3-11 B-hydroxylase deficiency
4-pituitary insufficiency
5-cushing syndrome

113) which of the following statements best explains the observation that morphine
is more likely to cause nausea and vomiting in ambulatory patients?
1-opioids cause sedation, which makes walking more difficult
2-patients on opioids eat more
3-opopids increase vestibular sensitivity
4-morphine sensitizes medulla cough center neurons
5-morphine inhibits chemoreceptor trigger zone neurons

114) Please choose the most correct description of flumazenil.

1-is a selective benzodiazepine antagonist
2-has the longest elimination half-life
3-is not metabolized into an active agent
4-does not produce withdrawal seizures
5-is also used for the treatment of epilepsy

115)a man is given a drug that inhibits the synthesis of norepinephrine. Which
response would result from this treatment?
1-decreased heart rate
2-bronchodilation
3-renin secretion
4-salovation
5-diarrhea

116)if a drug exhibits first-order elimination, then

1- the rate of drug elimination (mg/min) is proportional to the plasma drug
concentration.
2-hepatic drug metabolizing enzymes are saturated
3-the elimination half-life is proportional to the plasma drug concentration.
4-drug clearance will increase if the plasma drug concentration increases.
5-the drug is eliminated at a constant rate.

117)a type 2 diabetic patient is prescribed metformin. Which adverse effect often
occurs when taking this drug?
1-heart failure
2-weight gain
3-diarrhea
4-hypoglycemia
5-latic acidosis

118) A man with obstructive pulmonary disease requires therapy to prevent anginal
attacks. Which drug should be avoided in this patient?
1-felodipine
2-diltiazem
3-propranolol
4-verapamil
5-Isosorbide mononitrate

119) In case of ONLY hyperbaric conditions, which one of the following anesthetics
provide anesthetic effectiveness?
1-halothane
2-nitrous oxide
3-methoxyflurane
4-isoflurane
5-enflurane

120) A boy experiences a moderately severe reaction to a wasp sting. Which method
of corticosteroid administration is appropriate for this patient?
1-intermittent every-other-day therapy until symptoms resolve
2-continuous low-dose therapy for several weeks
3-gradually increasing doses over several days
4-gradually decreasing doses over several days
5-continuous high-dose therapy for several weeks

121) A woman is placed on fluconazole to treat renal candidiasis. Which

pharmacologic property is associated with this drug?
1-promarlly excreted in the urine
2-low cerebrospinal fluid concentrations
3-poor oral bioavailability
4-short elimination half-life
5-must be given parenterally

122) Administration of this drug to persons with renal insufficiency can cause
hyperkalemia, select the correct drug from the following choices:
1-acetazolamide
2-mannitol
3-furosemide
4-hydrochlorothiazide
5-spironolactone

123) A 71-year-old man is noted to have dilated cardiomyopathy with atrial

fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate. An agent is used to control the ventricular
rate, but the cardiac contractility is also affected, placing him in pulmonary edema.
Which of the following agents was most likely used?
1-Amiodarone
2-digoxin
3-Nifedipine
4-Verapamil

124)which drug should be avoided in persons with asthma?

1-quinidine
2-sotalol
3-diltiazem
4-flecainide
5-lidocaine

125) Selegiline, an antidepressant also used for the treatment of Parkinson disease,
has which one of the following mechanisms of action?
1-It irreversibly binds to COMT
2-it blocks the reuptake of dopamine
3-blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors
4-It increases release of dopamine vesicles
5-it is a selective MAO-B inhibitor

126) A man being treated for chlamydial urethritis presents with severe erythema
over his upper body after sun exposure Which antibiotic is most likely responsible for
this adverse effect?
1-azithromycin
2-clindamycin
3-mupirocin
4-doxycycline
5-erythromycin

127) Which antimicrobial drugs disrupt the bacterial cell membrane?

1-trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
2-polymyxin B and daptomycin
3-ciprofloxacin and moxifloxacin
4-rifaximin and fidaxomicin
5-nitrofurantoin and Fosfomycin

128)which drug has been demonstrated to increase survival in persons with heart
failure?
1-hydralazine-isosorbidw dinitrate
2-carvedilol
3-furosemide
4-milrinone
5-digoxin

129) A 70-year-old man is seen in follow-up at your office after he has been
hospitalized for a myocardial infarction (MI). He underwent successful angioplasty
and is currently asymptomatic. Prior to his MI, he was not on medications. He is not
a smoker and is not diabetic. During his hospitalization. he was noted to have
persistently elevated blood pressure readings. He had asthma as a child, but has not
had any recent wheezing episodes. While in the hospital, he was started on oral
metoprolol. What effects do agents such as metoprolol have on the cardiovascular
system?

1-Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and

cardiac output lower blood pressure as a result of effects on the heart, decrease
renin-angiotensin system, and CNS, increased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time
and refractoriness

2-Reduction of sympathetic stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and

cardiac output lower blood pressure as a result of effects on the heart renin-
angiotensin system, and CNS; increased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time and
refractoriness

3-Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and

cardiac output, lower blood pressure as a result of effects on the heart, renin-
angiotensin system, and CNS, Decreased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time and
refractoriness

4-Reduction of sympathetic-stimulated increases in heart rate, contractility, and

decreases cardiac output, lower blood pressure as a result of effects on the heart,
renin-angiotensin system, and CNS; increased atrioventricular (AV) conduction time
and refractoriness

130)which of the following represents the most common side effect of the treatment
targeted to inhibit the release of acetylcholine in case of facial muscle spasms?
1-bardycardia
2-constriction of the pupils
3-urinary incontinence
4-dry mouth
5-diarrhea

131) Which drug combination usually provides the most rapid and effective
treatment for duodenal ulcer caused by H. pylori infection?
1-amoxicillin, clarithromycin, tetracycline, and metronidazole
2-famotidine, amoxicillin, and metronidazole
3-rabeprazole, bismuth subsalicylate, and tetracycline
4-sucralfate, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin
5-pantoprazole, amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and metronidazole

132)which nonnucleoside drug is used to treat systemic acyclovir and ganciclovir-

resistant herpesvirus infections, such as CMV esophagitis?
1-sfavirenz
2-trifluridine
3-ribavirin
4-rilpivirine
5-foscarnet

133) A 64-year-old woman with a history of two previous myocardial infarctions

(MIS) comes to the emergency room with shortness of breath. In the previous 2
weeks, she has developed dyspnea with exertion and swelling of her legs. She sleeps
on three pillows because she coughs and gets short of breath if she tries to lie flat. In
the emergency department she is sitting upright, appears to be in moderate
respiratory distress, and is tachycardic and hypertensive. She has jugular venous
distension to the angle of her jaw. On auscultation of her lungs, wet rales are heard
bilaterally. She has pitting edema of both lower legs up to her knees. A chest x-ray
confirms the diagnosis of pulmonary edema. She is placed on oxygen and
immediately given an IV injection of furosemide. What is the mechanism of action of
furosemide?

1-Inhibit active NaCl reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle,
increasing water and electrolyte reabsorbtion

2-Inhibit active NaCl reabsorption in the descending limb of the loop of Henle,
increasing water and electrolyte excretion

3-Inhibit active NaCl, PO3- reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle,
increasing water and electrolyte excretion

4-Acceleretes active NaCl reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle,
increasing water and electrolyte excretion

5-Inhibit active NaCl reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle,
increasing water and electrolyte excretion

134)toxic doses of scopolamine would be expected to cause all of the following

effects EXCEPT
1-urinary retention
2-hallucinations
3-bronchospasm
4-blurred vision

135) A progestin is included in regimens for HRT to prevent which of the following
adverse effects?
1-stroke
2-elevated cholesterol levels
3-endometrial cancer
4-myocardial infarction
5-breast cancer

136)which of the following agents is contraindicated in patient with epilepsy?

1-venlafaxine
2-bupropion
3-mirtazapine
4-fluoxetine

137) Aspirin is often used in low doses to prevent platelet aggregation by inhibiting
the synthesis of which substance?
1-thromboxane A2
2-phosphplipase A
3-arachidonic acid
4-leukotrine
5-prostacyclin (pGI2)
138) Clinical antipsychotic potency for "typical" antipsychotics correlates with
actions at which receptor?
1-muscarinic receptors
2-serotonin
3-a2-adrenergic receptors
4-histamine receptors
5-dopamine D2 receptors

139) A woman is placed on an antidysrhythmic drug that dissociates very slowly from
ventricular sodium channels. Which electrocardiographic finding results from this
property?

1-prolonged PR interval
2-shortened PR interval
3-prolonged QT interval
4-prolonged QRS duration
5-sinus bradycardia

140)which of the following phrases correctly describes insulin glargine?

1-proline and lysine are transposed in the B chain
2-it is slowly absorbed over 24 hours
3-asperate is substituted for proline in the B chain
4-it is injected at mealtimes
5-it is administered by inhalation

141) Which hormone receptors are blocked by drospirenone?

1-estrogen and progestin receptors
2-aldosterone and androgen receptors
3-only glucocorticoid receptors
4-only progestin receptors
5-only gonadotropin receptors

142)all of the following are the classes of antidepressant medications, except:

1-acetyl cholinesterase inhibitors
2-TCAs
3-MAPIs
4-SSRIs
5-SNRIs

143) A 62-year-old man is being managed in the intensive care unit following a large
anterior wall MI. He has been appropriately managed with oxygen, aspirin, nitrates,
and B-adrenergic receptor blockers but has developed recurrent episodes of
ventricular tachycardia. During these episodes he remains conscious but feels dizzy,
and he becomes diaphoretic and hypotensive. He is given an IV bolus of lidocaine
and started on an IV lidocaine infusion. To what class of antiarrhythmic does
lidocaine belong and What is lidocaine's mechanism of action?
1-la, Specific Na+ channel blocker, increases the rate of phase 0 depolarization,
primarily in damaged tissue

2-lb, Specific Na+ channel blocker, reduces the rate of phase 0 depolarization,
primarily in damaged tissue

3-Specific Na+ channel blocker, increases the rate of phase 0 depolarization,

primarily in damaged tissue and indicated during post MI patients

4-Ib, Specific Na+ channel blocker, reduces the rate of phase 0 depolarization,
primarily in damaged tissue and strickly contraindicated in post MI patient

144)Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding digoxin?

1-Lengthens the action potential and increases the refractoriness of the heart
2-Useful in the treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
3-Decreased mortality in patients with congestive heart failure with normal sinus
rhythm
4-Increases vagal tone and decreases AV node conduction

145)a patient takes Nate glinide before each meal. Which mechanism is responsible
for the therapeutic effect of this drug?
1-slowed gastric emptying
2-inhibition of a-glucosidase
3-closing of potassium channels
4-intertion of glucose transporters in cell membranes
5-inhibition of DPP-4

146) A man with episodic severe hypertension is found to have markedly elevated
levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolites in his urine and needs a long-
acting drug to lower blood pressure before surgery. select the most appropriate drug
therapy from the following
1-phenoxybenzamine
2-carvedilol
3-alfuzosin
4-phentolamine
5-betaxolol

147)A 16-year-old female comes to the physician's office because of menstrual

cramps. She had menarche at age 13. Her menses lasts for 4-5 days, and she has 28-
day cycles. For the first 2-3 days of her menses, she states that she has very bad
cramping. The cramps have occurred since menarche and seem to have worsened in
the past year. They have been so bad at times that she has missed school and has
not been able to participate in her after- school sports. She has been taking
acetaminophen and over-the-counter menstrual cramp pills without adequate relief.
She has no significant medical history, takes no medications regularly, and is not
sexually active. Her examination is normal. You assess the problem as primary
dysmenorrhea and prescribe diclofenac to be used on an as-needed basis. What are
the therapeutic effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)?

1-Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic

2-Anti-inflammatory, antiepilectic, and antipyretic
3-Anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antiphycothic
4-Anti-diabthetic, analgesic, and antipyretic

148) Which one of the following agents is considered the drug of choice for initial
treatment of generalized absence seizure (petit mal) in children?
1-levetiracetam
2-zonisamide
3-phenytoin
4-ethosuximide
5-carbamazepine

149) Which of the following most likely describes the cardiac arrhythmias as the
effect of the initial doses of levodopa (l-dopa)?

1-increased release of dopamine

2-interaction with vagal cholinergic receptors
3-direct B-adrenoceptor stimulation
4-direct action on cardiac dopamine receptors
5-decreased release of catecholamines

150) Which drug is recommended for treatment of most persons with latent TB?
1-pyrazinamide
2rifampin
3-isoniazid
4-ethambutol
5-Ostreptomycin

151) A man with HIV infection is taking darunavir, a protease inhibitor. Which
adverse effect is associated with this class of drugs?

1-neuropsychiatric reactions
2-elevated triglyceride and cholesterol levels
3-peripheral neuropathy
4-pancreatitis
5-anemia

152)A 72-year-old man presents to the office for routine follow-up. He is under
treatment for hypertension and congestive heart failure with enalapril and a diuretic.
His blood pressure is under acceptable control and he has no symptoms of heart
failure at present. He does complain that he has been coughing frequently in the
past few months. History and examination reveal no other cause of a chronic cough,
so you decide to discontinue his enalapril and start him on losartan. Mechanism of
action of enalapril.

1-Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, this also inhibits the
angiotensin Il-stimulated release of aldosterone Angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors also impair the inactivation of bradykinin

2-Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, this also stimulates the
angiotensin Il-stimulated release of aldosterone Angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors also impair the inactivation of bradykinin

3-Inhibits the conversion of angiotensin II to angiotensin I, this also inhibits the

angiotensin Il-stimulated release of aldosterone. Angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors also impair the inactivation of bradykinin

153) Which of the following is the most common adverse effect of methimazole?
1-thromboembolism
2-hypotension and bradycardia
3-pruritic rash
4-liver failure
5-agranulocytosis

154) Octreotide is correctly described by which of the following statements?

1-It contains more than 100 amino acids
2-It is a more potent inhibitor of growth hormone secretion than is somatostatin.
3-It is identical to naturally occurring somatostatin.
4-It is administered orally.
5-It is used to treat growth hormone deficiency.

155) Which of the following is the most accurate statement?

1-B2-Adrenoceptor agonist agents are used to prolong local anesthesia
2-a-Adrenoceptor agonists are used to treat bronchospasm
3-a-Adrenoceptor sympathomimetic agonists are used to reduce mucous membrane
congestion.
4-B-Adrenoceptor agonists are used to reduce surgical bleeding

156) A 19-year-old man is brought to the physician's office by his very concerned
mother. He has been kicked out of the dormitory at college for his "bizarre"
behavior. He has accused several fellow students and professors of spying on him for
the CIA. He stopped attending his classes and spends all of his time watching TV
because the announcers are sending him secret messages on how to save the world.
He has stopped bathing and will only change his clothes once a week. In your office
you find him to be disheveled, quiet, and unemotional. The only spontaneous
statement he makes is when he asks why his mother brought him to the office of
"another government spy." His physical examination and blood tests are normal. A
drug screen is negative. You diagnose him with acute psychosis secondary to
schizophrenia, admit him to the psychiatric unit of the hospital, and start him on
haloperidol. Describe mechanism of therapeutic action of haloperidol

1-Antagonist activity at prejunctional dopamine D2-receptors in the mesolimbic and

mesocortical areas of the brain

2-Antagonist activity at postjunctional dopamine D2 receptors in the mesolimbic and

mesocortical areas of the brain

3-Antagonist activity at postjunctional dopamine D1-receptors in the mesolimbic and

mesocortical areas of the brain

4-Antagonist activity at postjunctional dopamine D2-receptors in the mesolimbic and

mesocortical areas of the medulla

157) Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for antiparkinsonism

agents?
1-dopamine metabolism inhibition
2-cholinergic receptor blocking
3-selective dopamine reuptake inhibition
4-precursor loading
5-direct dopamine agonist

158) Acetaminophen is a potent analgesic and antipyretic NSAID but differs from
other agents in that it has no anti-inflammatory action. Which of the following
reasons explains this unique aspect of acetaminophen?
1-antiinflammatory doses of acetaminophen are too high and toxic
2-acetaminophen undergoes significant first-pass metabolism
3-acetaminophen is not an inhibitor of the COX enzyme
4-it is selective for a newly discovered isozyme of COX
5-the distribution of acetaminophen does not reach peripheral sites of inflammation

159) Which property is characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system?

1-action terminated by cholinesterase
2-inhibits the enteric nervous system
3-long preganglionic neurons
4-discrete activation of specific organs
5-activated by increased arterial blood pressure

160) Which of the following best describes the mechanism of disulfiram as the
effective treatment of alcohol (ethanol) dependence?
1-preventing the conversion of ethanol to methanol in the liver
2-blocking the action of ethanol at its cell membrane receptor
3-increasing plasma ethanol concentration
4-increasing circulating acetaldehyde concentrations
5-stabilizing the cell membrane to prevent ethanol disruption
161) A man is given a drug to reduce thyroid gland size and vascularity before
surgical thyroidectomy. Which mechanism is responsible for its use in this setting?
1-destruction of thyroid tissue
2-inhibition of TSH secretion
3-inhibition of thyroid hormone release
4-inhibition of thyroperoxidase
5-inhibition of the sodium/iodide symporter

162) Which drug produces transient muscle fasciculations followed by muscle

paralysis that is not reversed by neostigmine?
1-hyoscyamine
2-Succinylcholine
3-rocuronium
4-pancuronium
5-cisatracurium

163) Which drug increases utilization of cholesterol to synthesize bile acids?

1-gemfibrozil
2-niacin
3-ezetimibe
4-colesevelam
5-rosuvastatin

164) Which of the following molecular processes best describes the mechanism of
action of benzodiazepines?
1-potentiating the action of the inhibitory amino acid, glycine
2-binding to opioid receptors to produce sedation
3-blocking the inactivation of sodium ion channels
4-potentiating the effect of GABA at chloride ion channels
5-blocking glutamate excitation