ĐỀ CƯƠNG ÔN TẬP CUỐI HK2_2022-2023

MÔN TIẾNG ANH_KHỐI 12

LANGUAGE FOCUS:
- Reported speech: reporting orders, requests, offers, advice, instructions, etc.
- Phrasal verbs (consisting of a verb, an adverb, and a preposition)
- Adverbial clauses of condition, comparison, manner and result
- Conditionals (Type 3)
- Mixed conditionals of Type 2 and Type 3
- other grammar points revised in the first semester and previous years.

VOCABULARY:
- Unit 8: The world of work, Unit 9: Choosing a career and Unit 10: Lifelong learning (textbook)
- other vocabulary resources from the first semester and previous years.

SAMPLE TEST FOR REFERENCE:

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. exhibit B. prohibit C. habitat D. hunting
Question 2: A. elephants B. decades C. poachers D. actions

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three
in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. defensive B. vertical C. penalty D. personal
Question 4: A. volunteer B. industry C. headquarters D. national

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: On _______________ Internet and with cable television we can collect_____________
information from ___________ wide variety of sources.
A. the - ∅ - a B. the - the - a C. the - an - a D. the - ∅ - the
Question 6: Advances in computing _____________, from processing speed to network capacity and the
Internet, have revolutionized the way scientists work.
A. technology B. technological C. technologically D. technologist
Question 7: You may have heard that strengthening exercises most _______________ your muscular and
skeletal health, but they could have two other big perks: helping you prevent disease and live longer.
A. benefit B. benefit from C. benefit to D. beneficial to
Question 8: Meditation is a centuries-old method of calming the body and the mind. It can help
perfectionists ___________________ themselves and can assist in the treatment of smoking, pain, addictive
disorders and depression, among others.
A. stop judging B. stop to be judged C. stop for judging D. stop to judge
Question 9: The contract had a few mistakes. It __________________ by Mary, a new secretary in our
company.
A. seemed to be typed B. was seemed to be typed
C. seemed to type D. was seemed to type
Question 10: - I saw Peter at the bank this morning.
- It ______________ Peter. He just got married last week, and is in Paris on his honeymoon.
A. can’t have been B. won’t have been
C. mustn’t have been D. wouldn’t have been
Question 11: In order not to _________________, you need to ______________your lessons regularly.
A. fall behind – brush up on B. fall down – brush in on
C. fall back – brush on to D. fall away – brush up in
Question 12: It was ________________ that she couldn’t put it down.
A. so fascinating a novel B. such fascinating novel
C. such novel fascinating D. so a fascinating novel
Question 13: When all the invited guests _________________, they began the wedding ceremony.
A. had been seated B. were seating
C. had been seating D. have seated
Question 14: Please excuse me for returning the money this late. I almost forget _____________ some
money from you.
A. having borrowed B. to borrow
C. to be borrowing D. having been borrowed
Question 15: In a workplace setting, new employees are often ______________ before they may be offered
a long-term job in the company.
A. put on a probation period B. put in a probation period
C. put on an apprentice period D. put on an experience period
Question 16: “What? Again? You are always making the same mistake,” said the mother to her son.
In indirect speech: ____________________________________
A. The mother complained to her son about his making the same mistake again.
B. The mother told her son about his making the same mistake again.
C. The mother complained that he was making the same mistake again.
D. The mother wanted her son not to make the same mistake anymore.
Question 17: The students were all in the hall excitedly waiting for the guest speaker of today. Unluckily,
he was late and __________________ for about 30 minutes.
A. kept them waiting B. made them to wait
C. kept them wait D. made them waiting
Question 18: Who do you think is __________________: Tom or Tim?
A. the better player B. the best player
C. worse player D. better player
Question 19: - “Have all the passengers been on board?”
- “It looks like _________________ are here.”
A. most of them B. the more of them
C. the most of them D. more of them

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Variations in the color of sea under water from blue to green seem to be caused by high or
low concentrations of salt.
A. Changes B. Measures C. Descriptions D. Clarity
Question 21: Watermelon crops must be rotated regularly with other crops to avoid fungal disease.
A. periodically B. constantly C. simultaneously D. rarely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 22: He is regarded as one of the most distinguished scientists of all generations.
A. insignificant B. important C. famous D. brilliant
Question 23: Everyone today knows that as the pandemic trudges on, dining out is risky to themselves.
A. safe B. poisonous C. perilous D. dangerous

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: - Tom: “It’s my pleasure to have you at the reception tonight.”
- Mary: “_____________”
A. Oh, the pleasure is all mine. B. You are right.
C. Yes, I am very happy. D. Don’t worry. It’s very kind of you.
Question 25: - Steve: “Would you like something to drink, Peter?”
- Peter: “_____________”
A. An iced coffee, please. B. Sure, here you are.
C. Not at all. Be at home. D. No, I don’t.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the following numbered blanks.
One of the hazards that electronic media like the television, radio or computers (26) _____ these days is
the decline in book reading. The concern applies mainly to the younger generations who are strongly (27)
______ by the glamour of the silver screen and, consequently, do not recognize the importance of acquiring
first-hand information from books.
To encourage reading for pleasure and to propagate a wide array of publications like encyclopedias,
reference books, manuals or fiction, radical solutions should be applied. Firstly, more (28) ______ ought to
be put on the educational ground. Youngsters should be made to feel comfortable while reading either for
information or self-satisfaction in public places like airports, buses or on the beach. Secondly, libraries must
be subsidized more accurately in order to provide the potential reader with ample choice of publications and
to become more publicly active so as to put books at people’s (29) _______ rather than keep them under
lock and key. Fund collecting actions organized by libraries might also raise the public awareness of the
advantages of becoming (30) _______ in a good book. Finally, the mass media themselves might contribute
substantially by recommending the purchase of valuable best-sellers and inspiring their viewers to enrich
their knowledge and erudition, and thus help them to develop the habit of spontaneous everyday reading.
Question 26: A. pose B. play C. arise D. denote
Question 27: A. tempted B. exposed C. involved D. submitted
Question 28: A. emphasis B. focus C. relevance D. persistence
Question 29: A. disposal B. usage C. benefit D. availability
Question 30: A. engrossed B. inhaled C. occupied D. incorporated

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
A look inside the world of computer hacking can be a fascinating experience. And in this hackers’
paradise, computer software is constantly being attacked - sometimes for ethical reasons, but all too often
not. And the goal of such attacks is to corrupt the target computer without its owner's knowledge, and get it
to do something which the owner did not intend it to do.
For those who perpetrate these attacks and try to force their entry into secure and unsecured websites
- in other words, the so-called 'hackers' - hacking is both an art and a science; art, because it can be as
original and, dare I say, beautiful as a landscape painting; science, because of its technical features. But as
beautiful and intelligent as the process can be, the problem is that many hackers paint with an unethical
brush; these unscrupulous sorts are up to no good. They might want to steal personal information, alter a
corporation's financial figures, break security codes to gain unapproved network access, or carry out other
damaging activities.
There are two types of people who turn to computer hacking: those who are drawn to hacking out of
intellectual inquisitiveness and those with darker motives for their interest. But the features that all hackers
share are their technological savviness, their eagerness to take risks and their considerable knowledge of
programming languages.
Computer hacking always involves some degree of violation of the confidentiality of others; breaking
through network security and damaging or compromising personal files, web pages or software. It may also
involve downloading or modifying such files without permission, and the consequences can vary from slight
alarm at having been targeted - prompting an overdue security upgrade - to total despair at the realization
that your entire database of private-client information has been lifted from your intranet.
However, many big-shot companies now employ teams of professional hackers tasked with
identifying system weaknesses before the 'bad guys' do. Such staff use their own hacking skills to basically
simulate what a real hacker might get up to. Where they succeed in beating the system, extra security
measures are then put in place. This so-called ethical hacking helps to stop identity theft and other such
cyber crimes.
Hackers like this who try to breach security for the right reasons are commonly termed 'white-hat
hackers'. The ones with malicious intent are referred to as 'black-hat hackers'. These are the guys who infect
our computers with viruses, run credit-card scams, are involved in identity theft, or are simply what is termed
'cyber vandals' - hackers who cause harm just for the sake of it because they enjoy causing problems.
But black-hat hackers beware; the good guys are coming to get you!

Question 31: Why is computer hacking considered "art"?

A. Because it involves creativity.
B. Because it has certain technical aspects.
C. Because it involves painting beautiful landscapes.
D. Because it is as daring as painting.
Question 32: What do people who hack unethically NOT do?
A. gain authorized access to networks
B. modify financial data
C. breach security codes
D. steal personal data
Question 33: What is NOT a characteristic of hackers?
A. excellent modern language skills
B. intellectual curiosity
C. attraction to risk
D. a practical understanding of technology
Question 34: Why do big-shot companies hire teams of hackers?
A. to identify systems vulnerable to attack
B. to damage competitors' software and files
C. to 'hack' the hackers themselves
D. to find unethical hackers
Question 35: What is true about black-hat hackers?
A. Some of them cause computer problems just for fun.
B. They are involved in efforts to stop identity theft.
C. They misuse their company credit cards.
D. They look for weaknesses in company systems to repair them.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
PARKS AS FAR AS THE EYE CAN SEE
The practice of wilderness preservation had hardly begun internationally when, in 1887, New Zealand
declared the peaks of its sacred volcanoes Tongariro and Ruapehu a national park. It was then only the
fourth national park on the globe, the other three having been established in the U.S., Australia and Canada
in the two preceding decades. So where did the idea originate? Despite American author Wallace Stegner's
famous comment that "National parks are the best idea we ever had. Absolutely American, absolutely
democratic," made in 1983, the English poet William Wordsworth had described the British Lake District
as a "sort of national property, in which every man has a right and interest who has an eye to perceive and
a heart to enjoy" as early as 1835.
In this spirit, the earliest legislation that governed national parks in New Zealand originally determined
that they be created primarily for the visual splendor of their scenery rather than for their ecological
significance, and there was a tendency to include majestic but unproductive highlands which were of little
agricultural or other economic significance, rather than more accessible and potentially cultivatable land.
This historical oversight was unfortunate for New Zealand, a country which has some of the most
unique flora and fauna in the world. The plants and animals of New Zealand evolved in complete isolation
from other land for close to eighty million years, survivors of the ancient Gondwanaland which once
included most of the landmasses in today's Southern Hemisphere. The international importance of this flora
and fauna has long been acknowledged by the scientific community, and in 1980 alterations were made to
national laws allowing areas of prime ecological worth, often under threat from industries such as logging
or mining, to be considered for inclusion in the park network. Thus, ecologically rich lowland forests which
had previously been overlooked could now be preserved. In 1990 a massive area of 2.6 million hectares in
the country's South Island was named a World Heritage Area; it includes four separate national parks
including both of the country's highest peaks as well fjord lands and water.
New Zealanders have also chosen to protect rare habitats in a variety of other reserves. These include
off-shore islands that aim to provide havens for many of the world's most critically endangered species,
among them large flightless birds whose evolution and existence in a land without predatory mammals was
threatened by the arrival of humans and the introduction of non-native animal species. Marine reserves too
have gradually been established. Perhaps one of the most remarkable salutes to New Zealand's unique
geographical status came in 2012, when the world's newest dark sky reserve was announced. Covering
4300sq km of New Zealand's South Island, the Aoraki Mackenzie world's largest "Dark Park." Open 24
hours a day, it was the first to be awarded gold level status, recognizing the quality of the almost light-
pollution-free skies which make it a prime star-gazing location for amateur and professional astronomers
alike. So the traveler's day of wonder in the New Zealand landscape need not end at sundown. Lying back
beneath the southern night skies, we can continue to marvel at the beauties offered us by our fragile and
magical planet.

Question 36: What was the status of national parks before the end of the nineteenth century?
A. There were none yet established in Europe.
B. There were some in England, New Zealand and Canada.
C. The first one was established as early as 1835.
D. They covered only a fourth of the globe.
Question 37: Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘accessible’ as it is used in paragraph 2?
A. reachable B. affordable C. manageable D. admirable
Question 38: What made highlands a good economic choice as national parks?
A. The land did not offer good farming opportunities.
B. The land did not cost much to develop.
C. The land was free for all to exploit.
D. The land was easy to protect from hunters.
Question 39: What is significant about plant and animal species in New Zealand?
A. They developed out of touch with any other parts of the world.
B. They were unknown to the scientific community.
C. They survived when Gondwanaland was destroyed by volcanoes.
D. Their importance was ignored by existing national laws.
Question 40: Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘overlooked’ as it is used in paragraph 3?
A. ignored B. considered C. developed D. misused
Question 41: Why have off-shore islands probably been selected as special reserves?
A. Endangered species can more easily survive on them without the fear of predators.
B. The endangered species on them do not endanger locals and tourists.
C. The species on them, especially the flightless birds, cannot escape easily.
D. All non-native animal species have been removed from them.
Question 42: Why was Aoraki Reserve awarded 'gold level status'?
A. It provided ideal night conditions for those interested in astronomy.
B. It does not close at night, like most other national parks.
C. It is the only park of its kind anywhere in the world today.
D. It covers the major part of New Zealand's South

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 43: Tony had such little money that he couldn’t buy a train ticket.
A. such little B. couldn’t C. buy D. train ticket
Question 44: I don’t think that these changes will be beneficiary to the company.
A. beneficiary B. that C. don’t D. will
Question 45: The answer appears to be that they were the first group of predatory eusocial insects that either
lived and foraged primarily in the soil and in rotting vegetation on the ground.
A. either B. appears C. that D. on the ground

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Câu 46: He is not certain if he will be able to realize his lifelong ambition.
A. He doubts whether he will ever be able to fulfill his lifelong ambition.
B. To realize his lifelong ambition, he must be more certain.
C. If he wants to achieve his lifelong ambition, he should not be so uncertain.
D. His uncertainty will certainly prevent him from realizing his lifelong ambition.
Question 47: But for her small children, she wouldn’t have sacrificed her distinguished career as a diplomat.
A. She sacrificed her distinguished career as a diplomat to take care of her small children.
B. She would have sacrificed her distinguished career as a diplomat if it had not been for her small
children.
C. She took care of her small children, but she wouldn’t sacrifice her distinguished career as a diplomat.
D. She sacrificed her distinguished career as a diplomat although she loved her small children.
Question 48: It’s no use expecting someone else to find a job for you; you must do something about it
yourself.
A. You will never get a job unless you set about getting one yourself and not leaving it to others.
B. You should not expect anyone else to accept a job you are not willing to take on yourself.
C. As you do not want the job yourself, you might as well let someone else have it.
D. You cannot assume that others will give up their jobs for you.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They are getting married next month. We are all surprised at that news.
A. They are getting married next month, which surprises all of us.
B. They are getting married next month because they want to surprise us.
C. We are surprised, so they are getting married next month.
D. We are surprised because their marriage is new to us.
Question 50: My grandfather is so weak now. He cannot even walk by himself.
A. My grandfather is too weak to walk by himself.
B. My grandfather is too weak that he can’t walk by himself.
C. My grandfather is very weak that he can’t walk by himself.
D. My grandfather is so weak not to walk by himself.