A12SF2/T/01 - Abdominal wall

1. Identify on the cadaver the rectus abdominis muscle. What is the rectus sheath?
(aponeurotic tendinous sheaths formed by the horizontal muscles) Describe the
layers and contents of the rectus sheath (and how and where does it change).
(above the arcuate line – which is midway between the umbilicus and pubic
symphysis, the internal oblique aponeurosis splits into two layers, so the layers from
anterior to posterior would be the external oblique aponeurosis, the anterior layer
of the internal oblique aponeurosis, the rectus abdominis muscle, the posterior layer
of the internal oblique aponeurosis, and the aponeurosis of the transversalis fascia.
Below the arcuate line, the aponeuroses of all three muscles move to anterior to the
rectus abdominis m.)
2. Identify on the cadaver the rectus abdominis muscle. What is its blood supply? (the
upper part of the rectus abdominis is supplied by the superior epigastric artery, and
the lower part is supplied by the inferior epigastric artery – the two anastomose)
3. Identify on the cadaver the external oblique muscle. What is its origin and
insertion? (origin: ribs 5-12, insertion: iliac crest, pubic tubercle, linea alba) What
ligament does it form? (inguinal ligament) What is the muscle’s innervation?
(thoracoabdominal nerves (T7-T11) and subcostal nerve (T12))
4. Identify on the cadaver the deep and superficial inguinal rings. What is the
landmark for the deep inguinal ring? (half an inch superior to midpoint of inguinal
ligament NOT mid-inguinal point)
5. Given surface anatomy image – identify the linea alba and the inguinal groove.
6. Given x-ray – identify the descending and transverse colon. Identify the small
intestines.
7. Given a diagram of the 9 regions of the abdomen – identify the epigastric and left
lumbar region. Name two structures are within the epigastric region. (Liver,
stomach, duodenum, pancreas) What are the planes that divide the abdomen into
quadrants? (median and transumbilical planes)
8. Identify on the cadaver the greater omentum. What is an omentum? (double-
folding peritoneum that surrounds abdominal organs) What is the greater omentum
made of? (gastrophrenic, gastrosplenic, and gastrocolic ligaments)
9. Identify the pubic crest, pubic tubercle, anterior superior iliac spine, and iliac fossa.
If there is a hernia that passes through the superificial inguinal ring, what is its
position compared to the pubic tubercle? (superior-medially)
10. If you stick your finger through the omental/epiploic foramen, what would you go
into? (lesser sac)
11. Identify on the cadaver the transverse mesocolon.
A12ASN/T/01/I - Anatomy & Histology GI tract 1

1. Identify the transpyloric plane. What is its vertebral level? What are 3 organs that
are at this plane? (L1 vertebral level; kidney, pancreas, 1st part of duodenum, spleen,
right and left colic flexure, beginning of superior mesenteric artery)
2. What is mesentery? What parts of the intestine are in mesentery? (1st part of
duodenum, jejunum and ileum, appendix , transverse colon, sigmoid colon)
3. X-ray of colon given. Identify A and C. (Appendix and left colic flexure)
4. X-ray of stomach given. Identify the two structures shown. (Pylorus and lesser
curvature)
5. What is the blood supply of the appendix? (Appendicular artery – a branch of the
ileocolic artery, which is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery)
6. What muscle causes haustra? (taenia coli)
7. The esophagus passes the diaphragm at which vertebral level? What is the nerve
supply of the esophagus? Identify the esophagus on the cadaver. (T10,
parasympathetic nerve supply – vagal trunk, sympathetic nerve supply – greater
splanchnic nerve, T6-T9)
8. Which level can you palpate the esophageal opening? (Lower border of rib 6) What
causes the stomach to change shape? (Ingestion of food, standing up-lying down)
9. On the cadaver, identify the pylorus, fundus, and greater curvature. What
structure attaches to the greater curvature? (Greater omentum)
10. What are the branches of the celiac artery? (Left gastric artery, splenic artery,
common hepatic artery) (splenic artery becomes short gastric artery and left gastro-
omental artery) (common hepatic artery becomes the proper hepatic artery, right
gastric artery, and the gastroduodenal artery, which branches into the superior
pancreaticoduodenal artery and the right gastro-omental artery)
11. What are the branches of the common hepatic artery? (common hepatic artery
becomes the proper hepatic artery, right gastric artery, and the gastroduodenal
artery, which branches into the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery and the right
gastro-omental artery)
12. What are the branches of the superior mesenteric artery? (Inferior
pancreaticoduodenal artery, intestinal arteries, ileocolic artery, right colic artery,
middle colic artery)
13. Identify on the cadaver the omental bursa?
14. Osteology: Given lumbar vertebra – identify the spinous process, transverse
process, and the superior articular facet. What muscles attach to the lumbar
vertebrae? (lumboquadratus m. a.k.a. quadratus lumborum m., psoas muscle)
A12ASN/T/01/I - Anatomy & Histology GI tract 2

1. Given CT scan – identify the pancreas and celiac trunk. What is the blood supply to
the pancreas? (superior pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of the gastroduodenal
artery of the common hepatic artery of the celiac trunk), inferior
pancreaticoduodenal artery (branch of the SMA), splenic artery (branch of the celiac
trunk)) Identify on the cadaver the splenic artery.
2. What are the surface markings for the liver? (expands across the right
hypochondriac region to the epigastric region) Name the surfaces and lobes of the
liver. (diaphragmatic surface, visceral surface) Identify on the cadaver the porta
hepatis.
3. Identify on the cadaver the diaphragmatic openings and the structures that pass
through them. (T8 – IVC and right phrenic nerve; T10 – esophagus and vagus nerve;
T12 – aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct)
4. What are the parts of the pancreas? (head, neck, body, tail, uncinate process) How
does the superior mesenteric artery run in relation to the pancreas? (the SMA runs
behind the neck of the pancreas and in front of the uncinate process)
5. What is the arterial supply and venous drainage of the spleen? (splenic artery;
splenic vein – which drains into the superior mesenteric vein and into the hepatic
portal vein)
6. Identify the superior mesenteric artery. What vessel does it originate from?
(abdominal aorta) Which does the origin of the superior mesenteric artery supply?
(the abdominal aorta supplies all of the abdominal organs, and its terminal branches
go on to supply the pelvis and lower limbs. It also supplies the undersurface of the
diaphragm and parts of the abdominal wall.)
7. Given a radiograph – identify the cystic duct and the common bile duct.
8. Identify on the cadaver the spleen. What is the lymphatic drainage of the spleen?
(pancreaticosplenic lymph nodes)
9. Identify on the cadaver the gallbladder. What is its blood supply? (cystic artery,
which arises from the right hepatic artery in between the cystic duct and common
hepatic artery)
10. Identify on the cadaver the vena cava.
11. Given transverse CT scan – identify the celiac trunk and the tail of the pancreas.
12. What is the blood supply to the liver? (hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein)
13. What are the surface projections of the spleen in the supine position? (ribs 9-11)
Which vertebral location is the spleen located? (T10-L1) Can the spleen be
palpated? (no)
14. Identify the cadaver the ligaments of the liver. (falciform ligaments, left and right
coronary ligaments, left and right triangular ligaments, lesser omentum which
consists of the hepatoduodenal and hepatogastric ligaments)
A12SF2/T/03 - Posterior body wall, kidney and diaphragm

1. Identify on the cadaver the right suprarenal gland and its venous drainage. (right
suprarenal vein drains directly into the IVC. N.B. the left suprarenal vein drains into
the left renal vein first, then into the IVC)
2. Show the path of the ureter on the skeleton. (ureter runs inferomedially, anterior to
the tip of the transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae (and anterior to psoas
major), crosses the external iliac artery just beyond the bifurcation of the common
iliac artery, and runs along the lateral wall of the pelvis to enter the urinary bladder.)
3. Identify on the cadaver the ureter. What is its blood supply? (renal aa, abdominal
aorta, gonadal aa)
4. Given x-ray image: identify the psoas major and rib 12.
5. Identify on the cadaver the renal vein. What is its origin and at which vertebral
level? (renal vein drains into IVC at L1-L2)
6. Identify the diaphragm. Where is the central tendon? What is the innervation of
the diaphragm? (phrenic nerve – C3,4,5)
7. In which locations does the ureter become narrow? Name 1 cause of ureter
obstruction. (ureteropelvic junction; where the ureter crosses the brim of the pelvic
inlet; during its passage through the urinary bladder wall) (kidney stones)
8. Identify the renal pyramid and renal medulla. What is the lymphatic drainage of
the kidneys? (renal lymphatic vessels drain into lumbar lymph nodes)
9. What are the surface projections of the kidneys? (The kidneys lie deep to ribs 11-12,
and corresponds to vertebral levels T12 to L3 – specifically, left kidney = T12-L2, right
kidney = T1-L3. The transpyloric plane passes through hilum of left kidney and
superior pole of right kidney)
10. What are the root values of the lumbar plexus? Identify 2 branches of the lumbar
plexus on the cadaver. (L1-L4)
A12SF2/T/05 - Bony pelvis and its contents

1. Name and identify the ligaments that are attached to the ovary. (ligament of
ovary / ovarian ligament, suspensory ligament, mesovarium of broad ligament) What
is the ovary’s lymphatic drainage? (lymph travels with the ovarian vessels to the
pre-aortic nodes)
2. Given x-ray – identify the uterine/fallopian tube. Is the fallopian tube an open or
closed tube? (open – from the x-ray image notice that the dye leaks out of it)
3. Identify on the cadaver the broad ligament of the uterus.
4. What is the mesovarium? (the portion of the broad ligament of the uterus that
suspends the ovaries)
5. What are the contents of the suspensory ligament? (ovarian artery, ovarian vein,
ovarian nerve plexus, lymphatic vessels)
6. What is the nerve supply of the bladder? (sympathetic from hypogastric plexus,
parasympathetic from pelvic splanchnic nerves)
7. Given x-ray – identify the obturator foramen. Name the nerve that goes through it.
(obturator nerve)
8. Radiology – identify the 2 female peritoneal pouches. (vesicouterine and
rectouterine pouches)
9. What makes up the pelvic inlet? (pubic symphysis, pubic crest, pectineal line,
arcuate line, ala of sacrum, sacral promontory)
10. What makes up the pelvic outlet? (pubic symphysis, inferior rami of pubis, ischial
tuberosity, sacrotuberous ligament, coccyx) What part of the pelvic bone makes the
pelvic region narrow? (ischial spine)
11. Given pelvic bone – is this a male or female pelvis? What are the differences
between the male and female pelvis?

12. Identify 2 branches of the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. (obturator a.,
inferior gluteal a., umbilical a., uterine a., vaginal a., inferior vesical a., middle rectal
a., internal pudendal a.) What is the blood supply to the bladder? (superior vesical
a., inferior vesical a., umbilical a., vaginal a.)
13. Given a surface anatomy image – identify the iliac crest and the inguinal ligament.
The iliac crest lies along which vertebral level? (L4)
14. Given x-ray – identify the obturator foramen and the left common iliac artery.
Where does the common iliac artery bifurcate from the abdominal aorta? (L4)
15. What is the significance of the transformational zone of the cervix? (it is the region
tested in the pap smear)
A12SF2/T/07 – Perineum in male and female

1. Given CT scan – identify the prostate and bladder. Can you palpate the prostate?
How so? (ask subject to lean forward, insert fingers into rectum and press anteriorly.
N.B. only the prostate can only be palpated; seminal vesicle can’t be palpated)
2. Given another CT scan – identify the corpus spongiosum and testes. Name 2
muscles in the testes. (dartos and cremaster)
3. Identify on the cadaver the spermatic cord. Identify 4 structures in the spermatic
cord. (vas deferens, testicular artery, pampiniform plexus, tunica vaginalis, and a
bunch of other things – you can also mention lymph vessels)
4. Identify on the cadaver the epididymis and the vas deferens. What is the function
of the epididymis? Where in the pelvis does the vas deferens go to? (the epididymis
is the site of maturation and storage of sperm; the vas deferens travels laterally
through the pelvis, passing anterior to the ureter and inferior to the bladder, where
it unites with the duct of the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct)
5. Given diagram of nerves – identify the pudendal nerve. What are the contents of
the pudendal canal? (internal pudendal vessels, pudendal nerve, nerve to obturator
internus)
6. Identify on the cadaver the ejaculatory duct.
7. Identify on the cadaver the anal canal. What are the sphincters? How are they
different? (external anal sphincter and internal anal sphincter – external is voluntary
(innervation from inferior anal nerve), internal is involuntary (contraction caused by
sympathetic fibers from superior rectal and hypogastric plexuses))
8. Describe the lymphatic drainage of the vagina. (Lymph from vulva drains to the
superficial inguinal lymph nodes. Lymph from glans of clitoris and labia minora may
also drain to the deep inguinal and internal iliac lymph nodes)
9. Describe the lymphatic drainage of the penis. (Lymph from skin of penis sdrains into
the superficial inguinal lymph nodes. Lymph from the glands and distal spongy
urethra drains into the deep inguinal and external iliac lymph nodes. Lymph from the
cavernous bodies and proximal spongy urethra drains into the internal iliac lymph
nodes.)
10. What is the course of the pudendal nerve? (Comes from S2-S4 – the nerve passes
between the piriformis and coccygeus muscles, exits the greater sciatic foramen,
loops around the sacrospinous ligament, enters the lesser sciatic foramen, and
travels in the pudendal canal)
A12SF2/T/09 - Pelvic Organs and the Pelvic Diaphragm

1. Given a diagram of the female pelvic organs – identify the bladder, vagina, and
fallopian tube. What is the function of the fallopian tube? (the fallopian tube serves
as a site of fertilization – which usually occurs in the ampulla; it also carries the egg
from the ovaries to the uterus.)
2. What are the hiatus of the pelvic diaphragm? (Rectal hiatus – allows passage of anal
canal through pelvic diaphragm; Urogenital hiatus – allows passage of urethra in
males and females and vagina in females)
3. How long is the female urethra? What happens if the urethra is too short? (3.5cm;
if the urethra is too short it will be more prone to infections)
4. Given an MRI scan, identify the (rectal) ampulla. What is its arterial blood supply?
What is it a branch of? (superior rectal artery, a branch of the inferior mesenteric
artery)
5. Where is the pectinate line? What is the venous drainage above and below the
pectinate line and into what veins? (internal rectal venous plexus drains from both
above and below the pectinate line – after that, above the pectinate line, the venous
plexus drains into the superior rectal vein, which drains into the inferior mesenteric
artery and into the portal venous system. Below the pectinate line, the venous
plexus drains into the inferior rectal vein, which then drains into the internal
pudendal vein, eventually entering the systemic venous system.)
6. Given CT scan – which part of the urethra is shown? What is the clinical significance
of it? (Prostate urethra; prostate cancer can compress the urethra, causing difficulty
in passing urine)
7. How is the uterus positioned? How do we know if it is in the correct position? (The
uterus is located in the lesser pelvis; its body is on the urinary bladder, and the cervix
is in between the bladder and rectum. It is anterverted and anteflexed)
8. What are the markings of the trigone? What is its function? (Markings include the
left and right ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice. The trigone is very
sensitive to bladder expansion, sending signals to the brain once the bladder
stretches to a certain degree.)
9. What are the hiatus of the pelvis? (obturator foramen, greater and lesser sciatic
foramen)
10. Given diagram of levator ani (not sure what the question is)
11. Something about cervix and external os
A12SF2/T/11 - The back and spinal cord

1. Identify on the cadaver the erector spinae. Name 1 muscle of the erector spinae.
(iliocostalis, longissimus, spinalis) Name 1 action of the erector spinae. (extends the
spine, rotates the head, laterally flexes the spine) What is its innervation? (posterior
rami)
2. Identify on the cadaver the posterior root (of the spinal cord). Are the nerves
running through it sensory or motor? (posterior root = dorsal root = sensory – think
of dorsal root ganglion)
3. Identify on the cadaver the epidural space. What is in that space? (fat, internal
vertebral epidural venous plexus)
4. Identify a lumbar vertebra. What are some of its characteristics? Is this vertebra
associated with kyphosis or lordosis? (lordosis)
5. Identify the axis (C2) and its transverse foramen. What are the vessels that run
inside? (vertebral artery and vein)
6. Given x-ray – identify the lumbar vertebrae and their spinous processes.
7. Identify on the cadaver the thoracolumbar fascia. What does it fuse with? (fascia of
gluteal muscle and latissimus dorsi)
8. Why does herniation of the intervertebral disc occur posteriorly? (because the
posterior longitudinal ligament is weaker – also, the annulus fibrosus is thinner
postero-laterally)
9. Where does the spinal cord end in the adult? (T12-L3) Identify the vessels in the
vertebral canal. (anterior and posterior spinal arteries which run along the length of
the spinal cord) What are their origins? (vertebral artery)
10. Given x-ray – identify the cauda equina. What is the function of the filum
terminale? (attaches to and stabilizes the coccyx)
11. Identify on the cadaver the dura and arachnoid mater.
A12SF2/T/13 - Face, jaw and scalp

1. What are the layers of the scalp? (Skin, connective tissue, aponeurosis, loose areolar
tissue, pericranium) Which layers will bleed if there were a cut/wound? (Connective
tissue and possibly skin as well)
2. Identify on the cadaver the buccinator muscle. If a dentist anesthetizes the buccal
nerve, will the action of the buccal muscle be affected? (No, because the buccal
nerve is sensory – motor innervation of the buccal m. comes from the facial n.)
3. Identify on the cadaver the parotid gland and duct. Which muscles does the duct
pierce, and where does it enter the oral cavity? (pierces buccinator m., enters inner
surface of the cheek, usually opposite the maxillary second molar)
4. What is the 5th cranial nerve? (Trigeminal n.) What are the three branches?
(ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular) Given pictures of herpes rashes – what are
infected? (Maxillary and mandibular branches)
5. Identify the pterion. What are the bones that make up the pterion? (temporal,
sphenoid, frontal, parietal)
6. What is the muscle that closes the mouth? (orbicularis oris) What nerve innervates
that muscle? (Facial n.) Which branch? (buccal)
7. What muscle is involved when the corneal reflex test is performed and the subject
blinks? (orbicularis oculi) What nerve is involved for that reflex? (ophthalmic branch
of trigeminal nerve – CNV1 causes the reflex as it is the sensory portion, whereas the
motor portion comes from the facial nerve which innervates the orbicularis oculi)
8. What is the origin and insertion of the masseter muscle? (origin – zygomatic arch,
insertion – ramus and angle of mandible)
A12SF2/T/16 - Brain, cranial nerves and skull

1. Name and identify the the 7th and 8th cranial nerve and their exit foramina. (facial n.
– stylomastoid foramen; vestibulocochlear n. – internal auditory meatus)
2. Identify on the cadaver the central sulcus. What is the significance of the central
sulcus? What structures are immediately anterior and posterior to the central
sulcus? (The central sulcus divides the frontal and parietal lobes. Anterior to the
sulcus is the precentral gyrus and posterior to the sulcus is the postcentral gyrus.)
3. Given transverse MRI scan – identify the lateral ventricles. How is CSF produced?
(CSF is produced by the choroidal epithelial cells of a choroid plexus. Choroid
plexuses are found in the lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles.)
4. Given angiogram – identify the internal carotid artery and the middle meningeal
artery. What does the middle meningeal artery supply? (middle meningeal a.
supplies the dura)
5. Identify on the cranium the groove for the middle meningeal artery. What foramen
does the middle meningeal enter? (foramen spinosum)
6. Identify the jugular foramen. What 3 nerves go through it? (9th, 10th, 11th cranial n.)
7. Given angiogram – identify the internal carotid artery and cerebral arteries.
8. How do you test the facial nerve? What nerve and muscle are you testing when
you puff out your cheeks? (Testing for facial nerve – creasing forehead, closing eyes
against resistance, puff out cheeks, smile, clench teeth and depress angles of mouth)
(puffing out cheeks tests for the buccal branch of the facial n. and the orbicularis oris
and the buccinator mm.)
9. What are the names of the 3rd, 4th and 6th cranial nerves? Where do they travel
through to exit the skill? (i.e. what are their exit foramina?) (oculomotor, trochlear,
abducent nn.; superior orbital fissure)
A12SF2/T/18 - Oral cavity, nasal cavity, pharynx and larynx

1. Identify the cartilages that make up the larynx. (paired - arytenoid, corniculate,
cuneiform; unpaired - thyroid, cricoid, epiglottis) What is the vertebral level of the
cricoid cartilage? (C6)
2. Identify the cricothyroid muscle. What is its innervation? (external laryngeal n. –
branch of vagus n.)
3. On the given x-ray, identify the retropharyngeal space. Name the fascial layers in
the neck. (There is the superficial cervical fascia and the deep cervical fascia. The
deep cervical fascia divides further into the investing layer, pretracheal layer, and
prevertebral layer)
4. On the given diagram, identify the uvula and palatine tonsils. What is the danger
when the genioglossus muscle relaxes? (It blocks air from flowing through)
5. Nervous innervation of the tongue – diagram given is exactly like the one in
SCRUBS:

6. On the cadaver, identify the palatine bone and the palatoglossal and
palatopharyngeal arches. What bones form the hard palate? (Palatine process of
the maxilla and horizontal plates of palatine bone)
7. What are the courses of the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves? (They both
originate from the vagus nerve. The right recurrent laryngeal n. arises from the right
vagus n. at the level of the right subclavian artery and loops under it, whereas the
left recurrent laryngeal n. arises from the left vagus n. at the level of the aortic arch
and loops under it.
8. Identify the parasinuses on the cadaver. What nerves innervate them? (Maxillary
branch of the trigeminal n. - CN V2)
9. Identify the superior constrictor muscle. What structure passes between the
superior and middle constrictor muscles? (Stylopharyngeus m., glossopharyngeal n.
(CN IX), stylohyoid ligament)
10. What is the lymphatic drainage of the superior nasal conchae? (Deep cervical
lymph nodes) Why do the deep cervical lymph nodes spread so easily? (They can
spread bilaterally and can travel in many directions)
A12SF2/T/20 - Eye and ear

1. Given an otoscopy image of the tympanic membrane: identify umbo and

manubrium of malleus. What muscle attaches to the malleus? (tensor tympani)
2. Given an image of the retina: identify all the structures. (Optic disc - where the
optic nerve and blood vessels emerge; Macula lutea - where there are special
photoreceptor cones; Fovea - central depression of the macula lutea, area with most
acute vision; Foveola - center of fovea) What is the blood supply to the retina?
(central retinal artery)
3. Identify on a prosection the superior rectus muscle. What is its innervation and
action? (oculomotor nerve, CN III; elevation, adduction, intorsion)
4. Given the skull: what are the bones that make up the orbit? (maxillary, frontal,
zygomatic, ethmoid, lacrimal, sphenoid, pallatine)
5. Describe the accommodation reflex. (adjustment from far vision to near vision:
convergence of eyeballs by medial rectus, pupils constrict by sphincter pupillae m.,
ciliary muscles contract, suspensory ligaments relax, lens becomes more convex)
6. What nerves pass through the internal acoustic meatus? (facial nerve - CN VII,
glossopharyngeal nerve - CN IX)
7. How is the ear used for balance? (movement of the endolymph in the internal ear is
detected by sensory organs called ampullary crests which are located in the
ampullae of the semicircular ducts) What is vertigo? (it is when crystals form in the
semicircular canal disrupting the movements of the endolymph, which is then
detected at the ampullary crests as movement, causing dizziness)
8. What nerves innervate the tympanic membrane? (external surface -
auriculotemporal nerve; internal surface - glossopharyngeal nerve)
9. Surface anatomy of the eye: identify the sclera, cornea, iris, lacrimal caruncle.
What is the nasolacrimal duct? (duct that leads tears to the nasal cavity)
10. Given temporal bone: which part of the bone is involved with the ear? (pentrous
part of temporal bone) Identify the tympanic membrane inside the temporal bone.
What are bones seen on the tympanic membrane? (ossicles) List the ossicles.
(malleus, incus, stapes)