Question 1: Alice is the agile project manager for her organization.

Her current project is managing a

software development team, whose work will affect the business practices of the organization. Alice
knows that when working on an agile project, processes, documentation, tools, and plans will
probably be necessary. However, of the following, which should be the initial focus?
A. The project manager’s definition of success
B. Scope of the project
C. People involved in the project
D. The individuals and interactions involved (Correct)
Explanation: Regardless of tools and processes playing a role in the project, the agile team’s focus should
be on the individuals and interactions involved. Projects are about people: they are accepted by
people, the scope is debate by people, and people negotiate the definition of done. To ensure a
project’s success, focus early on the involvement of individuals and emphasize productive and
effective interactions. The other responses are incorrect. People involved in the project is not the best
answer here because people involved in the project can include all stakeholders, not just interactions
of the individuals involved. In addition, the scope of the project will likely change throughout the
project; even though the definition of success is important, it’s not the project manager’s initial focus.

Question 2: Shonda is an agile team leader who feels strongly about the benefits of holding retrospectives
after each iteration. Why is this so important to Shonda?
A. It proves to the stakeholders that the team leader is taking charge of the project.
B. The results of a retrospective can offer immediate improvements. (Correct)
C. It lets the team leader know all the details of each iteration.
D. Non-productive team members can be taken off the project.

Explanation: The agile method of holding retrospectives after every iteration offers the chance for
immediate improvements while the project is still in motion, benefiting the current project. (This is
different from a traditional project, where retrospectives, or lessons learned, are usually held at the
end of a project. These retrospectives offer lessons learned to the next project manager, who may or
may not read the information). The other responses are incorrect. Retrospectives are not an
opportunity to remove project team members; retrospectives do not exist to prove to stakeholders the
project team’s role; the team leader will already know the status of the iteration.

Question 3: Crystal is working with an agile team that is developing and delivering a software solution
to her company’s HR group. Throughout the project, many MVP (minimum viable product) releases
are scheduled. Why is this a good idea?
A. To enable the business to begin to get value from the project before the project ending (Correct)
B. To enable the users to test the product for the development team
C. To shorten the duration of the project
D. To show the progress being made by the development team

Explanation: The correct answer is to enable the business to begin to get value from the project before
the project’s end. While the team is developing the remaining functionality, incremental releases may
 allow for some ROI. The other responses are incorrect. The purpose of releasing MVPs is to deliver
value, not to show the project’s progress. The product, in this case, software, should already be
thoroughly tested and functional before being released to users. Finally, the duration of the project
will not be shortened by releasing MVPs; the MVPs are defined in the project life cycle.

Question 4: In an agile environment, which process sets the stage, gathers data, generates insight, decides
what to do, and closes?
A. Value stream mapping
B. Feedback
C. Pre-mortems
D. Retrospectives (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is retrospectives. Retrospectives follow these five steps (setting the
stage, data gathering, insight-generating, what to do, closing) to provide valuable lessons learned
from each subsequent iteration. To improve the next iteration’s process, the team can take roadblocks
and problems encountered in the iteration, along with their resolutions, and act upon them. The other
responses are incorrect because the five steps are not applicable to pre-mortems, value stream
mapping, or feedback.

Question 5: Of the following, which response is the preferred method of communication?

A. Instant messaging
B. E-mail
C. Conference calls
D. Face to face (Correct)

Explanation: Face to face communication is the correct response because it allows the greatest
opportunity to ask questions, get immediate feedback, and observe body language to acknowledge
agreement or clarify misunderstandings. Although the other communication methods may be
effective, they should only be used if a face-to-face discussion is not possible.

Question 6: As the agile team leader, Luca has described the iteration goals at a high level and is letting
the team decide how to complete the iteration. What does Luca’s action prove to the team?
A. That Luca is busy working on his normal job
B. That Luca is not a micro-manager
C. That Luca doesn’t know how to accomplish the iteration
D. That Luca trusts the self-organizing team and their expertise to complete the goal (Correct)

Explanation: Luca’s action proves to the team that he trusts the team members are in the best position to
organize the work, which ultimately prevents roadblocks when a list of tasks is pushed to the team.
Agile team leaders are there to help the team by preventing interruptions, removing roadblocks,
aiding in communication, and providing general support. The other responses are incorrect because
one of the roles of the agile team leader is to encourage self-organization of the team; it would be
 speculation to attribute any other reason to this decision.

Question 7: As the agile team leader, you notice the project team has little interest in the project. To
motivate the team for the duration, what’s a good method?
A. Offer them a raise if they become engaged
B. Offer a bonus if the project is successful
C. Align the project goals with the corporate goals
D. Align the project with team members’ personal goals (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to align the project with team members’ personal goals. To motivate
the team, it’s a good idea to understand the individual goals of the project team members and show
the link between the project’s goals and the individuals’ goals. The other responses are incorrect.
Team members may be engaged for a short time if offered a raise or bonus, but probably not for the
long haul. In addition, aligning project goals with corporate goals does not answer the question of
“What’s in it for me? For the team members. Aligning the project goals to the individual goals (e.g.
a promotion to a management position) gives the team members motivation for success.

Question 8: A fellow agile team member mentioned in a meeting that she learned how to correct a piece
of code by using osmotic communication. What does she mean?
A. She overheard a conversation in the agile team’s commons that discussed the solution (Correct)
B. She dreamed about what the correction should be
C. She read about the solution in a book
D. She did a Google search

Explanation: Osmotic communication is useful information that is overheard while working in a common
area. The other responses are incorrect. Dreaming about solutions doesn’t describe osmotic
communication; searching Google is an example of research, not osmotic communication; reading a
book may be a good source of information, but it’s not osmotic communication.

Question 9: Bea’s organization uses the Lean, agile project management approach. The removal of waste
is one of the principles of Lean. In a Lean project, which of the following is an example of waste that
should be removed?
A. WIP
B. Colocation
C. Bottleneck identification
D. Motion (Correct)

Explanation: Motion is a waste in Lean projects and is the correct answer. Motion is when items are
moved from person to person; this takes time and creates waste. Waste occurs when there is not a
clear workflow of how items move through the project processes. WIP (work in progress) is needed
in Lean and is not waste. Even though bottlenecks are wasteful, the identification of bottlenecks is
not waste. Colocation is a desirable element for the project team.
Question 10: Hanin is the project manager of the RYAN Project utilizing Scrum. It appears that several
stakeholders have lost interest in the project – they rarely attend meetings, give feedback, or offer
input. To avoid this pitfall going forward, what can Hanin do?
A. Meet with each business partner one-on-one
B. Prove everyone’s ideas have value and take advantage of small-scale experiments (Correct)
C. Stick strictly to the project plan
D. Make project meetings mandatory

Explanation: Allowing stakeholders to suggest new ideas and experiment with new concepts shows that
everyone’s ideas have value. People get discouraged when a good idea is disregarded. Stakeholder
engagement lets the opportunity that agile projects present for small-scale, localized experiments in
a supportive, low-risk environment. The other responses are incorrect: mandatory meetings won’t
increase stakeholder engagement; meeting with business partners one-on-one may be a good
communication method, but it’s not the best choice here; agile plans change based on the product
backlog.

Question 11: The agile team needs to make a decision. To save time, a team member suggests skipping
discussion and using a show of hands to indicate whether each member is for or against the decision.
If you are going to object to this decision-making approach, what is the most legitimate reason to do
so?
A. You are concerned that some members will vote for the fastest way to resolve the issue.
B. You are concerned there will be no ideas for a better alternative to the decision. (Correct)
C. You are concerned some members will simply choose the cheapest way to resolve the issue.
D. You are concerned some members will not vote for the decision you want.

Explanation: With just a “for” or “against” vote, you are concerned there won’t be discussion about better
or alternative decisions for the issue. If there’s no discussion, team members won’t know why a
decision should be made for or against a certain solution. The other answers are incorrect because
you want the team to choose the best decision for the project, not the solution you are in favor of; the
concern of members voting for the cheapest or fastest solution doesn’t address the primary issue,
which is not allowing discussion regarding the decision.

Question 12: Who should take responsibility for the process of story point sizing?
A. The agile team leader
B. The PMO
C. The agile team (Correct)
D. The business partner

Explanation: The agile team creates and owns the story point sizing process. They are the most qualified
to determine the amount of effort needed to complete each story. The other responses are incorrect.
The PMO and business partner do not have that level of detail involved in the project. While the agile
 team leader supports the team in creating the story point sizing, they are not responsible for the task
itself.

Question 13: As your agile team leader, Jaya has been tracking the iteration velocity and has compared it
to the time remaining on the project. Jaya concludes that the fewest number of iterations that can be
completed per month is seven, and the most possible is ten. What is this measurement called?
A. Trend analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Control limits (Correct)
D. Cycle time

Explanation: This measurement, or tool, is called control limits. Whether it’s velocity, budget, vacation
time, etc., setting a minimum and maximum of a certain entity allows the agile stakeholder to know
exactly what can be done, spent, or utilized in a given period. The other responses are incorrect
because cycle time is the duration of time it will take for a task to be completed; trend analysis is
defined as a forward-looking analysis estimating what may happen in the future; variance analysis is
the difference between estimates.

Question 14: Amara’s agile team is estimating story points. Which of the following is it essential to
include?
A. Testing and refactoring (Correct)
B. Server backup time
C. Meeting times
D. Vacations and sick days

Explanation: Story point estimates need to include all known activities required to complete the story,
including testing and refactoring, complexity level, risk level, etc. Instead of factoring a certain fudge
factor, including all activities proves to be more accurate. The other answers are incorrect because
vacations and sick days shouldn’t be considered in an estimate, only known activities should be
considered; meeting times are not included in story estimates; server backup times are also not
included as part of the story point estimating.

Question 15: Kerry’s agile team consists of generalizing specialists. What is a generalizing specialist?
A. A person that knows what each role is responsible for
B. A person that is skilled in more than one discipline (Correct)
C. A person that knows just one skill
D. A person that knows their job duties well

Explanation: A generalizing specialist is a person that is skilled in more than one discipline. When a team
is made up of generalizing specialists, workloads can be shared and bottlenecks avoided. For example,
if a coder with interview skills can interview an end user of the product, a handoff can be avoided
(from the interviewer to the coder). This will avoid misinterpretations and also save time and money.
 The other responses are incorrect. A generalizing specialist has more than just one skill, and more
than one skill related to the project discipline. In addition, the term generalizing specialist doesn’t
refer to a person with an understanding of each role and responsibility, nor a person that knows their
job duties well.

Question 16: Of the following, which is a method used to close a retrospective and reinforce its value?
A. Go through a plus/delta exercise (Correct)
B. Have a stakeholder dinner
C. Have the team hold a separate meeting to discuss wins
D. Give awards to the best performers

Explanation: All of these answers may be acceptable, but the method most likely would be going through
a plus/delta exercise listing on the plus side – what the team wants to do more of – and the delta side
– the things that didn’t work well. The other responses are incorrect. While it may be fun for the
project team to host a dinner, hold meetings to discuss wins, and/or give out awards, the team must
also address the project’s negative aspects that need improvement.

Question 17: What is the name of the tool that agile teams use that is usually timeboxed and explores an
approach, investigates an issue, or reduces project risk?
A. Relative unit
B. Spike (Correct)
C. Iteration
D. User story

Explanation: Spike is the correct answer. Agile teams use a spike as a critical tool to resolve problems as
early as possible. Spikes are short efforts that can be done at any time during the project. It’s not
unusual for spikes to be scheduled at the project’s start before any development efforts have begun.
Iterations user stories and relative units are incorrect responses because they don’t investigate issues
or project risks.

Question 18: When considering the importance of project communication among the project team
stakeholders, what method of feedback does your agile leader encourage stakeholders to use?
A. Conducting iteration reviews that include all stakeholders (Correct)
B. Enlisting stakeholder feedback only when there is a roadblock
C. Having a weekly conference call with stakeholders
D. Sending out status reports to stakeholders and asking for feedback

Explanation: Conducting iteration reviews that include all stakeholders is the correct answer. Confirming
and seeking stakeholder feedback at each iteration’s end not only saves time by ensuring the team is
on the right path but saves money due to unnecessary rework. The other answers are incorrect.
Stakeholder feedback should be enlisted for both positive and negative scenarios, not just when there
are project roadblocks; while conference calls and status reports might spark feedback, having an
 iteration review guarantees all stakeholders are working on the same requirements.

Question 19: To ensure stakeholder engagement, what does an agile team leader do?
A. Replaces the first team member who is not staying engaged to set precedence
B. Reports any team member who is not staying engaged to the member’s manager
C. Doesn’t extend an invitation to any member who is not engaged in subsequent meetings
D. Reports on benefits or issues regarding specific stakeholder involvement in status reports (Correct)

Explanation: To ensure stakeholder engagement, an agile team leader will report on stakeholders’
contributions in a status or steering committee report. The other responses are incorrect. Replacing,
reporting, or excluding a team member (stakeholder) who isn’t staying engaged is not the appropriate
approach in this situation.

Question 20: In order to help agile teams move forward on a project, teams create personas. Of the
following, which best describes a persona?
A. A persona is a high-level discussion of requirements.
B. A persona is an image that helps communicate what the result of the project is.
C. A persona helps the team empathize with the users of the solution. (Correct)
D. A persona is a new role developed to engage the stakeholders.

Explanation: A persona helps the team empathize with the users of the solution. By creating a persona,
the team understands what the solution users need and how the solution will be used in real-life
situations. The other responses are incorrect because a persona is not a requirements discussion, a
stakeholder-engaging role, or an image that helps communicate the project result.

Question 21: The agile method of development in small increments, product delivery, and stakeholders’
feedback lends itself to which of the following terms?
A. Continuous improvement (Correct)
B. Value stream mapping
C. Process analysis
D. Systems thinking

Explanation: The agile method of small, incremental development, product delivery to stakeholders, and
receiving stakeholders’ feedback often lends itself to continuous improvement. By making
improvements and enhancements, which results in requirement improvements, this method could
uncover the true business requirements. As the project moves closer to the final business purpose
solution, each iteration may add another layer of improvements. Value stream mapping, systems
thinking, and process analysis are incorrect answers because they are all methods used to achieve
continuous improvement.

Question 22: Shenae is on a colocated agile team; the team area is sometimes so noisy that it’s hard to
concentrate. On these noisy days, Shenae is pleased to have access to which of the following?
A. Her boss’s office
B. Cafeteria
C. A small private office sometimes referred to as a cave (Correct)
D. Another floor

Explanation: A common area (“commons”) is sometimes noisy and distracting. Often, agile teams
include private offices, or “caves,” in their team space so that private conversations, calls, or just
quiet time can take place. The other responses are incorrect because going to a different area can be
time-consuming, and even more distracting.

Question 23: An agile team starts with a list of business features that are broken down into logical groups
of work. Then, this list is prioritized by business value by assigning a monetary value to each iteration.
When the agile development team has analyzed the list and added the risks and threats, along with
the dollar value of the risk impact, the list is then reprioritized. The result of this activity is what?
A. Expected monetary value
B. Risk-adjusted backlog (Correct)
C. Risk probability
D. Risk impact

Explanation: The correct answer is a risk-adjusted backlog. A risk-adjusted backlog doesn’t give a precise
dollar amount for the list of work to be done, nor the risks or threats involved in the development.
What the exercise does do is facilitate communication between the business and agile teams
regarding how to sequence work items. The other responses are incorrect. EVM (expected monetary
value) is defined as the probability of a risk multiplied by the impact of the risk event; risk probability
is the odds of a risk occurring; risk impact represents the risk’s effect on the project objectives.

Question 24: The agile team needs to make a decision. As a team, they decide to use the thumbs
up/down/sideways decision model. Assuming you know what the thumbs up and thumbs down mean,
you’re not sure of the thumb sideways vote. What does thumbs sideways mean?
A. Team members with thumbs sideways don’t have enough knowledge to vote.
B. Team members with thumbs sideways don’t care either way.
C. Team members with thumbs sideways can’t make up their minds.
D. Team members with thumbs sideways have a question that needs further discussion. (Correct)

Explanation: Team members with a thumbs sideways vote have a question or concern with the decision
and would like to discuss it further. The other responses are incorrect because a sideways thumb does
not mean team members don’t care, can’t make up their minds, or don’t have enough knowledge to
vote.

Question 25: As the project manager for the Emmet Organization, you share a velocity chart with the
product’s owner. A velocity chart measures what?
A. How many hours have been burned on the project
B. The team’s capacity (Correct)
C. How many members are on the team at any given time
D. How quickly the project is progressing

Explanation: A velocity chart measures the team’s work capacity per iteration. After tracking several
iterations by using the team’s average velocity of previous iterations, the velocity chart becomes a
powerful tool for planning and estimating. An added benefit of the velocity chart is that it considers
interruptions and scope creep. The other responses are incorrect because velocity charts don’t show
these items. Other matrices may be used to track members, time, and the number of hours used to
date.

Question 26: When your agile team is close to the end of creating story point estimates, by which of the
following processes do you go through a reality check?
A. T-shirt sizing
B. Story maps
C. Affinity estimating (Correct)
D. Relative sizing

Explanation: Affinity estimating, a comparative view of the estimates, is the correct answer. The story
point sizes should be compared to each other. You want to confirm that all story points with an
estimate of three story points are all approximately the same size, effort, risk level, etc. The other
responses are incorrect. T-shirt sizing is an actual process that that estimates story sizes; a story map
is a tool used to determine project priorities; relative sizing is the agile method’s way of assigning
story points.

Question 27: Selected to lead a team with members located all over the globe, Gigi pushed to use the
agile method of running a team, and upper management readily agreed. Why is it feasible to run a
distributed team using agile methodology?
A. Agile teams use short iterations to complete tasks and receive feedback to ensure the project is on
the right track. (Correct)
B. Agile teams are used to running themselves, so Gigi’s (the leader’s) involvement will be minimal.
C. Being agile lets Gigi select two or three people in each location to work together with the project’s
goals in mind.
D. Almost everyone has Internet access, which allows for immediate communication.

Explanation: In an agile project, the short iterations require continuous collaboration and coordination.
Every iteration is like a mini-project: it’s complete when delivered and makes chunks of work more
accessible to manage than a whole project at the end of its life cycle. The other responses are incorrect.
Virtual teams don’t have to work in groups of two or three; while an Internet connection is used for
communication, it’s not the best answer here; the project manager will still be involved in facilitating
and coaching the team, even if the teams are eventually self-led and self-organized.
Question 28: As a member of the PMO, you’ve been analyzing future projects and have found one in
particular that you think project teams will resist. Your understanding is that this project’s purpose is
to implement safety standards for an off-shore manufacturing plant. Some project teams may not
understand the project's value. To get the project approved, how do you avoid a long, drawn-out
process?
A. Try to make the teams understand the importance of the project
B. Make the project mandatory (Correct)
C. Have the project outsourced to avoid pushback
D. Take the project off the year’s project list and try to implement it at a different time

Explanation: Making the project mandatory is the correct response. A project usually begins by assessing
the value of it in financial terms. Organizations look at the financial drawbacks of not undertaking a
project, such as possible fines, lawsuits, and the risk of the business shutting down. The other
responses are incorrect. Projects should be marked mandatory so that time is not wasted on trying to
make the team understand the importance of the project; money spent on outsourcing; deferring the
project to another time.

Question 29: Roslyn is the project manager of a new agile project in her organization. A significant
problem has been identified by her team, though the problem may not happen until later in the
project’s timeline. Even though it may not happen until late in the project, what is the best way to
minimize a problem’s impact during a project?
A. Ignore the problem
B. Don’t waste time trying to fix the problem until later in the project
C. Make the fix a task in the next iteration
D. Identify it early, diagnose it, and fix it as soon as possible (Correct)

Explanation: Roslyn should identify the problem early so it can be diagnosed and fixed before it affects
the rest of the project. The other responses are incorrect. Ignoring the problem will not fix the
problem; waiting until later in the project to address the problem could allow the problem to grow
and doesn’t prepare the team to tackle the problem; making the fix a task in the next iteration is just
another delay tactic. Roslyn needs to address the problem with the project team as soon as possible.

Question 30: How does an agile project charter differ from a non-agile project charter?
Agile charters define the definitive outcome of the project, whereas non-agile charters define the desired
outcome.
A. Agile charters define a stable project plan, whereas non-agile charters outline a high-level project
plan.
B. Agile charters name team members, whereas non-agile charters define teams.
C. Agile charters set forth high-level goals, whereas non-agile charters are very detailed. (Correct)

Explanation: An agile project and non-agile project both have the same general goal, but the detail level
in an agile project is different. The agile project has less detail than a non-agile project because agile
 methods typically involve technology or requirements that can not easily be defined in the agile
project charter. An agile charter is subject to change as the project progresses – it is a living document.
The other responses are incorrect because they are not true statements regarding agile project charters.

Question 31: As the agile team leader, Joe has access to view the project’s budget. He realizes the cost of
the project increases as the team progresses through iterations. What could be the cause of this?
A. Adding testers to the team
B. An unexplained increase of work hours
C. Scope creep
D. Technical debt (Correct)

Explanation: Of the choices, the best, and correct answer for the cost increase is technical debt. Technical
debt is the backlog of things that should be done, but aren’t, because of a push to deliver features,
such as maintenance, regular cleanup, and refactoring. This increases development costs in future
iterations because these tasks will need to be done at some point in time. It’s easier and more
proficient to factor in the time needed to complete this maintenance during the iteration, instead of
doing it at some other time. The other responses are incorrect because the hours worked are mapped
against each user story; scope creep refers to the small, undocumented changes that enter the project;
in the question, there’s no proof that additional testers have been added to the project team.

Question 32: When variances are being analyzed, and it’s determined that the difference is a common
cause variance, what should be the agile leader’s next step?
A. Have the agile team determine how to lose the variance
B. Get all stakeholders’ approval to accept the variance
C. Accept the variance and move forward (Correct)
D. Re-evaluate the variance to see if the difference can be closed

Explanation: Once the agile team has concluded the difference is a common cause variance, the agile
team leader’s next step should be to accept the variance and move forward. The attempt to rectify a
common cause variance is a form of micromanagement instead of focusing on real roadblocks. The
other responses are incorrect because common causes of variances are implicitly accepted; common
causes of variances are part of the agile framework and don’t need to be closed.

Question 33: Carlos, as the agile project manager for his organization, is helping his development team
better understand agile. With the team, Carlos has reviewed the Agile Manifesto. Of the following,
which is not an attribute of the Agile Manifesto?
A. Accepting tradeoffs with the vendor
B. Documenting how the code is to develop (Correct)
C. Expecting changes to the product backlog
D. Promoting collaboration

Explanation: Documenting how the code is developed is not an attribute of the Agile Manifesto, and is
 the correct answer here. One of the values of the Agile Manifesto is that working software is valued
over comprehensive documentation. Documentation should be light and minimally sufficient. The
other responses are incorrect because they are all attributes of the Agile Manifesto.

Question 34: In an agile environment, what does the term emergent leadership mean?
A. A leader isn’t in place until the team selects one of the team members.
B. A new leader is assigned for each iteration.
C. A team member tries a new approach after getting approval from the team. (Correct)
D. A team member takes over the leadership role.

Explanation: A team member who takes the initiative to try a new approach or process once they get
approval from the team is an emergent leader. The other responses are incorrect. Emergent leadership
lets a leader emerge at any point in the project, not by assignment. It also is not a formal role or
assignment as the leader. Finally, leaders emerge based on the conditions in the project, not by
assignment or voting.

Question 35: Which of the following sets the stage for a retrospective?
A. Inviting all stakeholders
B. Asking for anonymous input
C. Giving out a clear and precise agenda (Correct)
D. Defining a specific start and stop time

Explanation: Distributing a clear and precise agenda, and defining the meeting’s purpose, sets the
expectation that this is not just another gathering to discuss the project. By laying out what behavior
is acceptable and unacceptable, team values and working agreements can be established. The other
answers are incorrect because even though a specific start and stop time may be a good idea, it’s not
the best answer presented here. Meetings must always have an agenda and rules. In addition, not all
stakeholders are invited to the retrospective; anonymous input isn’t part of the retrospective.

Question 36: As a new project manager working on a Scrum project, Anju is confused about the difference
between a sprint review and a sprint retrospective. What is the difference?
A. Sprint reviews demonstrate the completed work in the sprint. Sprint retrospectives demonstrate the
compiled work completed in the project.
B. Sprint reviews are for lessons learned. Sprint retrospectives are for product demonstrations.
C. Sprint reviews are for product demonstrations. Sprint retrospectives are for lessons learned.
(Correct)
D. Sprint reviews discuss what has worked in the sprint. Sprint retrospectives are done at the end of the
project for a lessons learned opportunity.

Explanation: The correct answer is that sprint reviews are for product demonstrations; sprint
retrospectives are for lessons learned. The other answers are incorrect descriptions of sprint reviews
and sprint retrospectives.
Question 37: As the senior project manager at The Cottage Company, Jessinda is explaining the five
Scrum values to Hugh, a new project manager who’s not familiar with Scrum methodology. Of the
following, which one is not one of the five Scrum values?
A. Respect
B. Commitment
C. Focus
D. Innovation (Correct)

Explanation: Even though it’s encouraged, innovation is not one of Scrum’s five values. The five values
of Scrum are commitment, focus, openness, respect, and courage. The other responses are incorrect
because they are all part of the five Scrum values.

Question 38: Raj happened to run into a business partner of the current project he’s working on, and she
asked him the number of defects that were found in the week prior. Raj doesn’t know the answer.
What should he do?
A. Ask the business partner to contact the team leader to get the correct answer
B. Tell the business partner he’ll send an e-mail to her with the information when he gets back to his
desk
C. Guess
D. Take her into the team area, where much of the project information is displayed (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to take the business partner into the team area. One of the core tasks
of the agile leader is to be transparent regarding progress and also roadblocks. It’s normal to walk
into an agile team’s area and see graphs displayed that show velocity, defect rates, and retrospectives
results, including what works well and what doesn’t. When the leader is open and honest, the tone is
set for everyone else to be.

Question 39: Tami’s agile team is planning for the next iteration. How should she and her team begin this
process?
A. By analyzing the user stories in the backlog (Correct)
B. By selecting which user stories should be used in the iteration
C. By defining the acceptance criteria
D. By breaking down user stories into tasks

Explanation: The process of planning for the next iteration should begin by analyzing the high-value user
stories in the backlog. Also, the stories should be prioritized or reprioritized by the business partners.
The other responses are incorrect. Although they are included in the planning meeting, the
analyzation of user stories in the backlog is performed first.

Question 40: To elicit feedback, prototypes, simulations, and demonstrations are three of several methods
used in agile projects. It is important to deliver one of these methods to product users for feedback,
 sooner than later. Why?
A. It allows users to create new forms that will be required for the new system.
B. It allows users to begin training on the new functionality.
C. It allows users to eliminate certain roles in their group.
D. To learn if there are differences between requirements and what is wanted. (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is delivering a feedback method is used to learn if there are any
differences between the requirements and what the users want. There’s a possibility that fields or
even complete functions were overlooked and they could be uncovered before development gets too
far down the road. The only action user groups should take is to provide feedback when offered one
of these methods. The other answers are incorrect because these approaches help confirm
requirements, not eliminate roles; these are feedback elicitation techniques, not real opportunities
customer functionality; the goal isn’t to introduce new forms, bot to ensure requirements.

Question 41: Bonnie is the project manager for an agile team who has identified the highest-value features
of the project and wants to deliver them immediately. Why is this a good idea?
A. The longer the project goes on, the value of a feature may be compromised. (Correct)
B. It gets the features out of the way.
C. It proves the team’s understanding of value.
D. Delivering the most intense tasks could shorten the project duration.

Explanation: The longer high-value features take to deliver, the longer the opportunity for risks that can
reduce value. Before things start to change, maximize success by providing as many high-value
features as possible. Value-driven delivery means making decisions that prioritize the value-added
activities and risk-reducing efforts of the project. Then, based on those priorities, accomplish the
tasks. The other responses are incorrect. The goal isn’t to merely get features out of the way, but to
deliver value based on the prioritized backlog. Delivering the most intense tasks first won’t
necessarily shorten the project time, nor will it support completing the requirements with the most
value. Finally, while understanding value is essential, this doesn’t best answer the question as
delivering value.

Question 42: During an iteration, the team leader notices that one of the members is having an issue with
a decision made by the entire team. The team leader asked the team member for a one-on-one
discussion. What type of discussion was this?
A. Mentoring
B. Coaching (Correct)
C. Training
D. Directing

Explanation: The correct answer is coaching. Coaching helps team members stay on track, improve skills,
and overcome issues. The right time to address individual team members is during an iteration;
between iterations is the best time to coach the entire team. Training is incorrect because it’s defined
 as teaching a skill by instruction, and is very structured. This situation is not the right time for a
training session. Mentoring involves a relationship where you can bounce ideas off one another and
ask for advice; it’s incorrect. Directing is incorrect because it’s defined as when the project manager
gives direct instructions for how to complete a task; this is generally discouraged in agile projects.

Question 43: Jessica is looking at a burnup chart in the agile team’s area. What is this chart telling her?
A. How many test scripts are left to execute
B. How much work has been completed (Correct)
C. When the project will end
D. When to add additional members to the project

Explanation: A burnup chart tells how much work has been completed. Advantages of using a burnup
chart are its ability to track project scope, items not started, or what is in progress. The other responses
are incorrect because a burnup chart doesn’t track members, work left to complete, or when the
project will end. Other matrices will perform these functions.

Question 44: Clark has been identified as a stakeholder on an agile software development team. When he
attends his first meeting, Clark is surprised that there are only ten people on the team; since it’s a
large implementation, he thought the team would be much more significant. Why is the team so
small?
A. One person was selected form each department.
B. The agile method recommends the delivery team to have 12 or fewer members. (Correct)
C. The agile methodology is so new; no one wanted to be on the team.
D. Agile methods call for very specialized roles.

Explanation: For team members to form relationships and communicate directly, agile methods
recommend assembling a team of 12 or less. If more team members are needed, teams can be broken
down into subgroups and their work will be coordinated. The selection of agile team members is
based on their ability to commit to a common purpose, agree on goal measurement, and take shared
ownership of the project. The other responses are incorrect. The newness of the agile approach is an
organization is not the best choice for the team size limit; agile teams are chosen by skill level, not
by representatives from each department; agile methods call for generalizing specialists on the
project team.

Question 45: As the team leader, you’ve decided that during a retrospective you are going to single out
an issue that was faced during an iteration, and have the team go through the “five whys” exercise.
What are you trying to accomplish?
A. It prevents the team from shifting blame.
B. It typically gets to the root of the cause. (Correct)
C. It allows five team members to offer their opinion.
D. It gathers five reasons for the issue.
Explanation: It’s typical that when the first question regarding an issue is asked, the response is automatic,
usually giving an excuse as to why something became an issue. Participants usually get right to the
root cause of the issue when they are asked “why” multiple times; excuses get peeled away. The
other responses are incorrect. The exercise is for analyzing the root cause, not to hide issues or shift
blame; the approach isn’t looking for five reasons, but root cause analysis; it isn’t looking for the
opinions of five project team members, but is looking for root cause analysis.

Question 46: The backlog is continuously being refined, or groomed, by the business partner. This entails
adding, reprioritizing, or removing stories. What is the development team’s responsibility in this
process?
A. Adding new story functionality
B. Estimating the work so the customer can prioritize effectively (Correct)
C. Deleting stories that don’t work
D. Changing the business needs

Explanation: Estimating the work so the customer can prioritize effectively is the correct answer. In the
refining or grooming process, this is the only task the development team is responsible for. The other
responses are incorrect because the development team doesn’t add new story functionality, delete
stories, or change the business needs.

Question 47: Throughout a project, there are multiple opportunities for problem solving and transparency.
To minimize the need for ad hoc problem solving, what agile tasks are used?
A. Determining the special cause variation
B. Iteration reviews and retrospectives (Correct)
C. Using trend analysis
D. Writing user stories

Explanation: Iteration reviews and retrospectives is the correct answer. The effort to identify issues
during those times are included in the iteration’s estimate. Because agile methods consider the team’s
reasons learned to be too important to be saved for the end of a project, they are presented at the end
of each iteration. The other answers are incorrect because the determination of the special cause
variation isn’t an agile task that’s part of the agile project management approach; problems in the
project are not addressed in user stories; to see what’s already happened in the project, trend analysis
uses lagging metrics.

Question 48: Virginia is looking at a burndown chart located in the agile team area. What does this chart
tell her?
A. How many test scripts have been run
B. When you can schedule your vacation
C. How much work needs to be complete in the project (Correct)
D. The number of members rolling off the project
Explanation: A burndown chart shows how much work is left to finish the project; it can also show the
tasks remaining in the current iteration. The team decides what is going to be measured on a
burndown chart: hours, stories, iterations, etc. The other responses are incorrect because a burndown
chart doesn’t show the number of people leaving the project team, nor the amount of completed test
scripts. In addition, based on the number of tasks completed, a burndown chart can hint as to when
a project is likely to be completed, but its primary goal is to show the amount of work left to do in
the project. There are other existing matrices that show how many test scripts have been run, team
members’ status, or a calendar for the team to schedule their time off.

Question 49: As the project manager of an agile team for the Cottage Organization, Esther wants the team
to be colocated. When is an agile team considered colocated?
A. When all team members are within 33 feet of each other with no barriers (Correct)
B. When all team members are located on the same floor of a building
C. When all team members are on the same campus
D. When all team members are in the same city

Explanation: To be considered colocated, all members of an agile team need to be located within 33 feet
of each other with no barriers. The other responses are incorrect because: in agile, team members are
not sufficiently proximate to be considered colocated; dispersed team members who use technology
to communicate and are considered virtually colocated even if the team members are on the same
floor, city, or campus; the best way to describe colocation is team members within 33 feet of each
other.

Question 50: To manage WIP (work in progress), there are many different methods agile teams can use.
What is a downside of not having limits when it comes to WIP?
A. It keeps the project moving forward.
B. Fail to fully utilize everyone’s availability
C. There’s typically enough work to keep everyone busy.
D. Too many tasks are taken on all at once. (Correct)

Explanation: A project team may take on too many tasks at once without limits on WIP. The other
responses are incorrect. There typically is enough work for everyone to contribute; not setting a limit
on WIP can cause too many tasks to be in motion at one time; setting the WIP limit doesn’t stop
everyone from contributing, but encourages the idea of generalizing specialists.

Question 51: For an agile leader, why is it important to continuously improve their emotional
intelligence?
A. Emotional intelligence lets the agile leader manage their own emotions and others’ emotions.
(Correct)
B. The agile leader should continuously improve their IQ.
C. The leader’s emotions have a direct impact on the deliverables.
D. Because agile projects are constantly changing, the leader needs to have the skills to gauge the team’s
 productivity.

Explanation: To coach and assist team members to a favorable outcome, agile leaders need to be able to
understand when members are upset, frustrated, angry, or stuck. If a leader walks into a team’s area
and starts to complain about something, the team will likely replicate the leader’s emotions. The
other responses are incorrect. Emotional intelligence does not have a direct impact on the deliverables,
but on the people who create the deliverables; even though agile projects change often, the purpose
of emotional intelligence isn’t to gauge productivity; in order for the team to be successful, the leader
needs to continuously work on their emotional intelligence, which is different from the leader just
working on their IQ.

Question 52: Beatrice is the project manager for an agile project. Maximizing value is an agile team’s
focus. What is the first question that should be asked when the team needs to make a decision?
A. How long will it take to test?
B. What is the value to the customer? (Correct)
C. What is the cost in man hours?
D. Will the decision that is made derail the project?

Explanation: The value to the customer is the first question that should be asked in this scenario. The
focus on delivering value is what drives many of the decisions and activities on an agile project. In
the agile toolkit, this is the goal of many practices. The other responses are incorrect because answers
to questions regarding time, impact, and cost will be determined after the customer value is defined.

Question 53: While Isabella’s agile team is performing a value stream mapping exercise, she’s been asked
for total cycle time. When calculating total cycle time, what two factors should be considered?
A. Building and testing
B. Testing and documenting
C. Value-added time and non-value added time (Correct)
D. Systems thinking and process analysis

Explanation: In a value stream mapping exercise, both value-added time and non-value added time must
be accounted for to get an accurate total cycle time metric. To identify roadblocks and delays that
need to be removed, non-value added time must be closely evaluated throughout the process. More
time needs to be calculated into building, testing, and documentation than what those tactical tasks
entail, which is considered non-value time. The other answers are incorrect. Value stream mapping
doesn’t consider process analysis, systems thinking, testing, building, and documenting as part of the
total cycle to the same depth as the identification of value- and non-value added activities.

Question 54: Turner’s agile project manager wants proof of understanding from the team that describes
the customer’s requirements. What will Turner give the agile project manager?
A. A written document describing, in the team’s terms, the customer’s requirements
B. A high-level prototype of the requirements (Correct)
C. A feedback meeting where the team describes their understanding to the business partners
D. A project plan listing requirements and sequence of events

Explanation: Turner will build a prototype describing the team’ understanding of the requirements ; this
is the most efficient way of showing proof of understanding. Going forward, this prototype can be
used as part of product building. The other responses are incorrect. A written document that could be
set aside is not considered valuable in agile because it could be a waste of time; building a project
plan is not an agile project management approach; there’s not a specific meeting or ceremony for
showing evidence of a team’s understanding of the business requirements.

Question 55: A daily standup meeting occurs once an iteration is in progress. In the daily standup meeting,
team members stand up, so the meeting will stay on track; it’s a speedy meeting scheduled for 15
minutes or less. For every team member who has an active task, there are only three questions that
should be answered. Which of the following questions is not a question included in a daily standup
meeting?
A. What do I plan to finish today?
B. How far behind am I? (Correct)
C. What have I worked on since the last meeting?
D. Are there any roadblocks to my progress?

Explanation: “How far behind am I?” is not a question that participants answer in the daily standup
meeting. The other responses are incorrect because they are the only questions that should be
answered by each team member with an active task. Any further questions or discussion should be
held after the meeting.

Question 56: One of the iterations that Lorenzo’s agile team was going to work on was deemed a “fast
failure.” What is a fast failure?
A. All the work for the iteration was developed, tested, and failed.
B. The iteration was too large.
C. The proof-of-concept of the iteration wasn’t successful. (Correct)
D. There were not enough user stories in the iteration to succeed.

Explanation: Fast failure means the proof-of-concept effort wasn’t successful, so the iteration was
eliminated. Fast failure is a term that is mostly used for entire projects so companies can reduce
invested costs, that can then be used on viable projects. The other responses are incorrect because
fast failure does not apply to iteration size, development, or the number of user stories in an iteration;
the iteration failure is decided before the iteration starting.

Question 57: When making decisions, why is it important that all stakeholders be involved?
A. So they are committed to the decision (Correct)
B. So they attend meetings
C. SO they don’t condemn a decision that wasn’t theirs
D. So they can tell their management it was their decision

Explanation: All stakeholders should be involved in decision-making. If stakeholders aren’t involved,

they won’t be committed to any decision made, nor the project itself. The other responses are
incorrect because the reason for stakeholder involvement in decision-making is not to get them to
attend meetings, to allow them to take credit for decisions, or prevent their condemnation of decisions
made.

Question 58: The leader of your new agile team keeps emphasizing that for the first iteration, all team
members must follow the described rules of the organization’s previous agile teams. Why do you
think this is so important to your leader?
A. It is best to start a project by following a method that has been tested, proven, and refined by others.
(Correct)
B. The team leader doesn’t want the team to try to move the project off course early in the process.
C. The leader wants the team to prove they can follow the rules.
D. The leader wants to have the ability to explain the rules and then go back to her normal tasks and let
the team work on its own.

Explanation: This is important to your leader because it’s best to start a project using tried and true
methods. Original agile teams have tried and tested numerous theories to learn how to begin a project.
They’ve found that a high-level of understanding the process must occur before the team can
understand how and why all the pieces work together. Following rules that have been tested, proven,
and refined will get you to the project basics. The other responses are incorrect because an agile
leader should be fully committed to their project, so there’s no conflict between jobs; changing the
agile rules is only acceptable after the team ahs mastered the rules and has good reason for change;
rather than introducing scope creep, following the rules in the beginning will keep the project on
course, but isn’t intended to prove anything.

Question 59: When Lilly, your agile leader, sends an invitation to a meeting, she clearly defines the goals,
rules, timing, and the meeting’s agenda. Why is this so beneficial?
A. You can ask another team member a question that they have not yet responded to.
B. There’s no question as to why the meeting was scheduled. (Correct)
C. You know you can schedule another meeting 15 minutes after this one ends.
D. You know that at least during this timeframe you won’t have any phone calls.

Explanation: There should be no question to stakeholders as to why the meeting is being called; they
need to know their time is not being wasted. Stakeholders are assured of the meeting’s purpose when
certain details (timing, goals, ground rules, etc.) are included in the invitation. While the other
responses may be true, they are incorrect because they’re only incidental benefits of a detailed
meeting invitation.

Question 60: Jenny’s agile team leader, Billy, is contemplating the idea of tailoring the agile
 methodologies based on what he refers to as systems thinking. Of the following, which best describes
systems thinking?
A. When the software is analyzed for defects
B. Analyzing a project that has veered far off course
C. Classifying projects in terms of their complexity (Correct)
D. When stakeholders can’t agree on requirements

Explanation: The correct response is the classification of projects in terms of their complexity in two
areas: project requirements and the technological approach. Complex projects are well-suited for the
out-of-the-box agile methodology because they have some degree of uncertainty with requirements
and technology. Projects that are simple or have low complexity can tailor some of the agile methods
to suit the project. The other responses are incorrect because systems thinking is not part of conflict
resolution for project requirements; looking for software defects is part of software testing; system
thinking doesn’t address poorly performing projects.

Question 61: When Nadia, the agile team leader, notices that the team’s throughput has gone up, which
of the following can she attribute the increase to?
A. The iteration was more accurately estimated.
B. The development was more efficient.
C. The productivity of one team member has increased. (Correct)
D. The testing went well.

Explanation: The best answer here is that throughput has increased because one team member’s
productivity has increased, which could be a cause of the other answers in this question. Adding more
team members or outsourcing a piece of the project are just two of the many possible reasons for an
increase in throughput. The other responses are incorrect: testing could still go well with velocity
being affected; development could still be efficient and productivity not increase; iterations can be
accurately estimated, but productivity meets the estimate.

Question 62: What is the definition of a workshop?

A. A meeting discussing why the last iteration was successful
B. A meeting discussing what progress has been made
C. A meeting to define activities and contributions (Correct)
D. A gathering where delays are explained

Explanation: A meeting to define activities and contributions is the correct answer. Retrospectives,
estimating sessions, and planning meetings are all examples of workshops. To uncover issues and
make the process more understandable and straightforward, workshops are designed for all
stakeholders to be active participants. The other responses are incorrect because they are all
definitions of different types of meetings.

Question 63: The definition of “done” is an essential conversation that should occur early in the project.
 Why is this so important?
A. This allows team members to negotiate the meaning of “done” early in the project.
B. All stakeholders understand what “done” means so that there are no last-minute surprises. (Correct)
C. To continue to define the meaning of “done.”
D. New tasks can be revealed while discussing the meaning of “done.”

Explanation: All stakeholders should understand the definition of “done” so that there aren’t any last-
minute surprises. Defining “done” is critical to satisfy all stakeholders’ expectations and to make
sure everyone agrees to what success is. The other responses are incorrect. Defining “done” isn’t
meant to be used to negotiate new functions or ideas, or to introduce new functions at the last minute.
In addition, the definition of “done” isn’t a concept that evolves; it’s defined for all aspects of the
project.

Question 64: Your new agile team leader learned early in the project what kind of problems should be
vetted through the entire team for consensus. What sort of problems require team involvement?
A. When a task can’t move forward (Correct)
B. To determine the reduction of project costs
C. To make decisions regarding training standards
D. When developers aren’t in agreement on successful code

Explanation: When a task can’t move forward is the correct answer. When an issue is focused on specific
roles, the agile team leader should not bring the team together to solve the problem. The other
answers are incorrect: Determining a project’s cost reduction is not a team problem-solving exercise,
and it usually happens with the product owner and value management team, before the start of the
project; the team should be brought together when every member has the potential to give valuable
input on the issue. For example, a technical writer probably can’t help solve a coding issue, nor could
a developer likely have an opinion on how trainers should standardize their documentation.

Question 65: The agile team that you are the project manager of has determined several important values
to deliver to the customer. How should these tasks be tackled by the team?
A. The tasks should be delivered while in progress to gather feedback, whether they’ve been tested or
not.
B. The tasks should be prioritized, tested, and delivered in increments. (Correct)
C. All deliverables should be presented at the end of the project.
D. The tasks should be delivered according to the project plan.

Explanation: One of the most essential agile themes, and the correct response, ties together the
fundamental concepts of prioritization, incremental delivery, and test-driven development. This lends
credence to the early delivery of business value and is an essential component of agile methods. The
other responses are incorrect because tasks should never be delivered without being tested first;
presenting all deliverables at the end of a project is setting up the entire project to fail; unlike
predictive projects, agile projects don’t utilize a project plan.
Question 66: Monica’s agile team leader posts the team’s defect rates found by month and by release.
Monica and her team keep a close eye on these charts and make their best effort to keep the rates as
low as possible. Every once in a while, a defect will make it all the way through testing and quality
assurance. These types of defects are called what?
A. Failure mode
B. Technical debt
C. Run-away defects
D. Escaped defects (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is escaped defects. Escaped defects are defects that make it through all
checkpoints to production. Because its remediation will require a large amount of rework, testing,
retesting, discovering any dependent code and then repeating the testing process, escaped defects are
the most costly type of defect. The other answers are incorrect because technical debt describes the
code and solution that needs to be refactored or cleaned before product release; run-away defects is
not a valid term; failure mode is the description of the team’s attitude and habits in the project.

Question 67: You are the leader of an agile team whose members are located all over the world. So that
team members can put names with faces, you’ve arranged conference calls and insisted that every
participant have their computer camera on. Because of travel costs, it is impossible for the team to
meet face-to-face. What’s an alternate way of enabling team members to get to know each other?
A. Have them send photos to each other
B. Have team members learn each other’s primary language
C. Have each member compose a short biography to share with team members
D. Pair up team members to work on tasks, and rotate the pairs (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to pair up team members on a task or iteration, which gives them the
chance to talk one-on-one more often, and learn how to react and deal with each other. The other
responses are incorrect. Photos and a biography do not help team members get to know each
individual’s work ethic and goals; while learning each other’s primary language may be an admirable
goal, its’ not realistic for most projects.

Question 68: Alex’s agile team has decided to display a product roadmap. A product roadmap is used for
what?
A. To display product releases and what will be included (Correct)
B. To display the number of completed user stories
C. To display the project’s total number of story points
D. To display where the team is in the project life cycle

Explanation: A product roadmap is a visual display used to show product releases and what will be
included in each release. This is a high-level planning tool that should be tweaked as necessary. The
other responses are incorrect. The product roadmap does not show the team’s status, completed user
 stories, and total story points; the product roadmap reflects the project at a much higher level.

Question 69: Ash is the project manager of an XP project. When his manager stops by to check on the
progress, she notices that the developers are working in groups of two, rather than individually. This
approach is called what?
A. Pared programming
B. P2P (Programmer – Programmer)
C. Pair programming (Correct)
D. People-People Programming

Explanation: XP utilizes pair programming: when one developer codes and the second developer checks
the code; it’s the correct answer. The other responses are incorrect because they are not valid
descriptions of pair programming in XP.

Question 70: Your agile team’s defect rates seem to vary significantly from iteration to iteration. As the
team leader, Sherry understands that not every iteration will be the same, but feels the variation is
significant enough to look into. Sherry can label this as what kind of variation?
A. Mild variation
B. Common cause variation (Correct)
C. Severe variation
D. Special cause variation

Explanation: Sherry can label this a common cause variation. A common cause variation refers to day-
to-day differences of doing work. The other responses are incorrect. Special cause variation is defined
as variances caused by new or special factors; severe variation and mild variation aren’t valid agile
terms.

Question 71: To assign a risk probability and an impact score to each risk, agile teams, analyze the risk
of requirements. The impact scores are then used to calculate the severity of the risk. How does the
agile team handle the high-risk items?
A. The team schedules the high-risk items in early iterations to be handled before they become
compounded. (Correct)
B. The team leaves the high-risk items all in one iteration toward the end of the project.
C. They change the requirement, so it isn’t a risk.
D. The team asks the business partner to create a new requirement.

Explanation: If possible, high-risk requirements are scheduled in early iterations. This allows them to be
dealt with, and possibly avoided, in the project because the risks were identified and scheduled earlier
in the project’s timeline rather than later. The other responses are incorrect because the creation of a
new requirement doesn’t address the risk event; changing the requirement will not make the project
successful; if high-risk requirements are saved for the end of a project, the risk impact could be more
significant than if they were earlier because it can affect work that has already been done.
Question 72: At which of the following points should your agile team leader encourage knowledge
sharing?
A. Throughout the entire project (Correct)
B. At the end of an iteration
C. When someone shows an interest in a task
D. At the end of the project

Explanation: Knowledge sharing should be encouraged throughout the entire project so that information
is not in any one person’s possession. The other responses are incorrect. Failure is inevitable if
knowledge is only shared when someone asks for it or only at the end of an iteration or project. At
that point, it’s costly and time-consuming to correct mistakes.

Question 73: Bettie is on an agile software implementation project with a very short deadline. When
identifying and resolving a defect, how do agile teams shorten the time between the two?
A. Usability testing
B. Exploratory testing
C. Daily build and smoke tests
D. Continuous integration (Correct)

Explanation: Continuous integration is the correct answer. Continuous integration gives far more tests
per day than the other options, with less time passed before identification of a problem. Daily build
and smoke tests don’t shorten defect resolution; this answer is incorrect. Usability testing is incorrect
because it requires planning and participation to test the software. Exploratory testing is also
incorrect because it allows testers to explore and test different facets of the software. Continuous
integration is done several times throughout the day.

Question 74: During a sprint planning meeting, what is one item that should be accomplished?
A. The product owner shares the updated backlog, and the team discusses it to make sure everyone
understands it. (Correct)
B. Each participant answers three questions: What have I accomplished?, what do I plan to accomplish?,
and are there any roadblocks?
C. The product owner decides if the product is done.
D. The project scope and costs are renegotiated.

Explanation: The product owner should share the updated backlog items to make sure the entire team
understands how to move forward. The other responses are incorrect. The project scope is based on
the prioritized requirements; to uncover any obstacles, accomplishment and roadblock questions are
answered during Daily Scrums; a project’s success is not discussed in a sprint planning meeting.

Question 75: Your entire team has been asked by the agile team leader to submit cycle time for the next
three iterations. What does the leader mean by cycle time?
A. The time it will take to complete all three iterations
B. The time it takes to complete each iteration from start to finish (Correct)
C. The time that is between each iteration for review and feedback
D. The time it takes to figure out what is in the iteration

Explanation: Cycle time is the time it takes to complete an iteration from start to finish. Cycle time is a
subset of lead time, which determines the time it will take to do the entire project. The other responses
are incorrect. Cycle time doesn’t address the required time to determine what’s in the iteration, the
duration of the iterations, or the timeboxed ceremonies between iterations.

Question 76: Your project’s business partner wants to add more features to each iteration. However, your
agile team has already projected, based on the business partner’s priorities and the team’s risk
analysis, what the next few iterations will include. By pushing for more features, what is the business
partner missing?
A. The time it takes to write user stories
B. The time it takes to perform code housekeeping (Correct)
C. The time it takes to test code
D. Team members get sick or go on vacation during iterations

Explanation: Because business partners are focused on their requirements and value added to the business,
they may overlook the amount of time it takes to perform housekeeping on the written code. Called
refactoring, this cleanup and simplification is essential to having solid code that works presently and
is easily maintained in the future. The other responses are incorrect because the writing of user stories
doesn’t occur during an iteration; team members getting sick or taking vacation days is not a
consideration in ideal days of agile projects; code testing is part of the iteration timeline.

Question 77: Once the results of a retrospective have identified issues and root causes, the next step is to
figure out how to avoid similar issues in the future. Of the following, what is one agile method used
to accomplish this process?
A. Fishbone analysis
B. SMART goals (Correct)
C. Prioritize with dots
D. Triple nickels

Explanation: One agile method used to turn action items into goals is to use the SMART method: specific,
measurable, attainable, relevant, and timely. After the goals are clearly understood, each issue is
discussed and turned into a SMART goal. If necessary, adjustments are made, and the fix is executed
where appropriate. The other responses are incorrect. Triple nickels is a brainstorming technique
used in retrospectives that is based on five minutes of brainstorming and discussion; fishbone
analysis refers to the fishbone chart, used during the root cause analysis approach; to prioritize with
dots is a user story or feature prioritization scheme, not a retrospective outcome.
Question 78: Lynette is the project manager for the BVMI Project for her organization. The BVMI Project
utilizes the XP framework. What is Lynette’s title in this XP project?
A. Project manager
B. Team leader
C. Product manager
D. Coach (Correct)

Explanation: In an XP environment, a project manager is called a coach. The other responses are incorrect
because XP calls the project manager a coach, not a project manager, product manager, or team leader.

Question 79: Miranda is on a self-directing agile team. She’d like to take the lead on a task that she’s very
familiar with and feels very strongly about. To take the lead, what is the process she must go through?
A. Explain and show to her team that this task falls within Miranda’s level of expertise and she’s
confident she can lead it to success (Correct)
B. Subtly overpower the leader and take charge of the task
C. In a meeting with stakeholders, explain that she’s done this task before and it’s a good idea for her to
take the lead
D. Ask the project leader if it would be okay to lead this process

Explanation: If the team understands that Miranda will have a successful outcome, whether in a small
task or a complete iteration, their likely reaction would be, “Go for it!” One of the features of a high-
performing agile team is that leadership can be seamlessly switched without a power struggle. It
makes sense for Miranda to lead a task that she’s familiar with and passionate about. The other
responses are incorrect because: Members of a self-organizing team shouldn’t have to ask permission
or nudge someone out of the way in order to take the lead; a team member would not ask permission
from the stakeholders, but would address the project team directly; leading a portion of a project isn’t
a political game, but is an example of leadership emergence from the project team.

Question 80: As the agile team leader, you notice that your team is in disagreement on and is maybe
overthinking a requirement. To help find the discrepancy, the team members suggest a value stream
mapping session. When the scenario is defined, what should the next step be?
A. Define the starting and ending point (Correct)
B. Write user stories
C. Review the requirements
D. Write test scripts

Explanation: The correct answer is to begin mapping the value stream by defining the starting point and
end point. Then, identify the process steps, any supporting groups, and alternative flows. To
determine what can be eliminated, once all time estimates are added up, look at the value-added and
non-value-added times. A review of the requirements is incorrect because this is not as thorough as
the identification of the starting point, which may include requirements and the endpoint. In addition,
neither writing user stories or test scripts is the next best step in the activity of value stream mapping.
Question 81: A disagreement regarding a project requirement has been brewing among your team, and
you notice that the agile team leader hasn’t taken action to resolve this disagreement. What possible
reason could the agile leader have for staying out of this for now?
A. The leader is waiting until the team explodes before she intervenes.
B. The leader doesn’t know the answer or where to find the answer.
C. The leader’s friend is on one side of the disagreement.
D. The leader wants the involved parties to try to resolve the difference themselves. (Correct)

Explanation: If it’s possible to resolve the difference among themselves, a good agile leader wants this
to happen. If the differences are still at a manageable level, this method will build the team members’
support for the decision itself, and respect for each other. The other responses are incorrect. If the
team is supposed to be self-directed and resolve issues themselves, the agile team leader shouldn’t
be expected to intervene; an agile leader doesn’t take sides nor make decisions based on friendship.
No matter who is on the team, leaders must never take sides or let emotion guide their involvement.
Furthermore, an agile leader will attempt to diffuse a situation before it spirals out of control; they
know conflict is often positive and a self-guided team is empowered to make decisions on the project.

Question 82: In his role as team leader, Ash uses several agile tools to find potential problems before they
happen. Of the following, which is one of those tools?
A. User story
B. Affinity estimating
C. Daily standup meetings (Correct)
D. Iteration planning

Explanation: Daily standup meetings is the correct answer. Daily standup meetings are important tools
that identify possible problems by answering the question if there are any roadblocks that need to be
removed. The other responses are incorrect. Affinity estimating doesn’t address potential problems
but is an approach used to size stories. While user story and iteration planning are valuable tools used
to identify problems, the best approach within the agile framework is the daily standup meeting.

Question 83: Agile teams are frequently verifying and validating during and at the end of every iteration.
Of the following, which is not a benefit of this practice?
A. It reduces project cost overruns since mistakes are found early prior to additional tasks being built
upon a faulty foundation.
B. It enables the team to catch mistakes and mismatched expectations early on.
C. It is easy to manage since there are multiple feedback loops.
D. It keeps everyone busy. (Correct)

Explanation: Busywork does not add value or benefit a project. The other responses are incorrect. For an
agile team, an essential practice is frequent validation and verification. A gap between requested and
delivered features leads to rework, cost overruns, and delays. To adjust the direction of development,
 it’s crucial to find discrepancies early on. This method is beneficial because it allows the team to
catch mistakes and mismatched expectations early; is easily managed because it provides multiple
loops for feedback; reduces project cost overruns since mistakes are found before tasks are created
upon a faulty foundation.

Question 84: As the team leader of a new agile project, Monica’s team is uncertain about some of the
concepts. The concept of timeboxing a portion of the project is difficult for them to understand. In
an agile team’s environment, what is a timebox?
A. The minimum amount of time a task should take to complete
B. The agile term for a month
C. A time frame in which designated work is done (Correct)
D. An alarm that sounds when a task needs to end

Explanation: Typically, an agile timebox is a short period in which designated work is completed. Teams
can use an iteration timebox that represents the number of tasks that can be finished in that timeframe.
If a task isn’t completed in the given timeframe, it’s moved to the next timebox and reprioritized.
The other responses are incorrect because they don’t define a timebox duration.

Question 85: Billy has been selected to lead the AHS Project with Scrum methodologies, and the project
team is thrilled. Which of the following traits does Billy possess that has made the team so happy?
A. Billy will lead according to the project plan.
B. Billy is honest and explains why decisions are made. (Correct)
C. Billy has been with the company for nine years.
D. Billy likes to work within the box.

Explanation: Billy is a suitable ScrumMaster because he’s honest and will explain why certain decisions
are made. He appears to be less focused on command and control and more interested in being a
servant leader. The other three responses are incorrect. Agile requires flexibility and adaptability in
a project i.e. thinking outside the box at times. Even though Billy may have been with the company
for many years, and he is likely competent, he still may not know enough about the project to bring
it to a successful completion. Finally, the leader must be able to adapt to change and be willing to
make adjustments accordingly.

Question 86: To keep a project on track, it’s good practice to minimize waste. To maximize a project’s
value, which of the following could be eliminated?
A. Unnecessary features (Correct)
B. Daily meetings
C. Testing
D. Sprint reviews

Explanation: Unnecessary features is the correct answer. In addition, value can be maximized by
eliminating partially done work, delays, extra processes, and features, task switching, waiting,
 moving information or a deliverable, defects, and handoffs. Daily meetings, testing, and sprint
reviews are incorrect because they represent just a few of the activities required for a successful
project.

Question 87: In the middle of an agile project, the business partner asks you, “If we adhere to the agreed-
upon scope, when do you think the project will be finished, and how much will it cost?” To answer
the business partner, how will you gather the necessary information?
A. By analyzing the key performance indicators (Correct)
B. By checking progress on the backlog
C. By reviewing the Kanban board
D. By having a team meeting and logging everyone’s status

Explanation: Analyzing the key performance indicators is the correct answer. KPIs (key performance
indicators) are the most reliable metrics to use. KPIs give you the progress rate, the remaining work
to be done, the likely date of completion, and the likely costs remaining. The other responses are
incorrect because the Kanban board, backlog, and statuses will only give you small pieces of
information, whereas KPIs provide a broader picture of the project at any given time.

Question 88: As the project manager for an agile project in her organization, Becca is explaining to the
team how to communicate effectively in the project. For an agile team, what’s the preferred method
of communication?
A. Secured and saved e-mail so there’s a paper trail
B. Mandatory conference calls
C. Face-to-face discussions (Correct)
D. One-on-one phone calls

Explanation: Face-to-face discussions are the recommended communication method for agile teams. The
other responses are incorrect. Agile recommends face-to-face communication to avoid confusion or
misinterpretation. E-mail, conference calls, and one-on-one phone calls are considered alternative
methods if people can’t meet face-to-face.

Question 89: Susan’s agile team encourages each other to suggest innovative ideas. Most ideas are tested
to find out if they’ll be successful or not. Without a delay in the project, how can this be
accomplished?
A. The leader accepts only one idea during an iteration.
B. The new ideas are only tested if there is enough time in the project plan.
C. The ideas are tested during short iterations and are done before the next iteration starts. (Correct)
D. Only the leader decides which ideas to test and which to put aside.

Explanation: New processes or techniques are tested during short iterations. By doing so, the team may
either implement the successful idea or not, before the next iteration. This is part of an innovative
concept, and if necessary, failing fast, learning from the experiment, and moving on. The other
 responses are incorrect. Because the team is self-led, it can decide what ideas can be tried and
implemented; when the typical iteration is between two and four weeks, time doesn’t need to be
accounted for, and a decision can be quickly made; there’s no limit to good ideas, and the team should
decide if a concept should move forward.

Question 90: Because development has stopped due to a roadblock, your agile team leader has scheduled
a problem-solving session. The agile method involves not just the business partner and project lead
but the entire team. Why is this method beneficial?
A. The developers have the best theoretical solutions.
B. Having the entire team involved will keep the meeting shorter.
C. The team will introduce multiple fixes to select from.
D. The team together can identify, diagnose, and solve the issue, which facilitates buy-in. (Correct)

Explanation: This method is beneficial so that the team can identify, diagnose and solve an issue. One of
the most important benefits of all-inclusive problem-solving is that the team will buy into a fix that
they have discussed and solved; they may not buy into a fix coming from an outside source who
hasn’t seen the issue’s entire picture. The other responses are incorrect. There’s no evidence that
developers have the best theoretical solutions; the duration of the meeting will not necessarily be
affected by its benefits; while the team may present many solutions, this isn’t the best answer here.

Question 91: As the team leader, Ellen has fostered a safe environment for disagreement. Because of this,
her team feels empowered to move forward without obstacles. How?
A. There is a method to create a list of reasons why tasks can’t be completed and brought to management.
B. To make better decisions, the team is encouraged to join in constructive conflict. (Correct)
C. The team decided to avoid conflict.
D. The team leader takes responsibility for all decisions that are made.

Explanation: The team is encouraged to join in constructive conflict to make better decisions and to stand
behind their agreement. The other responses are incorrect. The creation of lists detailing why tasks
can’t be done does not describe the safe environment or the agile approach to getting things done;
avoiding conflict guarantees the wrong decision being made or a single person making the decision;
the agile team leader is there to remove roadblocks, communicate, deflect interruptions, and to
provide what the team requires, not to take responsibility for good or bad decisions.

Question 92: To determine point estimates for their user stories, your agile team has chosen to use
planning poker. When several members estimate a user story at three points or under, and several
other members estimate the same story at ten points, what can happen?
A. The user story is changed so everyone can agree on the point value.
B. The assigned story points are averaged.
C. To come to a consensus, the story is discussed again. (Correct)
D. The high and low are thrown out, and then the remaining points are averaged.
Explanation: The correct response is to discuss the story again. When the difference in point estimation
is this extensive, there’s probably a misunderstanding or not all of the user story information has
been shared. The team needs to come to a consensus of the story’s point value by further discussing
the story. The other responses are incorrect because they do not demonstrate poker planning rules.

Question 93: Upper management has assembled a diverse agile team, but there is confusion about the
requirements and definition of success of the project. What would have been a better way of creating
the team?
A. Have the business partner hire a team of contractors that must be “sold” on the project
B. Allow a self-organizing team from the people that helped create the requirements and definition of
success (Correct)
C. Select a person from each team that has interest in the project
D. Have the business partner select the members she wants on the project

Explanation: Allowing the formation of a self-organizing team composed of the people who created the
requirements and success definition is the correct answer. When team members have to be “sold” on
ideas that come from an outside source, challenges may arise. The other three responses are incorrect.
Although people on teams that weren’t part of the requirements gathering process may have more
merit on paper, they could possibly want to implement the project differently than what was
originally envisioned. To have the business partner select members creates the same problem of
choosing people who are already invested in the value and understanding of the project. Finally, it’s
best to utilize internal resources that already understand the project goals, rather than hiring
contractors who must be sold on the project’s value.

Question 94: To allow agile team members a chance to retreat for some quiet time, agile team leaders
provide caves. What else can an agile team leader do or suggest to let team members time to
concentrate?
A. Banning cell phone usage in the work area
B. Allowing colocated team members to work remotely
C. Scheduling time for team members to go to the caves
D. Designating a certain period as quiet work time in colocated areas (Correct)

Explanation: The designation of a certain period each day for team members to focus on their tasks
without interruption is a good idea. The other responses are incorrect because although it sometimes
can’t be avoided, working remotely is not a typical option; even though cell phones are common and
expected tools for organizational communication, a rule could be enacted to require team members
to take phone calls out of the common area; scheduling cave time could be counterproductive if
members are removed at a time that’s inconvenient for them.

Question 95: Your agile team leader, Nadia, involves the entire team in problem-solving. What message
does this send to you and the team members?
A. Nadia believes that team members can be supportive beyond their roles. (Correct)
B. Nadia doesn’t know the resolution.
C. Nadia doesn’t think the business partners have a resolution.
D. Nadia (the team lead) doesn’t trust one member’s recommendation.

Explanation: By involving the entire team in problem-solving, Nadia (the team leader) is sending the
message that they are not just stuck in one role: to be only a developer, only a tester, only a coder,
etc. Because agile teams work so closely, they are more likely to bounce ideas off each other. The
other responses are incorrect. When an agile leader asks for input, it doesn’t mean they don’t know
what to do; rather, it demonstrates the leader values others’ input. The engagement of the entire team
is a part of the agile methodology. In addition, an agile team leader would not go to one person or a
business partner to solve a problem. Nor would the leader try to fix the problem themselves. Instead,
the leader would involve the whole team in solving the problem.

Question 96: Because of your work on several agile teams, you’ve become very familiar with user stories.
You’ve been asked to describe to the new people on your team what a “user story” actually is. In just
a few words, how do you explain a user story?
A. A user story is how the user community plans to use the product.
B. A user story is the background of the user community.
C. A user story is a small chunk of functionality that should take one to three days to finish. (Correct)
D. A user story is a narrative of requirements.

Explanation: A user story is a small chunk of functionality that should take one to three days to finish.
To define the task in more detail, the user story should answer questions that the team needs to be
answered. There are no right or wrong questions (or answers); each team comes up with what best
fits their needs. The other responses are incorrect because they are inaccurate descriptions of user
stories. Furthermore, the user story has nothing to do with the user community’s background or how
it is going to use the deliverable.

Question 97: Amy has just completed a requirements-gathering session for an agile software
implementation team. It’s become apparent to her that an outside vendor team needs to be brought
onto the project. Along with the legal department, Amy is working to draw up a vendor contract. For
an agile project, what is the best type of contract?
A. A graduated fixed-price contract
B. A fixed-price contract
C. A time and materials contract
D. A contract that accommodates changes (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is that for agile projects, the best type of contracts is the ones that
accommodate changes that consider the difficulty of defining requirements in advance. The other
responses are incorrect because while agile contracts can also be used with fixed-price, graduated
fixed-price, and time and materials contracts, there needs to be an understanding of their limitations,
whether it be a fixed timeframe or dollar amount.
Question 98: An agile team leader must ensure there is a safe and open environment for their team. Why
is this important?
A. To protect the budget
B. So the team feels free to admit to problems and failures and ask for help (Correct)
C. So there’s no team turnover
D. So the entire team becomes friends

Explanation: To reassure team members they won’t be criticized for admitting failure or to a problem,
it’s of the utmost importance for the team leader to foster an open and safe environment. Asking for
help assists the team in meeting deadlines, avoiding cost overruns, and trying different approaches.
The other responses are incorrect. It’s an admirable goal to have little or no team turnover, it’s not
the best choice presented here. Additionally, even though some agile projects promote social aspects,
friendships among the project team isn’t the best goal (or choice here) of the open and safe
environment. Finally, the open and safe environment is not created to protect the budget.

Question 99: Once all user stories have been written, they are compiled into a backlog, or master list, of
all work that needs to be complete, sorted by priority. The user stories get removed from the backlog
as they are completed and delivered. This process is beneficial how?
A. It provides a visual display of how long the project will take.
B. All the work detailed on one list makes it easier to bypass a story that didn’t successfully pass testing.
C. It provides a visual display of the project’s cost.
D. One of the key agile practices is to have all the work that needs to be done listed in a single document,
which shows scope progress and project status. (Correct)

Explanation: Having a single document manage the project requirements is a fundamental agile practice.
One information source regarding the work that needs to be done allows itself to communicate
effectively and provides a visual of scope progress and project status. The other responses are
incorrect because the purpose of the backlog process isn’t to bypass a story, determine how long the
project will take, or how much the project will cost.

Question 100: As the agile leader for the ICT Project, Mason has invited all stakeholders, customers, and
sponsors, to scheduled planning meetings. Except for one, all the following are valid reasons for this
invitation. Which one isn’t valid?
A. T hear all their concerns
B. To uncover issues
C. To be sure all priorities are being addressed by everyone involved in the project
D. To determine the success or failure of a project member (Correct)

Explanation: The point of inviting stakeholders to these meetings is not to determine the success or
failure of a project team member. The other responses are incorrect because they are all indeed valid
reasons for the invitation. Agile methods focus on bringing project priorities together with
 stakeholders’ priorities. Agile projects don’t plan or initiate work that is not supported or valued by
the stakeholders.

Question 101: As the agile team leader, you’ve decided to track defect cycle time. Of the following,
which best describes what is being tracked?
A. How long it took to fix a defect from an introduction to completion of the fix (Correct)
B. How inaccurate the estimate was of the cycle time
C. How many defects were discovered during the cycle time
D. Which developer was creating the defects during a cycle time

Explanation: How long it took to fix a defect from introduction to completion of the fix is the best and
correct answer. Defect cycle time is the measurement of the time it takes to fix a defect once it’s
discovered. The length of the defect cycle time directly affects the cost and time frame of an iteration
or cycle time. The other responses are incorrect because it’s not how many defects are discovered,
but how long it takes to fix each one; the person who is creating the defects isn’t part of the defect
cycle time; although an estimate’s accuracy of cycle time is tracked, it’s not part of the defect cycle
time’s total amount.

Question 102: There are many different methods of testing software or product deliverables. When should
the team choose the method of testing?
A. When a deliverable is available for testing
B. At the end of the project
C. Before the product is developed (Correct)
D. When the first iteration is complete

Explanation: Before the product is developed is the correct answer. You are more likely to end up with
tests for the bulk of the work if the acceptance tests are created before the development of
deliverables. The other responses are incorrect. When you determine the testing method after the
project has started, it means you are trying to fit the developed product into a test scenario.

Question 103: As an agile team leader, Anju asks each team member to write down possible reasons for
task failure when going through a pre-mortem. To reveal everyone’s list and consolidate it, the best
method is to go around the room round-robin style. What is the primary benefit of this approach?
A. When common issues are identified, other team members can cross it off their list.
B. Every issue can be discussed when presented. (Correct)
C. It forces everyone to attend and stay for the entire meeting.
D. No one is reading an entire list of problems.

Explanation: When every issue is presented one at a time, it allows for discussion in the moment and
keeps the team engaged. The team can then prioritize the list and incorporate fixes in the upcoming
iterations once the list of failure points is complete and agreed upon. The other responses are incorrect.
While it’s true that no one is reading an entire list of problems in a round-robin, it’s not the best
 reason why a round-robin works so well; the goal is to have team members participate and solve
problems, not force attendance; another goal is to discuss the issues, not simply cross them off their
lists.

Question 104: Why is the velocity of completed iterations used to estimate the progress of the project,
and duration estimates for the project’s remainder?
A. The team is more capable of completing tasks after several iterations.
B. Previous iterations include all variables of development. (Correct)
C. The same team members should be on each iteration.
D. The same number of user stories are completed in each iteration.

Explanation: The correct answer is that previous iterations include all variables of development. The
other answers are incorrect: although consistent team membership is valuable, changes in members
shouldn’t change the iteration’s velocity; since not all user stories are equally complex, the same
number of stories can’t be used to predict future progress; each iteration has different tasks.

Question 105: Cole is a team member on a project. As he begins gathering requirements, what is a logical
question he should ask, and have answered, first?
A. How long will the project last?
B. How many team members will participate?
C. What is the business value? (Correct)
D. How much is in the budget?

Explanation: What is the business value choice is the correct answer. To generate business value is the
reason projects are carried out. The business risk and the impact of not doing the project must be
considered. The other responses are incorrect because the budget, duration, and member participation
are determined once the value-driven delivery is identified.

Question 106: At the agile team kick-off meeting, the business owners announce they’ve decided to use
MoSCoW as a priority tool. What are the categories for this method?
A. Must have, should have, could have, would like to have (Correct)
B. Point method, assigning the most points to the highest priority team
C. Priority 1, Priority 2, Priority 3, Priority 4
D. Low. Medium, high

Explanation: In the MoSCoW method of prioritizing, tasks are labeled as must have, should have, could
have, and would like to have but not at this time. Although any method can be used for an agile
project, many members believe that the MoSCoW’s methods are the clearest. The other responses
are incorrect because they are not categories in MoSCoW. It becomes ineffective to label too many
items as priority 1 or high priority or the most points assigned; MoSCoW is an excellent method to
avoid those tendencies. Most business partners will not ask for a new feature to be given a lower
priority, because they know it will most likely never get done. Lastly, point systems may be useful,
 but MoSCoW challenges stakeholders to identify priorities, rather than just assigning points.

Question 107: Because of the difficulty in making absolute estimates regarding task completion, agile
teams use which of the following methods to estimate more accurately?
A. Use comparative estimates or relative sizing (Correct)
B. Base absolute estimates on hours, not days
C. Use value-based priority
D. Estimate how many user stories can be done in a day

Explanation: Agile teams use comparative estimates or relative sizing, which uses a relative unit called
story points, to estimate more accurately. Rather than trying to predict absolute time frames,
estimating in terms of relative size (as opposed to absolute) allows the estimates to be made more
usefully. A team can only finish so many user stories in an iteration. The other responses are incorrect:
user stories are not mapped to days of an iteration; estimates are made by the relative size of user
stories, not by hours; value-based prioritization is how the product backlog is organized, not how
user stories are estimated.

Question 108: As his organization’s project manager, Raj is educating the project team and key
stakeholders about Scrum. A few of the team members are confused about the activities that happen
after the sprint review. Raj should indicate which of the following activities is to occur after the sprint
review?
A. Sprint retrospective (Correct)
B. Product backlog refinement
C. Sprint planning meeting
D. Daily Scrum

Explanation: Sprint retrospective is the correct answer. To gather lessons learned and look for
improvement opportunities, a sprint retrospective should be held after a sprint review but before a
sprint planning meeting. This activity allows the team to consider feedback from the owner, and also
implement improvements before the next sprint. The other answers are incorrect: product backlog
refinement occurs in product refinement meetings; sprint planning meetings take place after the
product refinement meeting; the Daily Scrum is hosted every day at the same time and same place.

Question 109: Lorenzo is a team member on an agile project. Along with all the stakeholders, he has
already gone through the value-based analysis of prioritization for the first few iterations. Now,
Lorenzo must estimate how long each iteration will take. For making estimates like this, what is
agile’s method of preference?
A. Allowing the team leader to determine the time frame of each iteration
B. Figure out how many tasks are in the entire project, group the tasks into specific iterations, determine
how long each iteration will take
C. Break down requirements into chunks of work, estimate how long each task will take, plan the task.
(Correct)
D. Understand how many people are available, determine the number of tasks, split the tasks between
the team

Explanation: Break down the requirements into small, refined groups of work to ensure the team will
more accurately estimate the length of each task and plan a reasonable iteration. The other responses
are incorrect. While it’s critical to know how many team members are available to complete tasks,
agile’s first consideration is the decomposition (breaking down) of the work, and then the team
assigns the work accordingly. The method of figuring out how many tasks are in the entire project,
grouping them into specific iterations, and then figuring out how long each iteration will take is not
based on value and doesn’t consider the likelihood of change. In the agile method, the known
requirements are addressed for each iteration during iteration planning. Lastly, iterations are pre-
determined at the beginning of the project.

Question 110: Penelope is a member of an agile team. At what level of skill mastering should she be to
make the best decision, rather than relying on the rules?
A. Expert
B. Advanced beginner
C. Competent
D. Proficient (Correct)

Explanation: Proficient is the correct answer. At the proficient level of mastering a skill, decision making
is still analytical, but you’re becoming more comfortable relying on a gut feeling, rather than a rule.
The other responses are incorrect. At the advanced beginner stage, you are only just beginning to
understand the context of the rules; this isn’t the best stage to try tailoring the processes or change
the agile rules. In the competent stage, you are still deciding which rules are best for the situation.
Finally, in the expert stage, you are confidently making intuitive and spontaneous decisions.

Question 111: As the project manager of a new agile project, Ballard is explaining to the business team
how agile works. In his talk, he explains at which of the following stages of adaptive leadership the
leader may ask numerous questions?
A. Supporting
B. Directing (Correct)
C. Delegating
D. Coaching

Explanation: Directing is the correct answer. Early in a team’s formation, the leader helps directly with
project activities and lays out a picture of what needs to be achieved. At this time, the leader may ask
many questions to ensure the team understands their direction. The other responses are incorrect. In
the coaching phase, the leader typically resolves conflicts so that relationships are not damaged. The
supporting phase consists of the leader challenging the team with high-level goals; the leader is also
still needed for conflict resolution. Lastly, because teams are empowered, the delegating stage is
rarely reached.
Question 112: The agile team that Hans is working with has just completed an iteration and finished all
tasks; he’s ready to move to the next iteration. How does Hans figure out which iteration should be
next?
A. The PMO has already determined how the project should progress.
B. The team leader chooses the next iteration.
C. The team follows the project plan developed early in the project.
D. The customer continuously prioritizes the backlog. (Correct)

Explanation: The customer continuously prioritizes the backlog is the correct response. The team works
through a prioritized list of items with the identifiable value provided by the customer. The other
responses are incorrect. Agile teams know that plans created at the beginning of the project are fluid
and subject to change, so attempting to follow an early developed plan may not be feasible. The PMO
(project management office) does not determine the progression of the project. Lastly, the team leader
doesn’t define the next iteration.

Question 113: While reading your agile team’s high-level project plan, you notice there are three
scheduled pre-mortems. When you ask your leader to define a pre-mortem, what is the explanation?
A. It’s a session that identifies the business requirements.
B. It is a session that envisions possible failures and how to mitigate them. (Correct)
C. It is a session that tells why the project will be a huge success.
D. It is a session that lists which team members need to be added to the team.

Explanation: A pre-mortem is a session where all stakeholders meet to come up with a list of potential
points of failure and figure out how to mitigate them. Since the team will offer failure avoidance
resolutions, the business owners’ participation is a must because they’ll need to agree with the team’s
ideas. The other responses are incorrect. Since business requirements are identified before a pre-
mortem, they are the source of the discussion; by the time a pre-mortem occurs, all team members
have been identified; at the point of conducting a pre-mortem, it’s unlikely the team would envision
everything working as planned.

Question 114: Anderson’s agile team is in the release planning phase for the next iteration. To determine
how much work can be done in the next release, what is the most accurate tool to use?
A. Velocity (Correct)
B. Affinity estimating
C. User stories
D. Story points

Explanation: Velocity is the correct answer. To plan how much work can be done in the next release,
agile typically uses the velocity trend over the last several iterations. Gathering groups of user stories
or summing story points factor into the velocity in which iterations are completed. User stories, story
points, and affinity estimating are incorrect responses because they are not used to determine the
 amount of work to be done in the next release of the project.

Question 115: PMI-ACP candidates must recognize the terms and techniques utilized in agile processes.
Of the following, which is the best example of an empirical process?
A. Observing results and adapting the code (Correct)
B. Making collaborative decisions
C. Following a plan
D. Working alone on a project requirement

Explanation: Observing results and adapting the code is the best answer. Empirical processes require
observation, creativity, and trial and error. The other responses are incorrect because: following a
plan describes a defined process; making collaborative decisions isn’t an empirical process; working
alone can involve using either an empirical or defined process.

Question 116: Of the following, which statement describes the difference between Kanban and agile?
A. Kanban teams plan their work in sprints or iterations.
B. Kanban teams employ a pull system. (Correct)
C. Kanban teams work on a project as a whole.
D. There are no WIP limits in Kanban.

Explanation: The correct answer is Kanban teams employ a pull system. Employing a pull system means
that when a piece of work is done, it triggers a pull to bring in the next item on the list to work on.
Kanban teams also work off a board that displays columns of processes, called a Kanban board, each
with a WIP (work in progress) limit. The other responses are incorrect because Kanban does have a
WIP limit; agile teams work in sprints before moving on to the next sprint backlog, not Kanban
teams; Kanban teams work in chunks of requirements, not on the entire project at once.

Question 117: An EVM (earned value management) chart is a great visual to see your project’s progress.
Even though you know that an agile project is different from a non-agile project in that the initial
plan is likely to change, you still see the benefit in using an EVM. Because an EVM chart is a
forward-looking indicator, it could be used to assist in the prediction of which of the following?
A. Number of team members required
B. Quality of deliverables
C. Completion dates and final costs (Correct)
D. Timings to begin new iterations

Explanation: EVM looks to the future, trying to predict dates of completion and final costs, in addition
to scope, schedule, and cost performance. The number of team members required and timings to
begin new iterations are incorrect because they are fluid dimensions and can’t easily be tracked.
While the quality of deliverables can be tracked, they can’t be tracked in an EVM chart.

Question 118: Sam’s agile team leader has scheduled retrospectives for the team after each iteration. Of
 the following, which best describes the purpose of this sort of meeting?
A. It allows the team to prioritize new requirements.
B. It allows team members to switch roles.
C. It’s an opportunity for the team to inspect and improve their methods and teamwork. (Correct)
D. It lets the team voice their grievances.

Explanation: The purpose of a retrospective is to allow a team to inspect and improve their methods and
teamwork. Three questions should be asked and discussed during a retrospective: What is going well?
What could we do differently? What areas could be improved? Solutions are validated when they are
identified. If successful, they can be added as part of the ongoing process. If solutions fail, the team
can decide to try something else or go back to the earlier process. The other responses are incorrect.
The point of a retrospective is to improve upon approach, not air grievances; the team doesn’t switch
roles in a retrospective; before each iteration begins, the product owner will prioritize the product
backlog, not in the retrospective.

Question 119: Hannah is the ScrumMaster for the BV Organization. To refine the product backlog, she’s
working with her team and the product owner. What is the role of the team in this meeting?
A. Prioritize the work items
B. Add features to the product backlog
C. Estimate and refine the work items (Correct)
D. Identify fixes

Explanation: The team is responsible for estimating and refining work items. Every time the team refines
their estimates with more detail, the product owner may need to adjust the items’ priority. The other
responses are incorrect. While the team collaborates with the product owner to prioritize the work
items, it is ultimately the responsibility of the product owner. The team does not add features to the
backlog; it does not identify fixes in the refinement of the product backlog.

Question 120: To test code, most agile software developers use continuous integration tools. The tools
tell the developers whether the code passes or fails. What status is communicated?
A. Red-Green-Refactor (Correct)
B. Red-Yellow-Green
C. Pass/Fail
D. Go/ No Go

Explanation: Red-Green-Refactor (or Red-Green-Clean) is the correct answer. It’s defined as the process
of writing a test that initially fails, adding code until the test passes, then refactoring the code. The
other responses are incorrect because CI tools don’t use these terms to communicate status.

Question 1: Anna is the Agile project manager for her company’s latest building project. While meeting
with the project’s customers, she and her team are informed of several new pieces of functionality that
they’ll need to incorporate. Given that the deadline cannot be pushed out, what should the team’s response
be to these additions?
A. Explain to the customer that lower priority tasks or functionalities may be dropped from the project
entirely. (Correct)
B. The team should hold their ground, and tell the customers the project will be late.
C. Agree to have the customer’s new items put into a separate category. If time allows, they’ll be
completed.
D. To deliver the project on time, let the team know there will be many long days and nights ahead; all
vacations and days off are canceled.

Explanation: The correct answer is to explain to the customer that tasks with lower priorities may be
dropped from the project entirely. An Agile team is able to accept changes early or late in the project
because of the iteration methodology. However, the customer must understand that the team still needs to
work within the project’s timeframe and budget. While new functionalities can certainly be added to the
project, it’s at the expense of a lower-priority work item. Agile teams are committed to being “agile,” or
flexible, so dictating timeframes or having a lack of work/life balance is part of the Agile methodology.
The project team should never be overworked to maintain the pace of the project work. The other
responses are incorrect. To accommodate higher-priority items which balance the fixed restraints of costs
and time, lower-priority requirements should be dropped from the project scope; good management does
not allow for the cancellation of vacation days or time off; this negatively affects the team morale and
team support of the project. Finally, requirements should not be on a separate list but prioritized into the
product backlog. The existing product backlog will already be mapped to the fixed time constraint.

Question 2: It comes to your attention that the agile team you are working with uses a whiteboard and
writes tasks on sticky notes. Your first thought is that they’ve taken a step backward by not using an
electronic project planning tool. After a while, though, you see the value in the whiteboard system. Why
is this method beneficial?
A. Sticky notes are not taken seriously.
B. It is visual, and the at-a-glance shows the project’s progress. (Correct)
C. The multiple people who have access to the board can move notes to their advantage.
D. It’s easy to ignore a sticky note and bypass a task.

Explanation: The correct answer is that it’s visual, and the at-a-glance shows the project’s progress. A
whiteboard is usually located in the team’s area, so meetings can be held around it. The team’s WIP is
easily visible, as well as any tasks that may be falling behind. The business partner also finds value in the
usage of the whiteboard because a growing collection of completed work is easily seen. The whiteboard
is an example of a high-touch, low-tech tool. The other responses are incorrect because: the whiteboard
approach utilizes the pull system to pull the WIP’s next prioritized item, it won’t bypass the item; as part
of the high-touch/low-tech tools, sticky notes are used on a regular basis; the team does not reorder the
requirements or identified tasks, but follows the rules of the pull system.

Question 3: A new stakeholder, Chanda, has recently joined your team. Her daily responsibilities are
taking a lot of time, and she’s struggling with really being able to engage with the team. You’ve brought
this issue to the attention of Chanda’s manager, but no solution has been proposed yet. To help alleviate
the problem, what can the team itself do?
A. Overload Chanda so she can’t get to her daily responsibilities until the weekend
B. Assist Chanda with her daily work
C. Tell Chanda’s boss how this issue is creating problems for the team
D. To free Chanda from her daily responsibilities, hire a temp or contractor to do them, so Chanda is
able to work on the project (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to hire a temp or contractor to free up Chanda. The people selected
to be on an Agile team are usually, because of their knowledge level, the busiest people in an organization.
However, the team itself needs members who can most effectively help the team understand the
requirements and make critical decisions. To free up Chanda’s time to devote herself to the project, it
might be beneficial for the project to pay for someone (a temp or contractor) to take over her daily
responsibilities. The other responses are incorrect. The team can’t assist the stakeholder (Chanda) with
her daily work, because then they’d be behind in their own work; overloading a stakeholder is contrary to
Agile principles, and would force her to make a decision on where her time is spent; Chanda’s manager
is already aware of the issues.

Question 4: Rohan is a new project manager for the company he works for, the Nurture Corporation. His
manager has asked Rohan to read the Agile Manifesto, which, among other things, highlights collaborative
working. Rohan notices that his leader seems to practice stakeholder engagement much more frequently
than what he has seen in the past. This is beneficial how?
A. Stakeholders all get to know each other better.
B. Having meetings frequently is a nice break from heads-down work.
C. Stakeholders stay in their own lanes, rather than overstep their boundaries.
D. The team develops better problem-solving skills, receives better ideas and input, and becomes more
willing to take ownership. (Correct)

Explanation: Because many Agile practices are based on collaborative approaches, the team is able to
share ideas, hear input and feedback, and take ownership of successes and failures. This is true because
the team has helped make the decisions. The other responses are incorrect. By simply working together
each day, stakeholders get to know each other – their quirks and abilities. Stakeholders do not need to
“stay in their own lanes”; in an Agile project, they’ll learn that there needs to be a highly collaborative
team in place to have a successful project. Finally, while some team members might like frequent meetings
as a break from work, it’s not the best answer choice presented here.

Question 5: Teams are usually formed and developed using the Tuckman Model of forming, storming,
norming, and performing. Obviously, your team leader, Lulu, is aware of this model, but she’s new to the
organization and doesn’t understand why the forming stage has gone so quickly. What might be the
reason?
A. Most of the team members come from the same department.
B. Most of the team members have worked together on projects before. (Correct)
C. Since the team was handpicked by management, they must all get along.
D. It doesn’t matter to the team members if they all get along or not.

Explanation: The correct answer is that most of the team members have worked together on previous
projects. Because many of the team members have worked together before, the initial phase, forming, is
not as crucial as it would be for an entirely new team. The other responses are incorrect because teams
definitely do need to care if they all get along; even teams that are hand-selected by management may still
go through the forming process; if they’ve not worked together in the past, even teams from the same
department may still need to go through forming.

Question 6: Leela is the project manager for a project in which she’s replenishing her storage of materials.
To do this, she is using her own trademark approach. Leela’s project is using what type of process here?
A. A defined process (Correct)
B. An empirical process
C. An exemplified process
D. A mix of empirical and defined processes

Explanation: The correct answer is a defined process. A good example of a defined process is a
construction project: the materials are known and understood, and the approach to the solution is known.
The other responses are incorrect: an empirical process is one where learning happens throughout the
project, and the path is uncertain; an exemplified process is nearly identical to an empirical process, which
this approach is not; because they are opposing process types, there’s no such thing as a mix of empirical
and defined processes.

Question 7: Ava and her team are working on a project that has begun following the agile model of the
triangle of constraints. Of the following, which is the approach that Ava follows?
A. The project cycles have a fixed time and fixed scope, but the cost of the finished work within each
cycle could vary
B. Each cycle of the project has a fixed scope, but the timing of the cycles and cost of the completed
work within each cycle may vary
C. Each cycle of the project has a fixed cost and fixed scope, but each cycle’s timing may vary
D. Each project cycle has a fixed time and fixed cost, but the scope of the finished work within each
cycle could vary (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is that each project cycle has a fixed time and fixed cost, but the scope
of work completed within each cycle could vary. A model that represents fixed cost and fixed time, but
has a variable scope, is an agile triangle of constraints. The other responses are incorrect because a fixed
scope represents the established model of the triangle of constraints; fixed time, fixed scope, and fixed
cost do not accurately portray the agile triangle of constraints.

Question 8: It’s come to Richard’s attention that several items important to the customer were not
documented in their agreement. However, the team did focus on the parts of work that provided the most
value to the customer. In addition, based on guidance from the client, the team completed the most critical
undocumented items. Of the following, which value is Richard best exhibiting?
A. The response to change over contract negotiation
B. Working software over contract negotiation
C. The value of individual people and interaction over processes and tools
D. The value of collaboration with the customer over contract negotiation (Correct)

Explanation: Richard is best exhibiting the value of customer collaboration over contract negotiation
because rather than insist the documented items be renegotiated or ignored, he sought customer input. The
other responses are incorrect because this scenario doesn’t accurately portray individuals and interactions
over processes and tools; working software and responding to change over contract negotiations is not a
value.

Question 9: In a review of the Manifesto for Agile Software Development’s four values, what is most
likely to be revealed?
A. The best approach for agile success is one that prioritizes the focus on the comparison of all eight
values
B. There is value in focusing on areas like individuals and interactions, but not in other areas like
processes and tools
C. There is more value when the focus is on areas like individuals and interactions than focusing on
areas like processes and tools (Correct)
D. To review the four values, only those individuals who fully understand the 12 principles of an agile
mindset can be permitted to do so

Explanation: The correct answer is that there’s more value when the focus is on areas like individuals
and interactions than focusing on areas like processes and tools. Focusing on a value that is said to be over
another value means that the item that is over the other is more important, but it doesn’t mean the other
value is totally unimportant. The other responses are incorrect. There’s no need to focus on all eight areas
while the other deserves less focus; each pair is the value to focus on. Nowhere is it implied that only the
four values are important, and the others are not; although it’s ideal to review the four values and twelve
principles together, the four values can be reviewed on their own.

Question 10: Both agile concepts, what is the best example of barely sufficient and just in time
documentation?
A. Finished just before the deadline in the planning phase, documentation completed in an outline form
B. Finished only just before it’s needed and not before, as minimal documentation as possible to cover
basic needs (Correct)
C. Finished two days before the developer begins, documentation that is less than four paragraphs per
each user story
D. Produced during the daily scrum each morning, documentation that includes just titles for all user
stories, unless the developer requests more
Explanation: The correct answer is documentation that is as minimal as possible to cover basic needs,
completed only right before it’s needed, not before. To get work estimated and completed, barely sufficient
documentation focuses on giving the least amount of information. The other responses are incorrect
because outlines, titles with no descriptions, with several paragraphs, or certain timelines before
development, are not required for this concept of documentation; without negatively impacting the team,
just-in-time documentation is produced at the latest possible time.

Question 11: Instead of taking the time to put documentation in writing, Cali decided to discuss work
assignments with her team verbally. She thought this would be the best way to show agile’s documentation
approach. Cali’s approach can be best characterized how?
A. Cali should only write work requirements for the more complicated assignments
B. No one asked for the requirements in writing, so Cali is correctly showing agile’s documentation
approach
C. Taking an agile approach does not mean that documentation shouldn’t be done at all; Cali should start
completing some documentation in writing. (Correct)
D. Cali is correctly demonstrating agile’s approach to documentation because none is required

Explanation: The correct answer is that Cali should begin documentation in writing; agile’s approach is
based on minimal documentation, not zero documentation. The other responses are incorrect because Cali
is simply not demonstrating a correct agile approach; although, with minimal documentation, all items
should have requirements; Cali would be wrong if she completed some requirements but not others.

Question 12: As they learn more about how to complete the project, Fallon and her team expect that the
plans made at the beginning of the project will change throughout its progression. In practice, this is
implemented by:
A. Once the first changes are requested, the full planning process can be repeated
B. At each regular meeting, ask for suggested changes from all team members
C. While planning, expect changes are coming, welcome the changes when they do come, and adjust the
plan accordingly (Correct)
D. Because you know the project will change, never estimate the release date

Explanation: The correct answer is to expect changes while planning. Changes should not only be
expected but welcomed; when they happen, they should influence the plan itself. The other responses are
incorrect. When the first change is requested, nothing of significance should occur; it all depends on the
nature of the change. Additionally, a change does not imply that you should never estimate a release date;
there’s no reason to ask for change suggestions at each meeting.

Question 13: By adjusting requirements as needed, regardless of when they occur, Ajay and his team
ensure that Marca Corporation can compete best in their industry by regularly requesting changes. Of the
following, which principle is the team primarily exhibiting?
A. Even late in development, change requirements are welcomed (Correct)
B. Frequently delivering working software
C. Regular team reflection on how to become more effective, and then adjusting accordingly
D. Through early and continuous software delivery, the team ensures the customer that their satisfaction
is the team’s highest priority

Explanation: The correct answer is even late in development, the team welcomes change requirements.
This is the principle best exhibited in this scenario – the expectation (and accommodation) that
requirements can change at any time. The other responses are incorrect because even though changing
requirements may satisfy the customer, it’s not as important or good of a choice as the correct answer; the
behavior in this scenario has nothing to do with the frequency of software delivery, or the reflection on
how the team can be more effective.

Question 14: Because Bernie wants to make sure that the World Wide Water agile team is adhering
properly to the highest priority in the agile mindset, he does the following:
To ensure the developers correctly complete their jobs before wasting anyone else’s time, he makes sure
incomplete work is not accepted
A. To ensure the most robust and comprehensive solution is made for the customer, Bernie makes sure
the team entirely completes every review, deliverable, and milestone that their Project Management
Office requires
B. Above everything else, Bernie makes sure the customer is satisfied (Correct)
C. Bernie ensures the customer’s software is delivered only when the testing team finds nothing wrong
with it.

Explanation: The correct answer is: above all else, Bernie makes sure the customer is satisfied. Customer
satisfaction is the highest priority. The other responses are incorrect because it’s not the top priority to
have perfect software, nor to incorporate PMO reviews; even though the agile mindset encourages that
teams are comfortable sharing incomplete work, it’s not a top (or high) priority.

Question 15: To welcome and incorporate expected changes in her team’s project, Alisha has created an
agile approach. Her best approach is what?
A. To incorporate quick changes, Alisha holds standup change request meetings every day
B. All changes are added to the Sprint Backlog by Alisha
C. Alisha notifies her company of the new items and guarantees, along with the sponsor, to respond
within 24 hours to all new change control requests
D. As changes are discovered, Alisha makes a note of the new work required and places the information
into a backlog where the entire team may access it in the future (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to make notes as changes are discovered, and ensure the team has
access to them. This is an appropriate approach to handling change: making the changes highly visible;
discussing the changes as a team; putting the change request into the backlog for future use. The other
responses are incorrect because new items go into the product backlog, not the spring backlog; attempting
to enforce a formal and rigid change control process, like the guarantee to respond to requests in less than
24 hours, is not the best approach; an appropriate approach to change management involves more than
simply meeting with the client.

Question 16: Of the following situations, which agile principle of business and development collaboration
is applied the best?
A. Located across the country, the Phillips Bicycle Company team regularly uses phone calls, written
documents, and emails to make sure everyone on the core team is updated at least once per day
B. Each morning, members of the Phillips Bicycle Company business and development team briefly
meet in person to discuss new or changing requirements, potential solutions, and business request
alternatives (Correct)
C. To update the rest of the team members on project concerns, a PBC manager sends out a daily email
D. With the core team members, a PBC Business Analyst, Jenna, attends a daily scrum meeting. The
product owner, Jenna’s boss, joins them every other week to help with sprint and backlog planning.

Explanation: The correct answer is that frequent communication in person is always the preferred method.
However, it can be difficult when team members are not in the same location. The other responses are
incorrect because phone calls, email, and written documents are not the preferred team communication
method. In addition, it’s not ideal for the product owner to join the meeting every other week.

Question 17: As the leader of his team, Arun has properly incorporated the agile principle of building
projects around team members who are motivated. He trusts that they will get their work done. Of these
scenarios, which did Arun implement?
A. To ensure that the team can keep everyone informed of their daily progress, Arun has implemented
the best processes and tools
B. So the team can decide how to handle assignments, Arun provides a list of the assignments for each
cycle of the work that needs to be done
C. Arun has created a self-organizing team that makes its own decisions each day; the team can receive
help from Arun when needed (Correct)
D. In Product and Sprint Backlog sessions, Arun and the product owner organize and plan the work to
be done. Because the team is self-organizing, they then distribute the work and are careful not to
exceed the team’s capacity

Explanation: The correct answer is that Arun has created a self-organizing team that is able to make its
own decisions each day but can receive his help if needed. A self-organizing team makes its own decisions,
plans, and assigns its own work; they rely on other sources for additional support as needed. The other
responses are incorrect. If Arun wants to incorporate this agile principle in the most effective way, he
would not make assignments on his own or with the product owner; processes and tools are not a critical
focus of a team that is incorporating this particular agile principle; team collaboration and self-
organization are an important focus of a team that is incorporating this agile principle.

Question 18: A highly successful agile organization, Morgan Retail Services, uses _________ as their
primary measure of progress?
A. Tracked on a Gantt chart, how much of the solution has been approved by the product owner
B. Tracked on a burndown chart, how much of the solution is designed
C. Tracked on a team analysis report each cycle, the percentage of time spent on bugs vs. the original
development work
D. The development of working software, as opposed to fully comprehensive documentation (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is the development of working software, rather than fully
comprehensive documentation. On an agile team, working software should be the main measure of focus.
The other responses are incorrect because they (the amount of the designed solution, approved, and
relevant quality metrics) are not primary measures of a team’s progress.

Question 19: Little’s Law is exhibited through what in the Kanban Methodology?
A. A decrease in project duration when the amount of work is limited
B. A decrease in project duration when the amount of WIP (work in progress) is limited (Correct)
C. An increase in project duration when the WIP is limited
D. An increase in product duration when the number of resources is increased

Explanation: The correct answer is that Little’s Law is exhibited through a decrease in project duration
when the WIP is limited. Little’s Law says that the amount of time it takes to complete work increases
with the amount of WIP; a decrease in the amount of time it takes to complete work means a decrease in
the WIP. The other responses are incorrect because they are not accurate representations of Little’s Law.

Question 20: Kamal is the leader of his company’s agile team, which has decided to use the Crystal family
of methodologies. What does the methodology chosen for each project depend on?
A. The quality rate and number of developers combined
B. A combination of the requirement and development defects’ impact and the size of the team (Correct)
C. The service level agreement required for product support
D. The number of requirements and team size combined

Explanation: The methodology chosen for each project depends on the impact that requirement and
development defects will have combined with the size of the team. Crystal methodologies depend on the
criticality of defects and size of the team. The other responses are incorrect because they don’t influence
the methodology choice within the Crystal family.

Question 21: Brian’s team has an agile way of thinking – they value people over processes. What can
they be expected to typically focus on?
A. Velocity, as opposed to direction
B. Logic, as opposed to feelings
C. Command, as opposed to communication
D. Effectiveness, as opposed to efficiency (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is effectiveness, as opposed to efficiency. Techniques of leadership

focus on effectiveness; efficiency is a focus of management techniques. The Agile methodology values
leadership over management. The other responses are incorrect because they don’t represent “people over
processes” in the best way. In addition, logic over feelings is not an agile approach, nor is command.
Velocity represents the average points done in an iteration; it’s not a part of agile values.

Question 22: When should an exceptional agile leader discuss the vision of the project?
A. During the first release planning session
B. During the first sprint planning session
C. The project’s vision should be discussed throughout the project (Correct)
D. During each sprint planning and Sprint Retrospective session

Explanation: The correct answer is that the vision of the project should be discussed throughout the
project; the project’s vision cannot be overcommunicated. The other choices are incorrect because they
are limited, and not the best choice here. The vision of the project should be discussed often.

Question 23: Of the following, which best displays practices of agile leadership?
A. Keeping an accurate project plan that is updated daily for reporting
B. An individual readily admitting to a mistake he made in the project (Correct)
C. Before giving the team’s estimates to management, adding a 50 percent buffer
D. Taking ten minutes before the daily stand-up meeting to openly discuss all future project events

Explanation: An individual readily admitting to a mistake he made in the project is the correct answer,
and best displays a practice of agile leadership. Honestly admitting a mistake is an agile leadership practice.
The other responses are incorrect because it’s not good practice to have a pre-standup meeting; the upkeep
of a project plan is part of agile; to be transparent, estimates adjusted from the original should be provided
only with an explanation as to why the buffer is needed.

Question 24: Of the following trends, which are expected in agile development?
A. The decrease in risk occurs faster than in traditional development (Correct)
B. Over time, adaptability increases
C. Over time, visibility increases in a linear way
D. At the conclusion of the project, business value experiences a significant increase

Explanation: The correct answer is that risk decreases more quickly than in traditional development.
Over the course of an agile project, risk decreases rather steadily. The other responses are incorrect
because until a project is finished, traditional projects experience little decrease in risk; the achievement
of business value should occur as early in the project as possible; agile projects should demonstrate
visibility and adaptability from start to finish; value should show a steady increase with increments.

Question 25: Billy and his team know that the new product they are working on for their company, Retail
Services Corp, will face tough competition; multiple vendors are creating similar products. What is the
best way for Billy and his team to approach this?
A. By making sure the product is delivered with all the same features as the competitor
B. By completing a comprehensive risk analysis with all stakeholders
C. By delivering a minimally viable product as quickly as possible (Correct)
D. By producing a visible risk log located in the team’s area

Explanation: The correct answer is to deliver an MVP (minimum viable product) as quickly as possible.
To prevent competitors from taking market share by getting their product out first, it’s most important to
get an MVP out as soon as possible. The other responses are incorrect because there’s no need for
additional risk analysis; it’s not an agile practice to produce a fully featured product that can take longer
and cost market share; in a competitive situation, further risk logging is not an immediate focus.

Question 26: The Frenchie Project is a five -year project that will make sure EddieCorp adheres to new
financial regulations. Project Safe Law is a two-year project to protect EddieCorp from lawsuits. To
determine which project is the most beneficial to the company, how is this done?
A. It’s not. Both projects must be done, so no analysis is needed
B. By calculating the net present value (NPV) of both projects and choosing the one that is higher
(Correct)
C. By choosing the project that has received the most support from the company’s board
D. By calculating both forecast revenues and choosing the one with the highest

Explanation: The correct answer is to calculate the NPV of both projects and choose the one that is higher.
Regardless of the length of the project, NPV allows the value to be calculated in today’s terms; it’s the
best choice for project value comparison. The other responses are incorrect because analysis avoidance
won’t determine the greatest value; it’s not an agile best practice to have a company’s board vote; the
calculation of future revenue doesn’t show a project’s value at a single point in time, which includes cost
deductions and money’s time value, which is part of NPV.

Question 27: Beatrice needs to determine the value of her project at Gulf Gate Enterprises, so she
calculates the ratio of the company’s expected profits to the project’s expected costs. What type of
calculation did Beatrice use?
A. NPV (net present value)
B. ROI (return on investment) (Correct)
C. Net investment value
D. Net present value

Explanation: ROI is the calculation of this ratio and is the correct answer. The other responses are
incorrect because NPV is a total dollar amount that’s also calculated at a point in time, including ROI; it’s
not a ratio. Net investment value and return on income are not accurate terms.

Question 28: To calculate the value a potential one-year project could have at BernCorp, Noor uses ROI
(return on investment). She expects the revenue to be $400,000, with a 10 percent ROI. What does this
tell Noor about her project?
A. An ROI is expected (Correct)
B. The project should be launched
C. The project’s expected costs are higher than the benefit by $40,000
D. This project should be given precedence over one where the NPV is $35,000

Explanation: The correct answer is that an ROI is expected. A positive ROI of $50,000 indicates an
expected return. The other responses are incorrect. A positive ROI doesn’t guarantee a project should be
launched, because other projects may have greater benefits; ROI and NPV can’t be directly compared; a
positive ROI means potential costs are expected to be less, not more, than the project benefits.

Question 29: Monica is an incredibly gifted agile coach, but she’s terrible at math. At Indiana Corporation,
the financial team uses IRR to analyze potential projects. What is the best way for Monica to think of this
metric?
A. To divide revenue by cost
B. Like NPV, which can be directly compared to IRR
C. To divide profit by cost
D. Like the interest that’s earned on a savings account (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is that IRR (Internal Rate of Revenue) is most like the concept of interest
earned on a savings account. The other choices are incorrect because IRR is defined as the discount rate
at which project revenue equals project costs; the other choices don’t define IRR. In addition, IRR can’t
be directly compared to NPV because NPV is not a ratio, it’s a total value at a point in time.

Question 30: Randy monitors his agile project at Zarah Clothiers by regularly keeping a chart on the
team’s wall that tracks the project’s costs over time. What type of approach is Randy using?
A. The Earned Value Ratio approach
B. The Agile Project Accounting approach
C. The Earned Value Management approach (Correct)
D. The Internal Rate of Return approach

Explanation: The correct answer is the Earned Value Management (EVM) approach. The definition of
EVM is that it’s a comparison of the project’s cost to another metric, such as time. The other answers are
incorrect because they aren’t accurate names for the approach Randy is using. Agile Project Accounting
is a set of financial principles that are irrelevant; Earned Value Ratio is also irrelevant. The Internal Rate
of Return (IRR) is defined as the discount rate where project revenues equal project costs.

Question 31: Hunter is hesitant to use EVM (Earned Value Management) in his agile projects. Why?
A. EVM can’t tell him if the team is truly providing project value (Correct)
B. Although EVM can calculate the project’s value, it neglects time and budget
C. EVM is not able to track the performance of the project compared to the baseline
D. EVM can’t adequately tell Hunter if the project is on time or on budget
Explanation: The correct answer is that EVM can’t tell Hunter, or the team, that what they are providing
is valuable to the project. The other responses are incorrect because EVM can indeed be used to track the
performance of a project if the baseline hasn’t changed; EVM is able to adequately track if the project is
on time and budget; while EVM can’t calculate the business value of the project, it can show if the project
is on budget or not.

Question 32: Agile project accounting is used at the Purity Water Company. Regarding procurement,
what is the most likely benefit?
A. Regardless of the approach, procurement is consistent
B. Due to smaller work statements and less legal wrangling, the process is often faster (Correct)
C. As part of scrum sessions, contracts must be evaluated daily
D. Legal reviews must be done within the timebox related to each sprint

Explanation: The correct answer is due to smaller work statements and less legal wrangling, the process
is often faster. Because planning is done along the way, it’s likely that SOWs (Statement of Work) are
shorter. SOWs scope information would be less defined, or they’d be issued for smaller amounts of work.
The other responses are incorrect because contracts are not discussed daily; they shouldn’t be evaluated
daily or within a certain timebox; procurement is not always consistent for all projects.

Question 33: To track the progress of her project, Florence uses the remaining work key performance
indicator. What can she expect the remaining work metrics (that she provides) to do?
A. Hold steady over time
B. Decrease steadily over time
C. For the most part, they’ll decrease, but at times may increase if unanticipated work is found (Correct)
D. Drop sharply after the initial MVP is released

Explanation: The correct answer is that for the most part, they’ll decrease, but may increase at times if
unanticipated work is found. In general, remaining work should decrease each time an item is completed,
but if there are defects or unanticipated work, expect increases. The other responses are incorrect because
remaining work will not decrease if unanticipated work is added to the scope; unless no one is working,
remaining work won’t hold steady over time; after an MVP, remaining work should not drop sharply
because the time up to a release should show a steady decrease in work remaining unless scope is added.

Question 34: When an agile vendor contract is effective, the customer chooses to use the same vendor
throughout the project, and then opts to reprioritize the backlog, what is the vendor then expected to do?
A. To include new changes, renegotiate the contract
B. If the amount of work doesn’t increase, there’s no need to charge extra for changes (Correct)
C. Officially break the contract
D. Complete a formal change control process; the full team must approve the change

Explanation: The correct answer is to charge nothing extra for changes if the work doesn’t increase.
Typically, agile contracts can accommodate change as long as the overall volume of work doesn’t increase.
The other responses are incorrect because if the total amount of work doesn’t change, the contract doesn’t
need to be renegotiated or broken; agile projects don’t need a formal change control process with the
entire team’s approval.

Question 35: Kabir has made arrangements for a fixed-price work package at Island Distillery. For three
separate work packages, his vendor has estimated the work at $35,000, $35,000, and $30,000. After the
initial SOW, the vendor discovers that the second and third work packages are more complicated, and will
likely cost an additional $10,000 each. What is Kabir’s vendor expected to do?
A. The vendor will estimate the second package at $45,000 and tentatively estimate the third at $40,000
(Correct)
B. All remaining SOWs should be fully renegotiated from scratch
C. Keep the price exactly the same
D. Change the cost of all three work packages to $33,333

Explanation: The correct answer is that the vendor will estimate the second package at $45,000 and
tentatively estimate the third at $40,000. When a fixed-price work package is arranged, it’s expected that
the vendor will change the price of future work packages if additional information is found to better help
them estimate. The other responses are incorrect because vendors are not required to keep estimates the
same if new information or risks are discovered; nor are they expected or required to renegotiate. The
vendor can re-estimate the work packages, and the company can always choose to decline to work with
them again. For work packages with varying prices, the vendor should never charge an average amount.

Question 36: In her new agile project, Donnita’s agile coach at Nixon Jewelry discussed an issue
concerning the gulf of evaluation. With this project, the first release of software was likely:
A. Not what the ScrumMaster fully understood
B. Not the customer’s real intention (Correct)
C. Not what the developers truly wanted to build
D. Not what the developers truly delivered

Explanation: The correct answer is not what the customer really intended. The gulf of evaluation is
defined as the difference between what the customer intended and what was actually built. The other
answers are incorrect because they don’t accurately portray the gulf of evaluation. The gulf of evaluation
has nothing to do with what the developers or ScrumMaster want; internal processes need to make sure
that the first release is what the developers delivered so that choice is not a reasonable option; the gulf of
evaluation is a misunderstanding between the customer and the delivery team.

Question 37: In their agile project, Quinn’s team has decided to use pair programming. What is their
primary reason for doing so?
A. To make sure that someone else is supervising all of Quinn’s development work
B. To ensure that any feature delivered has no defects
C. To ensure Quinn is coding properly based on company standards
D. To allow for the speediest possible feedback cycle for Quinn’s work; issues are resolved almost
 immediately (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer to is to allow for the speediest possible feedback cycle where issues are
resolved almost immediately. The primary reason for using pair programming is to allow for quick
validation and verification. The other responses are incorrect because it’s not expected that pair
programming relates to the supervision of a developer; it does not prevent all defects; its primary focus is
not on company standards.

Question 38: At Remote Radiators, Lorenzo’s team uses agile to complete projects, and they follow
appropriate practices. How do they use exploratory testing?
A. They don’t use it for anything because it’s not appropriate in an agile project
B. To explore functionality within a user story
C. In place of functionally focused testing
D. In addition to functionally focused testing, exploratory testing is used to verify functionality
(Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is that exploratory testing should be used to verify functionality in
addition to functionally focused testing. The other responses are incorrect because exploratory testing is
used for testing functional aspects of the complete story, not for testing within the story; exploratory
testing is not used in the place of functional testing, nor is it focused on the functional details in user
stories.

Question 39: Sharee really likes the continuous integration her team has just started using in their project
at Natalie’s Needlepoint. What can Sharee expect the impact on her project to be?
A. Zero bugs in production
B. As part of their build efforts, additional time spent on the implementation of automatic testing
(Correct)
C. There will be no impact at all for those that write test scripts
D. Each time they do a release, it’ll be a large burden for the testing team

Explanation: The correct answer is additional time spent on the implementation of automated testing as
part of their build efforts. Continuous integration requires that automated tests be written up front. The
other responses are incorrect because continuous integration doesn’t involve the test team to be burdened
for each release, nor can it guarantee zero bugs. Continuous integration can and will impact the writers of
the test scripts, who also write the automated tests.

Question 40: Siya and her agile development team have just been moved to Test-Driven Development.
Their focus is on two new areas in their development field. What are the two most likely areas?
A. Pair programming and writing automated test scripts for code’s future release
B. Unit tests being created before code is written and refactoring the code once it is written (Correct)
C. Smoke tests of development and production
D. Writing automated test scripts and peer testing
Explanation: The correct answer is the creation of unit tests before code being written and refactoring
code once it is written. Test-driven development, for the sake of maintainability, focuses on unit tests
being written before code and refactoring. The other responses are incorrect because they are not
necessarily part of Test-Driven Development. Manual peer testing is not a real term; pair programming
and production smoke tests are irrelevant to Test-Driven Development.

Question 41: Acceptance Test-Driven Development and standard Test-Driven Development are two
different things. As Charlie writes his code, what can he most likely expect not having to do?
A. Focus solely on code testing (Correct)
B. Charlie won’t have to discuss the user story acceptance criteria when it’s taken from the backlog
C. Focus on business requirements testing
D. Upfront implementation of business requirements testing

Explanation: The correct answer is Charlie won’t have to focus solely on code testing. In Acceptance
Test-Driven Development (ATDD), the focus is not exclusively on code testing, but on requirements
instead. The other answers are incorrect: In ATDD, developers write the tests upfront; focus on testing
business requirements; when an item is pulled from the backlog, the acceptance criteria is discussed often.

Question 42: What would be the primary reason you’d have a review meeting with the stakeholders after
each iteration?
A. So they can try using the software demonstrated during the session to see if there are any issues
B. So the software can be displayed and to make sure they don’t need to extend the iteration to deal with
defects
C. To ensure stakeholder engagement and so that any changes are known as soon as possible (Correct)
D. So stakeholders can see what it looks like and submit their changes quickly to the change request
board

Explanation: The correct answer is to ensure stakeholder engagement so that any changes are known as
soon as possible. The primary purpose is to ensure engagement and elicit changes as early as possible.
The other responses are incorrect because regardless of reasons, iterations are not supposed to be given a
time extension; stakeholders have no such requirement to try the software themselves or submit changes
to a board.

Question 43: How can Ellen make sure her project is aligned with the priorities of the stakeholder?
A. Have the product owner and delivery team prioritize the backlog (Correct)
B. Use the Planning Poker method to prioritize the backlog
C. Have the entire stakeholder team agree on the backlog prioritization
D. Compare the listed priorities in the charter to the planned release schedule; prioritize the backlog
accordingly

Explanation: The correct answer is to have the product owner and the delivery team prioritize the backlog.
This is done to ensure the alignment with stakeholder priorities. The product owner should be well-versed
in business priorities and customer needs. The other responses are incorrect because prioritization is done
just in time for each iteration; it’s not charter based; the entire stakeholder team doesn’t prioritize nor does
it use Planning Poker.

Question 44: Wanda wants to place several types of information on her team’s wall. This information
includes which items are in the current sprint, cards showing who is working on what, and a burndown
chart. What are these examples of?
A. Wireframes
B. Agile status reports
C. Risk reduction mechanisms
D. Information radiators (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is information radiators; this is what is described in the scenario. The
other answers are incorrect because they aren’t accurate descriptions of what’s listed in the scenario: cards
won’t reduce risk; they aren’t wireframes, which are a type of diagram; nor are they agile status reports.

Question 45: Of the following, which is the best example of an information radiator?
A. A daily status report
B. A wall chart showing the team’s velocity (Correct)
C. A chat in the breakroom
D. A spreadsheet pie chart that shows the percentage of items planned for each software module

Explanation: A wall chart showing the team’s velocity is the best example of an information radiator and
is the correct answer. A velocity chart on the wall allows everyone to see the information and its relevance
to the project. The other answers are incorrect because they are not examples of information radiators. A
spreadsheet, a daily status report, and chat in the breakroom are not highly visible to the team.

Question 46: To regard new builds in the group chat software, Krish wants to set up an automated feed.
What does his agile coach tell him?
A. This is way too detailed for information that should be provided in an agile project
B. It’s only safe to do this if proper security measures are taken and encrypted
C. This is an extra step in communication that should have no part in an agile project
D. If the team feels comfortable seeing this type of information and the tool is easily accessible, it’s
totally fine (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is that as long as the team is comfortable seeing this type of information,
and the tool is accessed easily, it’s perfectly ok. It’s fine to use a tool such as this if the information is
easily accessed and there is little time required. The other responses are incorrect because there’s no
definitive rule about the type of details that may be helpful in an agile project – the team’s agreement of
the value provided is what is most important; an automated feed doesn’t have to be avoided per se, but it
shouldn’t be difficult to get due to security restrictions that take extra time from everyone.
Question 47: In his job as a developer, Manuel has encountered a problem with this work today. There is
reasoning behind the way he chooses to deal with the problem. Of the following, all include his reasoning
except for what?
A. Generating better decisions
B. Allowing for group ownership of his issue
C. Relationship building
D. Ensuring that one responsible party is accountable (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is the assurance that one responsible party is accountable. More than
one party should be accountable. This is untrue in agile projects; the team is accountable, and Manuel
needs to bring this issue to the team. The other responses are incorrect: They are all accurate descriptions
of options used to handle issues in an agile project; Manuel should take his problem to the team to allow
for better decisions using multi-functional knowledge; to build team relationships; to ensure that the group
takes ownership of the problem, not Manuel personally.

Question 48: When Raquel fell behind on some of her work, her team blamed her. Raquel told her team
that some of the requirements were unclear, and it wasn’t her fault: it was more of the analyst’s fault
because he didn’t give everything to Raquel that she needed when she asked for it. What is this most likely
an example of?
A. Norming
B. Team transparency
C. Working in the Red Zone (Correct)
D. Collaboration through feedback

Explanation: The correct answer is working through the Red Zone. In this scenario, Raquel’s team is
working in the Red Zone, which goes against agile principles. The other responses are incorrect because
they are not good descriptions of the behaviors presented in the scenario: norming, or collaboration, is
when a team starts to work together, i.e. collaborate, is not represented here; Raquel is being transparent,
but the team is not.

Question 49: Carlotta is working in her agile team’s workshop, writing down her ideas for five minutes.
She then will present her ideas to the group, as will everyone on the team. What is Carlotta participating
in?
A. Quiet Writing (Correct)
B. Free Hand
C. Round Robin
D. Fishbone Diagramming

Explanation: Quiet writing is the correct answer. Carlotta’s writing her ideas for five minutes is an
accurate description of quiet writing. The other responses are incorrect because they are inaccurate based
on this scenario. Fishbone diagramming is focused on root cause analysis of an issue; free hand is a
fictional term; Round Robin focuses on everyone speaking in the group.

Question 50: As the project manager for his agile team at Morgan Manufacturing, Alex is coordinating a
workshop. He has asked the team to visualize how their release will go in a couple of months after a little
bit of time has passed after the release. Alex’s team must list everything that was delivered and also
describe how the release went. What is this activity called?
A. Future Visualization
B. Remember the Future (Correct)
C. Post-Release Planning
D. Back to the Future

Explanation: Remember the Future is the proper name for the technique depicted in this question and is
the correct answer. The other terms are incorrect because they are not valid for this description; they are
fictional; they are not agile techniques for risk identification.

Question 51: Mallory has set a goal to be a better listener on her agile team. She is highly attentive to the
words spoken by her team, personalizing them as she hears them. To improve her listening, what is the
best next step for Mallory to take?
A. Mallory doesn’t need to do anything further to improve her listening
B. Mallory should be less self-focused and empathize with the speakers on her team (Correct)
C. To make sure she’s heard everything correctly, Mallory should start repeating back what has been
said
D. Mallory should begin to coach the rest of the team on what she’s hearing

Explanation: The correct answer is Mallory should be less self-focused and empathize with the speakers
on her team. If Mallory’s goal is to improve her active listening, she should stop personalizing the words
as she’s hearing them. Instead, her focus should be on empathizing with the speaker as she’s listening;
putting herself in their place to better understand what they’re saying. The other responses are not the best
choice to improve Mallory’s active listening and are incorrect. Starting to coach the team or halting
progress when she hasn’t mastered active listening herself are not good choices; repeating everything is
not the strongest choice, either.

Question 52: As a successful facilitator in his agile meetings, Kamal sets aside two minutes at the start
of major meetings to cover two things. What are the two things most likely to be?
A. A pep talk on the project’s progress
B. A quick review of each topic and how many minutes are allocated for each
C. The meeting’s objective and a few basic ground rules (Correct)
D. A statement about making sure everyone is on time for meetings and that their pre-work is done

Explanation: The correct answer is the meeting’s objective and a few basic ground rules. Because it’s
critical to communicate the project vision regularly, Kamal must be focused on objective and ground rules
versus the other items. The other responses are incorrect because they are not the best choice in this
scenario. Setting aside special time to go into detail about what the team will discuss goes against the agile
principle of simplicity, as does an on-time and pre-work chat. There’s no need for those things, nor a need
to hold regular team pep talks. Agile methods do specifically require that the team is aligned with the
project vision; the other choices are not required.

Question 53: Louise is a product owner who has asked her team to pursue a new feature. There are several
ways that the team can go about this; they present Louise with options, including each approach’s general
cost and risk. Louise is then expected to do what?
A. Search for additional options after the meeting and then present her findings before stakeholders vote
on a solution
B. Negotiate with the team about the different options; maybe include a variety of elements from
multiple options (Correct)
C. Choose one of the options that the team has presented
D. Choose the lowest-risk option

Explanation: The correct answer is that Louise should negotiate with the team about different options
because there may be a hybrid approach that provides the most value. The other responses are incorrect:
there’s no hard rule about choosing the lowest-risk option; there’s no strict requirement that only one
choice can be used; the product owner is not expected to go back and research how something might be
delivered.

Question 54: To help increase his team’s knowledge, Levi participates in many different activities. For
his agile project, what’s the most common activity he’s likely to perform?
A. Mentoring
B. Training
C. Coaching (Correct)
D. Evaluating

Explanation: The correct answer is coaching because it’s the core role of an agile leader. Although the
other activities might take place, they aren’t as common as coaching; they’re incorrect answers. Training
and evaluating is not necessarily performed by a coach; mentoring is done occasionally, based on need.

Question 55: Ray’s current focus is on coaching individuals on his agile team. What is the primary reason
Ray completes his coaching activities?
A. To create roadblock solutions
B. To ensure sprint timelines are adhered to
C. To increase the team’s understanding of agile
D. To assist team members to stay on track, improve their skills, and move past issues (Correct)

Explanation: The correct response is to assist team members to stay on track, improve skills, and get past
issues. These three characteristics are what the best coaches do. The other responses are not the best for
this particular scenario and are therefore incorrect. Coaches should not focus on agile timelines, because
agile timelines should not change; coaches are not responsible for creating solutions; even though
coaching might involve an increase in the understanding of agile, it’s not as much of a focus as the three
characteristics in the correct response: assisting team members to stay on track, improve their skills, and
move past issues.

Question 56: Although Eldon is a successful agile team leader, none of his team members report directly
to him. Part of his role as the agile team leader is to partner with the managers of his team members. How
does Eldon do this?
A. By teaching the manager of his team about agile
B. By ensuring his team managers are well versed in the agile approach, and that the team can work
together to make sure the goals are aligned with that approach (Correct)
C. By writing up goals for every member of his team and sending them to the managers
D. By filling out his team members’ performance evaluations

Explanation: The correct answer is that Eldon should make sure his team members are well versed in the
agile approach; his focus should be on working with managers to increase their knowledge of agile and
ensuring the goals are focused on the agile approach. The other answers are incorrect because they aren’t
ideal for the scenario. There’s no agile requirement that says team leaders should write up goals for the
manager or fill out performance evaluations. Furthermore, it’s a better idea to keep the manager well
versed and ensure the goals are aligned with agile principles versus just educating the manager alone.

Question 57: What does it mean when Donna says she wants to collocate her team on their agile project?
A. Her team is physically together; walls are between the functional groups
B. Her team is physically together; there are no barriers or walls between them because agile teams can’t
be located remotely
C. Her team is physically together without any barriers or walls; or her team is virtually collocated if
any members are remote (Correct)
D. None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is that the team is physically together without barriers or walls; or her
team is virtually collocated if any members are remote. If possible, it’s best to keep people physically
together but if there are remote team members, virtually collocate them. The other responses are incorrect
because even though agile teams can be remotely located, it’s not ideal; there shouldn’t be walls or barriers
between groups.

Question 58: Zelda needs a quiet environment to work on a tough part of her development work, so she
moves to a small private room near her team for the last half of the day. What does her Scrum Master tell
her?
A. She shouldn’t be isolating herself from her team in this way
B. The Scrum Master says nothing because the team’s cave has been set up for this purpose intentionally
(Correct)
C. The team’s cave is only to be used for private conversations
D. If she’d like, Zelda is welcome to use this as her own space throughout the project

Explanation: The correct answer is that the Scrum Master says nothing. Caves are set up for team
members who need isolation and quiet for a short time; they might work quietly or have a private
conversation or meeting. The other answers are not accurate descriptions of a cave’s purpose. It’s ok to
use a cave for a short period of time to get some quiet; there’s no requirement that caves just be used for
private conversations. That said, the use of caves should not be overused.

Question 59: For quite a while now, Ashley’s team has been located together in a shared space. If they
should run into a facilities maintenance issue in their area, they know just what to do. What is this an
example of?
A. Tacit knowledge (Correct)
B. Transitive knowledge
C. Interactive knowledge
D. Collaborative knowledge

Explanation: The correct answer is tacit knowledge because this scenario is a good example of what tacit
knowledge is. The other responses are incorrect because they aren’t correct terms for this scenario; they
are not specific terms used in an agile setting.

Question 60: Julio is leading a new project with a team from another country. In the culture of this
particular country, he knows that team members are not allowed to bring up issues without their
supervisor’s permission. What should Julio do?
A. In all daily standup meetings, ask each team member specifically if they have any issues
B. Encourage the team to discuss the issues regularly, ensuring that both the supervisor and the resources
know the importance of this information in an agile project (Correct)
C. Give each team member a bonus if, during an iteration, they bring up an issue
D. Discuss this scenario with the rest of the team so a solution can be determined

Explanation: The correct answer is to encourage the team to discuss issues regularly so that the supervisor
and resources know the importance of this information in an agile project. It’s ideal to discuss the scenario
with these team members and encourage them to use the agile approach. The other responses are incorrect
because when it comes to facilitating the team toward an agile approach, Julio doesn’t need to discuss it
with them; there’s no bonus involved at all; there’s no requirement to ask about issues in every standup
meeting.

Question 61: Candy has a team that is disbursed remotely, with a few team members located out of the
country. She is careful to recognize cultural differences, so she focuses on:
A. Cultural differences based on location and the company each team member is working for
B. Cultural differences for those outside the country versus the ones on the standard team
C. Cultural differences for all team members (Correct)
D. A standard approach for all cultures; this is best when there’s a lot of diversity within a project
Explanation: The correct answer is that Candy should recognize and focus on cultural differences for all
team members. The other responses are incorrect: local workers may still be from other places originally
or have diverse backgrounds; good leadership ensures recognition of cultural differences for any reason;
there’s no focus on those in other regions or locations; agile leaders should not ignore cultural differences
by following a cookie cutter approach; agile leadership should be sensitive to every team member’s
cultural needs.

Question 62: Cali, the most experienced developer at Hannah’s Handbags, is also the most vocal. Lexi
wants to make sure that Cali doesn’t spend a lot of time talking in their upcoming workshop, so she does
what?
A. Decides not to invite Cali to the workshop
B. Speaks with Cali before the workshop about not oversharing and respect of the team
C. Plans a round robin technique for facilitation of the meeting (Correct)
D. Limits Cali’s comments to no more than two minutes at a time

Explanation: The best approach for Lexi to take in this situation is to facilitate the meeting with a round
robin technique. The other methods are incorrect because they don’t ensure everyone will have a chance
to speak. Excluding a team member, limiting one’s comments, or cutting them off at a certain time is
disrespectful and could cause resentment.

Question 63: With a highly complex issue on her project, Marilee plans to host a workshop. It’s important
that the team are in agreement with the approach. What is the best thing for Marilee to do?
A. Use a collaboration game (Correct)
B. Do a silent vote on the proposed solutions
C. Ask the higher-level managers to approve the approach that wins the most votes and convey that to
their direct supervisors
D. Choose the two solutions with the most votes and allow 15 minutes for the person who proposed each
solution to give a summary of why theirs is best

Explanation: The correct answer is to use a collaboration game. Using a collaboration game is the best
way to reach consensus because it will most likely bring the group to a consensus. The other responses
are incorrect because none of these solutions necessarily lead to consensus: silent voting just makes each
person’s opinion private; management approval has no effect on the team; allowing two people to speak
doesn’t get the group to agree on one decision.

Question 64: As the facilitator, Jasper wants to make sure his team meetings at Pepper Products go
smoothly and that everyone has an opportunity to add their thoughts and ideas within the time allotted.
Jasper needs to make sure he does what?
A. Discusses the overview at the start of each meeting
B. Limits all discussion from a single person to two minutes or less per topic
C. Has each team member put their thoughts down on paper before they are required to present them
D. Assists the team members that haven’t spoken much by asking their thoughts on a relevant topic
(Correct)

Explanation: The correct and best answer is that Jasper should make sure he assists quieter team members
by giving them the opportunity to speak. The other responses are incorrect because they are not the most
effective for ensuring the full participation of the team. As a rule, the limitation of discussion in a
collaborative environment is not a good idea. Furthermore, discussion of the overview does not relate to
the question; writing down and requiring thoughts to be presented would take too much time; the simplest
way to accomplish what is needed is to assist the quieter team members who thus far have not added their
thoughts and ideas.

Question 65: Of the following, which answer best describes Scrum?

A. Scrum is a framework. (Correct)
B. Scrum is a process.
C. Scrum is a Waterfall method.
D. Scrum is a method of Agile.

Explanation: The correct (and best) answer is Scrum is a framework. It is a loose framework that is easily
learned, but difficult to put into practice.

Question 66: An acceptable time to cancel a sprint in the middle of a project would be when?
A. Never (Correct)
B. When the customer requests the change
C. When the product owner says its ok
D. When the work scope changes

Explanation: The correct answer is never: it’s never acceptable to cancel a sprint in the middle of a project.
In the rare event of a sprint cancelation, it’s because the product has become obsolete. A sprint would not
be canceled in the middle of a project when a customer requests a change; when the product owner says
it’s ok; when the work scope changes.

Question 67: Of the following best practices, which one is unique to eXtreme Programming?
A. Kanban
B. Pair programming (Correct)
C. MoSCoW
D. Scrum of Scrums

Explanation: Pair programming is the correct answer. Tailored to maintain consistency, learning, and
communication during programming, pair programming is a big part of XP. Two programmers switch
between doing the coding and overseeing the coding.

Question 68: Amara is a Scrum Master. During a daily Scrum meeting, she learns that her team is a little
bit behind schedule. The team claims they are behind because of too many stakeholder updates and too
much paperwork. What is the best thing Amara can do in this scenario?
A. Because the team is self-managed, Amara should do nothing.
B. Take on administrative work herself, as needed. (Correct)
C. Ask the stakeholders to please stop bothering her team.
D. To help the team get back on track, Amara should coach the team on Agile principles.

Explanation: The correct answer is for Amara to take on some administrative work herself, as needed.
As a servant leader who wants to keep her team focused on the work in progress, Amara will take on some
administrative work if she needs to. It’s true that Amara could also ask the stakeholders to limit their
requests for project updates, but the best answer here is for Amara to take on administrative work if needed.

Question 69: As an Agile project manager, Lynn wants her team to be which of the following?
A. Have total dependency on the product backlog
B. Self-managed and self-organized (Correct)
C. Servant leaders and self-organized
D. Have total dependency on the project plans

Explanation: The correct answer is self-managed and self-organized. All Agile teams are self-managed
and self-organized, regardless of the specific framework.

Question 70: Sammie is an Agile project manager. She tells her team that she is their coach, and she is
there for them to provide for their needs and to remove any obstacles in their project’s way. Sammie’s
behavior can be described as which of the following?
A. Agile leadership
B. Project management
C. Servant leadership (Correct)
D. Management and leadership

Explanation: The correct answer is servant leadership. Agile PMs practice leadership more than
management does; Agile project managers act as servants first to their team. Coaching and supporting
their team is the primary job of Agile project managers.

Question 71: To produce a working, viable product or service, which of the following items is needed?
A. A wireframe with the needs of the product broken down
B. A definition of what “done” means (Correct)
C. The product owner’s approval to create user stories
D. A detailed plan to accomplish the project’s goals

Explanation: The correct answer is a definition of what “done” means. When a team understands the
definition of “done,” they can plan around the requirements and produce a usable increment at each
iteration or sprint’s end.
Question 72: The primary goal of a stand-up meeting is to do what?
A. Spot any opportunities for improvement.
B. Outline accomplishment for motivation.
C. Discuss problems and work on solutions.
D. Pinpoint any problems and list the accomplishments that have been made since the last meeting.
(Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to pinpoint any problems and list accomplishments made since the
last meeting. In each daily Scrum or stand-up meeting, three questions should be answered: What did we
accomplish yesterday?, What are we going to do today?, What obstacles are in our way?

Question 73: Who is accountable for the product backlog?

A. Everyone involved in the project
B. The project’s sponsor
C. The owner of the product (Correct)
D. The Scrum Master

Explanation: The product owner is responsible for the product backlog. That said, the product backlog
is open for the entire team to see. The backlog’s transparency is vital because the whole team decides
which value items will be delivered in the next iteration or sprint.

Question 74: Lorenzo’s new Scrum team is excited to put the time box methodologies of Agile and Scrum
into place. When a team member asks Lorenzo how long the stand-up meetings will be time-boxed for,
what is Lorenzo’s response?
A. Stand-up meetings are for Waterfall projects, not Scrum or Agile
B. One hour each week
C. Fifteen minutes per day (Correct)
D. Fifteen minutes per week

Explanation: The correct answer is 15 minutes per day. The daily stand-up meeting (Scrum) is time-
boxed for 15 minutes each day. With only 15 minutes scheduled, the meetings must be short and to the
point, while also updating the development team on what’s happening in the iteration or sprint.

Question 75: In DSDM, why is it important to use the MoSCoW Approach?

A. So the approach can be time-boxed
B. So the Pareto principle can be incorporated
C. To ensure the least important features are done last
D. To ensure the most important features are in the eventual solution no matter what (Correct)

Explanation: It’s important to use the MoSCoW Approach in DSDM to ensure the most important
features are in the eventual conclusion no matter what. When determining value, the MoSCoW Approach
uses brainstorming to determine the day’s most important feature. This feature must be included in the
increment, followed by what should be, what could be, and what will not be.

Question 76: Of the following choices, which is a correct statement?

A. Haste makes waste
B. Waste comes in 10 different forms
C. Waste is value’s opposite (Correct)
D. Lean is value’s opposite

Explanation: The correct answer is waste is value’s opposite. The best way to remove waste in a Lean
environment is to first figure out the waste in approach and result. Waste provides no value; it is the
opposite of value. Instead, waste becomes problematic in the increment and the process to create it.

Question 77: Of the following, which Kanban methodology is the best one to depict performance and
WIP to the team and to the customer?
A. Work radiators
B. Scrum boards
C. Status reports
D. Kanban boards (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is a Kanban board. A Kanban board is one of the most popular ways to
get information out to numerous stakeholders simultaneously. It is defined as a visual representation of
work that needs to be done, is currently being done, and work that is done (complete). Considered to be
low-tech but high touch, the Kanban board uses no technology; work is shown being moved through the
process flow in a hands-on way.

Question 78: As the Agile team leader, Ginny explains the importance of a pull system in Kanban
practices. Why is a pull system important?
A. To progressively update
B. To protect quality
C. To limit work in progress (WIP) (Correct)
D. To wisely use the team

Explanation: The correct answer is to limit WIP. To enable the team to focus only on work that needs to
be done, it’s important to limit WIP. Furthermore, limiting the work in progress will ensure that additional
work is not added until the team is ready for it.

Question 79: In Crystal methods, what increases with team size?

A. Framework
B. Output
C. Number of stakeholders
D. Criticality (Correct)
Explanation: The correct answer is criticality. A greater level of criticality occurs when the team, and the
project itself, becomes more substantial. Crystal methods are described as “lightweight “ methodologies,
meaning they adapt heavier weight processes for “weightier” projects, and vice versa. Depending on the
project’s needs, Crystal methods shift in criticality.

Question 80: As an Agile project manager, Rueann spends much time each day communicating. What
percentage of Rueann’s daily time should be spent communicating?
A. 90 percent (Correct)
B. 85 percent
C. 65 percent
D. 75 percent

Explanation: The correct answer is 90 percent. Agile PMs spend most of their time communicating with
their teams, customers, stakeholders, and product owners.

Question 81: What was Lean originally designed for?

A. Waterfall project management
B. Visual project management
C. Manufacturing (Correct)
D. Software development

Explanation: Manufacturing is the correct answer. Lean was created initially for Toyota automobile
manufacturing plants, to help with their supply chain. It was later adapted for Agile frameworks not as a
methodology, but as a complementary process.

Question 82: With a repeating series of speculate, collaborate, and learn cycles, adaptive software
development (ASD) replaces which of the following?
A. Waterfall (Correct)
B. Kanban
C. FDD
D. Lean

Explanation: The correct answer is Waterfall. Waterfall’s traditional cycle of plan-do-check-act was
replaced by the ASD framework, to improve in an adaptive manner continuously.

Question 83: Benjamin is an Agile project manager. After his last meeting, one of the project’s key
stakeholders, Ivy, mentions to Benjamin that she’s noticed that Benjamin talks to his team a lot, as opposed
to doing a lot of the traditional project management paperwork. Ivy expresses to Benjamin that she doesn’t
think he’s performing his management duties. What should Benjamin’s response be?
A. “Servant leadership is practiced in Agile project management. I serve my team as needed, and don’t
do any amount of management tasks.”
B. “My role as an Agile project manager is to be a servant leader. There’s an appropriate amount of
documentation to be done, but my team is self-directed, and I act as a coach and leader.” (Correct)
C. “Paperwork is a waste of time in Agile project management. My team needs me to be close by in case
they have questions.”
D. “As a project manager using Agile, I do paperwork at the last (responsible) moment. Until I must do
paperwork, I spend my time performing management activities, like holding stand-up meetings.”

Explanation: An Agile project manager’s primary role is as a servant leader. While management tasks
are done, they are performed at a lesser degree than what a Waterfall PM would do; it’s more important
for an Agile PM to serve as a leader for their team. Agile PM teams are self-directed and self-managed, a
concept that is difficult to grasp for stakeholders unfamiliar with Agile project management.

Question 84: What is the reason for having an Iteration Zero?

A. To show why the product should be built
B. To show the product will be correctly built
C. To show the process will work
D. To find a process that works (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to find a process that works. Similar to the initiation phase in a
Waterfall project, Iteration Zero gives the team a chance to prepare for future iterations. Iteration Zero
does this by creating a process plan; identifying team roles and responsibilities; making an official
determination of the process that will be used.

Question 85: In the middle of a user story workshop, Serge’s customer, Celeste, says, “As a customer, I’d
like a web page so I can do business.” Is this an example of an effective user story?
A. Yes, because it follows a user story structure.
B. No, because it’s not specific and therefore untestable. (Correct)
C. Yes, because the details can be worked through later.
D. No, because it does not follow a user story structure.

Explanation: The correct answer is no, this is not an example of an effective user story. The reason is that
it’s not specific and not able to be tested. Even if it is written in a user story format, it’s vague; where does
the conversation get directed? This presents difficulty when trying to understand what the customer wants,
and when features are being negotiated.

Question 86: Britta is an Agile project manager. Two of her team members are working together on a
construction spike to figure out what process they’ll use. As their Agile PM, they go to Britta to express
their frustration with the process. Because Britta practices active listening, she is thinking what as the two
team members vent their frustrations?
A. That the team members are upset and need her help. (Correct)
B. That the team members are upset, and she needs to assist them in finding a solution.
C. That she’ll need to jump right in and help the team members fix the problem.
D. Because the team members are upset, she must get other team members involved, to get all of the
information.

Explanation: The correct answer is that the team members are upset and need Britta’s help. A good active
listener is not self-focused. The key to active listening is to focus on the message being received, not
thinking about what you as the PM are going to say or do next.

Question 87: Thomas would like to spend some time every sprint refactoring the code that has been
written previously. His request is:
A. Only appropriate once the project is nearing completion
B. One that should be requested in a totally separate project
C. Appropriate for an agile project, where good design is important to the ability to maintain software
(Correct)
D. Acceptable, but it will delay the team by an entire sprint

Explanation: 3 is correct because refactoring code so that a design is simple and easy to understand is
totally appropriate and expected with an agile mindset. 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.1is incorrect because
refactoring does not need to be delayed in a project, moved to another project, or considered a delay at all.
2 and 4 are incorrect because good design is critical to the maintenance of software and refactoring is
expected.

Question 88: How does Margaret ensure that only a minimum viable product is produced within her
team?
A. Hear team always delays the correction of bugs until the next sprint
B. She has an architect focused exclusively on simplification who approves the design of every item
C. She involves the product owner to regularly narrow focus to the core items only, not the extra 60
percent of features that never get used (Correct)
D. She focuses only on the primary features that are used, which is typically 60% of what is built in
every app

Explanation: 3 is correct because the team must focus on the agile principle of simplicity, maximizing
the amount of work not done. 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect. 1 and 2 are incorrect because there is no correlation
between bug completion and architect review. 4 is incorrect because a typical project includes 60 percent
unused features, not 40.

Question 89: Charles leads a self-organizing team, which primarily consists of:
A. A team that collocates in the same room, each with desks within four feet of other team members
B. A team that makes local decisions, chooses their own software approach and methods, builds their
own relationships, and generally moves work along the appropriate path (Correct)
C. A team that accepts assignments approved for them by their departmental manager and ensures that
they are distributed evenly among team members
D. A team that hires only those who pass a detailed examination related to how they organize their
 incoming work and personal activities

Explanation: 2 is correct because a self-organizing team is relatively autonomous regarding major

decisions related to software development. 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 1 is incorrect because the distance
between team members has no bearing on a team’s choice to be self-organizing. 3 is incorrect because an
agile team would not typically distribute assignments given by a typical manager. 4 is incorrect because
there is no detailed examination typically within an agile project.

Question 90: Sarah uses Sprint Retrospectives to make her team more effective. The way that she is most
likely to do this is:
A. To reflect on increasing customer value and effectiveness, through retrospection and adjustment in
behaviors going forward (Correct)
B. To focus on doing a retrospective only as part of the product planning cycle, not as a specific part of
the sprint cycles
C. At the beginning of each cycle, she shows the development team a demo of what has been built to
date
D. At the end of every major release to production they assess each member of the team

Explanation: 1 is correct because sprint retrospectives are performed to determine areas of improvement
and to allow the team to make those adjustments in the future. 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. 2 is incorrect
because the retrospective could be during an iteration or release. 3 and 4 are incorrect choices because
Sarah does not need to have a demonstration at the beginning of each cycle focused on developers.

Question 91: Christopher’s team has just undergone an assessment from the country’s premiere agile
consulting firm. They were rated exceptionally well. Given this performance, the methodology that the
team used is most likely:
A. The Scrum methodology, including timeboxed sprints, product owners, and all artifacts and events
described by the methodology
B. Any agile methodology that has not been customized in any way. The best use of agile involves strict
implementation without exceptions, especially as teams mature over time
C. A customized hybrid approach that combines the adaptability of Kanban and the standard rules
implemented in Scrum
D. There’s no best method to implement agile, but teams should initially follow a proven approach.
(Correct)

Explanation: 4 is correct because there is no best method of implementing agile. 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.
1 is incorrect because it is recommended that new teams generally want to follow a methodology more
strictly, but we do not know the maturity of Christopher’s team. 2 is incorrect because there is no single
right way to implement agile. 3 is incorrect because most teams end up customizing their approach as they
mature in their understanding and practice of agile. However, that does not make their practice better than
a team that strictly follows the methodology.
Question 92: At Damage Control Comics, Karen regularly demonstrates one of the three pillars of the
Scrum methodology when she ensures that her team decides on the definition of done for each sprint. The
pillar that she most strongly represents is:
A. Visibility
B. Inspection
C. Adaptation
D. Transparency (Correct)

Explanation: 4 is correct because transparency is focused on the full team having visibility and agreement
regarding work within a sprint. 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect. 1 is incorrect because although the description is
correct, visibility is not the appropriate term for the Scrum pillar. 2 and 3 are incorrect because inspection
and adaptation are not the focus of the definition of done, which is more about openly setting expectations.

Question 93: Olivia and her team have a complicated story coming up that unfortunately can’t be broken
down into separate stories. However, the item can’t fit into one iteration – it’s too large. Most likely, Olivia
will make sure her team knows that they can do what?
A. Break the item down into tasks
B. Without breaking it into separate stories, break down a complicated story into segments that can span
releases (Correct)
C. Review their assignment again to make sure it’s not too large
D. Fully rewrite the story to make it simpler

Explanation: The most likely scenario (and correct answer) is that the team breaks down the larger user
story into segments that span releases, which couldn’t be tested until the end. The other responses are
incorrect because it’s not necessary to make a user story simpler or to reassess; there’s nothing wrong with
a complicated user story crossing iterations. However, the functionality won’t be usable until all segments
are complete. Lastly, the break down of a user story has no effect on how it fits into an iteration.

Question 94: In an agile project, what can the cost of change be expected to do?
A. Decrease as the project moves closer to production
B. Increase as the project moves closer to a production release (Correct)
C. Be in direct correlation to the number of scope changes requested by the product owner
D. Depending on the number of items within each release, vary

Explanation: The correct answer is the cost of change can be expected to increase as the project moves
closer to a production release; it does indeed increase as it moves closer to production. The other responses
are incorrect because they are inaccurate statements for this scenario. As stated, the cost of change will
increase as the project moves closer to release; so will the likelihood that a change may affect everything
that was developed prior.

Question 95: Of the following responses, which agile practice has the most significant impact on the cost
of change?
A. Finding defects through pair programming (Correct)
B. Finding defects through stakeholder participation
C. Finding defects through Test-Driven Development
D. Finding defects through continuous integration

Explanation: The correct response is finding defects through pair programming. By dealing with issues
found the earliest, which is through pair programming, great cost can be saved. The other responses are
incorrect because they are representative of cost savings later in the agile process, so their impact is less.

Question 96: As an agile team leader, Byron wants to make sure his team incorporates the agile method
of technical debt handling. Of the team members who are completing technical tasks, Byron expects they
do so primarily by:
A. Identifying refactoring opportunities during pair programming
B. Scheduling a minimum of 5 percent of each sprint assigned to refactoring
C. Incorporating refactoring into every estimate (Correct)
D. None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is incorporating refactoring into every estimate; Agile estimates should
include refactoring as part of every user story. The other responses are incorrect because they are not
appropriate ways for technical debt to be handled. Technical debt should be dealt with as part of each item
delivered, not after the fact or scheduled separately.

Question 97: The best example of an agile project’s incorporation of its own kaizen process is:
A. In sprint planning meetings
B. In daily standup meetings
C. In release planning meetings
D. In the team’s retrospective meetings (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is in the team’s retrospective meetings. The best example of the kaizen
principle’s small incremental improvements method is shown in the team’s retrospective meetings;
retrospective meetings are focused on improvement. The other responses are not the best examples of the
kaizen process and are incorrect. Sprint, daily standup, and release planning meetings are not focused on
improvement.

Question 98: There are numerous ways in which Stella’s agile team focuses on improvement. Of the
following choices, her team exhibits continuous improvements in all but which one?
A. Backlog refinement (Correct)
B. Pair programming
C. Sprint review sessions
D. Daily standup meetings

Explanation: Backlog refinement is the correct answer. Backlog refinement is just a review and
prioritization of what is in the backlog; it doesn’t focus on continuous improvement. The other responses
are incorrect because they demonstrate times in the project when continuous improvement is a primary
focus.

Question 99: For their current project, Roselyn’s team has requested the WIP limit to be increased from
12 to 15. What should Roselyn’s initial response be?
A. Communicate the process change to all stakeholders
B. Before tailoring the process, investigate the cause (Correct)
C. Adhere to whatever the team has decided for themselves
D. Calculate the throughput and determine the cycle time’s impact

Explanation: The correct answer is to investigate the cause before tailoring the process; the primary focus
is to find out why there is a need to increase the WIP limit. (It’s likely due to the number of open items
being worked on simultaneously). The other responses are incorrect. Because too many items in WIP often
lead to a bottleneck, the team should first understand why an increase in WIP limits is being requested. In
addition, there’s no need to require a change in communication, nor to calculate throughput or cycle time.

Question 100: The most successful agile projects in the systems thinking approach can be classified as:
A. Having low technical complexity and low requirement complexity
B. Having highly uncertain technology and highly uncertain requirements
C. Having complex technology and complex requirements (Correct)
D. Having high requirement complexity and high technical complexity

Explanation: The correct answer is having complex technology and complex requirements. Although
Agile projects have complex technology and requirements, they do not have technology or requirements
that are near chaotic. The other answers are incorrect because they are not accurate depictions of highly
successful agile projects. The most successful are neither high nor low, but somewhere in the middle of
the complexity standards.

Question 101: As part of every agile project, Sebastian’s project team is required to produce a thorough
and detailed user story manual. Most likely, this requirement is what?
A. A corporate requirement
B. Based on the agile team’s needs
C. Embellishment (Correct)
D. None of the above

Explanation: The correct answer is an embellishment. The requirement in this scenario is most likely an
example of embellishment; something that teams add-on that produces little value. The other responses
are incorrect because it’s not required for agile teams to have detailed story manuals, nor is there any
indication that this is a corporate requirement.

Question 102: On his agile projects, Jerome is focused on three criteria of success. All of the following
are included except for which one?
A. The surveys given to team resources indicated that they felt Jerome was successful in his role
(Correct)
B. The project was released to customers
C. The team would work the same way on another project
D. The leadership remains at the company

Explanation: The correct answer is the surveys given to team resources indicated that they felt Jerome
was successful in his role. This answer is correct because a project’s success criteria does not include a
survey on the team leader’s role. The other responses are incorrect because they are examples of typical
success criteria.

Question 103: To view the underlying business process that their software will focus on, Diego’s team
has produced a value stream map. Why might a value stream map be useful to Diego’s team?
A. The value stream map can help calculate the throughput time of the business process
B. It can help identify waste and delays in the project (Correct)
C. It is a great visual to calculate the number of processes in progress at any given time
D. None of the above

Explanation: The correct and best answer is that value stream maps help identify waste and delays in the
project’s process. The other responses are incorrect because they are inaccurate: value stream maps are
not able to calculate throughput time or processes in progress.

Question 104: Before his team begins the first iteration, Reyansh is hosting a pre-mortem event with
them. In this meeting, they do all of the following except for what?
A. Imagine future project failure
B. Generate potential reasons for future project failure
C. Revisit their initial plan
D. Assess the financial impact of each of the potential failures (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is to assess the financial impact of each of the potential failures; this is
not part of a pre-mortem meeting. The other responses are incorrect because they are indeed accurate steps
within a project’s pre-mortem event.

Question 105: After demonstrating new software based on the customer’s exact requirements, the
customer tells Louisa and her team that what they (the customer) asked for is not really what they want.
To resolve this issue, what is the best agile approach Louisa and her team can use?
A. To ensure the customer’s change is considered quickly, the project manager should immediately
submit a change control request to the change review board
B. The appropriate change control process should be executed by the team, which will ensure the client
can’t introduce changes not initially in the contract without the proper series of approvals
C. To accommodate a customer’s changing preferences, the team should employ a flexible contract
 model and adjust the shared definition of done with the customer (Correct)
D. The project manager should have a firm discussion with the customer that they can not make changes
once an iteration has begun

Explanation: The correct answer is the team should employ a flexible contract model and adjust the
shared definition of done with the customer, to accommodate their changing preferences. A flexible
contract like this is the most agile approach. The other responses are incorrect because they are not the
best agile approaches. In addition, telling a client they can’t change their mind in the project is not only
not an agile approach, but it is a futile approach.

Question 106: Of the following choices, which situations are agile principles being incorrectly applied?
A. The Comfy Stiletto team performs a demonstration of their latest work in each weekly iteration,
receiving updated priorities regularly during these demonstrations, as well as gathering new
requirements
B. The Comfy Stiletto team tests all items in their iteration thoroughly. Each cycle spans a calendar
quarter in which items are developed, completed, and tested until the feature is fully implemented.
(Correct)
C. The Comfy Stiletto team releases every item within each iteration to their test environment. Then, the
product owner receives a demo each cycle about what has been completed
D. The Comfy Stiletto developers complete their work in a system that integrates continuously their new
work into the existing product

Explanation: The correct answer is: The Comfy Stiletto team thoroughly tests all items in their iterations.
Each cycle spans a calendar quarter in which items are developed, completed, and tested until the feature
is fully implemented. (Remember, the question asks for an agile principle being misapplied). A single
cycle that spans a calendar quarter is beyond the recommendation within agile principles. Also, by
releasing fully featured items, the principle of releasing regular results to a test environment to allow for
feedback opportunities is ignored. The other responses are incorrect because they are all examples of
appropriate ways of implementing the agile principle of frequent delivery of software.

Question 107: With her collaborative development team, Leela, the Wooden Table’s business analyst,
primarily uses the most effective and efficient communication methods. This is represented by which
choice below?
A. Regular face-to-face conversations regarding questions and issues facing developers (Correct)
B. A daily 15-minute standup phone meeting
C. Updating regularly relevant documentation that is as minimal as possible to get the job done, and just
in time for the developers’ needs
D. Using an award-winning team collaboration tool on a regular basis

Explanation: The correct answer is that face-to-face communication is the most efficient and effective
means of communication; although, in practice, it’s not always done. The other responses are incorrect.
Even the best phone meetings, documentation, and collaboration tools can’t take the place of face-to-face
communication.

Question 108: What is one of the most distinguishing features of the FDD approach to software building?
A. Having a single set of peers own each section of code
B. Having a single programmer, business analyst, and development team own each section of code
C. Having a single owner for each section of code (Correct)
D. Having a feature team own each section of code

Explanation: The correct answer is having a single owner for each section of code. The FDD (Feature-
Driven Development) approach is focused on having a single owner for each section of code. None of the
other responses is a feature of FDD.

Question 109: When is transparency through visualization best practiced?

A. When the team’s daily updates are input into a spreadsheet that is saved and emailed to upper
management
B. When the team’s work, progress, and velocity are openly displayed on the walls of the team’s area
(Correct)
C. When the team’s status is displayed on the dashboard of a tool that works with their system of work
tracking software
D. When sticky notes are added to each assignment on the wall

Explanation: The correct answer is that transparency through visualization is best practiced when the
team’s work, progress, and velocity are openly displayed on the team’s wall. Of the choices, this is the
best one because it’s essential to display relevant information on the wall where any stakeholder can see
it. The other information is incorrect because while sticky notes are good, an information radiator is better;
information input into a computer is not visible for everyone to see without taking time to open a special
system.

Question 110: Elon works for a construction company that requires he copy all of his project’s agile tasks
into a Gantt chart, along with relevant dates. Besides being time-consuming to do duplicate work, what is
the biggest issue that Elon has with using a Gantt chart to track progress?
A. The Gantt chart doesn’t show the information on the percentage of the project completed
B. The Gantt chart doesn’t include any project cost information (Correct)
C. The Gantt chart doesn’t include the project’s view over time
D. The Gantt chart doesn’t include any information regarding the project’s completed tasks

Explanation: The correct answer is the Gantt chart doesn’t include any information regarding the
project’s cost; it is just the list of tasks Elon entered. The other responses are incorrect because a Gantt
chart does provide information on the percentage of the project completed, and which tasks have been
completed; a Gantt chart gives a view of the project over time.

Question 111: Through the usage of a double-S curve earned value tool, Raoul is assessing his agile
project at Petoskey Jewelers. The line that represents scope built is much lower than the lines representing
actual spending and projected progress. What does this tell Raoul?
A. Compared to projections, the team is behind in scope (Correct)
B. The team is behind in scope, and the costs are higher than expected
C. The team is fine – projected progress and actual spending are in alignment
D. Actual spending is much higher than projected spending

Explanation: The team is behind in scope compared to projections is the correct response. When a line
shows scope built at a very low level compared to projected progress, the indication is that the story points
completed are not where they were forecasted to be. The other responses are incorrect. We don’t know
what the projected spending is because the chart gives no indication of anything related to spending; it
does show that there’s an issue with scope, so the team is not fine.

Question 112: In agile project management, the triple constraint is different than in traditional project
management. Why?
A. Because agile projects have a fixed cost, but time and scope varies
B. Because agile projects have a fixed scope and time, but the cost varies
C. Because agile projects have fixed time, but the cost and scope varies
D. Because agile projects have a fixed cost and time, but a variable scope (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is that agile projects have a fixed cost and time, but the scope can vary.
The other responses are incorrect because they don’t accurately define the agile triangle of constraints.
Agile projects have a scope that’s flexible, but attempt to have a fixed cost and time. A company knows
the amount of money they plan to spend over a certain timeframe, but the actual work done in that time
will only be determined….over time.

Question 113: For his work with Bay Veterinarians, Bodhi uses a standard graduated fixed-price contract.
If they finish on time, Bay Veterinarians charges $175 per hour. What is the rate likely to be if they finish
late?
A. $175
B. $190
C. $160 (Correct)
D. There is not enough information to calculate a possible rate

Explanation: The correct answer is $160. If late, its expected that Bay Veterinarians will charge less per
hour- this provides an incentive for on-time delivery. In the options shown here, $160 is the most
reasonable choice for a graduated fixed-price contract. The other responses are incorrect because a
standard fixed-price contract includes a lower rate for work that is late; keeping the amount at $175 or
increasing it to $190 is not appropriate.

Question 114: When can the shortest feedback cycle be seen in an agile project?
A. When Beta testing is finished
B. When two developers have completed pair programming (Correct)
C. During their daily standup meeting
D. When the business views a target release

Explanation: When two developers work together in pair programming they’ll be communicating
directly with each other as they work on the project.

Question 115: Without introducing a bunch of new bugs, how is Jalan’s team most likely able to complete
frequent product releases?
A. It’s due to pair programming
B. By using a full regression test done by the delivery team
C. By using a few manual testers who are only focused on core functionalities for each release
D. By using continuous integration, which includes automated testing as part of the software building
process, to ensure basic functionality is working properly (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is: Jalan’s team is able to complete frequent product releases without
the introduction of new bugs by using continuous integration; it is embedded into the release to make sure
no new bugs are being introduced. The other responses are incorrect because manual testers don’t need to
be involved; it would be burdensome on testing resources if releases are frequent, which could be
numerous times a day. In addition, regression testing is time-consuming and not a good choice for frequent
releases; pair programming is focused more on continuous integration than bugs.

Question 116: For Frida, a developer who uses the Test-Driven Development approach, what is the most
significant benefit of using this model?
A. Most defects can be caught early in the software cycle (Correct)
B. It’s much faster than standard development approaches
C. It moves a lot of work to the QA team, rather than the development team
D. It makes sure that all user interfaces are tested completely

Explanation: The correct answer is that most defects can be caught early in the software cycle. Test-
Driven Development’s most significant benefit on this list is that defects are aught early on. The other
answers are incorrect because TDD does not cause extra work for the QA team; it doesn’t ensure full
interface testing; it’s not faster than standard development (as both development and unit tests must be
completed).

Question 117: In an agile project, the most significant way that stakeholder management is different from
that done in a traditional project is:
A. It’s focused on letting the team decide what they want to tell the stakeholders
B. Its focus is on only communicating info through information radiators
C. It’s not focused on telling people what to do and controlling their tasks (Correct)
D. Managing is easier in an agile project because stakeholders are a much smaller group
Explanation: The correct answer is that agile stakeholder management is not focused on controlling and
managing; its focus is more on stewardship. The other responses are incorrect because they aren’t focuses
of agile stakeholder management. There is no implication that a stakeholder group would be smaller in an
agile project, or easier to handle; agile methods don’t require that the team decides what to tell
stakeholders; preferred communication is face-to-face and is never limited to information radiators.

Question 118: Being new to the agile approach at Ted’s Tree Trimming, the best first step for Jeremy and
his team to take with the stakeholder team is:
A. A detailed project charter
B. Explain the basics of agile so they have an understanding of what it’s about and what they should
expect (Correct)
C. Ensure they all create a communications planning document together
D. Discuss their availability for their first cycle to properly calculate capacity

Explanation: The correct and best answer is to explain agile basics to the team, so they understand what
it’s about and know what to expect. The other responses are incorrect because they aren’t items required
for all stakeholders on an agile team. Since agile charters are different from traditional charters, the team
may be confused if this was presented first. Several steps occur before an iteration is planned, so capacity
should not be the first thing discussed either. Additionally, there is no agile requirement for a
communications planning document, nor must one be created together.

Question 119: To determine ideas for improvement in his agile project, Dakota’s team holds regular
retrospectives; they always offer a variety of suggestions. During this time, one of the agile values they
are demonstrating is:
A. Decency
B. Education
C. Respect (Correct)
D. Vocalization

Explanation: The correct answer is respect. In a retrospective, the value the team is focused on is respect
for the opinions of others. The other answers are incorrect. Retrospectives involve both Respect and
Courage, but the only accurate answer on this list is Respect. Decency, Education, and Vocalization are
not the best choices listed; they are not XP core values. The XP core values are Simplicity, Communication,
Feedback, Courage, and Respect.

Question 120: To ensure that her agile team works in a highly collaborative way, Holly and her entire
team discuss any project issues or roadblocks in the next daily stand up meeting. What is the reason for
this?
A. So the team owns the issue collectively together and participates in the solution together (Correct)
B. Because any roadblocks should always be resolved as part of the daily standup meeting
C. So the Scrum Master is made aware of and can solve the issue
D. So the team knows how to resolve the roadblock for future use and can document the steps properly
Explanation: The correct answer is so that the team owns the issue together, and participates in the
solution together. The reason roadblocks are discussed in the daily standup meetings is so the team can
deal with the issue together outside of the meeting. The other responses are incorrect because none of
them are reasons a roadblock would be discussed in standups. Roadblocks are not resolved in standups,
nor is there a document requirement. The team should be solving roadblocks and issues, not the Scrum
Master.