026bec05bbb88-Mock CLAT 33 Questions

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
Part of the Most Comprehensive & Consistently Successful Study Material & Test Series Module, spanning
across both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. As a result LegalEdge was able to engineer Clean-
Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 64 Selections & 65 Selections in Top 100 (including AIR 1, 2 & 3 from Classroom
Contact Programs in 2022), & a whopping 273 selections & 327 selections in Top 500, in CLAT 2021 & CLAT 2022
respectively. With AILET being no different, a total of 34 of our students found their way into NLU, Delhi in 2021 & 35
in 2022. In a nutshell, every second admit in a Top National Law School in 2021 & 2022 came from the LegalEdge
Preparation Ecosystem.
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023

MOCK CLAT - 33
Scan this code after the test

Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________
Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________
Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________
to punch in your answers

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(Test ID: 2565475)
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are
150
4. You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. You have to scan the QR code only after completion of offline test.
12. You cannot leave the examination hall without punching your answers on the portal.
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage(Q.1-Q.5): Financial ratio analysis is especially useful for small businesses. Readily available sources
of key financial ratios provide comparative data by size, with the class size varying down to some very small
firms. We examine here some of those problems from the standpoint of a bank loan officer, one of the most
frequent users of ratio analysis.
When examining a small-business credit prospect, a banker is essentially making a prediction about the ability
of the company to repay its debt if the bank extends credit. The banker will especially be concerned about
indicators of liquidity and about continuing prospects for profitability. He will elect to do business with a new
customer if it appears that loans will be paid off on a timely basis and that the company will remain in business
and therefore be a customer of the bank for years to come. Thus, both short-run and long-run viability is of
interest to the banker.
The first problem is that, unlike the bank’s bigger customers, the small firm may not have audited financial
statements. Furthermore, the statements that are available may have been produced on an irregular basis If a
firm is young, it may have historical financial statements for only one year. He’ll probably require that periodic
financial statements be produced by a reputable accounting firm, not by the owner’s brother-in-law.
This may keep the firm from getting credit even though it is really on solid financial ground. It is in the owner’s
interest to make sure that the firm’s financial data are credible, even if it is more expensive to do so. Furthermore,
if the banker is uncomfortable with the data, the firm’s management should also be uncomfortable as many
managerial decisions depend on the number in the firm’s accounting statements; those numbers should be as
accurate as possible.
For a given set of financial ratios, a small firm may be riskier than a larger one. Often small firms produce a
single product or else rely heavily on a single customer, or both. When Sears decided to drop Yard Man as a
supplier, the company was left without its most important customer. Yard Man is no longer in business. Because
large firms typically have a broad customer base, they are not as susceptible to a loss of such a large portion of
their business.
A similar danger applies to a single-product company. Just as the loss of a key customer can be disastrous for a
small business, so can a shift in the tides of consumer interest in a particular fad.
The extension of credit to a small company, and especially a small owner-managed company involves risk
namely, dependence on the leadership of a single key individual whose unexpected death could cause the
company to fail. Similarly, if the company is family owned and managed, there is typically one key decision
maker. In the case of the family business, the loss of the top person may not wipe out the company, but it may
create the equally serious problem of who will assume the leadership role. If no good plan can be worked out,
perhaps the firm should be forced to carry “key person insurance,” payable to the bank and used to retire the loan
in the event of the key person’s death.
To determine the credit-worthiness of a small firm, the financial analyst must look beyond the basic financial
ratios and analyse the viability of the firm’s products, customers, management, and market. It is not an easy task,
but it must be done. Ratio analysis is only the starting point.
1. The author avers that for a given set of financial ratios, small firms carry more risk than large ones as______
(a) bigger firms are more efficiently managed than small firms.
(b) loss of workers would severely affect the working of small firms more than big ones.
(c) small firms produce a single product or rely heavily on a single customer.
(d) there is no scope for outperforming in competition due to lack of upgradation and improvement.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 40
2. All of the following are true in relation to the passage, except that
(a) short-run and long-run viability are of interest to the banker.
(b) bank’s perceptions about the business are important to the owner-manager.
(c) ratio analysis is frequently used by a bank officer to process.
(d) the quality of the financial data is not a problem for small businesses attempting to seek a banking
relationship.
3. The author has handled the passage in a manner which is :

(a) based on assumptions (b) illogical
(c) imaginary (d) analytical
4. A suitable tile for the passage would be :

(a) Ratio Analysis–An Index Of Credit–Worthiness
(b) An In-depth Financial Ratio Analysis Of Small Business
(c) The Importance Of Financial Data
(d) Product And Customer Management
5. The passage is least likely to have been extracted from

(a) an article highlighting finances for small business units.
(b) a chapter of a book from the standpoint of a bank loan officer.
(c) a chapter on ‘Finance’, for students of High School classes.
(d) A handbook on ‘Credit Lending’, for use by bankers.
Passage(Q.6-Q.10):Figures from the 2000 census confirmed what many Americans had observed over the
previous decade in their communities and workplaces. The face of the nation was perceptibly changing. The
Census Bureau estimated that 6 million legal and 2 million undocumented immigrants entered the country during
the 1990s, second only to the 8.8 million foreign immigrants that arrived between 1950 and 1960. More than a
third of the nation's population growth over the decade from 227 million to 248 million came from immigration.
This proportion of increase caused by foreign migrants was greater than any since the decade between 1960 and
1970, when immigration accounted for 40 per cent of population growth. Seven states, headed by California,
New York, Texas, and Florida, received 75 per cent of the newcomers.
Hispanics and Asians led the accelerated trend toward cultural diversity. The Hispanic population increased by
more than 50 per cent, from 14.6 million to 22.4 million. One out of every five immigrants living in the U.S.
was Mexican-born, and Mexican Americans overall composed more than 60 per cent of the Hispanic population
identified in the 2000 census. Demographers predicted that by the middle of the next century Hispanics would
replace African Americans as the largest minority group in the nation.
The decline of world oil prices had a devastating impact on the Mexican economy, worsening poverty and
unemployment and spurring more people to seek a better life in North America. Most Mexican Americans
struggled in low-paying jobs and fought to hold onto their distinctive cultural heritage. They worked on farms,
in garment sweatshops and high-tech assembly plants, and as gardeners and domestics. Through education and
business success, a significant number achieved middle-class status and wealth. But almost 20 per cent of
Mexican Americans lived below the poverty line.
The number of Asian Americans more than doubled, from 3.5 million to 7.3 million. Nearly two out of every
five Asian Americans lived in California. The population of Korea town in Los Angeles approached 300,000
and the area seemed a world unto itself. Like earlier immigrant groups, new Americans from Korea, Vietnam,
and the Philippines tended to cluster in their own communities and maintain a durable group identity. As a whole,
Asian Americans made mobility through education a priority, along with pooling family capital and labour to
support small businesses. Newcomers selected communities with job opportunities or where families and friends
had settled. This social network, for example, explained the large numbers of Hmongs, a tribal group from Laos,
drawn to Minneapolis and St. Paul.
The Immigration Reform Act of 1965 had eliminated quotas based on national origin. It also gave preferential
treatment to highly educated foreigners seeking professional opportunities in the U.S. The 1965 act set limits of
120,000 immigrants per year from the Western Hemisphere and 170,000 from countries outside the Western
Hemisphere. By the mid-1980s, growing concern over "illegal aliens" had become a hotly debated political issue,
particularly in the Southwest. The Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1987 addressed the concerns of
Anglos worried about "illegals" and the increasingly influential Mexican American community. It required
employers for the first time to vouch for the legal status of their employees. At the same time, it offered an
amnesty to all undocumented workers who had entered the country before 1982. The law, critics charged, led to
discrimination in hiring. And no matter what Congress did, the desperate economic realities in Mexico and
Central America continued to encourage the flow of illegal immigration.
6. Which of the following was the main cause of illegal immigration to North America?
(a) The lure and promise of opulent life.
(b) The liberal and free environment prevailing in North America.
(c) America had emerged as a prominent world market for production and innovation.
(d) The economic realities in Mexico and Central America had reached the desperate position.
7. The passage, at best, could be an extract from

(a) A chapter on Population Studies, part of the curriculum in Social Science.
(b) An analytical article on undocumented U.S. immigration.
(c) A report regarding the exodus of Mexicans and Latin Americans.
(d) The findings as regards the life led by the early settlers in the U.S.
8. Which of the following is out of place in relation to the passage?

(a) The Immigration Reform Act of 1965 was highly discriminatory towards foreigners.
(b) Asian Americans had education as the prime motive in settling in America.
(c) Hispanics are predicted to be the largest minority group in the nation by the middle of the next century
(d) It was not easy-going for Mexican Americans to thrive in North America.
9. The Mexican economic slump was caused by

(a) a change in the political setup.
(b) decline in world oil prices.
(c) overpopulation of foreigners.
(d) stubbornness of the Mexicans to not adapt to the changes.
10. In the context of the passage, which of the following will be an apt replacement for the word ‘predicted’?
(a) Envisaged (b) Speculated (c) Prophesied (d) Supported
Passage(Q.11-Q.15):The events leading to the financial crisis of 2007–8 have highlighted the importance of
belief heterogeneity and how financial markets create opportunities for agents with different beliefs to leverage
up and speculate. Several investment and commercial banks invested heavily in mortgage‐backed securities,
which subsequently suffered large declines in value. At the same time, some hedge funds profited from the
securities by short‐selling them.
One reason why economic theory has paid relatively little attention to the heterogeneity of beliefs and how it
interacts with financial markets is the market selection hypothesis. The hypothesis, originally formulated by
Friedman (1953), claims that in the long run, there should be limited differences in beliefs because agents with
incorrect beliefs will be taken advantage of and eventually driven out of the markets by those with the correct
beliefs. Therefore, agents with incorrect beliefs will have no influence on economic activity in the long run. This
hypothesis has been formalised and extended in recent work by Sandroni (2000) and Blume and Easley (2006).
However, these papers assume that financial markets are complete, an assumption that plays a central role in
allowing agents to pledge all their wealth, including financial and non‐financial wealth.
In this article, I revisit the hypothesis in a dynamic general equilibrium framework with aggregate shocks and
heterogeneous, infinitely‐lived agents, in which agents differ in their beliefs on the Markov transition matrix of
aggregate shocks, beside other dimensions such as endowment or risk‐aversion. But departing from complete
markets, I assume that markets are incomplete because of collateral constraints (equivalently portfolio
constraints or margin constraints). Collateral constraints limit the extent to which agents can pledge their future
non‐financial wealth (relatedly, non‐tradable or non‐pledgeable wealth) and ensure that agents with incorrect
beliefs never lose so much as to be driven out of the market. Consequently, all agents, regardless of their beliefs,
survive in the long run and continue to trade on the basis of their heterogeneous beliefs.
In this environment, it is natural to ask what happens to the financial wealth of the agents with incorrect beliefs.
The market selection hypothesis suggests that these agents will lose most of their financial wealth in the long
run, leaving them only their non‐financial wealth. But it turns out that the answer to the question is not simple
and depends on financial market structures. When markets are more incomplete, the market selection hypothesis
fails more. More formally, the long run distribution of financial wealth between agents depends on the degree of
markets incompleteness captured by the tightness of the collateral constraint. When the collateral constraint is
maximally tight so that agents are allowed to trade in only one real asset, it is possible that over‐optimistic agents,
who believe incorrectly in high returns from the real asset, prosper by holding an increasingly larger share of the
asset and by driving up its price: they prosper by speculation. When the collateral constraint is loosened so that
these agents can use the real asset as collateral to borrow, they end up with low financial wealth, that is their
share in the real asset net of their borrowing in the long run decreases.
11. The market selection hypothesis suggests that:

(a) agents with incorrect beliefs will lose most of their financial wealth in the long run, leaving them only their
non‐financial wealth
(b) agents with correct beliefs will lose most of their financial wealth in the long run, leaving them only their
(c) agents with incorrect belief systems will gain most of their financial wealth in the long run, including their
(d) agents with incorrect belief systems will lose most of their non-financial wealth in the long run, leaving them
only their financial wealth
12. Which of the following is/are true?
Statement 1: Belief heterogeneity is an important factor in financial markets which creates opportunities for
agents with different beliefs to leverage up and speculate.
Statement 2: Economic theory has paid greater attention to the heterogeneity of beliefs and how it interacts with
financial markets is the market selection hypothesis.
Choose the correct code:
(a) Statement 1 only (b) Statement 2 only
(c) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 (d) Both
13. The author would agree with which of the following?

(a) The markets are considered complete when there are collateral constraints.
(b) Collateral constraints work just enough for agents with incorrect belief system to remain in the market.
(c) The financial wealth of an agent is related to non-tradeable or non-pledgeable wealth.
(d) The market selection hypothesis is inversely proportional to the incompleteness of the market.
14. When the collateral constraint is maximally tight so that agents are allowed to trade in only one real asset, it is
possible that over‐optimistic agents, who believe incorrectly in high returns from the real asset, prosper by
holding an increasingly larger share of the asset and by driving up its price: they prosper by speculation.
What did the author mean by the above statement from the passage?
(a) The collateral constraints are maximally tight due to the optimism of agents.
(b) It's a correct belief system that agents will get high returns from the real asset when the collateral constraint
is maximally tight.
(c) The agents can never hold an increasingly larger share of the asset, of which the collateral constraint is
maximally tight.
(d) The prosperity of agents is dependent solely on speculation when the collateral constraint of one real asset
is tight.
15. The main agenda of the author in the passage revolves around:
(a) Revisiting the heterogeneity of beliefs and how it interacts with financial markets is the market selection
hypothesis.
(b) Assuming and describing the papers by Sandroni (2000) and Blume and Easley (2006), that financial markets
are complete, which plays a central role in allowing agents to pledge all their wealth, including financial and
non‐financial wealth.
(c) Not questioning what happens to the financial wealth of the agents with incorrect beliefs.
(d) Completely dismissing the market selection hypothesis and presenting a new hypothesis of his own.
Passage(Q.16-Q.20): While there is a concerted attempt to expand the scope of liberal arts for reasons ranging
from ultra-nationalism to global rankings, it becomes essential to think of how liberal arts methods work for the
digital age. Liberal arts can be defined as being founded in humanistic inquiry for the well-being of both
individuals and society, and given to explorations of questions of method, social justice, scholarly traditions of
interpretation and critical thinking. The digital age, marked by a preponderance of visual texts, shorter attention
spans and slogan-type writing (the tweet being a pre-eminent instance), appears to be at odds with the way liberal
arts and its cohort of disciplines – history, literature, music, philology, philosophy – have traditionally thought,
spoken, written and been taught.
Liberal Arts is interested in and reflects upon how words, discourses and registers are employed in the languages
of national identity, history, names and identities to enable some people to belong and some, to be
excommunicated. The liberal arts, when taught with rigour, ensure that the concepts and signifiers are also
contextualised deeply so that even supposedly innocuous usages are seen to pack ideological baggage that is
discriminatory and not discerning. This is, of course, a time-consuming method. In the age of the MCQs,
summaries and the precis as means of reducing the burden on teachers and students, – one notes in passing that
the pandemic exacerbated these ‘systems’ in the name of making things easy – sustained engagement with
concepts, terms and contexts which requires extended time is not possible, or even deemed necessary. Thus, we
undertake the process of reading and interpretation at a speed that does not allow for deeper reflection.
Philosophical concepts, literary forms and political ideas are made available in summary form, thereby erasing
the possibility of reflection, and also a nuanced understanding of the same.
The inherent resistance of liberal arts to sweeping generalisations that are made without evidence or worse, with
selective evidence, ensures that it is an anachronism. The liberal arts do not endorse majoritarianism as proof of
validation or truth-values; rather, adhere to great African American thinker-activist Booker T. Washington’s
formulation, “A lie doesn’t become truth, wrong doesn’t become right, and evil doesn’t become good, just
because it’s accepted by a majority”. Liberal arts will, of course, argue about how something came to be accepted
as ‘fact’ or ‘truth’, the power structures that regimented ‘truth’, among others. So much so that the liberal arts
approach would appear, in the digital age, like so much quibbling over nuances. And yet, that is the point.
The liberal arts’ foundational assumptions of equality, multiple identities and justice that undergirds its motto of
plurality and pluralism, is unsustainable in a world given to easy binarisms. In an age when the emotional appeal,
via jingoistic rhetoric, is given over to such binaries, then the liberal arts’ insistence on plurality of meaning,
identity and origins becomes untenable . In the age where emotional appeal gathers strength around notions of
fixed, unchanging and original identities, the liberal arts’ argument in favour of features and states of being like
multiculturalism and syncretism, or fluid identities and borrowings/influences, shared borders and roots, would
be nothing short of anathema. The liberal arts’ emphases, in short, lack emotional appeal because they appeal to
nuanced, layered understandings, whether of the self or of society and not static identities and invented binarisms.
16. Which of the following reflects the title of the passage?

(a) Liberal arts and its utility.
(b) Liberal Arts in the age of illiberalism
(c) The disservice towards Liberal Arts
(d) Generalization Vs Plurality
17. Which of the following can be a suitable synonym for ‘anachronism’?

(a) Antiquated (b) Unimportant
(c) Devalued (d) Novel
18. According to the author, which of the following is one of the main concerns facing the liberal arts field?
(a) Binarism being applied to society appeases the various interpretations of studies.
(b) The overt digitalisation is playing down the sentimental vehemence of the reader who is missing out finer
intricacies of liberal arts.
(c) The core values of pluralism in a world of generalisation of liberal arts are unsustainable in today’s digital
world.
(d) Despite rigorous efforts to seam in and disseminate liberal arts in today’s digital world, its methods appear
incongruent with the needs of today.
19. The word ‘cohort’ in the passage is being used as a/an -

(a) noun (b) adjective (c) verb (d) adverb
20. In the age where emotional appeal gathers strength around notions of fixed, unchanging and original identities,
the liberal arts’ arguments in favour of multiculturalism are seen
(a) as a blessing (b) as a curse (c) with objectivity (d) with wonder.
Passage(Q.21-Q.25): From Madrid to heaven, and in heaven a spy-hole to look at Madrid” is the vaunt of the
inhabitants of the Spanish capital. This pride has its justification, for Madrid is a fine city, remarkable for its
position on a plateau over two thousand feet above the sea, famous for its progress during the eventful eighteenth
and nineteenth centuries, and interesting by reason of the great names in the arts and literature inscribed upon its
records. Madrid for the writers of the Romantic school was as charming as all other things Spanish; for de Musset
it was “princesse des Espagnes” and “blanche ville des sérénades.”
Few towns in Europe are situated amid so many natural hindrances to development as Madrid. It stands south
and east of the bleak mountains of central Spain, upon one of many exposed and almost treeless uplands, where
the winds of winter and early spring sting and bite, and the sun in summer sheds pitiless heat, which dries up the
blood and disposes of languor. So (_________) is the climate of this lofty region that, even in the height of
August, it is never quite safe to discard the capa after sundown, for, during the hottest day, a sinister and gelid
breath may assail one at the street corner with a menace of chill to the lungs. Yet Madrid is not unhealthy. It is
dry, invigorating, swept by mountain breezes, bathed for long periods in brightest sunlight, and free from the
contamination and depression of smoke. With proper provision against the variations in temperature, one may
enjoy a full measure of health and live to an advanced age in this city of the hills. The more dangerous kinds of
fever are uncommon in Madrid; the chief risk to health is in the sudden keen air that brings a shiver when the
body has been scorched by the sun, and one turns to seek the shady side of the street.
Rio and Cabarras, two Spanish historians, speak of the bad odours and the dirt of Madrid in the seventeenth
century. This reproach was, however, removed in the time of Henry Swinburne, an intelligent traveller, who
visited the city in 1776. “The appearance of Madrid,” writes Swinburne, “is grand and lively; noble streets, good
houses, and excellent pavement, as clean as it was once dirty.” In earlier days it was not thought necessary to
wash the thoroughfares, because the purity of the air was an effective antidote to the evil of the filth and the
smells. Rio, for example, advances the opinion that the invigorating mountain breezes are a sufficient
purification.
The clear quality of the Madrid sunshine is compensation for the treachery of its winds. There are but few sunless
days. “The sky at Madrid is almost always clear and serene,” wrote Laborde, in 1809. The heights of the
Guadarrama are too far from the city to throw their shade upon it, and the brilliant sunlight pours down and
floods the streets and squares, and penetrates every dwelling. Looking upon the wide, rolling, hillocky country
from the outskirts of the city, you have a marvellous vista, full of colour, glow, and the grandeur of huge sunlight
spaces. The sky is almost perennially deep blue; but at times, there are vast masses of purple clouds above the
horizon, whose passing shadow produces changing effects of light and darkness upon the far-stretching
landscape and adds a sternness to the sierra.
21. "The clear quality of the Madrid sunshine is compensation for the treachery of its winds."
Which of the following tones has been used by the author in this line?
(a) Formal (b) Tense (c) Assertive (d) Entertaining
22. We can infer from the passage that

(a) The saying goes that Madrid is closest to heaven, like a peephole for observing heaven.
(b) The mountain stretch of Guadarrama is so near that it would cast a shadow on the city.
(c) The sky in Madrid is always deep purple.
(d) There used to be bad odours and dirt in Madrid in the nineteenth century.
23. ‘So (_________) is the climate of this lofty region that, even in the height of August, it is never quite safe to
discard the capa after sundown, for, during the hottest day, a sinister and gelid breath may assail one at the street
corner with a menace of chill to the lungs.’ Which of the following words will suitably fill the blank to make
the sentence coherency?
(a) steady (b) Mysterious (c) fickle (d) reliable
24. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

Statement 1: No Spanish historian said anything negative about Madrid.
Statement 2: Madrid's climate is unhealthy.
Choose the correct code.
(a) Statement 1 only (b) Statement 2 only
(c) Neither statement 1 nor 2 (d) Both statements 1 and 2
25. In earlier days it was not thought necessary to wash the thoroughfares, because the purity of the air was an
effective antidote to the evil of the filth and the smells.
What did the author mean by that?
(a) The air quality in Madrid was so filthy that it was hard to breathe.
(b) In olden times, the air quality in Madrid was so pure and fresh that it served to neutralize the stench and the
litter.
(c) People in Madrid used to lead a very clean and sanitary lifestyle in the olden times.
(d) The climate of Madrid used to make the city dirtier.
Passage(Q.26-Q.30): The Figure of Socrates standing amidst the ruin of shattered institution and opinions,
inwardly lamenting the ruin and yet setting a value on the spirit aright, makes a pathetic picture. It is impossible
to grasp the true significance of the teachings of Socrates unless we perfectly understand how he
characteristically mingled in himself two opposing currents of thought. His teaching was given to the world close
on the heels of the sophistic doctrines. They share the free spirit of inquiry, which formed the essential feature
of ‘Sophisticism’ and yet the views embodied in them are in complete opposition to the agnosticism and
scepticism of the Sophists.
There are two ways in which the perplexities occasioned by the argumentations of the Sophists could be
encountered and rebutted. The one way to abjure the very spirit of free inquiry, which has pulled down everything
objective, and to fall back in blind faith in authority. This was the course adopted by the conservative party
represented by Aristophanes. They set their faces against the freedom of thought, which the Sophists has
inaugurated. The other way was to point out that, strange as it might appear, the Sophistic inquiry was not as
free as it proposed to be, and to ask that free thought be carried still further. This was exactly what Socrates did.
He cordially agreed with Sophists as to the propriety and the necessity of subjecting the institutions of society,
and everything in which man was interested in the ordeal of a rigorous examination.
No Sophist was ever more keenly bent upon a free and searching inquiry than he. But he demanded further that
the inquiry should be thoroughgoing and complete, more so since it had been under the direction of the Sophists.
He protested that their inquiry has been partial, inadequate and superficial; he proposed to carry out a more
radical and comprehensive inquiry.
This peculiar relationship in whom Socrates stands with the Sophists may be expressed in another way. Pointing
to the fact that there was a hopeless divergence between the findings of the philosophers who had attempted to
ascertain the principles of the universe and Sophists who despaired from all objective knowledge. They thought
that it was vain to hope for a knowledge of the truth, for neither truth nor any absolute moral law existed. Socrates
went with the Sophists, who despaired from all objective knowledge.
26. What is the purpose of the author in the passage?
(a) To bring out the contrast between the Sophists and Socrates.
(b) To understand the foundation for Socrates ‘philosophy and the inspiration that he drew from Sophism.
(c) To explore and understand the divergent thought patterns that Socrates’ retained.
(d) To trace the Socratic method and the influence that the Sophists bequeathed on this method.
27. What is not a synonym of the word ‘abjure’ used in the passage?
(a) Deny (b) Repudiate (c) Reject (d) Rampage
28. Which of the following is the most crucial paradox in the passage?
(a) Adjuring the unbiased free spirit of enquiry from Sophism's free spirit of enquiry.
(b) Socrates’ acceptance of Sophistic beliefs Vs Socrates’ criticism of Sophistic beliefs.
(c) The hope for the knowledge of truth vs the non-existence of truth or an absolute moral law.
(d) None of the above.
29. What is not the correct statement about the inquiry, as mentioned in the passage?
(a) Inquiry shall be unbiased.
(b) Inquiry shall be comprehensive.
(c) Inquiry shall be rationale.
(d) Inquiry shall be inadequate.
30. What is the author’s attitude towards Socrates?

(a) Criticising (b) Acquiescing (c) Tormenting (d) Discerning
SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Direction (Q.31 – Q.35): Indian and Chinese troops have completed the disengagement process at Patrolling
Point-15 in the Gogra-Hot Springs region of eastern Ladakh, sources in the military establishment said on
Tuesday. The process was completed by Tuesday afternoon, sources said. Earlier in the day, sources had said
that the process was still ongoing. Last week, the government had said that the disengagement process in this
area started at 8.30am Thursday (September 8) and will be completed by Monday (September 12). But the
process was completed a day later than expected, today on September 13. Top government sources had told The
Indian Express that strict instructions had been given to local Army commanders and officers to “verify” each
movement. It is learnt that instructions had also been issued to commanders to complete the entire process in a
calm manner, and not escalate tension in the area.
31. How many components are there in the disengagement process?

(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
32. PP 15 is in Ladakh.
(a) eastern (b) western (c) northern (d) southern
33. The Despang, which still remains an unresolved site is a sq. km plateau.
(a) 568 (b) 764 (c) 824 (d) 972
34. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) The recent SCO summit was held in Uzbekistan.
(b) Modi and Xi did not meet in person on a bilateral basis at the SCO summit.
(c) Xi has reserved whether China will support India for the SCO presidentship.
(d) At the SCO, India refrained from backing OBOR.
35. Recently India had 2+2 ministerial dialogue with _____________

(a)Australia (b)USA (c)Japan (d)Israel
Direction (Q.36 – Q.40): More than 216 crore 17 lakh vaccine doses have been administered in the country so
far under Nationwide Vaccination Drive. The Health Ministry said, over 19 lakh 61 thousand doses were
administered in the last 24 hours. During the same period, over six thousand new Covid cases were reported in
the country. The country’s active caseload currently stands at over 46 thousand. The recovery rate is currently
at 98.71 per cent. Around six thousand people have recovered in the last 24 hours. More than 89 crore Covid
tests have been conducted in the country so far. In the last 24 hours, around three lakh 33 thousand tests were
conducted.
36. Which of the following Indian pharmaceutical company has announced the launch of the world’s first intranasal
Covid-19 vaccine?
(a)BiologicalE (b)Bharat Biotech (c)Cipla (d)Sun Pharma
37. Which country has introduced variant-tailored second-generation vaccines?

(a) USA (b) Israel (c) UK (d) China
38. Remdesivir was originally developed for is very effective against COVID.
(a) Hepatitis B (b) Hepatitis C (c) Tuberculosis (d) Chickenpox
39. New guidance from the World Health Organisation (WHO) strongly advises against using -
(a) sotrovimab (b) casirivimab-imdevimab
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
40. Who out of the following is the Union Health & Family Welfare Minister of State?
(a) Dr. Bharati Pravin Pawar (b) Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya
(c) Harsh Vardhan (d) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Direction (Q.41 – Q.45): On August 31, the Office of the UN High Commissioner for Human Rights published
its long-awaited assessment of the human rights situation in the Xinjiang Uyghur Autonomous Region (Uyghur
Region). This report comes after years of work by the Office and, despite criticism for its delay, has been
welcomed by Uyghur groups and survivors worldwide as an essential first step toward accountability. It is now
your responsibility, as members and observers of the Human Rights Council, the UN’s top human rights body,
to respond to the OHCHR’s findings with tangible action. The evidence laid out in this report details the way in
which Chinese government policies cast individuals and communities as “extremist” - and therefore in need of
“re-education”. The report notes that “broad interpretations of ‘extremism’, often explicitly targeting standard
tenets of Islamic religion in practice” lead to an environment in which “religious or cultural practice or expression
is conflated with ‘extremism’”. As a result, Chinese laws and policies are being used to target Uyghurs and other
Turkic Muslims for
“manifestations… of nothing more or less than personal choice in the practice of Islamic religious beliefs and/or
legitimate expression of opinion”.
41. The Uyghur Region is present at the region of .

(a) northwestern, Xinjiang (b) northeastern, Xinjiang
(c) northwestern, Qinghai (d) northeastern, Qinghai
42. Xinjiang is known for producing a fifth of the world’s __________.

(a) rice (b) cotton (c) jute (d) wheat
43. In which year was the Uyghur region brought under complete control of China’s Communist government?
(a) 1948 (b) 1949 (c) 1950 (d) 1951
44. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(a) The region is highly rich in oil and natural gas.
(b) The region provides China with direct entry into Afghanistan and then to Central Asia, making it strategically
very important.
(c) The Uyghurs are actually ethnic Turkic groups.
(d) None of the above
45. Who out of the following was the High Commissioner of OHCHR when the report was published?
(a) Voltere Türk (b) Micheal Bechelet
(c) Volkar Türk (d) Michelle Bachelet
Direction (Q.46 – Q.50): was designated as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer by
the UN General Assembly in December 1994. And since then, it has been observed with a focus on creating
awareness of the depleting condition of the Ozone layer. The world celebrated the first International Day for the
Preservation of the Ozone Layer on [1], 1995. The day aims to create awareness about the importance and need
of the Ozone layer which is the single protection on Earth against UV rays coming out from the sun. The UN
Environment Programme also aims to bring awareness about the importance of getting rid of the substances that
damage the ozone layer. It also calls for taking time-targeted actions to protect Earth’s protective shield.
46. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) September 2 (b) September 8 (c) September 16 (d) September 20
47. Which of the following has been chosen as this year’s theme for the day?
(a) Global Cooperation to Protect Life on Earth
(b) Montreal Protocol – keeping us, our food and vaccines cool
(c) Montreal Protocol - 35 Years and Helping
(d) Keep Cool and Carry On
48. Which Article of the Montreal Protocol mentions the special situation of the developing countries?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 8
49. It has been predicted that the Ozone Hole over Antarctica could eventually close sometime around -
(a) 2040 (b) 2050 (c) 2060 (d) 2070
50. How many nations had signed the Montreal Protocol in 1987?
(a) 28 (b) 46 (c) 74 (d) 98
Direction (Q.51 – Q.55): The first confirmed death from monkeypox disease in the [1] has been reported. The
[1] Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) also confirmed that the victim's death was caused by
monkeypox infection and said that the patient had been admitted to the hospital and had a highly compromised
immune system. The authorities have stated that no other information on the fatality will be made public.This is
the first confirmed fatality due to monkeypox in the [1]. A person in who had the disease, died last month, but
the virus' role in that has not been confirmed. National statistics show that this year in the [1], there have been
about 22,000 cases of monkeypox recorded as probable or confirmed. Monkeypox deaths are extremely rare and
frequently affect infants, expectant mothers, and people with compromised immune systems, such as those with
HIV.
Early in May, there were only a few cases of monkeypox; as of right now, there is a worldwide public health
disaster.
Close skin-to-skin contact and protracted exposure to respiratory droplets are the two main ways that monkeypox
spreads. It may result in a rash, fever, chills, and body aches. Only a small number of patients need to be
hospitalized, and the illness has only been directly responsible for a small number of fatalities globally.
51. Which of the following will replace [1]?

(a) United Kingdom (b) Australia (c) United States (d) Africa
52. According to a report published in the e-Clinical Medicine Journal, 2 to 3 percent of people suffering from
monkeypox developed serious problems related to .
(a) Respiratory Diseases (b) neurology
(c) Hepatitis (d) Haemophilus infection
53. Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding Zoonotic Diseases?
(a) A zoonosis is any disease or infection that is naturally transmissible from vertebrate animals to humans.
(b) There are over 100 known types of zoonoses.
(c) Zoonoses comprise a large percentage of new and existing diseases in humans
(d) Some zoonoses, such as rabies, are 100% preventable through vaccination and other methods
54. Ebola virus disease (EVD), one of the deadliest viral diseases, was discovered in which of the following years?
(a) 1976 (b) 1989 (c) 2009 (d) 2015
55. Which of the following is NOT a type of Zoonotic Diseases?

(a) HIV (b) Plague (c) Rabies (d) Diabetes
Direction (Q.56 – Q.60): Nepal on Sunday asked India to stop “unilateral construction and expansion” of roads
in its East of River territory but stopped short of lodging a formal diplomatic protest. This comes days after
Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s announcement to expand the road across the Lipulekh area, which Nepal claims
as its own. Addressing an election rally organised by the BJP at Haldwani in Uttarakhand on December 30, Modi
had announced that his government is further widening the road built in Lipulekh in Uttarakhand.
56. India had built and is expanding a road via disputed Lipulekh to Manas Khand which is a gateway to a
Hindu pilgrimage site in Tibet.
(a) Kedarnath (b) Badrinath (c) Mansarovar (d) Amarnath
57. What is the reason behind kalapani border dispute between India & Nepal?
(a) The main reason behind the dispute is due to varying interpretation of the origin of the river and its different
territories carved out through the mountains.
(b) The main reason behind the dispute is occupying the Kali river into each others territory for their own
economical benefits.
(c) The main reason behind the dispute is for gaining strategic military positions across the ridgeline.
(d) The main reason behind the dispute is for generating hydroelectricity through the help of Kali river.
58. Who controls the border disputed area of Kalapani?

(a) India (b) Nepal (c) China (d) Pakistan
59. The kalapani region derives its name from which river?
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Ganga (c) Mechi (d) Kali
60. In which year India included the disputed area of Kalapani in its official map?
(a) 2010 (b) 2013 (c) 2019 (d) 2016
Direction (Q.61 – Q.65): The Myanmar–Bangladesh border is again the scene of trouble. The Bangladesh Army
is on high alert after several cross-border incursions by the Myanmar military and is considering responses. Both
sides are positioning themselves over Bangladesh’s plans to start repatriating Rohingya refugees who are
unwelcome in their homeland. As this latest confrontation plays out, it shows the need for a regional solution to
the Rohingya issue. In the last several weeks there has been a series of escalating border violations by the
Myanmar military, the Tatmadaw, into Bangladesh territory. This has included overflights by helicopters and
jets, as well as shelling of areas near Bangladesh villages.
61. Choose the countries where mainly Rohingyas fled, from the following options –
I) India
II) Thailand
III) Sri lanka
IV) Indonesia
(a) Option I only (b) Option II & III
(c) Option I,II & IV (d) Option I,II & III
62. The Rohingya people are a Muslim minority group residing in the western Myanmar state of_______________.
(a) Chin (b) Rakhine (c) Kachin (d) Kayah
63. In which place in Bangladesh does the highest number of Rohingyas live?
(a) Cumilla (b) Khulna (c) Cox’s Bazar (d) Rangpur
64. Which act allows the Indian government to deport foreign citizens?
(a) The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920
(b) The Registration of Foreigners Act, 1939
(c) The Immigration (Carriers’ liability) Act, 2000
(d) The Foreigners Act, 1946
65. In which year did the influx of Rohingyas start in Bangladesh?

(a) 2015 (b) 2017 (c) 2020 (d) 2013
SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:
Passage (Q.66 -Q.71): Section 361 of IPC states that ‘whoever takes or entices any minor under sixteen years
of age if a male, or under eighteen years of age if a female, or any person of unsound mind, out of the keeping
of the lawful guardian of such minor or person of unsound mind, without the consent of such guardian, is said
to kidnap such minor or person from lawful guardianship’. The unsoundness of mind must be permanent and not
temporary insanity produced due to intoxication. A child may not always be in the direct physical custody of the
guardian but as long as the whereabouts of the child are known and there is control upon the movement of the
child, he is said to be within the keeping of the guardian. When a child is taken to such an area outside the circle
where the guardian no longer knows the whereabouts of the child and has no control upon his movements, the
child is said to be kidnapped. The guardianship not only includes parents but also persons to whom the custody
of the child has been lawfully entrusted by the parents e.g., teachers, relatives, servant etc. The consent of the
child is completely immaterial and it is the consent of the guardian alone which is taken into consideration
because the child is considered incapable of giving valid consent. The consent given under this section should
be free i.e., it must not have been obtained by fraud or misrepresentation. If the guardian gives consent after the
commission of the offence, the accused shall still be liable for the offence. It must also be noted that kidnapping
is an offence of strict liability i.e., the intention of the accused is immaterial. Thus, even if the accused took
minor out of the keeping of the guardian for a good cause, he shall still be liable for the offence of kidnapping.
66. K went to the restaurant with her parents to celebrate their twentieth wedding anniversary. V, her friend, had
also come to the same location with her family. K tried in vain to persuade her parents that she wanted to spend
the night at V's house because they were moving to another city in a month and it would be the last time, she
would see her. As both the girls really wanted to spend some time together, V's parents took K with them. K's
father got angry and accused V's parents of kidnapping. Determine the liability.
(a) V's parents are accountable since, they took K without her parent's consent.
(b) V’s parents are not accountable since, K’s parents knew the whereabouts of K and had no control upon her
movements.
(c) V's parents are accountable since, they took K out of her parent's lawful guardianship.
(d) V’s parents cannot be held accountable since the requisites of Section 361 are not fulfilled.
67. Which of the following is incorrect in light of the above passage?

(a) Even though a child may not always be in the guardian's direct physical custody, he is nevertheless
considered to be under the guardian's care as long as his locations are known and his movement is restricted.
(b) It must be a persistent mental illness rather than a brief period of insanity brought on by alcohol.
(c) Because a child is deemed capable of providing legally binding assent, the consent of the child is entirely
relevant and also the guardian's consent is taken into account.
(d) A child is said to have been abducted when they are taken to a place outside the circle where their guardian
no longer has control over their whereabouts and movement.
68. D (seventeen) was on her way home from school. On the way, she met her aunt M, who convinced her that her
mother had sent M to pick her up. D, being a mature girl, first called her mother to confirm, but her mother did
not pick up her call. Since M was her aunt, D began walking with her without hesitation. When D's mother learnt
about the entire incident, she found out that neither M nor D was to be found anywhere. Someone called D's
mother for a ransom two days later. M was accused of kidnapping by D's mother. Determine.
(a) M cannot be held guilty of kidnapping since the guardianship of the child also includes relatives.
(b) M can be held guilty of kidnapping since the requisites of Section 361 of the Indian Penal Code are satisfied.
(c) M cannot be held guilty of kidnapping since D was not under the direct physical custody of her mother since
she was returning home from school.
(d) M can be held guilty of kidnapping since she took away D out of the lawful guardianship of her mother with
her mother’s consent.
69. At eight o’clock in the evening, as a routine, G (seventeen) was playing hide and seek with his friends in their
gated colony. They were hiding in various places, including the terrace, the playground, and the pool area.
Around 9 PM, he was taken away from the pool area by a fruit vendor who had just arrived at the colony. G
attempted to cry for help, but no one could hear him because loudspeakers were playing everywhere. For two
days, he was nowhere to be located. After extensive searching, his parents eventually filed a complaint. Decide.
(a) The fruit vendor is liable as he took away G from the lawful guardianship of his parents.
(b) The fruit vendor is liable as the requisites of Section 361 are being satisfied.
(c) The fruit vendor is not liable as the requisites of Section 361 are not being satisfied.
(d) The fruit vendor is not liable as when he took away G, he was not in the physical custody of his parents.
70. Which among the following can be considered as kidnapping?

(a) F (seventeen) was being thrashed by her father for getting low marks, so her grandmother took her away
with her, out of her house.
(b) N (seventeen) left his house in a rage and went to his friend’s house.
(c) Due to his lack of faith in his mother, L’s (a seventeen-year-old) father forcibly took him away.
(d) W (seventeen) was taken to the principal’s office by her teacher as she was caught cheating.
71. B, the mother of Y went to the market to buy some vegetables and asked her to complete her homework before
she returned home. Meanwhile, G, a postman came to their house to deliver a letter. The mailman took Y with
him when he realized no one was inside the house. B reported her child missing after learning about it. There
were missing signs posted all throughout her neighborhood. Three days later, B received a call from a total
stranger reporting seeing Y being hauled away in a white van. Establish the postman’s responsibility.
(a) The accusations against G are not true as he did not have the required mens rea to be held liable for
kidnapping.
(b) The accusations against G are valid as he had the criminal intention required to be held liable for kidnapping.
(c) The accusations against G are valid as he satisfies the necessary conditions to be held liable under Section
361 of the Indian Penal Code.
(d) The accusations against G are not valid as he took Y along with him without any duress or coercion.
Passage (Q.72-Q.76): The offence of domestic violence is committed by someone in the victim’s domestic
circle. The term domestic violence is often used when there is a close cohabitating relationship between the
offender and the victim. In India domestic violence is governed by the Protection of Women from Domestic
Violence Act, 2005 and it is defined under Section 3, which states that any act, commission, omission or conduct
of an individual which harms, injures or endangers the health or safety of any woman whether mentally or
physically, amounts to domestic violence. Any harm, harassment or injury caused to any woman or any person
related to her to meet any unlawful demand would also amount to domestic violence. When a magistrate receives
a complaint of domestic violence, he is required to inform the victim about her rights to make an application for
receiving relief by way of protection order, order for monetary relief, custody order, residence order,
compensation order, etc. Under Section 21 of the Act, when the Magistrate receives an application concerning
domestic violence, he has the authority to direct the custody of any child or children to the victim or the person
making the application on behalf of the victim. Section 22 of the Act also stipulates that the accused will be
liable to pay compensation to the victim for causing any damage or injury including mental torture and emotional
distress as directed by the Magistrate. If the Magistrate is satisfied that domestic violence has taken place, then
he may pass a protection order in favor of the aggrieved person to prevent the respondent from committing any
acts of domestic violence or abetting any acts of domestic violence. The Magistrate may also prevent the
respondent from contacting the aggrieved person, entering the place of employment of the aggrieved person or
causing violence to the dependents or relatives of the aggrieved person.
72. P lived with her father G. They were six siblings, and as their father earned minimal income, he was unable to
provide for them all. P’s father wanted to marry her off as soon as possible because she was 21 years old but she
wanted to complete her education. Her father attempted to persuade her for two years without success. P’s father
eventually began hitting her on the hand, rendering her unable to study. Fom the given statements choose which
of the following statement is incorrect, in case P goes for a legal action against G?
(a) She has the right to claim compensation from her father G for causing her injury, including emotional torment
and mental anguish.
(b) She has the right to demand that her father remain away from her and not contact her again.
(c) She has the right to seek custody of her mother and to refuse her to live with G.
(d) She has the right to request that her father refrain from further domestic abuse against her.
73. K’s husband was M. He didn’t make a lot of money, so he couldn’t meet all of her expectations. K was the only
child of her parents, and as such, she was lavishly catered to at all times. During the first few months of marriage,
K tried to manage, but eventually, she became angry and frustrated and began abusing M in front of their
neighbors and relatives. M felt ashamed and embarrassed, so he filed a domestic abuse complaint against K.
Determine K’s legal responsibility.
(a) According to the passage, domestic violence is defined as any behavior that endangers another person’s
health or safety or causes harm to it and since K mistreated M, she will be held accountable.
(b) Since M was not injured, which is a requirement to be liable for domestic violence, K will not be held
responsible.
(c) Because the conditions of the domestic violence act 2005 are not satisfied, K will not be made accountable.
(d) As per the passage, the accused is required to compensate the victim for any harm or injury they cause,
including mental torment and emotional distress, therefore K is obligated to pay compensation to M.
74. In which of the following instances do the aforementioned solutions given in the passage cease to work?
(a) Z did not permit R to consume anything for two weeks, resulting in taking her to the hospital.
(b) H was abandoned by her spouse at midnight in the middle of the jungle.
(c) Z, enraged, laced poison into J’s drink in order to wreak prior vengeance on her.
(d) M planned to cordially end the relationship with F since he was unable to coexist with her in the same
household.
75. M was P’s son-in-law. P’s daughter Q was a very reserved person who rarely complained. Q was only close to
her mother and used to contact her every other day to talk about everything that had happened, but because P
hadn’t heard from her in over a month, she decided to go see her. P was stunned to discover that M had lost his
employment six months prior and had frequently tortured Q out of rage. P filed a lawsuit against M and requested
compensation from M’s parents since M had no means of earning money at the moment. Decide.
(a) M’s parents will be obligated to compensate Q because the passage clearly states that the respondent will be
obligated to indemnify the victim for any harm or injury caused.
(b) M’s parents are not entitled to compensate Q because the passage clearly states that the respondent is
supposed to compensate the victim for any harm or injury caused.
(c) M’s parents are not bound to compensate Q since she did not register a case against M and instead it was
lodged by her father P. This runs contrary to the passage.
(d) M’s parents are supposed to pay compensation to Q as all of the requirements of Section 22 of the Act have
been met.
76. T always planned to marry her son to her friend’s daughter, since the two families were so close. However, her
son had an infatuation towards K, a classmate, and was adamant about only marrying her; T in order to prevent
them from getting married demanded K to make a dowery payment of fifty lakh rupees. K could only come up
with 10 lakh rupees because she didn’t come from an affluent family but did not inform the same to T till the
time of marriage. When T learned of this the day after the wedding, she began abusing and harassing K’s family.
Is K entitled to any legal action?
(a) K has no grounds for complaint because she did not experience domestic abuse, which is a crucial
requirement of the act.
(b) Since K was requested for dowry, which is an illegal demand according to the Indian Penal Code, she does
have a legal remedy.
(c) K has a legal recourse because the passage states that domestic violence includes any injury done to a woman
or anyone associated with her in order to satisfy an unlawful demand.
(d) Due to the lack of compliance with Section 3’s requirements, K is rendered without any legal remedy.
Passage (Q.77-Q.80): “Industrial dispute” means “any dispute or difference between employers and employers,
or between employers and workmen, or between workmen and workmen, which is connected with the
employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour, of any person;”
“Workman” means any person employed (including an apprentice) in any industry to do any skilled or unskilled
manual or clerical or managerial work on permanent or temporary basis.
Now the question is whether a dispute in relation to a person who is not a workman within the meaning of the
Act still falls within the scope of the definition clause in s. 2(k). If we analyse the definition clause, it falls easily
and naturally into three parts : first, there must be a dispute or a difference; second, the dispute or difference
must be between employers and employers, or between employers and workmen or between workmen or
between workmen and workmen; third, the dispute or difference must be connected with the employment or
non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour, of any person.
The first part obviously refers to the factum of a real or substantial dispute; the second part to the parties to the
dispute; and the third, to the subject matter of that dispute. That subject matter may relate to any of two matters
– (i) employment or non-employment, and (ii) terms of employment or conditions of labour, of any person.
77. A factory had employed two groups of people. Group A was responsible for assembling bottles by placing caps
manually on bottles produced by a machine. Group B was responsible for supervising the work of Group A by
taking note of their entry and exit, making sure everyone is doing their work etc. One day, a fight erupted between
Group A and Group B due to the excessive authority exercised by Group B over Group A. Is this an industrial
dispute?
(a) No, because Group B does not fall under the definition of workmen so their disputes do not fall under Section
2(k)
(b) No, because Group A and Group B both do not fall under the definition of workmen so their disputes do not
fall under Section 2(k)
(c) Yes, because both Group A and Group B are workmen in their own right so their disputes fall under Section
2(k)
(d) Yes, because Group A are workmen and Group B are employers so their disputes fall under Section 2(k)
78. In the previous fact situation, the fight between Group A and Group B was resolved. However, Group B was still
not satisfied with their long working hours. While Group A got to go home at sunset, Group B was forced to
continue working till the day’s target was met. This often meant working for the entire day as well as night. This
left them tired and fatigued and they felt that the same was not sustainable in the long run. Group B took this
issue to the owner (employer) of the factory. Decide whether this can be considered as an industrial dispute.
(a) Yes, because it is a dispute between an employer and workmen
(b) Yes, because there is a difference between Group B and Group A working condition which is connected to
the conditions of employment
(c) No, because Group B does not fall under the definition of workmen so their problems are not to be resolved
by the factory owner
(d) No, because non-satisfaction with long working hours is not related to the conditions of labour per se
79. Bob the plumber was called to an office to fix the leaking taps and drainage pipes in the washrooms of the office
building. Bob was not a regular workman but was called from time to time whenever there were any plumbing
issues to be fixed within the premises of the office. If Bob gets into a dispute with one of the workmen in the
office, would such a dispute fall under the definition of an industrial dispute?
(a) Yes, because Bob and the other person are both workmen so their differences constitute an industrial dispute
(b) Yes, because Bob is a workman and the regular office employee is an employee so their differences constitute
an industrial dispute
(c) No, because it would be a dispute between an employer i.e., regular office employee and workman i.e.,
workman so their differences constitute an industrial dispute
(d) No, because Bob is not a workman and only the regular office employee is a workman so this is not an
industrial dispute
80. X was working in a tea estate in Assam as a shopkeeper selling snacks to the workers of the tea estate. He was
operating on a lease by the owner of the tea estate. One day, suddenly out of nowhere, the owner of the tea estate
decided to terminate his lease. As a result, X was forced to shut his shop down. The workers of the tea estate
want to espouse the termination of the lease as an industrial dispute as a representation on behalf of the tea
workers’ trade union. Can the workers do so?
(a) Yes, because the termination of the lease is related to the employment/non-employment and terms of
employment of X
(b) Yes, because the termination of the lease is related to the conditions of labour of X
(c) No, because the termination of the lease is related to the employment/non-employment, terms of employment
and conditions of labour of X
(d) No, because the termination of the lease is not related to the employment/non-employment, terms of
employment and conditions of labour of X
Passage (Q.81-Q.85): Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (IPC) made the offence of adultery as a
punishable offence, only for man without holding woman responsible, now even if when it has been repealed
adultery remains a ground for divorce under various family law Acts. In adultery there must be voluntary or
consensual sexual intercourse between a married person and another, whether married or unmarried, of the
opposite sex, not being the other’s spouse, during the subsistence of marriage. Under Christian law before the
2001 amendment in the Divorce Act, 1869, for a woman to seek a decree of divorce, on grounds of adultery, was
insufficient, until she also included cruelty as a ground for divorce. However, in 2001 this was amended and
both men and women were given the right to seek divorce on ground of adultery alone. Further, it also did away
with the provision of compensation for adultery finally acting on the recommendations of the Law Commission
of India 15th report, Law relating to Marriage and Divorce amongst Christians in India, 1960. Under Muslim
law adultery is not recognized as a ground for divorce unless it is committed with women of evil repute or leads
an infamous life, which is included under cruelty. The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, also requires
amendment to explicitly include adultery as a ground for divorce for both spouses. Under Section 32(d) of the
Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936 a person can file an application of divorce if the defendant, after marriage
has committed the offence of adultery, fornication, bigamy, rape or an unnatural offence. However, this ground
of divorce is available only when the other spouse files the application within two years of discovery of the fact.
81. M and K got to know one another through their common friends. They began spending a lot of time together,
which led to their falling in love. Eventually, they started dating. K was eager to marry him as soon as possible.
They scheduled their marriage ceremony for the subsequent month. On the day of the wedding, she overheard
M telling a friend that he was only marrying K for her wealth and that he was actually in a sexual relationship
with P. K was devastated to discover this; therefore she made the decision to charge him of adultery. Determine.
(a) Since M had an extramarital affair with a different individual outside his wedlock, he will be considered
guilty for adultery.
(b) According to the rationale provided in section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, M shall not be held accountable
for adultery because the requisite criteria are not met.
(c) P will be held legally accountable for adultery considering that she had intimate relations with a married
man.
(d) M will be held accountable for adultery because he did not aim to marry K for a legitimate reason. He
attempted to take advantage of her affluence while already being in an extramarital relationship.
82. Considering the information in the passage, select the answer that is the most inaccurate.
(a) Earlier, Until a Christian woman added cruelty as a ground for divorce, a woman's claim for a divorce on the
basis of adultery was insufficient.
(b) Only when the other spouse initiates the application within two years of learning of the information does the
basis for divorce become accessible.
(c) When a married individual participates in sexual activity with another heterosexual person, whether they are
already married or not and are not each other's spouse, is considered adultery.
(d) Under Christian Law, adultery is not acknowledged as a ground for divorce except when it is conducted with
a woman of bad reputation or one who leads an infamous life, which is covered by cruelty.
83. In 2000, O and G were married in accordance with the Christian Law. They were delightfully wedded to each
other and had twin children the next year of their marriage. G learned that O was already having an extramarital
relationship later, in 2003. He felt betrayed and intended to distance himself from O, as well as take the children
with him. He was required to provide evidence of cruelty when he went to the court to get a divorce. Does he
have to carry out the directive?
(a) Due to the fact that adultery is only permissible under Christian law for women, G cannot use it as a basis
for divorce.
(b) G cannot initiate the divorce proceedings, because only marriages that took place after 2001 are immune
from having to prove cruelty along with adultery.
(c) Given that G has met the requirements outlined in the Christian law to assert adultery as a basis for divorce,
G may very well file for divorce.
(d) G can apply for divorce since his wife betrayed him, enabling him to take action against her and end the
abusive marriage.
84. W was married to Z but had a sexual relationship with T starting in January 2019. W had been leaving early for
work and returning home late for several weeks, according to Z. He also did not always return her phone calls.
This piqued Z's curiosity, and she set out to locate him. Six months later, in August, Z learned about his affair.
She made the decision to report both of them. Unfortunately, she lost a limb in a car accident and suffered severe
injuries. She was told to remain in bed for an extended period of time. Finally, in March 2021, after regaining
some strength, she complained about him. Does she have a relief for this?
(a) Since the clause under 32(d) only permits for a period of two years following the adulterous conduct, she is
not granted relief for the situation.
(b) She is not entitled to any redress because she was required to report the incident as soon as it came to her
attention.
(c) Since she experienced a medical emergency that prevented her from filing the complaint right away, she
may be permitted to make a claim for relief even after the two-year window has elapsed.
(d) Since the month in which she filed a report still falls within the two-year threshold, she may be entitled to
relief.
85. K and L were the office's most senior and trusted employees. They had been struggling to crack a deal for the
last six months. Finally, they were given a fresh opportunity and so they flew to another city for a client meeting.
Since the hotel's accommodations were unavailable, they were forced to share a room for the night. L raped K
while she was asleep. When she discovered it the next morning, she immediately notified her husband, and as a
result, he sued her for adultery. Comment on the case's legitimacy.
(a) Since the passage specifies that adultery requires sexual activity between a married person and another, K,
who was already married, will be held liable for adultery because she had sexual intercourse with L.
(b) Due to the inability to meet the requirements of Section 497 of IPC, K shall not be held accountable for
adultery.
(c) K will not be made accountable for adultery since, according to the passage, only a woman who has been
wronged can take this action.
(d) Since K's husband submitted the complaint within the allotted time period as mentioned in section 32(d), K
will be made accountable.
Passage (Q.86-Q.90): The Constitution of India intended for India to be a country governed by the rule of law.
It provides that the constitution shall be the supreme power in the land and the legislative and the executive
should derive their authority from the constitution. Any law that is made by the legislature has to be in conformity
with the Constitution failing which it will be declared invalid; this is provided for under Article 13(1). Article
21 provides a further check against arbitrary executive action by stating that no person shall be deprived of his
life or liberty except in accordance with the procedure established by law.Article 14 ensures that all individuals
are equal and that no person shall be discriminated. Constitution of india ensures that there shall be no
discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, race or place of birth, and finally, it also ensures that there is a
separation of power between the three wings of the government and the executive and the legislature have no
influence on the judiciary. On one hand, Equality before Law prohibits providing any special privilege to any
community or people. According to it, there must be a very ideal condition and the state does not need to interfere
in society by providing additional privileges in society. On the other hand Right to Equality is not absolute and
has several exceptions to it. Accordingly, equals should be treated equally. Equality before Law has several
exceptions, for example, the Immunity provided to the President and Governor. Reservation is also a typical
example that defines that the Right to Equality is not absolute and can be restricted (or rather used properly)
according to the need of the society. There cannot be equality before the law for the person who is a wrongdoer.
A person who is doing illegal acts cannot ask for Right to Equality in front of a court or the judicial system.
86. The mother of P was G. To celebrate her 18th birthday, they made the decision to dine at the town's top eatery.
She extended an invitation to all of her friends, cousins, and family. There were several gifts for her that each
person brought. Unfortunately, a few of her guests were underage and could not enter the restaurant without their
parents. As a result, the restaurant was accused of violating Article 14 of the Constitution of India which
guarantees all individuals the right to equality, after this ruined P's birthday. Discuss.
(a) By refusing to let the guests inside, the restaurant has violated their right to equality.
(b) Since the requirements under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution have been satisfied; the restaurant has not
breached the invitees' right to equality.
(c) According to Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, which states that there should be no discrimination, the
restaurant has violated their right to equality by discriminating them on the basis of their age.
(d) Due to a different regulation that governs the restaurant, the company has not violated the guests' right to
equality.
87. Choose the option that appears to be the least suitable based on the facts provided in the passage.
(a) The constitution shall be the supreme law of the land, and it shall be the source of all legislative and executive
power.
(b) Giving any community or person a special prerogative is against the principles of justice. It holds that an
extremely ideal situation must exist and that the state need not intervene with society by granting additional
privileges.
(c) Equal treatment under the law is not plausible for those who have committed crimes. A person who is acting
illegitimately is not permitted to request their right to equality before a judge or other member of the legal
system.
(d) A safeguard against arbitrary executive action is provided by Article 21, which states that no Indian citizen
may be deprived of their life or freedom until doing so in line with the legal process.
88. Since his father was a well-known computer engineer stationed in New York, K , a differently abled person was
very eager to pursue computer science as a career. He conducted in-depth research on it and even gave his friend
M, the data and statistics. M had an emergency as they were preparing to fill out the form and opted to do so the
following week. K filled out the form nonetheless and was charged 800 rupees. The following week, M filled
out the form and was charged 1300 rupees. Can you envisage what would have caused this in light of the passage?
(a) Since M filled out the application before the deadline, he may have been charged less than K, who did so at
the last minute and had to pay additional to secure his spot.
(b) Given that it is apparent from the question that K's father was one of the top computer engineers in New
York, which provided him an added benefit, he might have been charged less.
(c) Since K belonged to a distinct category than M, his application fee might have been relatively low.
(d) Given that K's grades in the higher secondary exam had been better than M's, he may not have been charged
as much.
89. Which of the following facts does not revolves around the contention of right to equality-the principle, put forth
by the aforementioned passage?
(a) R and F broke into J's home, and as they were fleeing, the police caught them. However, R escaped before
they could identify him. F now demands that R receive equal punishment with him as they both participated
in the robbery.
(b) While D belonged to the general category, S belonged to the DOC category, which was seen as being
economically and educationally backward. They were both charged the same amount to see a movie. S was
offended by this and claimed that he was treated unjustly.
(c) The legislature recommended that Justice PN provide the accused a specific term of imprisonment as per the
latest law under which the accused is being charged for the first time in order to prevent the punishment's
intended effect from being undermined.
(d) S and F submitted an application for the mechanical engineering program. When filling out the form, S was
advised to reconsider her preferences since it would necessitate a significant amount of field work and
laborious effort.
90. Thad recently relocated from Africa to Bharat for the purpose of pursuing higher education. He managed to gain
admission to the top medical school. As soon as he started attending college, he realized that no one wanted to
be friends with him. His accent and hue were made fun of. As a result, he became extremely disheartened and
made the decision to leave the nation and return to Africa. Suggest if T has access to any legal remedies given
that the law of Bharat is the same as the law practiced in India.
(a) Since there is no legal recourse available to someone who is not an Indian citizen in circumstances of
discrimination, T is without legal remedies.
(b) Given that the prerequisites have been met, T has a right under relative articles of the Constitution.
(c) As no reference to Indian law has been made in the particular situation, T has no rights under this legislation.
(d) T is protected under Article 14 of the Indian Penal Code, which states that no one shall be subjected to
discrimination due to their race or place of birth.
Passage (Q.91-Q.95): Arbitration is a form of Alternative Dispute Resolution. It may be noted that the Indian
arbitration is governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 read with the Indian Contract Act, 1872.
The two Acts together provide the legal framework governing and regulating arbitration in India. In an attempt
to make arbitration a preferred mode of settlement of commercial disputes and making India a hub of
international and commercial arbitration some major amendments were introduced in the year to 2015 and 2019.
The Act covers both Domestic and International Arbitration. As per Section 7 of the Act, arbitration agreement
means an agreement made by the parties to submit to arbitration all or certain disputes which have arisen or
which may arise between them in respect of a defined legal relationship, whether contractual or not. Arbitration
cannot happen without the consent of both the parties. The consent is contained within an arbitration agreement.
This agreement clearly specifies the desire of the parties to arbitrate their dispute. It takes the form of a binding
contract. The authority adjudicating the dispute is better known as the arbitral tribunal. It is similar to a judge
that presides over a court of law. The presiding authority is known as the arbitrator, who is in charge of deciding
the disputes between the parties. Just like the judge an arbitrator also has several responsibilities set out in the
code. The arbitrator is under oath to perform its duties. He is bound to take decisions and conduct proceedings
in a neutral and impartial manner. One of the key features of an arbitration agreement is the fact that the parties
are free to choose their presiding authority. This legislative clause not only inspires confidence in the arbitrators
but also the process and the decisions taken. The act also has provisions for removing arbitrators, if found guilty
of not being neutral and independent. No appeal lies against an arbitral award; however, an arbitral award can
only be set aside if the said award suffers from an invalid arbitration agreement, party's incapacity to enter into
an agreement, unfair procedure, etc.
91. According to you, which of the following options is not irrelevant in light of the excerpt given?
(a) Any agreement between the parties, whether contractual or not, to arbitrate all or some issues that have arisen
or may develop between them regarding a specific illicit relationship is referred to as an arbitration
agreement.
(b) An arbitral award cannot be appealed; but, it may be invalidated if it was based on evidence of an unfair
process, an illegitimate arbitration agreement, or the incapacity of one of the parties to enter into an
agreement.
(c) The freedom of the parties to select the arbitrator is one of the main characteristics of an arbitration
agreement. This judicial provision fosters trust in the arbitrators, the arbitration procedure, and the decisions
made.
(d) The parties must agree to the arbitration before it can take place. A clause including the consent is
immaterial in an arbitration agreement. The parties' intent to arbitrate their dispute is expressly stated in this
agreement. It appears as a legally binding contract.
92. X and Y got into an altercation since X had not delivered the 2 liters of milk that were due every two days as per
the agreement. Additionally, he was also meant to provide 10 liters of milk on the weekend because Y was
hosting a gathering at his house. However, he failed to do so, leading Y to reschedule the gathering. She therefore
suo moto sought resolution from the arbitrator after being dissatisfied. Share your thoughts regarding the validity
of the aforementioned case.
(a) Considering that there is a legitimate agreement between the two parties that X has violated, the arbitrator
should resolve the dispute.
(b) Since all of the requirements of Section 7 of the act have been achieved, the arbitrator should step in.
(c) Since the arbitrator cannot be involved when there is no contractual relationship between the parties, the
arbitration agreement will be unenforceable.
(d) Given that the prerequisites of Section 7 of the Act have not been satisfied, the arbitrator shall not intervene.
93. P and R reached an agreement specifying that P would work for R's company in exchange for a specific sum of
money. P received his pay check on time for the first year, but as time went on, he began to receive it in the
second or third week of the month. As a result they got into the dispute. R declined to appear in court, so they
both appointed an arbitrator of their discretion. After carefully examining the circumstances, the arbitrator made
a decision in P's favour. R appealed the verdict because he felt he had been unfairly treated by it. Analyze.
(a) R shall have the right to appeal since it is clear from the question that the arbitrator's judgment was
discriminatory.
(b) Since a dispute related to contract can only be resolved under the Indian Contract Act, R will not have the
option of an appeal.
(c) Since it is clear from the question that the arbitrator's judgment was appropriate, R shall not be permitted to
pursue an appeal.
(d) Since the arbitrator was appointed with their unanimous understanding, R shall be entitled to a remedy under
the arbitration agreement.
94. M and N have long been neighbours. M figured it was alright for him to enter into N’s residence whenever he
wanted because they shared a close bond. One day M went into N's home and left the door open as he departed.
As a result, a cat broke some unique glassware in his home and thoroughly dirtied everything. This incensed N,
and as M was a close friend, he decided against going to court and instead appointed an arbitrator, K, with M's
consent. Following the proper process, the dispute was settled in N's favour. Displeased, M filed an appeal,
arguing that since N and K had met and interacted once, at a conference 12 years ago, bias must have existed.
What are your views regarding the same?
(a) It is apparent from the circumstances that K's decision was arbitrary since it was based on a pre-existing
prejudice.
(b) Since meeting at a conference twelve years prior would not have affected K's bias, the decision was not
arbitrary.
(c) The final verdict shall be overturned since; an arbitral award can be set aside if the said award suffers from
an unfair procedure.
(d) The decision of K cannot be considered as discriminatory since it is explicit from the question that N had the
right to seek redress since M had infringed his personal rights.
95. L was a retired Supreme Court judge who used to operate as an arbitrator. One day, XYZ Engineering Works
approached him about a disagreement involving Amazon Traders. Both parties were initially satisfied with the
verdict, but after two years, Amazon Traders discovered that L's daughter was appointed as an assistant director
at XYZ Engineering Works three months ago. This made Amazon traders suspicious of L's impartiality, so they
filed an appeal to reopen the case on the grounds of unfair procedure. Express your thoughts on the given
situation.
(a) The ruling should be reviewed since it is obvious that L had a predisposition for XYZ Engineering Works
since his daughter worked there as an employee.
(b) L's verdict must be contested since XYZ Engineering failed to inform Amazon Traders of his appointment
as an arbitrator knowing that his daughter worked in their company.
(c) L's judgment should not be disputed since it can be established that there was no bias at the time of the
decision.
(d) L's decision should not be objected since it was Amazon Traders' obligation to verify the arbitrator's
background before appointing him.
Passage (Q.96-Q.100): Theory of adverse possession is inherited from the common law. The concept of adverse
possession is based on the principle that the possessor who maintains and improves the land has more valid claim
to the land than the owner who never visits or cares for it. The person claiming adverse possession is required to
satisfy three classic requirements which should coexist at the same time which are - nec vi, nec clam,
necprecarioi.e., peaceful, open and continuous.
There is no statute per se which defines the concept of adverse possession but the Limitation Act, 1963 provides
for the limitation to sue and extinguishment of rights in this regard. The Act merely prescribes the period of
limitation which is 12 years in case of private lands and 30 years in case of Government lands. The law thus
restricts the right of the owner to recover possession within the fixed period (12/30 as the case may be) beyond
which his right expires. If the owner fails to assert his right within the fixed period, upon the extinction of his
right, another person who had been in possession all these years acquires prescriptive rights. The intention of the
statute is not to punish the owner who fails to assert his right in his property but to protect the interest of the
person who has maintained the property for such time, specified in the statute. As per Section 27 of the Act, the
right to property gets extinguished on the expiry of period specified for instituting a suit for possession of
property and thereby his right in such property gets extinguished. A person in possession has a transmissible
interest in the property and after the expiration of the stipulated statutory period it ripens as a right to possession.
Details to be specified in the pleadings
The person who pleads adverse possession has no equities in his favour. He has to plead and prove in unequivocal
terms the essential ingredients of adverse possession. Plea of adverse possession is not a pure question of law
but a blended one of fact and law. Therefore, a person who claims adverse possession should show:
· on what date he came into possession,
· what was the nature of his possession
· whether the factum of possession was known to the other party
· how long his possession has continued
· whether his possession was open and undisturbed
Since the person pleading adverse possession is trying to defeat the rights of the true owner, it is for him to
clearly plead and establish all facts necessary to establish his adverse possession.
96. Jack went into occupation of an old farm outbuilding 11 years ago. Last week the farmer commenced action in
the court to evict him. Jack has been told by the local blacksmith that the time limit for "squatters" has now been
relaxed and the fact that he has been in occupation of the building for ten years will entitle him to claim legal
ownership of it. The land is unregistered. In such scenario, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Limitation Act 1963, 12 year rule applies to the said land, the farmer can evict Bill.
(b) The Land Registration Act 2002 will now apply. Jack has exceeded the ten year time limit for adverse
possession and the farmer cannot evict him.
(c) It does not matter whether the land is registered or unregistered; the time limit of 12 years applies to all
claims for adverse possession. After 12 years the squatter “automatically” becomes the legal owner. The
farmer cannot evict the Bill.
(d) It is no longer possible to acquire title in adverse possession for unregistered land. The farmer cannot evict
Bill.
97. In 1992 Sophie established a wooden hut, fenced off a field that belonged to Farmer Giles, changed the lock on
the gate leading to the field, and planted vegetables there. The title to the property is unregistered. She removed
the gate and a portion of the fence in 2000 with the intention of replacing them after her return from a protracted
international vacation. In 2003 she returned, replaced the fence and the gate and resumed her use of the field.
Choose the correct statement.
(a) In 2004, Sophie become owner of the field and was entitled to sell it.
(b) In 2005, Sophie is not the owner of the field but will be 2007 if her present occupation of it continues
(c) In 2005, Sophie is not the owner of the field but will become so in 2015 if her present occupation of it
continues
(d) In 2005, Sophie is not the owner of the field but will become so in 2018 if her present occupation of it
continues
98. Greensborough is a suburb of Melbourne, Victoria, Australia, 17 km north-east from Melbourne's Central
Business District, located within the City of Banyule and Shire of Nillumbik local government areas.
Greensborough recorded a population of 21,070 at the 2021 census. The Greensborough County Council owns
a piece of land which is currently vacant. The Council has no immediate use for it but intends at some time in
the future to use it for building when funds are available. Joey, who lives next to the land, took occupation of it
by fencing it off and using it as part of his garden. In these circumstances:
(a) Joey cannot acquire title by adverse possession, as his use does not conflict with the Council’s plans
(b) Because the Council has plans for the land, Joey is deemed to occupy under a licence which can be revoked
at any time; until that time he is not in adverse possession
(c) The limitation period starts to run against the Council as soon as Joey has taken possession with sufficient
acts of adverse possession
(d) The limitation period only runs when the Council has made a firm decision on the future purpose for the land
and the date to start work on it.
99. The residents of Park lane Society were aware that the property on which they were residing is a property
belonged to the Maharashtra government. The said government leased the land to the BMC for an indefinite
period of time. BMC also maintains a fixed interest in the same land. The government has initiated the process
to bring an Act declaring that all leases granted for an indefinite time are null and void. The government
now wants to take back the site, and the residents who have lived there for nearly 50 years are claiming adverse
possession. Decide whether they can claim so?
(a) The residents' claim to the property is valid because the ownership was peaceful, open, and continuous.
(b) The claim of the residents was not valid by virtue of the act enacted by the state government that made all
leases granted for an indefinite time is null and void.
(c) The residents' claim is invalid because the government was aware of the residents' factum of possession.
(d) The residents' claim is valid since the owner fails to assert his right within the specified time frame of 30
years; upon the extinction of which, the residents who has been in peaceful and continuous possession for
all of these years gains prescriptive rights.
100. If a person is sending workers onto your unimproved forest land of Govt. for a continuous period of fifteen years
to harvest timber and sell it for profit. Will that person then be in a position to obtain title to your land?
(a) Yes, since the act of cutting and selling the timber is evidence of using the land as an owner would. This
would be sufficient evidence of actual possession and would be obvious to all.
(b) Only if the person can prove you, the owner, knew about it.
(c) Yes, but only if the person was physically present on the land at the time of the harvesting and selling.
(d) No, the person who had been in possession all these years, will not acquire prescriptive rights
Passage (Q.101-Q.105): In Selvi vs State of Karnataka, the Supreme Court considered the Constitutional
validity of three tests conducted against the will of a person: Narcoanalysis, polygraph test and Brain Electrical
Activation Profile (BEAP).
The Court came to the following conclusions:
“Hence our conclusion is that the results obtained through the involuntary administration of either of the
impugned tests come within the scope of ‘testimonial compulsion’, thereby attracting the protective shield of
Article 20(3).”
“Therefore, it is our considered opinion that subjecting a person to the impugned techniques in an involuntary
manner violates the prescribed bounds of privacy.”
“In light of these conclusions, we hold that no individual should be subjected to any of the techniques in question,
whether in the context of investigation in criminal cases or otherwise.”
In K S Puttaswamyvs Union of India (a judgement of a 9-judge Bench), the Supreme Court laid down the
proportionality test):
“An invasion of life or personal liberty must meet the threefold criteria of (i) legality, which postulates the
existence of law; (ii) need, defined in terms of a legitimate State aim; and (iii) proportionality, which ensures a
rational nexus between the objects and the means adopted to achieve them.”
In delivering the historic judgements, the Court was performing its paramount duty of being the ‘sentinel on the
qui vive’. The judgements in Selvi and K S Puttaswamy are still good law. Not, it appears, for the present
government of India. If it had realized that the judgements were binding on the government, based on non-
derogable constitutional rights (Articles 20 and 21), the government would not have introduced and passed the
Criminal Procedure (Identification) Bill, 2022. The Bill is a brazen attempt to overreach the Supreme Court and
to deny the fundamental rights to liberty and privacy, two of the most precious rights in a democracy.
101. Assertion: Liberty is a non-derogable fundamental right.

Reason: Erosion of a human right is the starting point of its extinguishment. The Criminal Procedure
(Identification) Bill is a dagger plunged into the heart of Liberty.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
102. The passage states that “the results obtained through the involuntary administration of either of the impugned
tests come within the scope of ‘testimonial compulsion’, thereby attracting the protective shield of Article 20(3)”.
Choose a statement that is correct only in the context of the phrase given:
(a) No person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
(b) A person accused of an offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself in case of voluntary
admission.
(c) Accused cannot be made a witness against himself through the involuntary administration of either of the
impugned tests i.e., Narcoanalysis, polygraph test and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP).
(d) Court opined that person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself as it comes
within the scope of testimonial compulsion.
103. HC is of the opinion that in present day the criminals started to use very sophisticated and modern techniques
for committing the crime. So the conventional method of investigation and questioning to the criminals will not
be successful for solution and there is need to utilize some new techniques such as polygraph, brain mapping
and narco analysis. Justify in light of the passage
(a) The statement is correct as if the provision of administering Narco-analysis test is made compulsory for the
accused /witness in grave offences, it may pave the way for improving the quality of criminal justice through
strengthening of evidence system.
(b) The given statement is incorrect as every person is guilty until proven innocent, and the same aspect should
be maintained while carrying out any criminal investigation
(c) The given statement is correct as the said move will bring about a qualitative change in the criminal justice.
(d) The given statement is incorrect as the Narco test can be said to be unethical, in investigation or otherwise.
104. An accused in a POCSO case filed an application in the court of law where he voluntarily submitted to undergo
a narco analysis test to prove his innocence in the matter. Choose a statement that is true.
(a) The revelations brought out during Narco Analysis under the influence of a particular drug cannot be taken
as a conscious act or statement given by a person.
(b) The possibility of accused himself making exculpatory statements to support his defense also can be ruled
out.
(c) Materials collected through Narco Analysis Test can be used as corroborative piece of evidence.
(d) The result obtained through voluntary administration of Narco Analysis will not come within the scope of
“Testimonial compulsion”
105. The policy of discharging homosexual soldiers from the British army had a reasoned goal: to minimize tensions
between heterosexual and homosexual soldiers, which would lead to a drop in morale and fighting power. Is it
possible to argue that the measure meets the third proportionality criteria described in the passage?
(a) Yes, as the state has a legitimate aim to maintain the morale and fighting power of the soldiers.
(b) No, the bill base its legality on a psychological fact which was irrelevant for the question of whether the
policy violated the right to private life
(c) Yes, as the bill was introduced to minimize the tension between the soldiers, which would lead to a drop in
morale and fighting power.
(d) No, it does not meets the proportionality criteria as described in the passage.
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.106-Q.135): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-
Passage(Q.106-Q.108): Each of the five students − Amar, Akbar, Anthony, Avinash and Akash – of class X, is
studying in a different school among Xavier, St. Louis, Besant, St. Joseph and Mahathma Gandhi. These students
are appearing for their final examination and each of them is alloted a different school, among the above five
schools, (other than the school in which he/she is studying) as their examination center.
The following information is known about their schools and their examination centres.
(1) Akbar is studying in St. Louis
(2) Akash got Xavier as the examination centre.
(3) The students of Mahathma Gandhi school got St. Joseph as the examination centre.
(4) Anthony got Besant as the examination centre and Avinash is studying in St. Joseph.
106. Who got St. Joseph as the examination centre?

(a) Amar (b) Akbar (c) Anthony (d) Avinash
107. In which school is Anthony studying?

(a) Xavier (b) Besant (c) Mahathma Gandhi (d) St. Joseph
108. Who gots St. Louis as the examination centre?

(a) Amar (b) Akbar (c) Anthony (d) Avinash
109. Find the odd one out.

(a) BEGH (b) CDFI (c) AGLP (d) HNSW
110. If DESK= 39, CRAB= 24, then what is the code for "FARM"?
(a) 27 (b) 38 (c) 48 (d) 39
Passage(Q.111-Q.114): The Supreme Court has done right in agreeing prima facie to reconsider two aspects of
the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) that transfers the burden of proof of innocence to the accused
and deprives the accused of a copy of the Enforcement Case Information Report (ECIR). This comes after the
court upheld the constitutional validity of the anti-money laundering provisions, including the powers of arrest
and seizure. Under PMLA, a person who directly or indirectly indulges, assists or is involved in activity
connected with the proceeds of crime and projects it as untainted property is guilty of the offence of money
laundering. But there are concerns that the reverse burden of proof, also a feature in the Benami law, can lead to
abuse by the prosecution. In criminal jurisprudence, the burden of proof rests on the prosecution. And this is
premised on another fundamental principle that a person is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty. A special
provision was created in the PMLA, 2002, to place the burden of proof on the accused. The reasoning being that
the accused would have specific knowledge about, say, any property purchased using the proceeds of crime. The
law says that unless there is a predicate offence, such as under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
Act, there cannot be an offence of money laundering. Reportedly, the apex court's judgement in July confirms
that if the predicate offence fails, then prosecution under the Act can't be continued. This is expected to lead to
the closure of ongoing cases. The ruling held that ECIR, an internal document of the Enforcement Directorate,
can't be equated with the first information report (FIR). Course corrections, if required, are desired.
111. The passage’s title is best represented by which of the following options?
(a) The PMLA verdict needs an overhaul
(b) SC agrees to review key aspects of the PMLA verdict
(c) Certain archaic aspects of the PMLA verdict need a relook
(d) An uninformed PMLA verdict needs to go
112. Which among the following correctly resonates from the passage?
(a) Depriving a copy of the ECIR to the accused is equivalent to violating principles of natural justice.
(b) The premise of shifting the burden of proof to the accused is foolproof considering the nature of financial
crimes.
(c) The reverse burden of proof provision gives an opportunity to the prosecution to abuse its powers.
(d) The reverse burden of proof was incorporated at the time the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)
was enacted.
113. What is the opinion of the author on the provision that the burden of proof is on the accused?
(a) That this provision is an archaic provision that needs course correction sooner than later.
(b) That this provision is completely arbitrary and violates principles of natural justice.
(c) That this provision is a special provision and an exception to the presumption of innocence until proven
guilty.
(d) That this provision along with other similar provisions is redundant since they do not follow the principles
of common law.
114. ‘The law says that unless there is a predicate offence, such as under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances Act, there cannot be an offence of money laundering.’ The aforementioned argument is
(a) A fact (b) An assumption (c) An opinion (d) An inference
Passage(Q.115-Q.119): Yesterday’s controlled demolition of Supertech Twin Towers in Noida, NCR, was a
media spectacle that cheered many. Understandably so because the Supertech case was a classic example of
brazen violations that happen when local administration and builders run a joint venture of graft and rule-
bending. It took the Supreme Court’s determination for these monuments of corruption to crumble to dust. But
as good a role as SC played and no matter how riveting the images of the demolition, there’s really not much to
cheer for India’s homebuyers. [1] About 77% of the total assets of an average Indian household are held in real
estate. It’s the largest single investment most families make. [2] This also makes them vulnerable to a peculiar
feature of real estate – a disproportionate share of the risk is on homebuyers. So, any meaningful reform has to
address the spread of risks among stakeholders. Of all attempts to reform, the Real Estate (Regulation and
Development) Act represents the most promising one. It embodies the work of two governments and detailed
discussions of parliamentary committees. The key advantages of Rera are that it brings about standardisation of
contracts and minimises misuse of upfront payments by buyers. [3] Rera was enacted in 2016 and can’t address
older problems like that of the Supertech towers. [4] Neither can it resolve the corruption at the level of urban
bodies, which blight the dreams of many buyers. It also suffers from the general weakness in state capacity as
each state needs to establish a regulatory body. Notwithstanding the challenges, Rera represents the best available
solution today. Buyers will benefit from a fairer system, not a spectacle.
115. The author has made a claim that the largest single investment most families make is real estate. Which statement
has been used to support this claim?
(a) [1] (b) [2] (c) [3] (d) [4]
116. What does the author suggest in the last few sentences?
i. RERA is not the panacea for all problems related to real estate.
ii. Even though Rera has its problems, it is the best available solution to date.
iii. Homebuyers will not benefit from a mere display of visually striking performance.
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only ii and iii (c) Only i and iii (d) All i, ii and iii
117. What can be inferred from the given passage, assuming the information in the passage to be accurate?
(a) SC can only play a limited role in the quest to improve the real estate sector for buyers.
(b) The advantages that RER are weighed down by its long list of disadvantages.
(c) The fact that RERA can’t resolve corruption is its biggest disadvantage in being a one-stop solution for
buyers.
(d) In real estate matters, it takes SC interventions to address the grievances.
118. Out of the following, which option best represents main idea of the passage?
(a) Negligent officials must be cleaned out to keep the risk appetite of homebuyers.
(b) Demolition of high rise buildings is a common sight these days.
(c) Reducing the risk of buyers while improving RERA is the way to go.
(d) Demolitions of high rise buildings discourage the risk appetite of homeowners.
119. The author of the passage does not mention which among the following in the passage?
(a) The limitations of RERA.
(b) Ways in which RERA can be improved.
(c) Who largely bears the brunt of the real estate
(d) Reasons for cheering for demolition of twin towers.
Passage(Q.120-Q.124): Coming as the oxygen much needed to resuscitate the economy of Punjab is the land
allotment for Tata Steel’s secondary plant in Ludhiana. High hopes of help lifting Punjab out of the doldrums on
the Rs 2,600-crore project, touted to be the Tata conglomerate’s biggest such unit. That the company chose to
celebrate the 163rd birth anniversary of Sir Dorabji Tata with this investment bodes well as it underscores its
commitment to this deal. The business venture should serve as an impetus for other investors waiting in the
wings. The Punjab Government’s efforts in the past few years to rope in companies through programmes like
‘Progressive Punjab’ have not yielded much to tom-tom about. More recently, the state’s plan of a textile park
near Ludhiana came a cropper – at least for the time being – as it clashed with the bigger need of protecting the
Mattewara forest reserve. Undoubtedly, the government must press all buttons to improve the ease of doing
business. Facilitating established industries and startups should be a priority as it is the path to a rosy future
through the creation of more employment opportunities. Given the all-round despondency in Punjab – be it the
agriculture crisis, lack of jobs, prevalence of drugs – it is not surprising that hordes of people are in the race to
migrate, looking for greener pastures abroad. Youngsters prefer the education route, many a time by putting at
stake every family asset. The elders, including well-off ones, too, are not far behind. This sadly bursts the bubble
of contentment and pride coming from being in one’s native land. It has come to the fore that many government
employees, in violation of service rules, have slyly obtained permanent residencies of foreign countries. The
corrupt among them use this status to escape the Vigilance Bureau net or other inquiries against them. It is
imperative to arrest the depletion of precious human resources and restore the lost glory of Punjab by creating
aspirational conditions in the state.
120. Out of the following, which of the following has most likely contributed the least towards the lost glory of
Punjab?
(a) Corrupt officials slyly obtain permanent residencies abroad.
(b) The prevalence of drugs in Punjab.
(c) Youngsters leaving for greener pastures in foreign countries.
(d) The agricultural crisis in Punjab.
121. The author’s central message is best represented by which of the following options?
(a) An investment like that of Tata in Punjab holds the promise of arresting the slide in the economy.
(b) Punjab must do more to improve its tainted image on the national stage.
(c) Antisocial elements like the prevalence of drugs and gang culture need to be done away with.
(d) Punjab needs to arrest its uncontrolled outflow of citizens to turn aspirations into reality.
122. Which statement cannot be concluded from the information given in the passage?
i. If not for the investment by the Tatas, Punjab’s economy would have been damaged beyond recovery.
ii. The investment by the Tatas in the Punjab city of Ludhiana is its biggest investment in recent years.
iii. The Punjab government's efforts in recent years to rope in investment have not yielded results.
(a) Only i and ii (b) Only ii and iii (c) Only iii (d) All i, ii and iii
123. The information in the passage suggests that the author would appreciate which of the following steps?
(a) Rules regarding ease of doing business should be reformed for the better.
(b) More schemes like ‘Progressive Punjab’ should be introduced in the state.
(c) The Vigilance Bureau should use excessive resources to nab the defaulters.
(d) The problems of corruption and drug trafficking should be dealt with before soliciting big companies to
invest.
124. ‘It is imperative to arrest the depletion of precious human resources and restore the lost glory of Punjab by
creating aspirational conditions in the state.’ Which of the following is the assumption underlying the passage?
(a) The creation of aspirational conditions relies on the restoration of the lost glory of Punjab.
(b) Depletion of precious human resources and restoration of the lost glory of Punjab is dependent on the creation
of aspirational conditions in the state.
(c) The creation of aspirational conditions in Punjab may not prevent human resource depletion and restore
Punjab’s lost glory.
(d) The creation of aspirational conditions in Punjab will prevent human resource depletion and restore
Punjab’s lost glory.
Passage(Q.125-Q.129): Monsoon rainfall over India is 8% more than what is usual for this time of the year.
While this might bode well for agriculture in some regions, it also means floods and concentrated downpours
with devastating consequences. At least 25 people were killed over the weekend as torrential rains triggered flash
floods and landslides in Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Himachal Pradesh met with a similar fate. While
death and damage to property are the surface manifestation of these rains, there are a range of secondary effects
with long-term downstream impact. The monsoon compresses India’s annual rainfall into four months and
unevenly waters the country’s highly diverse terrain. It is, therefore, inevitable that some spots are far more
vulnerable and bear a disproportionate impact of climate fury. While hill States have certain unique challenges,
the threats from the vagaries of climate are not unique to them. Monsoon rain patterns are being disrupted leading
to a rise in cloudburst-like events as well as a rise in the frequency of high-energy cyclones and droughts. One
strategy adopted by the government has been to improve the system of early warning forecasts. The India
Meteorological Department now provides fortnightly, weekly and even three-hourly weather forecasts to
districts. However, not all of these are accurate and often, they are not provided early enough for authorities to
prepare themselves. In recent years, improvements in early warnings for incoming cyclones have helped state
agencies evacuate and rehabilitate the most vulnerable, but such success has not been observed for floods. While
the inherent risks of infrastructure development in hills and unstable terrain is well understood, these are often
elided by authorities in the name of balancing the demands of the people for better infrastructure and services.
The increased risk and cost to such projects and infrastructure should be factored in when they are tendered out
by the government, and scientific advice regarding development ought to be strictly adhered to.
125. The passage’s central idea is best represented by which of the following options?
(a) The development of mountain areas over the years has upset the ecological balance.
(b) India’s weather forecast system needs to be improved to prevent ecological disasters.
(c) It is about time the authorities recognise that ‘natural’ disasters are not purely natural.
(d) Better warning systems can decrease the number of fatalities that natural disasters create.
126. If the information in the passage is correct, select the option that could be inferred from the passage.
(a) Property damage is the last thing that unusual rains result in.
(b) The IMD does not pay enough heed to the suggestions by the government.
(c) The demands of the people for better infrastructure and services cannot supersede the dangers arising out of
it.
(d) The IMD tends to pay overwhelming attention to the demands of the public, and almost negligible to the
demands of nature.
127. Which piece of evidence would strengthen the author’s arguments in the passage?
i. Schools and transport immediately get put out of action due to increased rains.
ii. Cattle and saplings are left to perish, destroying livelihoods and debilitating family finances.
iii. According to a research study, it is estimated that the anthropological impact on rainfall patterns is on the
decline.
(a) Only i (b) Only i and ii (c) Only ii and iii (d) Only i and iii
128. According to the passage, what can be said about the strategy adopted by the government to improve the system
of early warning forecasts?
(a) This system has worked wonders for India, and improvements have been witnessed.
(b) Early warning systems are still not enough to evacuate the people in time.
(c) Even though an early warning system has its positives, it is not foolproof.
(d) This system is solely used for evacuating and rehabilitating vulnerable people.
129. Given the information in the passage, what could be a logical course of action according to author?
(a) New technologies are employed to improve the accuracy of early weather forecasts.
(b) The family members of people deceased due to heavy rainfall are compensated accordingly.
(c) The terrain of hill states is changed to ensure that natural calamities are reduced significantly.
(d) The people of districts vulnerable to monsoon vagaries should be shifted to the plains for the period of
monsoon.
Passage(Q.130-Q.135): Socialism emerged as a reaction to capitalism. England had become the first industrial
nation in the world. The prosperity of Victorian England was there for everyone to see. People were convinced
that competition increased efficiency and wealth in society. They regarded the survival of the fittest as the
unquestionable law of nature. But by the end of the nineteenth century, the fallacies of the doctrine became clear.
The economic power passed into the hands of a few. The majority lived in conditions of dire poverty. They had
no freedom of choice because they were completely dependent on their wages even for bare survival. They were
not even in a position to decide what they wanted because they lacked education. It was also realized that there
was not much truth in the doctrine of Harmony of Interests. The industrialist was busy serving his interest. He
did not care much for the interest of the community. In the mediaeval world, there was a certain consensus about
a fair price. But now there could be no such thing as a fair price. Prices were regulated by economic and not
moral laws. People began to realise that if everyone was allowed to conduct his business on his own the law of
the jungle would prevail.
Even the competition did not give results as expected. It defeated its ends. It did increase the efficiency of
economic enterprise in the early stages. But very soon as bigger organisations began to monopolise economic
power, the smaller organisations were crushed out of existence. We can see the impact of capitalism even in
India where most of the economy is in the hands of a few leading industrial houses. Thus, capitalism itself limited
the freedom of the entrepreneurs.
Capitalism indeed increased the wealth of the nation. It led to unprecedented prosperity in Europe. Real wages
went up everywhere. But very soon markets were flooded with goods. As the competition increased the system
began to face crises. Production reached a saturation point. People began to apprehend that there might be a
situation in which there were all sellers and no buyers. Cycles of boom and depression, known as trade cycles,
became frequent. Unemployment was a common phenomenon. People began to ask why there was so much
poverty in plenty. Some of these reasons led Karl Marx to prophesy that capitalism contained within itself seeds
of its own destruction.
130. Which of the following statements are not true for Socialism?
(a) Capitalism necessitated Socialism.
(b) Survival of the fittest is the characteristic of capitalism.
(c) Socialism can only lead to justice and happiness.
(d) Capitalism’s merits are shadowed by its demerits.
131. What was not observed after the advent of Industrialisation?
(a) Economic disparity. (b) Surplus production.
(c) Overutilisation of resources. (d) Fulfilment of common interests.
132. What does the author imply when he says that competition defeated its’ own ends?
(a) Competition failed to achieve a fair price.
(b) The competition did not remain healthy with cut-throat competition.
(c) The big fish in markets started to drive small fish out of competition.
(d) The government did not provide a level playing field.
133. What can be inferred about ‘Trade Cycles’?
(a) Trade cycles represent the alternating phases of boom and depression, with more of the boom.
(b) Trade cycles refer to cyclical upswings and downswings in the broad measures of economic activity.
(c) Greed to get more in a market economy is inherent in the trade cycles.
(d) Trade cycles refer to prolonged upswing and downswing cycles of economic activity.
134. Which of the following options strengthens Karl Marx's claims that capitalism has seeds of its destruction in
itself?
(a) Capitalism can never develop an egalitarian society based on equality.
(b) Capitalism has dark areas like income disparity, unemployment, monopoly and overproduction.
(c) Capitalism fails to fulfil the dream of society.
(d) Capitalism disappeared from most societies with time.
135. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
I. Socialim is a far cry from Capitalism.
II. Capitalism initially indicated misleading results.
III. England saw Capitalism during the Victorian era.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) I & III (d) I, II & III
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Direction (Q.136-Q.140): There are two marts - X-mart and Y-mart in the same area. Number of people visited
X-mart on Monday is 20% less than number of people visited Y-mart on Monday, which is 275. Number of
people visited Y-mart on Thursday is same as the number of people visited X-mart on Monday. Ratio between
the number of peoples visited X-mart and Y-mart on Tuesday is 3: 5 and number of people visited Ymart on
Wednesday and number of people visited X-mart on Wednesday is 20% more and 10 less than the number of
people visited Xmart on Tuesday respectively. Number of people visited X-mart on Thursday is twice the number
of people visited Y-mart on Thursday. Number of people visited Y-mart on Wednesday is 8 less than the number
of people visited Xmart on Thursday.
136. The ratio between the number of people visited X-mart and Y-mart together on Tuesday and the number of
people visited Xmart and Y-mart together on Thursday is
(a) 11: 15 (b) 14: 11 (c) 11: 16 (d) 16: 11
137. Find the difference between the total number of people visited X mart and that of Y mart on all four days
together?
(a) 145 (b) 157 (c) 139 (d) 161
138. The ratio between the number of females and males visited Y mart on Wednesday is 5: 3. Find the difference
between number of males and females visited on Wednesday?
(a) 72 (b) 108 (c) 144 (d) 120
139. Number of people visited Y mart on Wednesday is what percent the number of people visited Y mart on Tuesday?
(a) 72% (b) 67% (c) 77% (d) 82%
140. Total number of people visited both marts on Friday is 60% more than that of on Thursday and ratio between
the number of people visited X mart and Y mart is 9: 7. Find the number of people visited X mart and Y mart
respectively on Friday?
(a) 584, 472 (b) 574, 482 (c) 594, 462 (d) 564, 492
Direction (Q.141-Q.145): These questions are V based on the information given below.
Six friends—Doorva, Mangala, Deeps, Srikanth, Radha and -Suman, have Rs. 2100 among themselves. The
amount with Doorva is as much less than that with Radha as it is more than that with Suman. The amount with
Deeps Is 200 less than that with Doorva, where as Mangala has twice that of Doorva and Deepa has – Rs. 400
less than that with Srlkanth.
141. The amount with how many of them is more than the average amount with them?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Cannot be determined
142. The amount with Srikanth is:

(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 500 (c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 200
143. The ratio of the amounts with Deepa and Mangala is:
(a) 5:6 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:3 (d) 1:6
144. The amount with Radha is:

(a) Rs. 400 (b) Rs. 200 (c) Rs. 350 (d) Cannot be determined
145. Except Deepa, every other person has at least one 50 denomination currency note and one. Rs. 100 denomination
currency note, then what is the least number of currency notes with them?
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 24 (d) 25
Direction (Q.146-Q.150): Following bar-graph represents the data regarding number of students participated
in badminton and cricket from different schools. Such that each of the student participated in either of the
sport.
120 112
104
100 92
88
76
80 68
64
60 52 48
40
40
20
0
School A School B School C School D School E
Cricket Badminton
Respective ratio of male to female participants from school A and C are 3: 1 and 13: 16. 55% and 45%
participants from school D and E respectively are males. 76 males participated from school B.
146. How many male participates are there from all given schools taken together?
(a) 397 (b) 413 (c) 409 (d) 385
147. What is the respective ratio of number of students participated in badminton from school B and D taken together
to the number of students participated in cricket from school A and E taken together?
(a) 19: 25 (b) 17: 23 (c) 21: 25 (d) 23:27
148. What is the difference between number of participants from school C and number of female participants from
school E?
(a) 9 (b) 23 (c) 31 (d) 17
149. Number of students participated in cricket from school B and C taken together are approximately what percent
of number of female students participated from school D and A together?
(a) 97% (b) 100% (c) 103% (d) 94%
150. If 45 female students from school E participated in cricket, then approximately what percent male participants
from same school participated in cricket?
(a) 80% (b) 75% (c) 87% (d) 83%
Notes:-
Notes:-
Notes:-

026bec05bbb88-Mock CLAT 33 Questions

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

026bec05bbb88-Mock CLAT 33 Questions

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023

Scan this code after the test

to punch in your answers

3. The author has handled the passage in a manner which is :

4. A suitable tile for the passage would be :

5. The passage is least likely to have been extracted from

7. The passage, at best, could be an extract from

8. Which of the following is out of place in relation to the passage?

9. The Mexican economic slump was caused by

11. The market selection hypothesis suggests that:

13. The author would agree with which of the following?

16. Which of the following reflects the title of the passage?

17. Which of the following can be a suitable synonym for ‘anachronism’?

19. The word ‘cohort’ in the passage is being used as a/an -

22. We can infer from the passage that

24. Which of the following is true according to the passage?

30. What is the author’s attitude towards Socrates?

31. How many components are there in the disengagement process?

34. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

35. Recently India had 2+2 ministerial dialogue with _____________

37. Which country has introduced variant-tailored second-generation vaccines?

41. The Uyghur Region is present at the region of .

42. Xinjiang is known for producing a fifth of the world’s __________.

44. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

46. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

51. Which of the following will replace [1]?

55. Which of the following is NOT a type of Zoonotic Diseases?

58. Who controls the border disputed area of Kalapani?

65. In which year did the influx of Rohingyas start in Bangladesh?

Directions (Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:

67. Which of the following is incorrect in light of the above passage?

70. Which among the following can be considered as kidnapping?

101. Assertion: Liberty is a non-derogable fundamental right.

106. Who got St. Joseph as the examination centre?

107. In which school is Anthony studying?

108. Who gots St. Louis as the examination centre?

109. Find the odd one out.

142. The amount with Srikanth is:

144. The amount with Radha is:

You might also like