PRE- BOARD SPECIALIZATION: SCIENCE

1. In general, scientific investigations have B. Butter

which activities in common?
C. Meat
A. State problem, gather data, make
D. Rice
hypothesis, test, make conclusion.
B. Collect observations, develop
explanations, test explanations. 5. What is the substrate that enters citric
acid cycle?
C. Observe nature, reason an explanation for
what is observed. A. Glucose
D. Observe nature, collect data, modify data B. Lactate
to fit scientific model.
C. Acetyl-CoA
D. Pyruvate
2. Which of the following does NOT
belong to the group?
A. Carbon 6. Which of the following is a substance
used to set or stabilize stains or dyes in
B. Calcium Gram staining procedure?
C. Nitrogen A. cordant
D. Hydrogen B. discordant
C. mordant
3. About which of the following did D. counterstain
Darwin’s observation while with Beagle
lead him to wonder?
A. Why there were so few finches 7. Atherosclerosis, the accumulation of
fatty materials in the walls of the artery of
B. Why organisms looked as they did the brain can result
C. Why God created so many species A. Stroke
D. Why marine tortoises lived so long B. Low blood pressure
C. Anemia
4. All of the following food are rich in D. Gout
carbohydrates that provide energy for man
EXCEPT:
A. Bread 8. __________ are modified for food
storage.
A. bulbs B. Weather will be affected.
B. corms C. Source of food will increase.
C. runners D. Size of populations of living things will
increase or decrease.
D. tubers

13. Cytokinin is a hormone whose

9. All of the following fertilize their eggs
function is to:
internally EXCEPT:
A. delay aging
A. birds
B. induce dormancy
B. elephants
C. perform cell division
C. frogs
D. regulate plant movements
D. humans

14. A human’s arms, a cat’s front leg, a

10. Paramecium is a single-celled
dolphin’s flipper, and a bat’s wing
organism that produces through:
___________
A. binary fission
A. are used in similar ways
B. budding
B. have nothing in common
C. regeneration
C. have similar kinds of bones
D. fertilization
D. share many similarities with insect’s
wings and jellyfish tentacles

11. A caterpillar is an example of a(an)

__________
15. A cladogram helps scientists classify
A. carnivore organisms by:

B. herbivore A. indicating a common ancestor

C. omnivore B. illustrating differences among organisms

D. producer C. showing the complexity in structures

among organisms
D. showing the evolutionary relationships
12. Which of the following will result among the major divisions of organisms.
from a drastic change in the biotic and
abiotic factors of a habitat?
A. New habitats will exist.
16. Which of the following organisms has
a cellular nucleoid?
A. Homo sapiens
B. Streptococcus pneomuniae
C. Oryza sativa
D. Plasmodium vivax
17. The sequence that represents the
hierarchy of biological organization from
the least to the most complex level is:
A. organism, community, biosphere,
molecule, tissue, organ
B. organelle, tissue, biosphere, ecosystem,
population, organism
C. cell, community, population, organ
system, molecule, organelle
D. molecule, cell, organ system, population,
ecosystem, biosphere
18. BONUS
Option 1
19. The evolutionary process of the
Galápagos finches in which a single lineage
gave rise to species occupying diverse
environmental niches is an example of
___________.
A. adaptive radiation
B. allopatric speciation
C. reproductive barriers
D. tempo of speciation
20. A species of sea animals lived and bred
for thousand of years. Suddenly, the sea
level changed and the bodies of the species
developed in order to accommodate the
change in their environment. From then on,
this species is evolutionary different from its
ancestors. This is an example of
__________.
A. gradualism
B. natural selection
C. punctuated equilibrium
D. speciation
21. Night blindness and xeropthalmia are
traced to a deficiency of vitamin:
A. Alpha-tocopherol
B. Cholecalciferol
C. Retinol
D. Thiamine
22. Glucose, fructose and galactose are
monosaccharides with the same molecular
formula of C6H12O6 but different structural
formula. Which of the following statement
is TRUE?
A. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are
isomers.
B. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are
aldohexoses.
C. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are
monomers of starch, glycogen and cellulose.
D. Glucose, fructose, and galactose are
diastereoisomers.
23 Which of the following numerical scale 27. Which of the following cells have
has an absolute zero value? longer cell cycle?
A. Nominal A. cancer
B. Ordinal B. skin
C. Interval C. nail
D. Ratio D. nerve

24. Which of the following is a sex- 28 The ABO blood group is an example
influenced trait? of:
A. baldness for males A. codominance
B. hemophilia for males B. incomplete dominance
C. lactation for females C. multiple allele
D. color-blindness for males D. independent assortment

25 Which of the following is NOT part of
cell theory?
A. The basic unit of life is cell.
B. Cells came from pre-existing cells.
C. All living organisms are composed of
cells.
D. Cells contain membrane-bound
organelles.
26. What was the waste product of
photosynthesis is released to the
environment?
A. carbon dioxide
B. oxygen
29. A horse has 64 chromosomes and a
donkey has 62. A cross between the two
produces a hybrid called mule. Using your
knowledge about meiosis, a mule is sterile
and cannot produce its viable gametes
because:
A. during prophase I, the spindle fibers will
not form.
B. during prophase I, there are 63
chromosomes being duplicated.
C. during metaphase I, the different
chromosomes will not find their
homologous pair.
D. during metaphase I, the different
chromosomes will find their homologous
pair but will not cross-over.

C. water
D. ammonia 30. A man’s lawyer tell him that he cannot
use blood type in a paternity suit against him
because the child could, in fact, be his C. A population of flowering plants always
according to blood type. Which of the has the same group of natural predators.
following is the only possible combination
D. A small population of birds colonizes a
supporting this hypothetical circumstances?
new island.
A. A:B:O
34. How does oxygen primarily cross the
B. A:O:B plasma membrane if the concentration of
oxygen is lower inside the cell than it is
C. AB:A:O
outside the cell?
D. AB:O:AB
A. diffusion
B. active transport
31. Which of the following enzymes
C. uniport
unwinds the double-stranded DNA in the
replication process? D. facilitated diffusion
A. DNA polymerase 35 In a polymerase chain reaction, a
reverse transcriptase will
B. DNA topoisomerase
A. converts viral RNA intro complementary
C. DNA helicase
DNA.
D. DNA ligase
B. converts complementary DNA intro viral
RNA.

32 Which of the following is a mechanism C. synthesizes new strands of DNA.

of gene regulation in prokaryotic organisms?
D. maintains the optimal pH and ionic
A. chromatin remodeling strength of the solution.

B. RNA splicing 36 Which is one method of asexual

reproduction that can occur in fungi?
C. Lac operon
A. conjugation
D. methylation and acetylation of proteins
B. fragmentation
C. segmentation
33. According to Hardy-Weinberg
principle which of the situation would D. transformation
disrupt genetic equilibrium?
37. What is the function of plant’s root cap?
A. A large population of deer inhabits a
A. generate new cells for root growth.
forest region.
B. help the root tissue absorb water
B. A particular population of flies mates
randomly. C. protect the root tissue as the root grows
D. provide support for the root tissues

38. Which is the role of sclerenchyma cells
in plants?
A. gas exchange
B. photosynthesis
C. food storage
D. support
Parenchyma - photosenthesis
39 Which is the primary pollinator for
conifers?
A. birds
B. insects
C. water
D. wind
40. Which is one characteristics of all
cnidarians?
A. Their tentacles contain cnidocytes.
B. Their tentacles contain fibroblast.
C. They live only in freshwater
environments.
D. They spend some time as sessile animals.
41. Sea otters keep the population of sea
urchin under control as sea urchins
overpopulation threatens the kelp forest on
which they feed. Thus, sea otters are
specifically classified as:
A. dynamic species
B. predatory species
C. keystone species - make equilibrium, the
population will effect the population of
others
D. symbiotic species
42 Chordates have which features at some
time in their lives?
A. water-vascular system, notochord,
pharyngeal pouches, post-anal tail
B. tunic, dorsal tubular nerve cord,
pharyngeal pouches, post-anal tail
C. tube feet, notochord, pharyngeal pouches,
post-anal tail
D. dorsal tubular nerve cord, notochord,
pharyngeal pouches, post-anal tail
43. Which mutation is often caused by the
addition or deletion of a single base pair?
A. frame shift
B. missense
C. substitution
D. tandem repeat
44. Which of the following is an example
of imprinting?
A. salmon returning to the water in which
they hatched to spawn . another example in
the BOARD the duckling learns to swim by
watching her mother
B. a rat learning to press a lever to get food -
operant conditioning
C. a baby lion learning how to hunt
D. baby birds getting used to seeing objects
above them
45. Contractions of the uterus during labor D. Evolutionary upheaval
is stimulated by the hormone
A. estrogen
49. Of the 3 types of natural selection,
B. progesterone which happens when the intermediate
phenotype is favored?
C. oxytocin.
A. Artificial selection
D. prolactin
B. Disruptive selection
46. Rafael is a completely healthy man and
would like to donate one of his organs as an C. Stabilizing selection
altruistic act. Which among the following
D. Directional selection
can be donated even when Rafael is still
alive without compromising his overall 50. When bacteria of decay attach proteins,
wellbeing? what is the important product of this
bacterial activity?
A. His heart
A. Vinegar
B. One of his corneas
B. Ammonia
C. One of his lungs
C. Cellulose
D. One of his 2 kidneys
D. Lactic acid
47. What can prevent being infected with
hepatitis B virus (HBV) transmitted by 51. A period of very rapid population
sharing contaminated blood through blood stabilizes. This stabilization is the result of:
transfusion, contaminated needles or by
sexual contact from an infected person? A. either an increased death rate or a
decreased birth rate.
A. Laxatives
B. the appearance of several new species in
B. Vaccination the region.
C. Antibiotics C. a decrease in the number of natural
enemies.
D. Dissolution therapy
D. an increase in the supply of available
HIV-PREP-inhibiting the cell to replicate
food.
48. Which of the following pertains to
52. In a rabbit, the embryo normally
slight quantifiable evolutionary
develops within the:
modifications within the population from
generation to generation? A. yolk sac
A. Microevolution B. umbilical cord
B. Artificial selection C. uterus
C. General selection D. placenta
53 The correct way of eating fruits is A. Poikolothermic
when:
B. Thermophilic
A. during snacks
C. Homoiothermic
B. after meals
D. Crytophilic
C. with an empty stomach
58. What is the process in human sexual
D. before sleeping at night reproduction wherein the zygote undergoes
a series of cell division needed for the
54. Which are small, irregularly shaped
growth and maturation of the fetus?
cells without nuclei but rich in ATP?
A. Mitosis
A. thrombocytes
B. Spermatogenesis
B. Lymphocytes - A type of immune cell that is
made in the bone marrow and is found in the blood C. Oogenesis
and in lymph tissue.
D. Meiosis
C. Leukocytes - has a nucleus and is capable of
motility 59. The following is true of the
circulatory system:
D. Erythrocytes - red blood cell
A. It is an open system.
55. According to the geologic history of
life on Earth, during which era did mammals B. Synovial fluid flows through the
appear? circulatory system.

A. Cenozoic C. It includes the systemic and pulmonary

circulation.
B. Mesozoic
D. The main organ in this system is the
C. Triassic liver.
D. Protozoic 60. When is prenatal screening with the use
56. What strong connective tissue attaches of DNA technology applied in order to
a skeletal muscle to a bone? determine the congenital metabolic disorders
in babies?
A. cartilage
A. 9 months of the fetus in the womb.
B. ligament
B. Within 48 hours after delivery.
C. tendon
C. Within 36 hours after delivery.
D. myofibril
D. 8 months of the fetus in the womb.
57. Mammals experience a very minimal
change in their body temperature as they 61. The meter is slightly longer than the .
move from a warm location to an extremely A. inch
cold place because they are:
B. mile
C. foot
D. yard
62. An object is undergoing simple
harmonic motion with period (π/2) seconds
and amplitude of A=0.20 m. At t=0, the
object is at x=0. How far is the object from
the equilibrium position when t=(π/5)
seconds?
A. 0.300
B. 0.215
C. 0.150
D. 0.118
63. An unfortunate bug splatters against the
windshield of a moving car. Compared to
the acceleration of the car, how will you
describe the deceleration of the bug?
A. similar than the car
B. the same as the car
C. larger than the car
D. Not enough information to say
64. From a candle flame, heat travels in all
directions by:
A. reflection
B. Convection - malapit lang ramdam na ang
heat
C. conduction
D. radiation
65. Which of the following statements is
TRUE about electric field lines:
A. field lines may cross
B. field lines are close together where the
field is large
C. field lines point away from a negatively
charged particle
D. a charged point particle released from
rest moves along a field line
66. An object is placed 45 cm in front of a
converging lens with a focal length of 20
cm. What are the image distance and
characteristics?
A. 36 cm, virtual, erect, reduced
B. 36 cm, real, inverted, reduced
C. 14 cm, real, inverted, reduced
D. 14 cm, virtual, erect, reduced
67. The speed of sound in a solid medium
is 15 times greater than that in air. If the
frequency of a wave in the solid is 20 kHz,
then what is the wavelength?
A. 0.017 m
B. 0.26 m
C. 0.17m
D. 1.15m
68. An object 1.50 cm tall is placed 6.0 cm
to the left of the vertex of a convex spherical
mirror whose radius of curvature has a
magnitude of 20.0 cm. The size of the image
is
A. 0.838 cm
B. 0.938 cm
C. 1.838 cm
D. 1.938 cm
69. What principle explains why airplanes
can fly and curveballs curve?
A. Archimedes
B. Bernoulli C. 968
C. Pascal D. 20,000
D. Torricelli 74. A 10.0 Ω lightbulb is connected to a
12.0 V battery. What current flows through
70. Diffraction occurs best in a wave when
the bulb?
the slit width is less than the .
A. 0.833 A
A. wavelength
B. 1.20 A
B. interference
C. 12.0 A
C. light
D. 120 A
D. refraction
75. The amount of a radioactive isotope
71. Which electromagnetic source is
will have dropped to 12.5% of what it was
LEAST harmful to humans?
originally after ___ half-lives have elapsed.
A. radio transformer
A. 2
B. UV lamp
B. 3
C. microwave oven
C. 4
D. X-ray machine
D. 5
72. A ray of light in air is incident on an air-
76. Which of the following completes the
to-glass boundary at an angle of 30. degrees
reaction: + ?
with the normal. If the index of refraction of
the glass is 1.65, what is the angle of the (_42^97)Mo
refracted ray within the glass with respect to
77. Which unit is most closely associated
the normal?***************
with the biological effects of radiation?
A. 56 degrees
A. the curie
B. 46 degrees
B. the rem
C. 30 degrees
C. the becquerel
D. 18 degrees
D. the cpm
73. A transformer with 1000 turns in its
primary coil has to decrease the voltage
from 4400 V to 220 V for home use. How 78. In which of the following states does a
many turns should there be on the secondary hydrogen electron have the least energy?
coil?
A. n = 1
A. 50
B. n = 3
B. 500
C. n = 5
D. n = 10 C. 52.5 g/mol
D. 163.5 g/mol
79. Which of the following is caused by
imperfect curvature of the cornea and by an
83. Which of the following groups are
irregularly shaped lens?
polysaccharides?
A. astigmatism
A. glucose, fructose, sucrose
B. Hyperopia - far sighted
B. starch, cellulose, glycogen
C. Glaucoma - damage eye in the back of
C. galactose, fructose, starch
the eye
D. cellulose, maltose, sucrose
D. Myopia - near sighted
80. During a thunderstorm, 4.0 s elapses
between observing a lightning flash and 84. Which of these is the technical name
hearing the resulting thunder. for Ag3PO4?
Approximately how far away in km and mi
was the lightning flash? A. silver phosphide

A. 1.3 km or 0.80 mi B. trisilver phosphide

B. 1.4 km or 0.9 mi C. trisilver phosphate

C. 2.6 km or 1.6 mi D. silver phosphate

D. 2.8 km or 1.8 mi
81. Which one of these elements normally
exists as a gas of diatomic molecules?
85. Which is the correct order of elements
in increasing atomic size?
A. Al, Mg, S, Ar

A. helium B. Ar, S, Al, Mg

B. argon C. Mg, Al, S, Ar

C. ammonia D. S, Al, Mg, Ar

D. Bromine, and N2, Cl2,F2,I2

86.. Which one of these elements has the
greatest metallic character?
82. A gas has a density of 1.50 g/L and
exerts a pressure of 720 mm Hg at 30.0 . A. nickel
What is the molar mass of the gas? B. barium
A. 15.7 g/mol C. fluorine
B. 39.4 g/mol D. bromine
87 Under which of the ff conditions will 91. When 4.37 g of aluminum are heated
iron rust? in air, 9.59 g of aluminum oxide are formed.
What is the percentage of oxygen in the
A. in oil
compound?
B. in oil and water
A. 28.6%
C. in water
B. 47.1%
D. in water and oxygen
C. 71.4%
D. 54.4%
88.. Sodium reacts with a certain element
to form a compound with the general
formula Na2X. What would the most likely 92. The highly electronegative atoms that
formula be for the compound formed are involved in hydrogen bonding are
between aluminum and element X? oxygen, fluorine, and ___.
A. Al2X A. nitrogen
B. AlX2 B. phosphorus
C. Al2X3 C. sulfur
D. Al2X2 D. chlorine
93. When iron rusts in the presence of
oxygen and water, which of the following is
89. Which molecular shape is most likely
occurring?
to make a polar molecule?
A. a combination reaction
A. Linear - straight
B. electrolysis of water
B. angular
C. physical change
C. trigonal planar - parang ilisi daw
D. chemical change
D. Tetrahedral- pa crus ang shape
94. What does a catalyst do to the
90. A heat engine operates with 65.0 kcal
activation energy of a chemical reaction?
of heat and exhausts 40.0 kcal of heat. How
much work did the engine do? A. forms a precipitate in the reaction
A. 130 kJ B. lowers the activation energy to start the
reaction
B. 120 kJ
C. alters the chemical activity of one of the
C. 110 kJ
reactants
D. 105 Kj
D. changes the phase of the chemical C. lactic acid.
products
D. citric acid.

95. Consider the complete combustion of

99. A concentration of 500 ppm is
octane, C8H18. What is the coefficient in
reported in a news article. This is the same
front of O2 when the equation is properly
concentration as
balanced?
A. 0.005 percent.
A. 12
B. 0.05 percent.
B. 13
C. 5 percent.
C. 20
D. 50 percent.
D. 25

100. Nitrogen-containing organic

96. Fractional distillation separates
compounds that usually have strong, foul
different fractions by differences in their
odors are called:
A. melting point.
A. amides
B. freezing point.
B. amines
C. boiling point.
C. ammonia
D. origin.
D. amino acids
101. Which of the following is a
97. The reaction of C2H2 + Br2 → condensation polymer?
C2H2Br2 is a (an)
A. Teflon - addition polymer
A. substitution reaction.
B. PVC - addition ppolymer
B. addition reaction.
C. nylon
C. addition polymerization reaction.
D. Polyethylene - addition polymer
D. substitution polymerization reaction.
102. How can a molecule be nonpolar if it
contains polar bonds?
98. The organic acid that is found in sour A. if the atoms are C or H only
milk, pickles, and in your muscles as a
B. if the atoms are from either Group 1 or
product of carbohydrate metabolism is
Group 3
A. acetic acid.
C. if the atoms are linear but have big
B. palmitic acid. electronegativity difference
D. if the molecule has a symmetrical
geometry and all bonds are the same
103. The phases of a substance under
various pressure and temperature
combinations are shown on this phase
diagram.
A. It will transition from a solid state to a
liquid state.
B. It will transition from a liquid state to a
solid state.
C. It will transition from a solid state to a
gaseous state.
D. It will transition from a gaseous state to a
solid state.
104. In a chemical reaction, how does
increasing the temperature of the reactants
affect the reaction process?
A. The reactants absorb more heat, which
turns them into products faster.
B. The activation energy is decreased, which
makes the reaction proceed faster.
C. The kinetic energy of the reactants
increases, causing more effective collisions.
D. The particles break down faster,
increasing the surface area and the reaction
rate
105. The equation represents a chemical
reaction at equilibrium.
HCl (aq) + Mg (s) MgCl2 (aq) + H2 (g) +
heat (exothermic since heat is in the
product)
What happens to the system when the
temperature is decreased?
A. The reaction shifts toward the right, and
the amount of hydrogen gas increases.
B. The reaction shifts toward the right, and
the amount of hydrogen gas decreases.
C. The reaction shifts toward the left, and
the amount of hydrogen gas increases.
D. The reaction shifts toward the left, and
the amount of hydrogen gas decreases.
106. When 92.0 g of ethanol (C2H5OH)
are vaporized at its boiling point of 78.3 , it
requires 78.6 kJ of energy. What is the
approximate molar heat of vaporization of
ethanol in kJ/mol?
A. 0.854
B. 1.17
C. 39.3
D. 78.3
107. Which of these values is most
responsible for changing the boiling and
freezing points of a solvent?
A. molar mass of the solvent
B. electronegativity of the solvent
C. weight of the solute particles
D. number of the solute particles
108. How many mL of pure alcohol are in
a single cocktail made with 50. mL of 80.
proof vodka?
A. 1.6
B. 20.
C. 40. 112. Most common bleaches contain an
active ingredient known as sodium
D. 4000
hypochlorite, the chemical formula of which
is __________.

109. Which of the following colloidal A. NaClO2

dispersion mixtures is an emulsion?
B. NaClO3
A. Blood (solid liquid(gas liquid
C. NaClO
B. Cheese (solid)
D. NaClO4
C. Milk - liquid liquid
D. Whipped cream - (gas liquid
113. Which of the following statements
does NOT correctly describe an acidic
solution?
110. In the reaction:
A. The solution has a pH greater than 7.
4Zn +10HNO3 ---> 4 Zn(NO3)2 +
NH4NO3 + 3H2O B. The solution conducts electricity.

the Zinc is C. The solution changes the color of litmus

A. reduced, and the oxidation number
changes from 0 to +2
B. oxidized, and the oxidation number
changes from 0 to +2
C. reduced, and the oxidation number
changes from +2 to 0
dye from blue to red.
D. The solution contains a higher
concentration of H+ ions than OH- ions.
114. Which scientist is responsible for our
first atomic theory?

D. oxidized, and the oxidation number A. Lavoisier

changes from +2 to 0
B. Proust
C. Dalton
111. If redox reactions are forced to occur
D. Lewis
by use of an externally applied electric
current, the procedure is called:
A. electrolysis 115. The Bohr model of the atom
described the energy state of electrons with
B. autoproteolysis
one quantum number. The quantum
C. neutralization mechanics model uses how many quantum
numbers to describe the energy state of an
D. hydrolysis electron?
A. One
B. Two 120. Chemical weathering can be
determined by analyzing the rock’s .
C. Four
A. composition
D. Ten
B. density
C. mass
116. When rocks and geologic events are put
into chronologic order without regard to the D. temperature
actual dates, what is obtained is
121. In a desert, the prime mover of the
A. Geological formation land material is .
B. Relative geological time A. gravity
C. Absolute numerical geological time B. wind
D. Correlation period C. creep
117. Space explorations started with the D. rain
launch of:
122. A satellite is charting the flow of
A. Luna 1 sediments located under the oceans. What
type of satellites is this?
B. Ranger 7
A. communications satellite
C. Sputnik 1 (Russia) Explorer 1 (US)
B. scientific satellite
D. Venera 1
C. navigation satellite
118. Lunar and solar tides during new
moon and full moon result to: D. weather satellite
A. high tide 123. The agents that cause erosion are .
B. low tide A. waves only
C. spring tide B. glaciers and waves only
D. neap tide C. streams and waves only
119. Who is the ‘father of geothermal D. streams, glaciers and waves
energy’ in the Philippines?
124. An observer is standing on the eastern
A. Arturo Alcaraz side of a cliff where a sailing ship can be
seen. As the ship sails away it seems to sink
B. Howel Williams
slowly from the observer’s point of view.
C. Kelvin Rodolfo This is because

D. Renato Solidum A. surface of the Earth is flat

B. distance between the observer and the A. precession
ship increases
B. titled axis
C. observer is looking towards the eastern
C. recession
shore
D. uneven equinox
D. earth is an oblate spheroid

129. The appearance of high circus clouds,

125. Which of the following is NOT a
followed by thicker and lower stratus
common feature of sedimentary rock?
clouds, then continuous light rain over
A. discordant several days probably means which of the
following air masses has moved to your
B. ripple marks
area?
C. stratification
A. maritime tropical
D. bedding
B. maritime polar
C. continental tropical
126. A major source of air pollution is
D. continental polar
.
A. nuclear electrical generation
130. Large amount of magma that has
B. acid rain crystallized beneath Earth’s surface is a

C. incomplete combustion A. batholith.

D. temperature inversions B. monolith.

C. sill.

127. Most of the molecular oxygen in the D. laccolith. - small

early atmosphere of Earth resulted
from .
131. The number of daylight hours at a
A. decaying primitive plants and animals
specific place on Earth’s surface is
B. lightning striking earth dependent on the

C. photosynthesis in primitive plants A. latitude, date and height of the sea level

D. volcanic eruption B. latitude

C. height of the sea level

128. In about 12, 000 years, the star Vega D. date

will be the North Star, not Polaris, because
of Earth’s .
132. The ability of a mineral to break into D. The learners manipulate objects to arrive
pieces with arc-like, rough, or jagged edges at conceptual understanding.
is _________.
136. Folds that resemble an arch are called
A. Conchoidal
A. inverted basins.
B. Cleavage
B. clines.
C. Rhombohedral
C. anticlines.
D. Fracture
D. synclines.

133. How many days does the Moon take

to complete its cycle of phases?
A. 27 1/3 days - revolution
B. 29 ½ days
C. 27 ½ days
D. 29 1/3 days
134. The greater the distance to a galaxy,
the greater a redshift in its spectral lines.
This is known as
A. Doppler’s law.
B. Cepheid’s law.
C. Hubble’s law.
D. Kepler’s law.
135. Which of the following statements
characterizes discovery method?
A. The learners define what is to be solved.
B. The learners distinguish the examples
from non-examples.
C. The learners learn how to learn rather
than know what to learn.
137.. The basic property of a main
sequence star that determines most of its
other properties, including its location on the
H-R diagram, is
A. brightness.
B. color.
C. temperature.
D. mass.
138. The most widely accepted theory on
the origin of the solar system is
A. Big Bang.
B. conservation of matter.
C. protoplanet nebular.
D. collision of planets.
139. What is the period of revolution of
the Earth would be if its distance from the
Sun were 2 AU rather than 1 AU assuming
that the mass of the Sun remains the same?
A. 1.3 y
B. 2.0 y
C. 2.8 y
D. 8.0 y 143. Supposed to be an experiment of
acidic and basic solution is to be conducted
by the class of Sir Mac, which of the
140. The outer boundary of the solar following can be used as an alternative to
system is thought to be as much as pH paper?
astronomical units from the sun.
A. Egg plant
A. 100,000
B. Red cabbage
B. 75,000
C. Pineapple juice
C. 40,000
D. Purple grape juice
D. 10,000

144. Regarding integrative approach,

141. Which statement is TRUE about which of the following is TRUE?
teaching Science in the elementary grade
A. It encourages learners to work together
level for K to 12?
towards common goals.
A. All elementary grades teachers should be
B. It helps learners acquire knowledge and
equipped with contents and process of
skills through thematic teaching.
Science.
C. It helps learners organize information to
B. Only those who will teach Science should
develop a solution to a problem.
learn the different branches of Science in
college. D. It helps learners discover new ideas by
actively participating in a challenging task.
C. Learning what to teach and not how to
teach is a universal principle.
D. None of the above. 145. In the K to 12 curriculum, Science is
taught formally from Grade 3 onwards. How
do Science contents and process skills
142 Creative, critical thinker, innovative, introduced to Grades 1 and 2?
informed decision maker. These are the
A. They are taught along with Health
characteristics of:
subject.
A. Pure and applied scientists
B. They are used as content in English.
B. Science and Technology Literates
C. They are used to solve practical
C. Digital natives problems.

D. All of the above D. They are integrated across different

learning areas.
146. Which of the following Science B. precipitation of DNA
teaching approaches uses carefully planned
C. removal of histone proteins in the nuclear
operations?
DNA
A. Inquiry approach
D. separation of protein and lipid
B. Experimental approach contaminants from the DNA
C. Discovery approach
D. Process approach 149. In the assessment of Grades 3 to 10
students, which of the following has/have
the greatest weight/s?
147. In Science class, Mrs. Magat divided
A. Written Work
the learners into several groups and gave
each group problems to work on a problem B. Quarterly Assessment
and report the results to the class. What
C. Written Work and Quarterly Assessment
approach did she use?
D. Written Work and Performance Task
A. Inquiry approach
B. Experimental approach
150. Almost half of the weights in the
C. Discovery approach assessment of students in Grades 11 and 12
Science is given to:
D. Process approach
A. Written Work
B. Performance Task
148. In the DNA extraction using banana
fruit, the use of ice-cold ethanol enables the: C. Quarterly Assessment
A. disruption of the cell membrane D. Portfolio Assessment