25/05/2022 RM-G1

CODE-A

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3 hrs. 20 min

(for NEET-2023)
Test – 1
Topics covered :
Physics : Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line
Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Botany : Cell : The Unit of Life
Zoology : Structural Organisation in Animals– Animal Tissues

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer : 4. Select the incorrect statement.
SECTION - A (1) Electrostatic force is a conservative force
1. Friction is derived from (2) Weak nuclear force has shortest range
(1) Gravitational force
(3) Strong nuclear force is always attractive
(2) Electromagnetic force
(4) Gravitational force is medium independent
(3) Strong nuclear force
5. Unification of electricity, magnetism and optics
(4) Weak nuclear force into a single subject electromagnetism was by
2. Mediated particle of strong nuclear force is
(1) Oersted (2) Faraday
(1) π-meson (2) Boson
(3) Maxwell (4) Ampere
(3) Quark (4) Photon
6. In new system, force (F), velocity (V) and density
3. Which among the following is not fundamental
(D) are considered as new fundamental
law?
quantities. The dimensional formula of power in
(1) Law of conservation of charge new system will be
(2) Law of conservation of mass
(1) [F1 V 2 D−1] (2) [F V −1 D]
(3) Law of conservation of linear momentum
(4) Law of conservation of angular momentum (3) [F2 V −1 D2 ] (4) [F1 V1 D0 ]

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

A 14. A ball is thrown vertically up from top of a tower

7. Find the dimensional formula of in given of height 35 m with speed of 30 m/s. By what
B
A+ x speed it will hit the ground?
expression W = , where W = work done,
B (1) 30 m/s (2) 25 m/s
x = position.
(3) 40 m/s (4) 50 m/s
(1) [MLT −2 ] (2) [ML2 T −2 ]
15. A ball is dropped from certain height such that
(3) [ML3 T −2 ] (4) [MT −2 ] the distance travelled in last second is equal to
the distance travelled in first three seconds.
8. The dimensions of A in expression Height from which the ball is dropped, is
A (displacement)2 (1) 80 m (2) 180 m
force = is similar to
(work)−1 mass
(3) 145 m (4) 125 m
(1) Velocity (2) Density
16. Two balls are thrown vertically up from same
(3) Power (4) Pressure
point on ground with same speed of 20 m/s at an
9. Select the odd one. interval of 2 s. At what height above ground they
(1) Angular frequency (2) Velocity gradient will hit each other?

(3) Time period (4) Angular speed (1) 20 m (2) 15 m

10. Which among the following pairs have different
dimensions?
(1) Torque and work done
(2) Surface tension and force gradient
(3) Pressure and energy density
(4) Angular momentum and intensity of light
(3) 10 m (4) They will never hit
17. Two cars A and B are approaching each other on
straight road with speeds 72 km/h and 90 km/h
respectively. They spot each other when they are
500 m apart. If their reaction time is 0.5 s. Final
distance between them if they apply breaks
producing same retardation of 5 m/s2 is

11. Select the incorrect statement. (1) 397.5 m (2) 102.5 m

(1) A physically consistent equation must be (3) 375 m (4) 125 m

dimensionally consistent
(2) A physical quantity may have units but no
dimensions
(3) A physical quantity may have dimension but
not units
(4) A dimensionally consistent equation may be
physically inconsistent
12. If percentage error in measurement of side of a
cube is 2% and in its mass is 3%. The maximum
percentage error in calculation of its density is
(1) 5% (2) 7%
18. A boy takes 4 h to cover certain distance along
the flow and takes 6 h to cover the same distance
opposite to flow. In how much time, he will cover
this distance in still water?
(1) 4.5 h (2) 5 h
(3) 2.4 h (4) 4.8 h
19. A police jeep is chasing a thief with speed of
30 m/s while thief is moving away with speed
180 km/h. Police fires a bullet with muzzle speed
of 120 m/s. By what speed bullet strikes the
thief?

(3) 9% (4) 2% (1) 70 m/s (2) 150 m/s

13. The length, breadth and height of cuboid are (3) 120 m/s (4) 100 m/s
l = (100  1) cm, b = (10  0.1) cm and
20. Position of particle A varies as x A = 2t 2 − 4t and
h = (0.1  0.002) cm . Then its volume within
that of B as xB = t 3 − 2t . Find velocity of B with
proper error limits will be
respect to A at t = 4 s.
(1) (10 ± 1) cm3 (2) (100 ± 4) cm3
(1) 36 m/s (2) 34 m/s
(3) (1000 ± 4) cm3 (4) (100 ± 3) cm3
(3) 58 m/s (4) 38 m/s

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

21. A ball is thrown vertically up from a point on 25. Which of the following graph may represent the
ground with speed u. At a same time other ball is uniform acceleration?
dropped from height h. Their relative acceleration
will be
(1) (2)
(1) Zero (2) 10 m/s2
2
u2  u 
(3) (4) 
2h  h 

22. Position time graph of a particle moving in a

straight line is as shown in the figure. Find (3) (4)
average velocity from t = 0 to t = 8 s

26. Slope of x-t graph is ‘A’ and area under a-t graph
is B. The dimensional formula for ratio of A and B
is same as
(1) Displacement
(2) Velocity gradient
(1) Zero (3) Velocity
(2) 1 m/s
(4) Solid angle
(3) 12 m/s
27. For equation x = 3t3 – 6t, acceleration vs time
(4) 2 m/s graph will be
23. In the given graph, find the velocity of particle at
t = 6 s. (Initial velocity = 5 m/s)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 5 m/s (2) 7 m/s

(3) 11 m/s (4) 9 m/s 28. Position time equation for a particle moving along
x-axis is x = 2t3 – 6t2. Speed of the particle when
24. Velocity vs position graph for two particles are
its acceleration is zero, will be
given below
(1) 6 m/s (2) 12 m/s

(3) 18 m/s (4) 3 m/s

29. For equation x = t2 – 4t + 10, where x is in m.

Displacement of particle till it comes to rest from
A B starting will be

Acceleration may be (1) 20 m

(1) Constant for A (2) –10 m
(2) Constant for B
(3) –4 m
(3) Zero for both A and B
(4) Non-zero constant for both A and B (4) 10 m

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

30. For given position time equation t =  + x 2 , 38. The symmetry of the law of nature with respect to
translation in space gives rise to conservation of
acceleration is proportional to
(1) v (2) v2 (1) Energy

(3) v3 (4) v (2) Linear momentum

(3) Charge
31. If percentage error in a, b and c are 2%, 1% and
3% respectively in given expression. Find (4) Angular momentum
maximum percentage error in calculation of x 39. About how much times electromagnetic force is
a ab 2 stronger than weak nuclear force?
x= 3
c (1) 1011 (2) 1037
(1) 4% (2) 7.5% (3) 1026 (4) 100
(3) 6% (4) 8% 40. Who stated ‘The most incomprehensible thing
about the world is that it is comprehensible’?
32. If 19 main scale divisions coincides with
20 vernier scale divisions. The least count will be (1) Newton (2) Maxwell
(1 main scale division = 1 mm) (3) Faraday (4) Einstein
(1) 10 μm (2) 0.1 mm
41. A car (from rest) travels first 10 seconds with
(3) 10 mm (4) 50 μm uniform acceleration of 2 m/s2 from rest on
33. Astronomical unit is a unit of straight road and then travels with zero
acceleration for next 10 seconds. The average
(1) Area (2) Mass speed of entire journey is
(3) Length (4) Time
(1) 20 m/s (2) 15 m/s
 A
34. If y = x 3 sin  2  , where x is the position of (3) 10 m/s (4) 5 m/s
 v
42. The ratio of displacement in n seconds to nth
y second for a particle starting from rest and
particle and v is its velocity, then unit of 2 will
A uniform acceleration is
be
n2 (n − 1)
(1) ms2 (2) m/s2 (1) (2)
(2n − 1) n
(3) m2/s2 (4) m2 s2
(2n + 1) n
35. Significant zeros in 0.0023, 1100100 and 2.003 (3) (4)
(2n − 1) (n − 1)
are respectively
43. A boy is x distance behind the car when the car
(1) 0, 2, 2
starts accelerating from rest with an acceleration
(2) 2, 5, 4 a0. With what minimum constant velocity should
(3) 2, 3, 2 the boy start running to catch the bus?
(4) 3, 4, 2 (1) 2 a0 x (2) 3a0 x
SECTION - B
(3) 2a0 x (4) a0 x
36. A particle starts from origin. If velocity is varying
with time as v = t2 – 6t. Find its position at the 44. A boy travels d distance towards north with
moment when acceleration is zero. speed v 1 then takes a right turn towards east to
(1) 18 m (2) –27 m travel same distance d with speed v 2 . Find
(3) –18 m (4) 27 m average velocity of entire journey.
37. A ball is projected vertically up with speed of 2v1v 2 2 v1v 2
20 m/s. The distance travelled in 4th second is (1) (2)
v1 + v 2 v1 + v 2
(1) 15 m (2) 5 m
v1 + v 2
(3) 20 m (4) 40 m (3) (4) v1v 2
2
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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

45. Position of a particle is given as x = –

2t3 12t2
+ 2, (1) A → R, B → Q, C → P, D → S
find the acceleration when particle is at rest. (2) A → R, B → Q, C → S, D → P
(1) 48 m/s2 (2) 24 m/s2 (3) A → R, B → S, C → Q, D → P
(3) 12 m/s2 (4) 36 m/s2 (4) A → P, B → Q, C → R, D → S
46. The sun’s angular diameter is measured to be 48. The most precise reading of the length of a stick,
1920”. The distance ‘D’ of the sun from the Earth among the following is
is 1.5 × 1011 m. The diameter of the sun is nearly
(1) 20 cm
(1) 1.4 × 109 m (2) 2 × 1010 m
(2) 20.0 cm
(3) 1.4 × 1011 m (4) 1.4 × 1010 m
(3) 20.00 cm
47. Column I contains some fundamental physical
(4) 20.1 cm
quantities and column II contains their units.
Match the column I with column II. 49. The calculated value 2.745 g is reported in three
significant figures as
Column I Column II
(1) 2.70 (2) 2.75
A. Electric current P. kelvin
(3) 2.74 (4) 2.745
B. Amount of Q. mole 50. Which among the following is a supplementary
substance unit?
C. Luminous R. ampere (1) Coulomb
intensity (2) Steradian
D. Thermodynamic S. candela (3) Plane angle
temperature
(4) Both (2) and (3)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 55. Which of the following relation is incorrect?
51. If mass ratio of methane and carbon dioxide is %w w(solute)
2 : 3 then the ratio of their moles will be (1) =  100
w w(solution)
(1) 11 : 6 (2) 2 : 3
%w w(solute)
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 7 : 2 (2) =  100
v v(solution)
52. The number of molecules of gas present in 1 cc
Gram per litre
of gas at STP are (3) Molarity =
Mol. wt.
NA NA
(1) (2) Normality
22.4 22400 (4) Equivalent =
Volume (L )
22400 22.4
(3) (4) 56. Which of the following concentration term is
NA NA
temperature independent?
53. Equivalent weight of phosphoric acid in the given (1) Normality
reaction is
(2) Molarity
H3PO4 + NaOH ⎯⎯→ NaH2PO4 + H2O (3) Molality
(4) Gram per litre
(1) 32.66 (2) 294
57. Maximum number of molecules are present in
(3) 49 (4) 98
(1) 256 g S8
54. SI unit of amount of substance is
(2) 124 g P4
(1) Kilogram (2) Gram
(3) 4 g H2
(3) Mole (4) Milligram
(4) 22.4 L CO2 at STP
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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

58. Statement-1: It two elements can combine to 64. What amount of Na2CO3 is dissolved in 250 ml
form more than one compound, the masses of aqueous solution to prepare semimolar solution?
one element that combine with a fixed mass of (1) 2.65 g (2) 3.71 g
the other element are in ratio of small whole
(3) 13.25 g (4) 0.90 g
numbers. This is called law of multiple
proportions. 65. Actual molecular mass of chlorine gas is
Statement-2: H2O and H2O2 follow law of (1) 58.93 × 10–24 g
multiple proportions. (2) 118.57 × 10–24 kg
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are false (3) 58.93 × 10–24 kg
(2) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false (4) 118.57 × 10–24 g
66. Volume of 32 gm O2 gas at STP is
(3) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
(1) 11.2 L (2) 44.8 L
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(3) 22.4 L (4) 5.6 L
59. The number of neutrons present in 7 mg of C14 is
67. An organic compound containing C = 40%;
(1) 2.4 × 1021 (2) 8.6 × 1022 H = 6.7% and O = 53.3%. If vapour density of
(3) 1.9 × 1018 (4) 9.7 × 1020 compound is 30 then molecular formula and
empirical formula of the compound respectively is
60. The amount of 25% pure CaCO3 required to
(1) C4H4O4 and CH2O (2) C2H2 and CH
obtain 11.2 litre CO2 at STP when reacts with
H2SO4 is (3) C2H2O2 and CHO (4) C2H4O2 and CH2O
(1) 100 g (2) 150 g 68. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(3) 180 g (4) 200 g (1) Mass of one molecule of methane is 12 u
(2) 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g
61. 16 g of SOx occupies 5.6 L at STP. What is the
value of x? (3) Mole = Molarity × Volume of solution in litre
(1) 1 (2) 3 (4) Mole = Molality × Mass of solvent (kg)
(3) 0.5 (4) 2 69. The number of significant figure in 6.02 ×1023 is
(1) 3 (2) 4
62. If M, m, d and M2 represent molarity, molality
density of solution in g/ml and molecular weight (3) 2 (4) 23
of solute respectively then select the correct 70. Which of the following is correct relation?
relation.
(1) 1 pm = 10–12 m
1000 M (2) 1 g = 10–3 mg
(1) m =
1000 d − MM2 (3) 1 nm = 10 cm
1000 m (4) 1 Å = 10–8 m
(2) m =
1000 d − MM2 71. An element, Y has two isotopes Y20 and Y22. The
percentage abundance of Y20 and Y22 are 90%
100 d and 10% respectively. What is the average
(3) M =
MM2 atomic mass of element?
(1) 21.20 (2) 20.70
1000 d − MM2
(4) m = (3) 20.20 (4) 21.00
1000 M
72. 8.7 g MnO2 on reaction with HCl gives 0.224 litre
N N of Cl2 at STP. What is the percentage purity of
63. 100 ml of HCl, 50 ml of H2SO 4 and 200 ml
10 2 MnO2 (At wt. of Mn = 55)?
N (1) 20% (2) 30%
of NaOH solutions are mixed and volume is
10 (3) 40% (4) 10%
made one litre, then normality of resulting 73. If density of 2 M solution of Na2CO3 is 1.2 g/cm3
solution and its nature will be then which of the following statement is correct?
(1) 0.25 N and acidic (1) Molality is more than molarity
(2) 0.015 N and acidic (2) Molarity is more than molality
(3) 0.45 N and basic (3) Molarity and molality are same
(4) 0.10 N and basic (4) Normality is less than molarity

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

74. If mole fraction of NaOH in an aqueous solution 83. An amount of 0.4 mole of MgCl2 is mixed with 0.3
of NaOH is 0.2 then molality of solution is mole of K3PO4. The maximum number of moles
(1) 10.80 (2) 11.40 of KCl form are

(3) 8.65 (4) 13.89 (1) 0.6 (2) 0.5

75. Number of carbon atoms present in 90 g of (3) 0.3 (4) 0.8

glucose (C6H12O6) is 84. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) 5 NA (2) 3 NA (1) A given compound always contains exactly
the same proportion of elements by weight
(3) 8 NA (4) 6 NA
(2) According to Dalton, matter consists of
76. Number of urea molecules present in 10 ml of
indivisible atoms
0.1 M urea solution is
(3) Gases combine in the simple ratio of their
(1) 6.02 × 1020 (2) 6.02 × 1023
volume at same temperature and pressure
(3) 6.02 × 1022 (4) 6.02 × 1024
(4) Nuclear reactions follow the law of
77. 100 ml of 2 M HCl solution is mixed with 200 ml conservation of mass
of 3 M HCl solution and final volume of solution 85. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a
was made upto 1 litre. Calculate the molarity of substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate the mass
final solution. percent of the solute.
(1) 1 M (2) 0.8 M (1) 5% (2) 10%
(3) 2 M (4) 1.5 M (3) 20% (4) 25%
78. 0.5 M H2SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to 10 litre. SECTION - B
Normality of the resulting solution is
86. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) 0.1 N (2) 1 N
(1) Mass of solution = mass of solute + mass of
(3) 0.2 N (4) 2 N solvent
79. 0.84 g of a metal carbonate reacts with 40 ml of (2) Summation of mole fraction of all the
N components in a solution is always one
H2SO 4 . The equivalent weight of metal
2 (3) Limiting reagent decides the amount of
carbonate is product formed during a chemical reaction
(1) 24 (2) 30 (4) Whenever a solution is diluted then the
(3) 42 (4) 56 number of moles of solute change
87. What is the charge on 32 gram of O2–?
80. What weight of 50% H2SO4 solution required to
react completely with 50 g of limestone? (1) 3.84 × 105 C (2) 3.84 × 104 C
(1) 98 g (2) 49 g (3) 3.84 × 10–19 C (4) 3.84 × 10–38 C

(3) 24.5 g (4) 196 g 88. If 6.3 g (COOH)2·2H2O is dissolved in 500 cm3
solution, then its molarity and normality
81. 21.6 gram of a coin containing silver is dissolved respectively are
in HNO3, when NaCl is added to this solution, all
(1) 0.1, 0.2 (2) 0.1, 0.1
silver is precipitated as AgCl. The weight of AgCl
is found to be 14.35 g. Find percentage of silver (3) 0.2, 0.1 (4) 0.3, 0.3
in the coin. (Atomic mass of Ag = 108 and 89. Volume occupied by one mole of water
Cl = 35.5) (density = 1 g cm–3) is
(1) 25% (2) 50% (1) 3 × 10–23 cm3 (2) 18 cm3
(3) 75% (4) 100% (3) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3 (4) 36 cm3
82. The sodium salt of methyl orange has 7% 90. If temperature of water bath is 122 degree
sodium. What is the minimum molecular mass of Fahrenheit then the temperature in degree
the compound? Celsius scale will be
(1) 328.57 g (2) 238.26 g (1) 60°C (2) 65°C

(3) 422.25 g (4) 127.35 g (3) 50°C (4) 45°C

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

91. Suppose the elements A and B combine to form 95. When 500 ml of CO2 gas is passed through red
two compounds AB2 and A3B2. When 0.2 mol of hot charcoal, the volume becomes 700 ml. The
AB2 weighs 10 g and 0.1 mole of A3B2 weighs volume of CO2 converted into CO is
11 g, the atomic weights of A and B are (1) 200 ml (2) 300 ml
(1) 40, 30
(3) 350 ml (4) 500 ml
(2) 30, 40
96 1dm3 is equal to
(3) 30, 10
(1) 1 ml (2) 100 ml
(4) 10, 30
(3) 1 L (4) 1000 L
92. If 56 g N2 and 64 g CH4 are mixed with 80 g SO3
gas, then mole fraction of CH4 is 97. Correct scientific notation of 0.01324 is
(1) 0.52 (2) 0.57 (1) 13.24 × 10–3 (2) 1.324 × 10–3
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.24 (3) 132.4 ×10–4 (4) 1.324 × 10–2
93. If vapour density of certain gas is 22, then 98. Prefix femto is used for
possible gas(es) is/are (1) 10–15 (2) 10–10
(1) N2O
(3) 1024 (4) 106
(2) CO2
99. Molecular mass of SO3 is
(3) CH4
(1) 32 u (2) 80 u
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 64 u (4) 48 u
94. Match the following.
100. Statement-1: During a chemical reaction, the
Column-I Column-II total moles of reactant is always equal to the total
moles of the product.
a. Molality (i) Mol kg–1
Statement-2: During a chemical reaction, the
b. Mole fraction (ii) Mol L–1 total mass of reactant is always equal to the total
c. Molarity (iii) Unitless mass of the product.
Correct option is
d. Density (iv) g/ml
(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) Both statements 1 and 2 are false
(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

BOTANY
SECTION - A 103. Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities
101. Choose odd one out w.r.t. cell theory. in
(1) Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann (a) Prokaryotic cells
(2) All living organisms are composed of cells (b) Plants and animals cells
and their products (c) Eukaryotic cells
(3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells (1) Only (a)
(4) Subcellular entities like viruses also follow the (2) Only (b)
cell theory (3) All (a), (b) and (c)
102. Live cell was first observed and described by (4) Only (c)
(1) Robert Hooke 104. Which one is found universally in all types of
(2) A.V. Leeuwenhoek cells?
(3) Rudolf Virchow (1) Nucleus (2) Ribosomes
(4) Robert Brown (3) Mesosomes (4) Plastids

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

105. Select the incorrect statement. 112. Choose the incorrect w.r.t. plasma membrane.
(1) The shape of the cell may vary with the (1) The membrane associated lipids are mainly
function they perform glycolipids
(2) Human RBC is about 7.0 µm in length (2) The proteins are like icebergs in sea of lipids
(3) Egg of ostrich is largest isolated single cell (3) It has glycolipids and glycoproteins towards
(4) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell of 0.3 µm cytosolic face of the membrane
length (4) It is selectively permeable
106. A prokaryotic cell differs from eukaryotic cell in 113. Algal cell wall is composed of
(1) Possessing compartmentalisation in
(1) Cellulose, chitin, hemicellulose
cytoplasm
(2) NAG, galactans, mannans
(2) Presence of plasmid DNA
(3) Absence of polyribosomes (3) Hemicellulose, pectin and proteins
(4) Possessing single, circular DNA with histones (4) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
107. Mesosomes in a bacterial cell 114. Select the wrong statement.
(1) Is actually infoldings of plasma membrane (1) Parenchymatous cells have primary cell wall
(2) Help in DNA replication only only
(3) Do not contribute in cell wall formation (2) Plasmodesmata is living component of cell
(4) Are involved in cell motility wall
108. Flagella in bacteria (3) Addition of secondary cell wall brings about
thickening of the cell wall
(1) Are composed of tubulins
(4) Adjacent cells in a plant tissue are held
(2) Appear to arise as filamentous extension
together by a thick non-sticky layer of middle
from cell wall
lamella
(3) Help in capturing food
115. Endomembrane system in eukaryotic cells
(4) Consists of rod and rings in filament includes
109. All of the following are not surrounded by any (1) All single and double membranous cell
membrane, except organelles
(1) Gas vacuoles (2) E.R, golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole
(2) Sulphur granules (3) Chloroplast and mitochondria
(3) Phosphate granules (4) Chloroplasts, E.R and vacuole in plant cells
(4) Sap vacuoles 116. Endoplasmic reticulum is involved in all, except
110. Cell wall in a bacterial cell is composed of (1) Muscle contraction
(1) Peptidoglycan (2) Provides precursor of enzymes for the
formation of lysosome
(2) Hemicellulose
(3) Synthesis of steroids
(3) Cellulose
(4) Acrosome formation
(4) Phospholipids and pectin
117. Read the given statements and select the
111. Select the correct statement w.r.t. plasma correct option.
membrane.
A: The cis and the trans face of golgi apparatus
(1) Extrinsic proteins are found on outer side of are entirely different and are not
membrane only. interconnected.
(2) Phospholipid tail is non-polar and composed B: Golgi apparatus remains in close association
of saturated hydrocarbons. with E.R.
(3) Mammal RBC has 52% lipids and 40% (1) Only statement A is incorrect.
proteins. (2) Only statement B is incorrect.
(4) Intrinsic proteins act only as structural (3) Both statements A and B are correct.
components of the membrane.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

118. Cell organelle rich in enzyme hydrolases
(1) Shows polymorphism
(2) Is double membrane bound
(3) Is involved in protein synthesis
(4) Is formed in nucleolus
119. The incorrect statement for vacuoles is
(1) Single membranous organelle.
(2) Contains water, sap and excretory products.
(3) Occupies upto 90% volume of the plant cell.
(4) Transport of ions into the vacuole is always
passive.
120. Which of the following is associated with
lubrication of root tips for penetration in soil?
(1) Sphaerosomes
(2) Dictyosomes
(3) Vacuoles
(4) E.R
121. The inner membrane of mitochondria
(1) Is site of TCA cycle
(2) Made up of proteins only
(3) Forms cristae
(4) Smooth and forms the continuous limiting
boundary
122. Mitochondria and chloroplasts in eukaryotic cells
are not similar in
(1) Being regarded as semiautonomous.
(2) Possessing 70S ribosomes and RNA.
(3) Presence of electron transport systems
(4) Presence of enzymes for synthesis
carbohydrates and proteins.
123. Select the odd one out for mitochondria.
(1) Is semi- autonomous organelle.
(2) Is single membrane bound
(3) Has single circular DNA
126. Select the incorrect statement for chromoplasts.
(1) Formed from leucoplasts or chloroplasts
(2) Contains fat insoluble pigments carotene,
xanthophylls and others.
(3) Imparts orange colour to carrot roots.
(4) Occur in ripened tomato and chilly fruits.
127. 70S ribosomes and 80S ribosomes are dissimilar
in
(1) Ratio of RNA and protein
(2) Their function
(3) Absence or presence of membrane
(4) Being composed of two subunits
128. Ribosomes in an animal cell can be observed
(a) Freely in cytoplasm
(b) In mitochondria and chloroplasts
(c) Attached with RER and nuclear membrane
(1) Only (b)
(2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a) and (c)
(4) All (a), (b) and (c)
129. Microtubules in eukaryotic cells
(1) Form cleavage furrow
(2) Support plasma membrane only
(3) Help in anaphasic movement of
chromosomes
(4) Do not determine position of future cell plate
of
130. Read the following statements and select the
correct option.
(A) Microfilaments help in pseudopodia formation
(B) Microtubules form cilia and flagella
(C) Microfilaments form spindle fibres

(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place (1) All A, B and C are correct
124. Colourless plastids that store proteins are (2) Only C is incorrect
(1) Elaioplasts (2) Aleuroplasts (3) Both B and C are incorrect
(3) Amyloplasts (4) Chromoplasts (4) Only C is correct
125. The space limited by the inner membrane of the 131. 70S ribosomes and circular DNA molecules are
chloroplasts contains all, except found in
(1) Thylakoids (1) Stroma lamella of chloroplast
(2) Stroma lamellae
(2) Thylakoid lumen
(3) RuBisCO
(3) Membranes of grana
(4) 80S ribosomes
(4) Stroma of chloroplast

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

132. Organelle in eukaryotic cell that appears like a 140. Select the incorrect statement about cell wall.
cart wheel (1) Maintains shape of the cell
(1) Is surrounded by membrane (2) Protects the cell from mechanical injury
(2) Has peripheral doublets (3) Helps in cell to cell interaction
(3) Has 9 + 0 arrangement (4) It is living, non cellulosic in plant cells
(4) Has 9 + 2 arrangement 141. Nuclear envelope in a nucleus
133. Peripheral triplets in centriole are connected to (1) Separates nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm.
central proteinaceous hub by (2) Surrounds a perinuclear space of 10 – 100
(1) Inter doublet linkers nm in width.
(2) Radial spokes (3) Is smooth and has ribosomes always.
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Contains nuclear pore complex that control
(4) Central sheath only one-way movement of substances.
134. Which one is not related to centriole? 142. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. nucleolus.

(1) Give rise to spindle apparatus (1) Not a membrane bound structure

(2) Non membrane bound (2) Separated from rest of the nucleoplasm by a
membrane
(3) Formation of basal body of cilia
(3) May be larger and more numerous in cells
(4) Found in higher plant cells actively involved in protein synthesis
135. Eukaryotic flagella differs from cilia in all, except (4) Is site for ribosomal RNA synthesis
(1) Size 143. Chromatin in interphase nucleus
(2) Distribution (1) Is composed of DNA and basic protein
(3) Number histones.
(4) Structure of axoneme (2) Has approximately 2 metre long thread of
DNA and is distributed in 23 chromosomes.
SECTION - B
(3) Refers to RNA and non-histone proteins only.
136. Organelle containing two cylindrical structures
(4) Was first seen by Robert Hooke
arranged perpendicularly to each other is
144. Part of chromosome which prevents loss of
(1) Centromere
chromosomal segments and seals it is
(2) Telomere (1) Centromere
(3) Chromosome (2) Telomere
(4) Centrosome (3) Kinetochores
137. ATP synthesis by oxidative phosphorylation (4) Secondary constriction
occurs in
145. A submetacentric chromosome
(1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
(1) Has equal p and q arms
(3) Nucleus (4) Cytoplasm
(2) Has centromere slightly away from the middle
138. The chromosomes having centromere at terminal of the chromosome
end is called (3) Appears J-shaped in anaphase
(1) Sub-metacentric (4) Consists one extremely short and one very
(2) Metacentric long arm
(3) Telocentric 146. Which of the following is an important site for the
(4) Acrocentric formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids?
139. In a chromosome, the chromatids are held (1) Mitochondria
together at one point called (2) Chloroplast
(1) Telomere (2) Centriole (3) Golgi bodies
(3) Centromere (4) Centrosome (4) Nucleus

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023

147. Agranular ER is involved in all, except 149. Middle lamella is mainly made up of
(1) Lipid synthesis (2) Muscle contraction (1) Peptidoglycan (2) Cellulose
(3) Steroid synthesis (4) ATP synthesis (3) Calcium pectate (4) Calcium carbonate
148. Which of the following type of transport across 150. When many ribosomes are associated to single
cell membrane requires energy? mRNA forming a chain, it is known as
(1) Active transport (2) Facilitated diffusion (1) Nucleoplasm (2) Centrosome
(3) Osmosis (4) Simple diffusion (3) Lysosome (4) Polysome

ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 155. Which of the junctions prevents pulling apart of
151. Type of epithelium lining bronchioles and oviduct is cells during mechanical stresses?
(1) Simple cuboidal (1) Gap junctions (2) Tight junctions
(2) Simple squamous (3) Adhering junctions (4) Interdigitations
(3) Simple ciliated epithelium 156. Observe the given diagram carefully.
(4) Compound epithelium
152. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. epithelial
cells.
(1) Cells in epithelium are held together with little
intercellular material.
(2) Cell junctions are found in the epithelial
tissue.
(3) Epithelium represents only one free surface
facing body fluid or outside environment.
(4) The epithelium covering skin has diffusion,
absorption, excretion and filtration function. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the
153. The mucus secreting goblet cells of the tissue shown.
alimentary canal are represented by (1) It lines the body cavities and possess cilia in
the kidney tubules.
(2) Their nuclei are located at the base.
(3) Their function is to move particles or mucus
in a specific direction.
(4) It consists of a single layer of cells resting on
(A) (B) a non-cellular basement membrane.
(1) A : Multicellular consisting of cluster of cells 157. Among the following how many are exocrine
(2) B : Unicellular consisting of isolated glandular secretions?
cells
Milk, earwax, trypsin, pepsin, tear, insulin, oil,
(3) A : Columnar cells producing exocrine thyroxine, amylase, mucus, saliva
secretions
(1) 5 (2) 6
(4) B : Cuboidal cells also known as glandular
epithelium (3) 9 (4) 8
154. Find the incorrect match. 158. Read the following statements.
A: Cardiac muscle represents branchings.
(1) Tubular parts of Cuboidal
nephrons epithelium B: The red appearance of red muscle fibre is
due to high myoglobin content.
(2) Moist surface of Glandular
buccal cavity epithelium Choose the correct option.
(1) Statement A is incorrect
(3) Blood vessel Squamous epithelium
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Trachea Pseudostratified (3) Statement B is incorrect
epithelium
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

159. The matrix of the connective tissue is secreted by 165. Select the option that does not belong to
(1) Histocyte (2) Mast cells cartilage.
(3) Plasma cells (4) Fibroblasts (1) Protein matrix
160. Type of cartilage present at the tip of the nose is (2) Lacunae
also present in (3) Solid and pliable intercellular material
(1) Ear pinnae (2) Nasal septum (4) Central arrangement of the bone marrow
(3) Tracheal rings (4) Laryngeal cartilage 166. In which of the following connective tissue the
161. The tissue that joins bone to bone belongs to fibres of structural proteins are absent?
which type of connective tissue? (1) Bone
(1) Dense irregular (2) Cartilage
(2) Dense regular (3) Areolar connective tissue
(3) Adipose tissue (4) Blood
(4) Specialized connective tissue 167. The property that is found in muscle fibre and not
found in nerve fibre which enables it to shorten
162. Match column I with column II. and lengthen is
Column I Column II (1) Conductibility (2) Contractibility
a. Macrophage (i) Release of (3) Excitability (4) Insulation
vasodilator 168. Which of the following type of muscles has the
nerve supply from the central nervous system
b. Mast cell (ii) Collagen fibres
and is voluntary?
c. Fibroblast (iii) Phagocytosis (1) Smooth muscle (2) Non-striated muscle
d. Adipocyte (iv) Peripheral nucleus (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Skeletal muscle
169. Select the correct option for smooth muscle
Select the correct option.
fibres.
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(1) Multinucleated (2) Peripheral nucleus
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) Unbranched (4) Cylindrical in shape
163. Which of the following tissues forms covering 170. Anatomical unit of muscle is
over almost all the body organs?
(1) Muscle filament (2) Muscle fibre
(1) Nervous tissue
(3) Sarcomere (4) Myofibril
(2) Epithelial tissue
171. Consider the following statements.
(3) Connective tissue
A. In cardiac muscle, communication junctions
(4) Muscular tissue allow all the cells to contract as a unit.
164. Read the following statements. B. In cardiac muscle when one cell receives a
A. Diverse type of connective tissue binds signal to contract, its neighbours are also
together, support, strengthen and insulate stimulated to contract.
other tissues. Select the correct option.
B. Soft connective tissue includes bone and (1) Both A and B are true
cartilage.
(2) A is true but B is false
C. Blood is a fluid connective tissue which helps
in transport. (3) Both A and B are false
D. Connective tissue has very less intercellular (4) A is false but B is true
material. 172. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. neuroglial
cells of the nervous tissue.
A B C D
(1) These are the cells that provide insulation to
(1) T T F T the nerve cells.
(2) T F T F (2) These are non-excitable cells and provide
protection.
(3) F F F T
(3) They form the majority of the neural tissue.
(4) T T F F (4) They form the unit of neural system.
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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A) Regular Medical-2023
173. Which of the following forms the receptive end of 182. Find the incorrect match.
a neuron?
(1) Areolar tissue Cells and fibres
(1) Cell body (2) Axon loosely arranged in
(3) Axon terminals (4) Dendrites a semi-fluid ground
174. Nissl's granules found in the cyton are masses of substance
(1) SER and lysosomes (2) Adipose tissue Dense connective
tissue
(2) RER and ribosomes
(3) SER and ribosomes (3) Salivary gland Glandular epithelium
which is secretory in
(4) RER and DNA nature
175. Which of the following structure is without smooth
(4) Transitional Provides stretchability
muscle fibres? epithelium and is present in the
(1) Iris of eye (2) Oesophagus ureters and urinary
bladder
(3) Stomach (4) Biceps
176. Which of the following is not absent at the node 183. Which cardiac muscle character is not found in
of Ranvier in a myelinated neuron of CNS? skeletal or smooth muscle?
(1) Myelin sheath (2) Axolemma (1) Cylindrical shape
(3) Nissl bodies (4) Perikaryon (2) Autonomous control
177. Intercalated disc in cardiac muscles are
(3) Position of nucleus
(1) Responsible for light and dark bands of the
muscle (4) Location and inability to get fatigue
(2) These are dark lines seen along the long axis 184. Which of the following tissue provides protection
of the muscle fibre to kidneys?
(3) These are transverse lines that form a (1) Dense connective tissue
connection between two muscle fibre and has
(2) Adipose tissue
communicating junctions
(4) These are found in the structures or organs (3) Areolar tissue
of the body subjected to high stresses (4) Lining of coelom
178. In which of the following parts Nissl granule is 185. Select the incorrect option w.r.t the type of loose
present in a neuron? connective tissue that serves as a support
(1) Axon only framework for epithelium.
(2) Cyton, axon and axon terminals (1) Present beneath the skin
(3) Cyton and dendrites (2) Contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast
(4) Cyton only cells
179. Muscles of the arm are attached to humerus by (3) Specialised to store fats
(1) Ligament (2) Tendon (4) Have a semi-fluid ground substance
(3) Elastic tissue (4) Cartilage
SECTION - B
180. Blood is a connective tissue and is in direct
contact with which type of epithelial tissue during 186. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. compound
circulation? epithelium.
(1) Columnar epithelium (1) Pharynx
(2) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Inner lining of ducts of salivary glands
(3) Simple squamous epithelium (3) Pancreatic ducts
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium (4) Intestine
181. Which of the following is not a function of simple 187. A tissue is able to act as a functional syncytium
epithelium? due to the presence of
(1) Diffusion of gases (1) Tight junctions
(2) Absorption of nutrients (2) Gap junctions
(3) Filtration of nitrogenous wastes (3) Adhering junctions
(4) Bearing chemical stresses (4) Macula adherens

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Regular Medical -2023 Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)

188. Which of the following is responsible for high 194. Cells that are formed inside marrow are
absorptive capacity in intestine? (1) Chondroblasts
(a) Cilia (2) Fibroblasts
(b) Villi (3) White blood cells
(c) Pinocytic vesicle (4) Osteocytes
(d) Brush border 195. Which of the following is not a function of
(1) (a), (c), (d) only connective tissue?
(2) (b) and (d) only (1) Attachment
(3) (d) only (2) Storage
(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) (3) Transport
189. Select the incorrect match. (4) Response
(1) Fluid connective tissue – Lymph 196. Choose the incorrect statement among the
(2) Dense irregular connective tissue – Skin following.
(3) Specialised connective tissue – Tendon (1) Dense irregular connective tissue has
fibroblast and many fibres mainly collagen
(4) RBCs, WBCs, platelets – Blood
that are oriented randomly.
190. All of the following are heterocrine glands, except
(2) Muscle fibres lengthen in response to
(1) Pancreas (2) Testis stimulation and then shorten and return to
(3) Pituitary (4) Ovary their uncontracted state in coordinated
191. Read the following statement. fashion.

A holds the muscle fibres of a smooth muscle (3) Nervous tissue exerts greatest control of the
body’s responsiveness to changing
and the muscle fibres are B in shape. environment.
Fill in the blanks correctly. (4) Connective tissues are most abundant and
widely distributed in the body of complex
A B
animals.
(1) Nerves Cylindrical 197. Which of the following can change the diameter
(2) Connective tissue Cylindrical of blood vessels?
(1) Smooth muscle fibres
(3) Cell junctions Fusiform
(2) Cardiac muscle tissue
(4) Bundle of connective Spindle shape, (3) Skeletal muscle fibres
tissue between Branched
(4) Voluntary Muscle tissue
muscle fibre
198. Which of the following is not a correct difference
192. The type of neuroglial cell that myelinates the between dried and decalcified bone?
axon of a neuron in CNS is
Dried bone Decalcified bone
(1) Oligodendrocytes
(2) Schwann cell (1) It has been It has been treated
subjected to a with dilute HCl
(3) Microglial cell
high temperature.
(4) Astrocytes
(2) It has bone It does not have
193. Select the incorrect one w.r.t. bone.
marrow. bone marrow.
(1) Rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres
(2) Haversian canals are feature of small bones (3) It contains mineral In contains only the
of mammals matter. organic matter.

(3) Support and protect softer tissues and organs (4) Living structures Living structures are
(4) Serve weight-bearing junctions are absent. present.

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Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A)
199. The common feature between neurons found in
early embryo and retina of eye is
(1) No cell body
(2) One axon and one dendron
(3) One dendron only
(4) One oxon
200. Assertion (A): When a neuron is suitably
stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated
which swiftly travels along its plasma membrane.
❑ ❑
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Regular Medical-2023
Reason (R): Arrival of the disturbance at
neuron’s endings triggers events that always
cause stimulation of adjacent neurons.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
❑