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A. Mid Point of The Inguinal Ligament
A. Mid Point of The Inguinal Ligament
1
A 40.9%
A 53 year old man presents with an inguinal hernia. Which of the following surface 2
B 26.7%
landmarks may be used to identify the location of the deep inguinal ring? 3
C 15.1%
D 6.5% 4
A. Mid point of the inguinal ligament E 10.8% 5
B. The mid inguinal point 6
40.9% of users answered this
C. The pubic tubercle question correctly
7
D. The medial edge of external oblique
8
E. 2cm supero medially to the femoral artery
Next question
The surface markings of the deep inguinal ring are a commonly examined topic
and should be memorised. The surface marking is the midpoint of the inguinal
ligament. The mid inguinal point is the surface marking for the femoral artery. The
pubic tubercle marks the site of the superficial inguinal ring.
Inguinal canal
Location
Contents
Males Spermatic cord and ilioinguinal As it passes through the canal the spermatic
nerve cord has 3 coverings:
The image below demonstrates the close relationship of the vessels to the lower
limb with the inguinal canal. A fact to be borne in mind when repairing hernial
defects in this region.
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1
A 19.4%
A 22 year old falls over and lands on a shard of glass. It penetrates the palmar 2
B 10.1%
aspect of his hand, immediately lateral to the pisiform bone. Which of the following 3
C 49.9%
structures is most likely to be injured?
D 10.2% 4
E 10.4% 5
A. Palmar cutaneous branch of the median nerve
49.9% of users answered this 6
B. Lateral tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis question correctly
7
C. Ulnar artery
8
D. Flexor carpi radialis tendons
9
E. Lateral tendons of flexor digitorum profundus
10
Next question 11
12
The ulnar nerve and artery are at most immediate risk in this injury. This is 13
illustrated in the image below:
14
15
16
17
18
Image sourced from Wikipedia
Hand
Intrinsic Lumbricals
muscles
Flex MCPJ and extend the IPJ.
Origin deep flexor tendon and insertion dorsal extensor hood
mechanism.
Innervation: 1st and 2nd- median nerve, 3rd and 4th- deep
branch of the ulnar nerve.
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1
A 17.9%
A 72 year old man is undergoing an open abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. The 2
B 16%
aneurysm is located in a juxtarenal location and surgical access to the neck of
C 45.1%
aneurysm is difficult. Which of the following structures may be divided to improve
D 11.6%
access?
E 9.4%
Next question
The left renal vein will be stretched over the neck of the anuerysm in this location
and is not infrequently divided. This adds to the nephrotoxic insult of juxtarenal
aortic surgery as a supra renal clamp is also often applied. Deliberate division of
the Cisterna Chyli will not improve access and will result in a chyle leak. Division
of the transverse colon will not help at all and would result in a high risk of graft
infection. Division of the SMA is pointless for a juxtarenal procedure.
Abdominal aorta
Termination L4
1
A 19.1%
Which of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in the femoral 2
B 27.7%
triangle? 3
C 20.2%
D 25.5% 4
A. Adductor longus E 7.6% 5
B. Pectineus 6
25.5% of users answered this
C. Psoas major question correctly
7
D. Iliacus
8
E. None of the above
9
10
Next question
11
The iliacus lies posterior to the femoral nerve in the femoral triangle. The femoral 12
sheath lies anterior to the iliacus and pectineus muscles. 13
14
Femoral nerve
15
17
Innervates Pectineus
Sartorius 18
Quadriceps femoris
19
Vastus lateralis/medialis/intermedius
20
Path
Penetrates psoas major and exits the pelvis by passing under the inguinal
ligament to enter the femoral triangle, lateral to the femoral artery and vein.
V astus
Q uadriceps femoris
S artorius
PE ectineus
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1
A 14.1%
Your consultant decides to perform an open inguinal hernia repair under local 2
B 58.1%
anaesthesia. Which of the following dermatomal levels will require blockade? 3
C 11.1%
D 10.8% 4
A. T10 E 6% 5
B. T12 6
58.1% of users answered this
C. T11 question correctly
7
D. S1
E. S2
Next question
Dermatomes
The common dermatomal levels and cutaneous nerves responsible for them is
illustrated below.
Image sourced from Wikipedia
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1
A 8.4%
A 45 year old lady develops severe back pain and on examination is found to 2
B 11.7%
have clinical evidence of an L5/ S1 radiculopathy. Her symptoms deteriorate and 3
C 15.1%
eventually a laminectomy is performed. During the surgical approach the
D 46.3% 4
surgeons encounter a tough ligamentous structure lying anterior to the spinous
E 18.5% 5
processes. This structure is most likely to be the:
B. Supraspinal ligament 8
D. Ligamentum flavum 10
Next question
Vertebral column
Cervical vertebrae
The interface between the first and second vertebra is called the atlanto-axis
junction. The C3 cord contains the phrenic nucleus. The cervical cord innervates
the deltoids (C4), biceps (C4-5), wrist extensors (C6), triceps (C7), wrist extensors
(C8), and hand muscles (C8-T1).
Thoracic vertebrae
The thoracic vertebral segments are defined by those that have a rib. The spinal
roots form the intercostal nerves that run on the bottom side of the ribs and these
nerves control the intercostal muscles and associated dermatomes.
Lumbosacral vertebrae
Form the remainder of the segments below the vertebrae of the thorax. The
lumbosacral spinal cord, however, starts at about T9 and continues only to L2. It
contains most of the segments that innervate the hip and legs, as well as the
buttocks and anal regions.
Cauda Equina
The spinal cord ends at L2 vertebral level. The tip of the spinal cord is called the
conus. Below the conus, there is a spray of spinal roots that is called the cauda
equina. Injuries below L2 represent injuries to spinal roots rather than the spinal
cord proper.
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1
A 14.4%
An occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery may compromise the blood supply to 2
B 18.5%
the following structures except: 3
C 13.4%
D 11.1%
B. Corpus callosum
42.6% of users answered this
C. Medial surface of the frontal lobe question correctly
D. Olfactory bulb
E. Brocas area
Next question
Brocas area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery.
Circle of Willis
Vertebral arteries
Branches:
Basilar artery
Branches:
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1
A 10.6%
Which of the following structures does not pass through the foramen ovale? B 12.1%
C 41.5%
Next question
Mnemonic: OVALE
O tic ganglion
V3 (Mandibular nerve:3rd branch of trigeminal)
A ccessory meningeal artery
L esser petrosal nerve
E missary veins
1
A 9.2%
A 73 year old lady presents with symptoms of faecal incontinence. On 2
B 45.8%
examination she has weak anal sphincter muscles. What are the main nerve root 3
C 15.6%
values of the nerves supplying the external anal sphincter?
D 16.1% 4
E 13.3% 5
A. S5
45.8% of users answered this 6
B. S2,3,4 question correctly
7
C. S2,3
8
D. S4,5
9
E. L5, S1
10
Next question 11
12
Theme from September 2011 Exam 13
14
The external anal sphincter is innervated by the inferior rectal branch of the
pudendal nerve, this has root values of S2, 3 and the perineal branch of S4. 15
16
Anal sphincter
17
1
A 10.8%
A 72 year old man has a fall. He is found to have a fractured neck of femur and 2
B 5.5%
goes on to have a left hip hemiarthroplasty. Two months post operatively he is 3
C 27.8%
found to have an odd gait. When standing on his left leg his pelvis dips on the
D 5.1% 4
right side. There is no foot drop. What is the cause?
E 50.7% 5
11
Next question 12
13
Theme from 2010 Exam
14
This patient has a trendelenburg gait caused by damage to the superior gluteal 15
nerve causing weakness of the abductor muscles. Classically a patient is asked to 16
stand on one leg and the pelvis dips on the opposite side. The absence of a foot
17
drop excludes the possibility of polio or L5 radiculopathy.
18
Gluteal region 19
Gluteal muscles
Gluteus maximus: inserts to gluteal tuberosity of the femur and iliotibial tract
Gluteus medius: attach to lateral greater trochanter
Gluteus minimis: attach to anterior greater trochanter
All extend and abduct the hip
Piriformis
Gemelli
Obturator internus
Quadratus femoris
Nerves
Damage to the superior gluteal nerve will result in the patient developing a
Trendelenberg gait. Affected patients are unable to abduct the thigh at the hip
joint. During the stance phase, the weakened abductor muscles allow the pelvis to
tilt down on the opposite side. To compensate, the trunk lurches to the weakened
side to attempt to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. The pelvis
sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.
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1
A 48.1%
At which level is the hilum of the left kidney located? 2
B 24.9%
C 11.8% 3
A. L1 D 6.2% 4
B. L2 E 8.9% 5
E. L3 8
9
Next question
10
11
Theme from April 2012 exam
12
Remember L1 ('left one') is the level of the hilum of the left kidney. This is 13
commonly tested in the mrcs exam.
14
15
Renal anatomy
Each kidney is about 11cm long, 5cm wide and 3cm thick. They are located in a
deep gutter alongside the projecting verterbral bodies, on the anterior surface of
psoas major. In most cases the left kidney lies approximately 1.5cm higher than
the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib (beware
pneumothorax during nephrectomy). On the left hand side the hilum is located at
the L1 vertebral level and the right kidney at level L1-2. The lower border of the
kidneys is usually alongside L3.
Relations
Relations Right Kidney Left Kidney
Fascial covering
Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common and layer of
investing fascia that is derived from the transversalis fascia into anterior and
posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).
Renal structure
Kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla which usually
contains between 6 and 10 pyramidal structures. The papilla marks the innermost
apex of these. They terminate at the renal pelvis, into the ureter.
Lying in a hollow within the kidney is the renal sinus. This contains:
1. Branches of the renal artery
2. Tributaries of the renal vein
3. Major and minor calyces's
4. Fat
1
A 61%
A 24 year old lady is stabbed in the buttock. Following the injury the wound is 2
B 13%
sutured in the emergency department. Eight weeks later she attends the clinic, as 3
C 4.6%
she walks into the clinic room she has a waddling gait and difficulty with thigh
D 15.2% 4
abduction. On examination she has buttock muscle wasting. Which nerve has
E 6.3% 5
been injured?
B. Obturator 8
C. Femoral 9
D. Sciatic 10
12
Next question
13
14
Theme from April 2012 Exam
Damage to the superior gluteal nerve will result in a Trendelenberg gait.
Trendelenberg test
Injury or division of the superior gluteal nerve results in a motor deficit that
consists of weakened abduction of the thigh by gluteus medius, a disabling
gluteus medius limp and a compensatory list of the body weakened gluteal side.
The compensation results in a gravitational shift so that the body is supported on
the unaffected limb.
When a person is asked to stand on one leg the gluteus medius usually contracts
as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from
dipping towards the unsupported side. When a person with paralysis of the
superior gluteal nerve is asked to stand on one leg, the pelvis on the
unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected
side is weak or non functional ( a positive Trendelenberg test).
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1
A 12.5%
An 18 year old man undergoes a tonsillectomy for attacks of recurrent acute 2
B 55.6%
tonsillitis. Whilst in recovery he develops a post operative haemorrhage. Which of 3
C 13.7%
the following vessels is the most likely culprit?
D 7.3% 4
E 10.9% 5
A. Facial vein
55.6% of users answered this 6
B. External palatine vein question correctly
7
C. External carotid artery
8
D. Internal jugular vein
9
E. None of the above
10
Next question 11
12
The external palatine vein lies immediately lateral to the tonsil and if damaged
may be a cause of reactionary haemorrhage following tonsillectomy.
Tonsil
Anatomy
Each palatine tonsil has two surfaces, a medial surface which projects into
the pharynx and a lateral surface that is embedded in the wall of the
pharynx.
They are usually 25mm tall by 15mm wide, although this varies according to
age and may be almost completely atrophied in the elderly.
Their arterial supply is from the tonsillar artery, a branch of the facial
artery.
Its veins pierce the constrictor muscle to join the external palatine or facial
veins. The external palatine vein is immediately lateral to the tonsil, which
may result in haemorrhage during tonsillectomy.
Lymphatic drainage is the jugulodigastric node and the deep cervical
nodes.
Tonsillitis
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1
A 21%
Where is the 'safe triangle' for chest drain insertion located? 2
B 64%
C 4.4% 3
C. 4th intercostal space, mid scapular line 64% of users answered this 6
question correctly
D. 5th intercostal space, mid scapular line
E. 4th intercostal space, mid clavicular line
Next question
Chest drains
There are a number of different indications for chest drain insertion. In general
terms large bore chest drains are preferred for trauma and haemothorax
drainage. Smaller diameter chest drains can be used for pneumothorax or pleural
effusion drainage.
It is advised that chest drains are placed in the 'safe triangle'. The triangle is
located in the mid axillary line of the 5th intercostal space. It is bordered by:
Anterior edge latissimus dorsi, the lateral border of pectoralis major, a line
superior to the horizontal level of the nipple, and the apex below the axilla.
References
Prof Harold Ellis. The applied anatomy of chest drains insertions. British Journal
of hospital medicine 2007; 68: 44-45
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1
A 22.4%
At which level does the aorta perforate the diaphragm? 2
B 3.3%
C 14.7% 3
A. T10 D 5.6% 4
B. T9 E 54.1% 5
E. T12 8
9
Next question
10
11
Memory aid: 12
T8 (8 letters) = vena cava
13
T10 (10 letters) = oesophagus
T12 (12 letters) = aortic hiatus
Diaphragm apertures
Vena cava T8
Oesophagus T10
Aortic hiatus T12
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1
A 17.5%
Which of the following structures suspends the spinal cord in the dural sheath? 2
B 13.9%
C 23.5% 3
Next question
The spinal cord is approximately 45cm in men and 43cm in women. The
denticulate ligament is a continuation of the pia mater (innermost covering of the
spinal cord) which has intermittent lateral projections attaching the spinal cord to
the dura mater.
Spinal cord
There are some key points to note when considering the surgical anatomy of the
spinal cord:
* During foetal growth the spinal cord becomes shorter than the spinal canal,
hence the adult site of cord termination at the L1-2 level.
* Due to growth of the vertebral column the spine segmental levels may not
always correspond to bony landmarks as they do in the cervical spine.
* The spinal cord is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal
median sulcus and ventral median fissure. Grey matter surrounds a central
canal that is continuous rostrally with the ventricular system of the CNS.
* Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their
point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauers tract. In this way
they may establish synaptic connections over several levels
* At the tip of the dorsal horn are afferents associated with nociceptive stimuli.
The ventral horn contains neurones that innervate skeletal muscle.
The key point to remember when revising CNS anatomy is to keep a clinical
perspective in mind. So it is worth classifying the ways in which the spinal cord
may become injured. These include:
The anatomy of the cord will, to an extent dictate the clinical presentation. Some
points/ conditions to remember:
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1
A 45.4%
Following an oesophagogastrectomy the surgeons will anastomose the 2
B 32.6%
oesophageal remnant to the stomach, which of the following is not part of the 3
C 9.2%
layers that comprise the oesophageal wall?
D 7.4% 4
E 5.4%
A. Serosa
45.4% of users answered this
B. Adventitia question correctly
C. Muscularis propria
D. Submucosa
E. Mucosa
Next question
The wall lacks a serosa which can make the wall hold sutures less securely.
Oesophagus
25cm long
Starts at C6 vertebra, pierces diaphragm at T10 and ends at T11
Squamous epithelium
Relations
Anteriorly Trachea to T4
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Left bronchus, Left atrium
Diaphragm
Nerve supply
Upper half is supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve
Lower half by oesophageal plexus (vagus)
Histology
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