You are on page 1of 18

PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C.: FIAS-PTS23-GS_Sim3 Test Booklet Series
Serial No. 090423

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - I

Time Allowed: TWO HOURS Maximum Marks: 200


INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any omission or discrepancy at the
appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the
Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and Name:
Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box Email Id:
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything
Mobile No:
else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English and Hindi.
Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to
mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark
the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each
item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE


OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.
Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.1) With reference to ‘Unique Identification Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958,
Authority of India’ (UIDAI), consider the from its purview.
following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It is a statutory authority under the correct?
provisions of the Aadhaar Act, 2016. a) 1 and 2 only
2. It comes under the jurisdiction of the b) 1 only
Ministry of Home Affairs. c) 1 and 3 only
3. It is responsible for operation and d) 3 only
management of all stages of the Aadhaar
life cycle. Q.4) Which one of the following group of items
4. It specifies the manner of use of Aadhaar provide for the most appropriate list of
numbers for the purpose of availing determinants of voting behavior of the Indian
government subsidies. electorate?
5. Currently, it is empowered to deactivate a) Caste, Exit polls and Language.
and delete Aadhar data of a person after b) Party ideology, Judicial decisions, Role of
his/her death. money.
Which of the statements given above are c) Religion, Exit polls, Judicial Decisions.
correct? d) Personality of leader, Regionalism,
a) 1 and 2 only Language.
b) 2 and 5 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only Q.5) Which Article of the Constitution of India
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only safeguards the right to timely medical
treatment in government hospitals?
Q.2) With reference to Indian Judicial System, a) Article 19
‘Nyaya Mitras’ can be best referred as: b) Article 21
a) the agent of the state to represent the c) Article 14
interest of common people in the criminal d) Article 15
justice system.
b) the social activist who plays an important Q.6) Consider the following statements:
role in maintaining communal harmony in 1. It is a statutory body mandated to
particular areas. investigate all the offences affecting
c) the person providing assistance to the security and integrity of the country.
judiciary in the reduction of old pending 2. It can investigate offenses involving human
court cases. trafficking and counterfeit currency related
d) the advocates who provide free of cost offences.
legal services to the poor and vulnerable 3. Presently, it functions under the
sections of society. supervision of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
4. It has the authority to investigate offences
Q.3) With reference to ‘Places of Worship Act, under Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
1991’, consider the following statements: committed outside Indian territory.
1. The act prohibits the conversion of a place Which one of the following
of worship of any religious denomination institutions/agencies of India is being
into a place of worship of a different described in the above given statements?
religious denomination. a) Central Bureau of Investigation
2. It provides for the maintenance of the b) Enforcement Directorate
religious character of any place of worship c) National Investigation Agency
as it primarily existed at the time of its d) Serious Fraud Investigation Office
establishment.
3. The act exempts ancient and historical
monuments, or an archaeological site
covered under the Ancient Monuments and

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.7) With reference to the Government land and forests require the assent of the
Contracts in India, consider the following governor of the state.
statements: 3. A State government can dissolve a district
1. All contracts made under the Executive council on the recommendation of the
power of the Union shall be executed on Governor.
behalf of the Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Government contracts in India can either correct?
be in written or oral form for purpose of a) 1 and 2 only
their legal enforcement. b) 2 only
3. Provisions of The Indian Contract Act, 1872 c) 3 only
does not apply to the government
d) 1 and 3 only
contracts in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.10) Consider the following pairs:

a) 1 only Organisation/ Objective


b) 2 and 3 only Declaration
c) 3 only 1. Chicago Empowerment of Women in
d) None Convention Least developed Countries
2. Fab 4 Alliance Self Defense of the member
Q.8) With reference to the responsibilities of nations against military
‘Ministers in States’ in India, consider the aggression of adversaries
following statements: 3. BioAsia forum Promote the development
1. Under collective responsibility it is the duty 2023 and use of biofuels in
of every minister to stand by the cabinet member countries
decisions in the states.
4. Jaipur To ensure safe and secure
2. Constitution of India provides for the legal Declaration rail network across the
responsibility of individual ministers globe
regarding the executive actions in the
Which of the pairs given above is/are
states.
correctly matched?
3. Each minister should communicate to the
a) 1 and 3 only
Governor their respective decisions in the
council of ministers meeting. b) 2 only

Which of the statements given above is/are c) 4 only


correct? d) 3 and 4 only
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.11) In context of India, ‘Triple Test’, often
c) 2 and 3 only seen in news, is related to the-
d) 1 and 3 only a) determination of biological father of a
child.
b) testing of constitutionality of a law.
Q.9) With reference to Sixth Schedule of the
Indian Constitution, consider the following c) reservation to the backward classes in the
statements: local bodies.
1. Under this schedule, President of India is d) diagnosis of Tuberculosis within a short
empowered to organize the autonomous span of time.
districts in the Tribal Areas.
2. Any laws made by district councils of
autonomous districts on the matters of

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.12) Which one of the following statements is Q.15) With reference to the Criminal Justice
correct regarding the “5+1” system of System in India, which one of the following
collegium, recently seen in news? statements is incorrect regarding
a) It is a newly devised system in judiciary for ‘Handcuffing of an Accused’?
appointment of Chief Justice of India. a) An under-trial prisoner during transit from
b) It is a newly devised system where a jurist jail to the court is allowed to be
is added as an additional member to the handcuffed.
collegium for appointing Supreme Court b) Police officers are allowed to resort to
judges. handcuffing only under exceptional
c) It is a mechanism used when circumstances.
recommendation of appointing judges to c) In case of handcuffing, the arresting officer
Supreme Court is sent back to the must record the reasons in the police diary.
collegium by the President of India. d) The officer concerned must pay
d) It is a system where a potential Chief compensation to the accused for violation
Justice of India is added as an additional of the principles of handcuffing.
member in the collegium, when four
seniormost judges of collegium cannot
Q.16) Which of the following authority can
become the next Chief justice.
provide for citizenship in case of acquisition of
territory?
Q.13) With reference to ‘The Hindu Marriage a) Central Government
Act, 1955’, consider the following statements:
b) Parliament of India
Under the act-
c) Supreme Court of India
1. a husband cannot claim alimony from his
d) All the citizens of acquired territory would
wife in case of divorce.
automatically become citizens of India.
2. remedy for restitution of conjugal rights is
provided to both husband and wife.
Q.17) Which of the following is incorrect
3. irretrievable breakdown of marriage is not
regarding the Small Farmers Agribusiness
recognized as a valid ground for divorce.
Consortium (SFAC)?
Which of the statements given above is/are
a) It is one of the central procurement
correct?
agencies for the purpose of procuring
a) 1 and 2 only Onions and Pulses.
b) 2 only b) It is an implementation agency of an eNAM,
c) 2 and 3 only an online trading platform for agricultural
d) 1 and 3 only commodities.
c) It is governed by the Board of management
which is chaired by the Union Minister for
Q.14) With reference to Modern History, the
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
idea of ‘Oceanic circle of power’ is related to
which of the following subject? d) It is registered under Multi-State Co-
operative Societies Act (MSCS) of 2002.
a) B.R Ambedkar’s vision of centralized power.
b) Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of social
organization.
c) J. L. Nehru’s vision of International
Relations.
d) Sardar Patel’s vision of Centre-State
relations.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.18) With reference to Members of Which of the statements given above are
Parliament Local Area Development Scheme correct?
(MPLADS), which of the following statements a) 1, 2 and 3 only
is/are correct? b) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. The scheme is under the Ministry of c) 2 and 3 only
Parliamentary Affairs. d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. The elected member of Lok Sabha cannot
recommend funds from MPLADS for any Q.21) With reference to the modern history of
developmental work carried outside their India, consider the following pairs:
constituency. Commissions Recommendations
3. Currently, interest accrued on the annual
1. Hunter Primary education
MPLADS funds cannot be used by MPs for
Commission through Vernacular
developmental works.
languages.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Aitchison An immediate
below:
Commission establishment of the
a) 1 and 3 only
Public Service
b) 2 and 3 only Commission.
c) 1 and 2 only
3. Whitley Fixing 14 years as the
d) 3 only Commission minimum age for
employment of Children.
Q.19) Which of the following statements are 4. Frazer Commission Separation of judicial and
correct in respect of “Digital India Land executive functions of
Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP)” police
which aims to digitise land records in India?
5. Floud Commission Abolition of Permanent
1. It is a central sector scheme. Settlement in Bengal
2. The Programme assigns a unique id for province.
each land parcel to facilitate Integrated
How many of above given pairs are correctly
Land Information Management System matched?
(ILIMS) in India. a) only two pairs
Which of the statements given above are b) only three pairs
correct? c) only four pairs
a) 1 only d) All the five pairs
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q.22) With reference to the energy sources in
d) Neither 1 nor 2 India, consider the following statements:
1. In India, natural gas hydrates are found in
Q.20) If the Parliament of India has made two Krishna Godavari and Cauvery basins.
laws regulating the functions of the police and 2. The sites for Geothermal energy in India
the salaries and allowances of the ministers in includes Puga Valley, Cambay and
the state of Manipur, then under which of the Tattapani.
following circumstances such a law would be 3. Offshore wind energy can be generated
considered valid? from turbines installed in shallow waters
1. The Legislative Assembly of Manipur only.
requested the Parliament to make such law. Which of the statements given above are
2. President’s Rule is in operation in Manipur. correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
3. The law is necessary to give effect to an
b) 2 and 3 only
international treaty with Myanmar.
c) 1 and 3 only
4. India is under Financial Emergency.
d) 1, 2 and 3

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.23) Which of the following is the major cause Who among the following is the above-
of Birsa Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900? mentioned personality?
a) Exploitation of tribals by the European a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Indigo plantation owners. b) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) The British’s policy of banning human c) Bipin Chandra Pal
sacrifices angered Munda tribes. d) Rash Behari Bose
c) Restrictions imposed by the British on the
traditional agricultural practises of Munda Q.27) With reference to the workers
tribes. movement in the Pre-Independent India,
d) Alienation of Munda people from their land consider the following statements:
due to the interference of money lenders 1. The Swadeshi movement mobilised
and merchants. workers by organising strikes around their
grievances.
Q.24) Consider the following statements in the 2. The All-India Trade Union Congress was
event of history of India: established in 1920 with C.R. Das as its first
1. Ascension of throne by Prathihara King President.
Mihir Bhoja. 3. The Trade Disputes Act,1929 for the first-
2. Establishment of Chalukya power under time recognised trade unions as legal
Kirthivarman II associations.
3. Construction of Kailasha temple by 4. The Meerut Conspiracy Case weakened the
Rashtrakuta king Krishna I. trade union movement in India.
4. Capture of Sri Lanka by the Chola King Raja Which of the statements given above are
Raja I correct?
What is the correct chronological order of the a) 1 and 4 only
above events, starting from the earliest? b) 1, 2 and 4 only
a) 2-1-4-3 c) 2 and 3 only
b) 3-1-4-2 d) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2-3-1-4
d) 3-4-1-2 Q.28) With reference to the ‘Bangiya Nari
samaj’ organisation established during pre-
Q.25) With reference to the period of Mauryan independent India, consider the following
dynasty in ancient India, the towns Bharuch, statements:
Sopara and Tamralipti were primarily: 1. Kamini Roy was one of the important
a) ports handling foreign trade leaders of this organisation.
b) places where copper coins were minted. 2. The organisation played a major role in
c) important Buddhist pilgrimage sites. securing voting rights for women.
d) important sites of Ashokan inscriptions. 3. The organisation organised a temple entry
movement of women in the Bengal region.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
Q.26) With reference to the modern history of
correct?
India, consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 2 only
1. Rabindranath Tagore hailed him as the
Messiah of Indian Culture and Civilization. b) 1 and 3 only
2. He openly put forth the idea of complete c) 3 only
independence from the British in d) 1, 2 and 3
newspaper ‘Bande Mataram’.
3. He was prosecuted twice for sedition
charges by the British Government.
4. He was a Principal of Bengal National
college established during the anti-
partition movement.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.29) Which of the following statements was Q.32) Which of the following statements is/
not an appropriate reason for the fall of the are correct regarding Surendranath Banerjee,
Gupta empire? an eminent political leader in British India?
a) Refusal to offer land grants to brahmins 1. He was one of the founders of The Indian
pushed brahmins to conspire with enemies National Association in 1876.
of Gupta rulers. 2. He was the founder of English language
b) Lack of administrative control over local newspaper- The Indian Mirror.
chiefs and regional rulers made them to 3. He was the first Indian to qualify the Indian
rebel against the empire. Civil Service Examination.
c) Decline in external trade and other Choose the correct answer from the codes
economic activities weakened the financial given below:
base of the empire. a) 1 only
d) Failure of the Gupta rulers to successfully b) 1 and 2 only
resist the invasion of Huns. c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Q.30) With reference to the Cultural history of
India, consider the following statements: Q.33) With reference to Behram ji Malabari,
1. It is the first formal biography of a King. consider the followings statements:
2. This particular King is considered a 1. He founded the Parsi Religious Reform
renowned writer himself. Association.
3. The person who wrote this biography, also 2. He founded the newspaper called ‘The
authored a Sanskrit romantic novel called Indian Spectator’ to spread his message.
Kadambari. 3. He defended Rukhmabai in a legal case
Which among the following are the biography involving restitution of conjugal rights.
mentioned here? 4. He played an instrumental role in passing
a) Ramacharitam the Age of Consent Act.
b) Harshacharita Which of the statements given above are
c) Kumarapalacharitra correct?
d) Vikramankadevacharita a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
Q.31) The Sikh Gurus have played an important c) 1, 3 and 4 only
role in propagating brotherhood and other d) 2, 3 and 4 only
ideals of Sikhism in India. In this context,
which of the following statements is correct? Q.34) Which of the following statements is
a) Guru Nanak Dev introduced the Gurmukhi correct regarding the Rajagopalachari Formula
Script for Punjabi language. of 1944 to ensure cooperation between the
b) Guru Arjan Dev evolved the concept of Congress and the Muslim League?
langar (common kitchen) for the first time. a) It proposed that only the Muslim
c) Guru Ramdas founded the present-day city population in Muslim majority areas would
of Amritsar. vote in a plebiscite regarding the formation
d) Guru Angad Dev commissioned the of a separate sovereign state.
construction of Shri Harmandir Sahib (The b) It provided for joint safeguarding of
Golden Temple). defense in case of acceptance of partition
of India.
c) Gandhi strongly condemned the formula
for giving acceptance to the demand for
partition of India.
d) Jinnah supported the proposals given in the
formula in its entirety.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.35) The Nationalist leaders had strongly Q.39) Consider the following statements
protested the British government for their regarding the self-amplifying mRNA vaccine:
inability to accommodate the demands of 1. It takes longer time to produce self-
Indians for complete independence. In this amplifying mRNA vaccine as compared to
context, the ‘individual satyagraha’ was the mRNA vaccine.
launched by Gandhiji as a response to which of 2. It may contain several variants of the same
the following events? virus or different viruses.
a) Enactment of Government of India Act, 3. It produces the antigens in body for a
1935 longer period as compared to the
b) Constitutional proposals of the Cripps traditional mRNA vaccines.
Mission (1942) Which of the statements given above is/ are
c) Failure of the Second Round Table correct?
Conference (1932) a) 1 and 3 only
d) August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow (1940) b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
Q.36) With reference to ancient Indian History, d) 1, 2 and 3
Ghosha, Kadru and Devajami are related to:
a) the Buddhist postures mentioned in Vinaya Q.40) Consider the following statements with
Pitaka. reference to the Metaverse:
b) the ritual Sacrifices to be performed by 1. It is a mix of virtual reality, augmented
Kings. reality, and blockchain.
c) the women sages of Vedic period. 2. It can aid in urban planning and
d) the temple architectural styles. development in developing countries.
3. It is synonymous to Web3.0.
Q.37) In the context of the human body, which Which of the statements given above are
of the following statements best describes the correct?
term ‘molecular motors? a) 1 and 3 only
a) They are the tiny organelles that are found b) 2 and 3 only
only in the cells of muscle tissues in the c) 1 and 2 only
human body. d) 1, 2 and 3
b) They are the proteins that convert
chemical energy into mechanical Q.41) Consider the following statements
movement. regarding the Open-Source Software:
c) They are the enzymes that break down 1. It allows anyone to modify the ‘source code’
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) into smaller of a software.
molecules. 2. They may provide more security than
d) They are the nucleic acids that regulate software for which source code is not
gene expression in cells. publicly available.
3. Google has recently launched the
Q.38) Which of the following statements best ‘OpenForge’ platform to promote the use of
reflects the meaning of Tidal Disruption open-source software globally.
Events? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) A destruction of stars by the gravitational correct?
force of the super massive black holes in a) 1 only
space. b) 1 and 2 only
b) A destruction of stars caused when the c) 2 and 3 only
stars run out of their fuel. d) 1, 2 and 3
c) A disruption caused due to the collision of
stars of equal mass and density.
d) A disruption in the direction of light caused
by the gravitational force of stars in Space.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.42) In the context of the theories of particle 3. Government of India has recently strictly
physics, consider the following statements banned the use of ethylene glycol for any
regarding the ‘Standard Model’: pharmaceutical purpose.
1. It explained for the first time that neutrinos Which of the statements given above is/ are
have a mass. correct?
2. It does not explain the existence of dark a) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
matter and dark energy in the universe.
c) 1 only
3. It does not explain the impact of gravity on d) 1 and 3 only
subatomic interactions.
Which of the statements given above is/ are Q.46) The term “Blue Bugging” sometimes seen
incorrect? in the news is related to:
a) 1 only a) a software bug that activates the antilock
b) 3 only braking system (ABS) in internet enabled
c) 2 only Self Driving Cars.
d) 2 and 3 only b) gaining unauthorised access over Bluetooth
enabled devices.
Q.43) The terms ‘Schwarzschild radius’ and c) reconnaissance technology used to observe
‘Ergosphere’ are related to which of the the movement of Submarines in the
following? Oceans.
a) Lagrange points in space d) an advanced phishing method used
b) Distance between two galaxies exclusively to steal Non-Fungible Tokens
c) Black holes (NFTs).
d) International Space Station
Q.47) With reference to the ‘Site Directed
Q.44) Consider the following statements Nuclease (SDN)’ technology, consider the
regarding the nuclear and mitochondrial following statements:
genome: 1. It uses CRISPR technology to make gene
1. A particular cell can contain several editing more targeted and faster.
thousand copies of the mitochondrial 2. It essentially involves the process of
genome, but only one copy of the nuclear replacing the targeted gene with the
genome. foreign genes.
2. Unlike the nuclear genome, the 3. The Genetic Engineering and Appraisal
mitochondrial genome cannot be used for Committee has recently approved for
establishing the identity of the individuals commercial production of genome edited
who have been separated from their crops, where SDN technique is used.
families. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. The mitochondrial genome has a higher correct?
mutation rate than the nuclear genome. a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/ are b) 2 and 3 only
correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) 2 only d) 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only Q.48) The term “Climate Tipping Point”
d) 1 and 3 only sometimes mentioned in news best refers to:
a) the increased cases of Acid Rain events.
Q.45) Consider the following statements b) the increased concentration of methane in
regarding ‘ethylene glycol’: the atmosphere.
c) a threshold limit which when crossed may
1. It is a toxic alcohol that is used in various
have irreversible impacts on the climate
households and industrial agents. system.
2. There is no treatment available once it is d) a situation where the concentration of
ingested by an individual. Ground level ozone exceeds the
concentration of stratospheric ozone.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.49) With reference to Agriculture Extension Q.52) Which of the following are the major
Services, consider the following statements: Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?
1. Extension Services necessarily involves 1. Carbon Tetrachloride
offering credit facilities and transportation 2. Carbon Dioxide
support to the farmers by the Government.
3. Methyl bromide
2. Agriculture Technology Managment
4. Chlorofluorocarbons
Agency (ATMA) is a centrally sponsored
5. Hydrofluorocarbons
scheme to support Farmers in extension
services. Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
3. The Agriculture Extension Services forms
part of Green Box under WTO norms. a) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
b) 2, 3, and 5 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct? c) 1, 3, and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Q.53) Which of the following statements is
c) 2 and 3 only
correct regarding “Loan Loss Provisions”,
d) 1, 2 and 3 often heard in news?
a) A refinancing mechanism of government to
Q.50) Which of the following best reflects the provide partial risk coverage to banks in
term ‘Shrinkflation’, seen in the news? case of loan defaults.
a) Drastic increase in the price of a product b) Funding mechanism established within the
due to its unavailability. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to cushion the
b) Drastic decrease in the price of a product loss of revenue of banks in case of loan
due to its easy availability. defaults.
c) Reducing the quantity of a product without c) A legal provision included in the Banking
altering its price. regulation act to infuse public money into
d) Increase in the price of a product due to a the banks on the verge of collapse.
rise in the price of its substitute goods. d) Funds maintained by the banks with
themselves to cover their loss in case of
default of loans provided by them.
Q.51) Which one of the following situations
best reflects "Reverse Flipping" seen in the
news recently with reference to India? Q.54) Which among the following is the part of
revenue receipts of the Government of India?
a) An Indian company shifting its
headquarters back to India which was 1. Dividend accrued from Public Sector
earlier located in a foreign country. Undertakings.
b) An Indian start-up transferring the 2. Return of loans given to State governments.
ownership of a company from Indian entity 3. Money received by selling the assets of the
to foreign one. Government.
c) Foreign owners of e-commerce company 4. Money received through Interest on loans
selling products that belong to other provided by government of India.
companies. 5. Money raised by issuing government
d) Financial Institutional Investors pulling off securities.
from the Indian Markets, due to change in Select the correct answer using the code given
policy of the Government. below:
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 4 and 5 only

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.55) Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above are
reference to the Indian Independence Act of correct?
1947: a) 1 and 3 only
1. The Act made the Constituent Assembly of b) 2 and 3 only
India a fully sovereign body. c) 3 only
2. The office of the Governor-General of India d) 1, 2 and 3
was abolished by the Act.
3. The act explicitly mentions 15th August
Q.58) With reference to technical textiles,
1947 as the date on which India would be
consider the following statements:
declared as independent Dominion.
1. They are made using both natural as well as
Which of the statements given above is/are
man-made fibres.
correct?
2. 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
a) 1 only
under automatic route is allowed in
b) 1 and 3 only
technical textile industries in India.
c) 2 and 3 only
3. India is the largest exporter of technical
d) 1, 2 and 3 textile in the world.
Which of the statements given above are
Q.56) Consider the following statement with correct?
reference to “Red Corner Notice/ Red a) 1 and 2 only
Notices”: b) 1 and 3 only
1. It is issued by the International Criminal c) 2 and 3 only
Police Organization.
d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is issued to provide warning about a
person’s criminal activities.
Q.59) Which of the following statements
3. Enforcement Directorate publishes,
rightly describes the distinction between
maintains and update Red Notices for India.
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross
4. Law enforcement authorities in a country
National Product (GNP) of India in a financial
cannot be compelled to arrest the subject
year?
of a Red Notice.
1. While GDP measures economic activities
Which of the statements given above are
happening within the nation, GNP
correct?
measures economic activities of Indian
a) 1, 2, and 3 only citizens, irrespective of their location.
b) 2 and 4 only 2. While the higher GDP necessarily means
c) 1 and 4 only higher economic growth, higher GNP
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 necessarily means higher economic
development.
Q.57) Consider the following statements in 3. While GNP data is published by Office of
respect of Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms Economic Advisor, Ministry of Commerce,
fixed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI): the GDP data is released by National
Statistical Office, Ministry of Statistics and
1. All Primary Urban Co-operative Banks
Program Implementation.
(UCBS) are exempted from these norms.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
2. Loans to small and marginal farmers for
correct?
purchase of land for agricultural purposes
are classified as PSL. a) 1 only
3. Commercial banks falling short of their PSL b) 2 only
target have to transfer the balance amount c) 1 and 3 only
to any funds as decided by the RBI. d) 2 and 3 only

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.60) With reference to the external debt in 3. The number of tax slabs has been reduced
India, consider the following statements: under the new tax regime as compared to
1. It refers to the borrowings made by India the exiting old tax regime.
only in non-rupee denominated currency. 4. Old tax regime will continue to be default
2. Reserve Bank of India manages external tax regime in India, while new tax regime is
debt of the central government. optional for taxpayers.
3. In India the external debt owed by non- Which of the statements given above is/ are
sovereign entities is greater than that of correct?
sovereign entities. a) 1 and 4 only
4. In India the long-term external debt of b) 2 only
India is nearly four times that of its short- c) 3 only
term external debt. d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct? Q.63) On which of the following events/
a) 1 and 2 only activities can Government of India collect the
b) 1, 3 and 4 only ‘capital gains tax’ as per the provisions of
c) 3 and 4 only Income Tax Act, 1961?
d) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. Profit on the sale of equity shares
2. Profit on the sale of jewellery held for
Q.61) On which of the following financial personal use
institutions the Prompt Corrective Action 3. Profit on the sale of residential house
(PCA) Framework of the Reserve Bank of India property
(RBI) is applicable? 4. Transfer of gold from father to son as
1. Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) inheritance
2. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) Choose the correct answer from the codes
3. Small Finance Banks (SFBs) given below:
4. All deposit taking Non-Banking Financial a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Companies (NBFCs) b) 1 and 2 only
5. Payment Banks (PBs) c) 1 and 3 only
6. Foreign Banks operating through branches d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
in India
7. Primary (Urban) Cooperative Banks (UCBs) Q.64) With reference to taxation system in
Choose the correct answer from the codes India, Consider the following statements
given below: regarding the ‘equalization levy 2.0’:
a) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only 1. It can be levied on e-commerce operators
b) 1 and 6 only in India for revenue generated from the e-
c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 7 only commerce services.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only 2. It is not levied if the e-commerce operator
has a permanent establishment in India.
3. It is a type of an indirect tax in India.
Q.62) In the context of Union Budget, consider
the following statements regarding the ‘New Which of the statements given above is/ are
Income Tax Regime’ in India: correct?
1. This has been introduced for the first time a) 1 only
in the Budget 2023-24. b) 2 only
2. It has disallowed various exemptions under c) 1 and 2 only
the Income Tax Act, 1961 to ease the d) 1, 2 and 3
compliance burden of taxpayers.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.65) India has more than 15,000 kilometers of Q.68) Consider the following pairs regarding
land border with its neighboring countries. In world trenches and oceans in which they are
this context, consider the following pairs found:
regarding different lines or corridor Trenches Oceans in which
demarcating our borders with neighbors: they are found
Border Lines/ Separates: 1. Mariana Trench Pacific Ocean
Corridor 2. Puerto Rico Trench Arctic Ocean
1. McMahon Line India and China in 3. Java Trench Indian Ocean
Arunachal Pradesh 4. South Sandwich Atlantic Ocean
region Trench
2. Radcliff Line India and Bangladesh How many pairs given above are correct?
3. Johnson Line India and China in a) Only one pair
Ladakh region b) Only two pairs
4. Wakhan corridor India and Afghanistan c) Only three pairs
Which of the pairs given above is/ are d) All four pairs
correctly matched?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.69) ‘Hallmark Unique Identification number
b) 1 and 3 only (HUID)’ was in the news recently. In this
c) 4 only context, consider the following statements:
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. It is a 12-digit alphanumeric code.
2. It is regulated by Bureau of Indian
Q.66) Foreign Institutional Investments (FIIs) Standards (BIS).
are allowed in which among the following? 3. The sale of Gold Jewelery without HUID
1. Government securities. number is prohibited in India.
2. Unlisted companies. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Mutual Funds. correct?
4. Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) a) 1 only
5. Commercial papers of Indian companies. b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) 2 and 3 only
below: d) 1, 2, and 3
a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only Q.70) Consider the following pairs regarding
c) 2, 4 and 5 only different reports & indices and their issuing
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 organizations:
Reports & Indices Issuing Organization
Q.67) In the context of social security schemes, 1. The Goods Trade Organization for
consider the following statements: Barometer Economic Cooperation
1. Employee Provident Fund (EPF) receives and Development
contributions from both employers as well (OECD)
as employees. 2. Global Gender World Economic
2. Only salaried individuals can contribute to Gap Index Forum (WEF)
the Public Provident Fund (PPF). 3. World International Labor
3. An employee can contribute up to 100% of Employment and Organization (ILO)
basic salary and dearness allowance to the Social Outlook
Voluntary Provident Fund (VPF). 4. Social Progress Heritage Foundation
Which of the statements given above is/ are Index
correct? How many pairs given above are correctly
a) 1 only matched?
b) 2 only a) Only one pair
c) 1 and 3 only b) Only two pairs
d) 2 and 3 only c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.71) With reference to the history of ancient Which of the statements given above are
India, consider the following pairs: correct?
Philosophers Teachings a) 2 only
1. Madhvacharya Salvation can be b) 1 and 3 only
achieved through true c) 3 only
Knowledge only d) 2 and 3 only
2. Vallabhacharya Devotion is a means to
achieve salvation. Q.74) ‘Abidjan Call’, sometimes mentioned in
3. Nimbarka Salvation can be news is primarily talked about in the context
obtained solely of-
through meditation. a) combating desertification and land
How many pair/s given above is/are correctly degradation.
matched? b) combating destruction of Coral reefs.
a) Only one pair c) combating Sea level rise.
b) Only two pairs d) combating Proliferation of biochemical
c) All three pairs weapons.
d) None of the pairs.
Q.75) The “Rule Curve”, recently seen in news,
Q.72) In the context of Underwater Noise specifies the quantum of-
Pollution and its impacts on marine organisms, a) storage of water or empty space required
consider the following statements: to be maintained in reservoirs.
1. Acoustic masking is the phenomenon of b) groundwater required to be maintained to
permanent loss of hearing ability of marine avoid the problem of soil salinisation.
organisms due to noise pollution. c) water that should be consumed by humans
2. The anthropogenic noise makes it harder per day to save their body from
for dolphins to communicate and dehydration.
coordinate with each other. d) water required to produce one ton of rice
3. International Ocean Noise Coalition (IONC) in the eastern states of India.
is an intergovernmental body created to
address the issue of noise pollution in the Q.76) With reference to Integrated Bio-
oceans. refineries Mission, consider the following
Which of the statements given above is/are statements:
correct? 1. It is a joint initiative of India and the United
a) 1 and 2 only States of America (USA).
b) 2 only 2. The Mission aims to replace 10% of fossil-
c) 3 only based fuels, materials and chemicals with
d) 2 and 3 only bio-based alternatives by 2030.
3. The Mission promotes innovation in the
area of converting algae and kelps into
Q.73) With reference to Mission LiFE, consider
biofuels.
the following statements:
Which of the statements given above are
1. The mission was launched by India during
correct?
the UNFCCC Conference of Parties (CoP) at
Paris in 2015. a) 1 and 2 only
2. Central Pollution Control Board is the b) 1 and 3 only
implementing agency for Mission LiFE in c) 2 and 3 only
India. d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The mission provides financial assistance to
selected individuals to implement their
climate friendly ideas.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.77) Which of the following protected areas Q.80) With reference to Carbon Capture,
are located on the banks of river Ganga? Utilisation and Storage (CCUS), consider the
1. Corbett National Park following statements:
2. Sundarbans National Park 1. Enhanced Oil Recovery (EOR) method can
3. Dudhwa National Park be used to store carbon dioxide (CO2) in
the underground reservoirs.
4. Gangotri National Park
2. CCUS technique is widely used for
Select the correct answer using the code given
production of Green Hydrogen.
below:
3. The carbon captured using CCUS
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
technique is used in pharmaceutical
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
industry.
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statement/s given above is/are
d) 2 and 4 only correct?
a) 1 only
Q.78) With reference to the High Seas treaty, b) 1 and 2 only
consider the following statements: c) 2 only
1. It's a global treaty for the conservation and d) 1 and 3 only
sustainable use of biological resources in
the open ocean areas beyond national
Q.81) If a particular species is placed under
jurisdictions.
Schedule IV of the Wildlife (Protection)
2. The provisions of the treaty will be legally
Amendment act 2022, what is the implication?
binding.
a) These species can be hunted freely by the
3. The treaty is being negotiated under
people.
United Nations Convention on Biological
b) These species are invasive and harmful to
Diversity (UNCBD).
the ecosystem.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? c) A person possessing a living specimen of
a) 1 and 2 only these species must report it to the
b) 1 and 3 only Government.
c) 2 and 3 only d) These species can be used by humans for
d) 1, 2 and 3 any religious purpose.

Q.79) With reference to “Precautionary Q.82) Which of the following statements is


Principle”, consider the following statements: correct regarding the features of Gupta
1. It means the domestic laws of the countries literature?
should be in congruence with the a) The vivid representation of human
international treaties ratified by the tragedies in plays is one of the unique
country. features of Gupta literature.
2. In India the principle has been solely b) Gupta literature was marked by the
followed in case of framing environmental absence of secular literature.
laws. c) Literature of Gupta Period suggest that
3. As per the Supreme Court of India, the women started to learn and use Sanskrit on
principle is considered as an essential larger scale.
feature of sustainable development. d) The earliest versions of Puranas were
Which of the statement/s given above is/are compiled during the Gupta period.
correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.83) With reference to Permaculture farming, Q.86) With reference to the phenomena of
consider the following statements: Ocean Waves, consider the following
1. It encourages the practices of mixed statements:
farming. 1. Water moves from one place to another
2. It may result in reduced soil erosion caused through waves.
due to water and wind. 2. Steep waves are young while slow and
3. It requires more water and chemical steady waves originate from faraway places
fertilisers as compared to conventional in oceans.
farming. 3. The maximum wave height is determined
Which of the statements given above are by the strength of the wind.
correct? 4. Wave breaks when the depth of water is
a) 1 and 2 only less than half the wavelength of the wave.
b) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are
c) 2 and 3 only correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.84) Which of the following are advantages of c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Flex Fuel Vehicles (FFVs)? d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. They are capable of running on 100%
ethanol. Q.87) The term “Mixed Cropping” can be best
2. They can be powered using electrical described as:
energy. a) it involves cultivation of crops along with
3. FFVs running on ethanol blended petrol are rearing of animals in the same field.
free of any carbon monoxide emissions. b) it involves growing different crops in the
4. Performance of FFVs using ethanol blended same field in rotation.
petrol is greater than that of conventional c) it involves growing two or more crops
vehicles. simultaneously in the same field.
Select the correct answer using the code given d) it involves planting trees and growing
below: different crops in the same field.
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only Q.88) Consider the following statements with
c) 1, 2 and 3 only reference to ‘Quantum key distribution’:
d) 1 and 4 only 1. It is a communication mechanism, utilizing
a cryptographic protocol which involves
Q.85) Towards 1000 strategy, recently seen in principles of quantum mechanics.
news is related to: 2. It provides unconditional data
a) mobilising USD 1000 billion to Green communication security.
Climate Fund, to assist developing Which of the statements given above is/are
countries in mitigating the impacts of correct?
climate change. a) 1 only
b) revamping at least 1000 hectares of b) 2 only
degraded land in the Sahel region of Africa. c) Both 1 and 2
c) mobilising USD 1000 billion for installing d) Neither 1 nor 2
1000 GW of Solar Energy Capacity in
Electricity generation.
d) creating at least 1000 women led
environment organisations across the
world to mainstream gender issues in
climate change.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.89) With reference to Crop Rotation, 2. The cost related issues in transportation of
consider the following statements: coal from the major coal producing states.
1. It helps in regaining soil nutrients without 3. Prohibition of commercial coal mining for
synthetic inputs. the private sector in India.
2. This is an effective method to reduce soil Select the correct answer using the code given
erosion. below:
3. It may decrease the crop yield. a) 1 and 2 only
4. The main disadvantage of this system is the b) 1 and 3 only
increase of pests in the field. c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 1, 2, and 3
correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.93) Which of the following statements is
b) 1 and 2 only correct regarding the ‘Buffering capacity of
c) 2, 3, and 4 only the soil’?
d) 1, 2 and 4 only a) It is the capacity of soil to resist any sudden
change in its hydrogen ion concentration.
Q.90) Which of the following are correct b) It is the ability of soil to maintain its porous
regarding Bio-dynamic farming? structure and regulate the passage of air,
gases, and water.
1. The main aim of this farming is to maintain
soil fertility. c) It is the capacity of a soil to function within
natural or managed ecosystem boundaries.
2. It treats cattle, crops, and soil as a single
system. d) It is the capacity of soil to absorb an
adequate amount of moisture.
3. It is based on the utility of monocropping in
agriculture.
4. It uses various herbal and mineral additives Q.94) With reference to World Trade
for compost making. Organization (WTO), consider the following
Select the correct answer using the code given statements regarding the New Agreement on
below: Fisheries Subsidies:

a) 1 and 3 only 1. The agreement requires acceptance by at


least two thirds of the member countries to
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
become operational.
c) 1 and 2 only
2. The agreement provided a twenty five-year
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
transition period for developing countries
to eliminate subsidies provided to illegal
Q.91) Which one of the following conditions fishing.
result in the occurrence of frontal rain in the 3. Recently India became the first WTO
mid-latitudes? member to accept this agreement.
a) The intense heating of the earth’s surface. Which of the statements given above is/are
b) The moisture laden winds coming across correct?
mountains. a) 1 only
c) The seasonal reversal of winds. b) 2 only
d) The convergence of hot and cold air c) 1 and 3 only
masses. d) 2 and 3 only

Q.92) Which of the following are the likely


challenges faced by the Coal Sector in India?
1. Majority amount of India’s coal is
bituminous coal which is high in ash
content.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy
PTS 2023 | GS Simulator Test 3 |

Q.95) Consider the following statements with Q.98) In case, India wants to ban the import of
reference to Elephant Reserves in India: shipments of contaminated plastic wastes
1. Chhattisgarh has the highest number of from United States of America, then it can be
Elephant reserves in India. done under the provisions of which of the
2. Eastern Dooars Elephant Reserve is following international conventions?
situated in the state of Assam. a) Rotterdam Convention
3. They are considered as ‘ecologically b) Basel Convention
sensitive areas’ under the Environmental c) Stockholm Convention
(Protection) Act 1986. d) Geneva convention
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.99) Consider the following statements with
a) 1 and 3 only reference to Paleomagnetism:
b) 2 only 1. It is the study of the rocks to record the
c) 3 only history of earth's magnetic field.
d) None 2. It is an inexpensive method used to
determine the age of caves.
Q.96) “This river is also known as Dawki River. 3. It helps in determining the positions held
It is said to be one of the cleanest rivers in the by each of the present continental
Indian Subcontinent. This river flows as a landmasses in different geological periods.
natural divider between Jayantia and Khasi Which of the statements given above is/are
Mountain ranges in the state of Meghalaya.” correct?
The above passage talks about which of the a) 2 and 3 only
following rivers? b) 1 only
a) Umngot River c) 1 and 3 only
b) Subansiri River d) 1, 2 and 3
c) Myntdu River
d) Feni River Q.100) Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the ‘Critical Tiger Habitats’?
Q.97) With reference to the period of 1. They are mentioned in the Wildlife
Harshvardhana in Ancient India, consider the (Protection) Act, 1972.
following pairs: 2. These areas are required to be kept
Officials Duties of Officials inviolate for the purpose of Tiger
conservation.
1. Avanti Keeper of official
records 3. These areas are notified by the state
government in consultation with Gram
2. Simhananda Commander in chief Sabha.
3. Skandagupta Chief Commandant of Choose the correct answer using the code
Elephant Force given below:
4. Kuntala Minister for Foreign a) 1 and 2 only
Relations and War b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? c) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3, and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9821711605 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

You might also like