A222-C10-AM-SST2-AK

Class 10 Mock Paper II Social Science

Answer Key

Name: ____________________ Date: ____________ Max. Marks: 80 Time: 3 hours

General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All
questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – Questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Questions 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C – Questions 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 60 words.
v. Section D – Questions 30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section E – Questions 34 to 36 are Case-based Questions with three sub-questions each. These are of 4 marks
each.
vii. Section F – Question 37 is Map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from
Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Note to the teachers: All text in brackets and italics, along with the images, is meant to provide
additional information to help understand the answers. Please do not evaluate the answers based
on this.
SECTION - A
MCQs (1 × 20 = 20)

1) Which of the following books was written by Jyotiba Phule? (1 mark)

A. Gulamgiri B. Amar Jiban
C. Sacchi Kavitayan D. Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
Answer:
A. Gulamgiri
Solution/Explanation:
(Caste discrimination became widely discussed in the late 19th century. The following books were
written in that period:
• Jyotiba Phule, the Maratha pioneer of the ‘low caste’ protest movement, wrote Gulamgiri to
highlight the injustice of the caste system. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
• Rashsundari Debi, a young married girl from an orthodox family, learned to read in the
privacy of her kitchen. Later, in 1876, she published her autobiography, Amar Jiban.

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 • Sacchi Kavitayan, a collection of poetry written between 1935 and 1955 by Kanpur mill
worker Sudarshan Chakr, explored themes of social bias.
• In 1938 CE, Kashibaba, a Kanpur mill worker, wrote and published Chhote Aur Bade Ka
Sawal, which explored the links between caste and class discrimination.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

2) The given image was painted in 1860 by the artist Lorenz

Clasen and is the personification of a country. Identify the
image. (1 mark)
A. La Italia B. Marianne
C. Germania D. Olympe de Gouges

Answer:
C. Germania
Solution/Explanation:
(In the 19th century, many artists invented female allegories to represent their nations. Germania
was one such female allegory that represented the German nation. In visual representations,
Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism. In 1860, the artist
Lorenz Clasen painted the given image of Germania, where she is wearing a crown of oak leaves
and holding a sword and a shield. Hence option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

3) Arrange the following events in the chronological order of their occurrence: (1 mark)
I. First World War II. Fall of Napoleon
III. Unification of Italy IV. Unification of Germany
A. IV, III, II & I B. II, III, IV & I C. I, III, IV & II D. IV, III, I & I
Answer:
B. II, III, IV & I
Solution/Explanation:
(The important events that took place in Europe between 1815 and 1914 are listed below:
• 1815 − The fall of Napoleon and the emergence of a new conservatism (point II)

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 • 1830 − Revolution in Paris
• 1845 − Weavers’ revolt of Silesia
• 1848 − Revolution of the Liberals
• 1861 − Unification of Italy (point III)
• 1871 − Unification of Germany (point IV)
• 1872 − Conflicts begin in the Balkans region
• 1914 – The First World War (point I)
Thus, the correct chronological order of events is II – III – IV – I and option B is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

4) There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per
the codes provided below: (1 mark)
Assertion (A): The Bretton Woods system of fixed exchange rates collapsed after the 1960s.
Reason (R): From the 1960s, the rising cost of the United States' overseas involvement
weakened its finances and competitive strength.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Solution/Explanation:
(In the 1960s, the Bretton Woods system declined as this system of fixed exchange rates
collapsed. It happened as follows:
• The US was engaged in many foreign interventions. As the cost of overseas involvement
rose, US finances and competitive strength weakened.
• As this continued, the US dollar failed to maintain its value in relation to gold. For the
system of fixed exchange rates to work effectively, it was important for the US dollar to
consistently maintain its value in relation to gold.

As a result, the Bretton Woods system collapsed. Hence, option A is the correct answer as both
the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason provides the correct explanation of the
assertion.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

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5) Consider the following statements regarding the silk routes that existed in the pre-modern
era. Identify the INCORRECT one from the following. (1 mark)
A. Textiles and spices from India travelled through these routes.
B. These routes connected Asia to North America and South Africa.
C. Many precious metals like gold and silver travelled through these routes.
D. These routes existed before the Christian Era and flourished till the fifteenth century.
Answer:
B. These routes connected Asia to North America and South Africa.
Solution/Explanation:
(The silk routes are an excellent example of pre-modern trade and cultural connections between
distant parts of the world. The following points summarise some of the most important aspects of
these routes:
• The silk routes were a network of ancient trade routes that linked Asia with Northern Africa
and Europe. Hence, option B is an incorrect statement.
• Textiles and spices from India and Southeast Asia followed this silk route. Hence, option A
is a correct statement.
• In exchange, many precious metals such as gold and silver travelled from Europe to Asia
using the same route. Hence, option C is a correct statement.
• They existed prior to the Christian era and flourished almost until the fifteenth century.
Hence, option D is a correct statement.
Since the question asked to identify the incorrect statement, option B is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

6) Match the following: (1 mark)

Crops Features

a. Rice I. It is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black,

sandy, and loamy soil.
b. Ragi II. It grows well in drier parts of the black soil of the Deccan
plateau.
c. Wheat III. It requires high temperature and high humidity with annual
rainfall above 100 cm.
d. Cotton IV. It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the
time of ripening.

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 A. a – I, b – II, c – III, d – IV B. a – II, b – III, c – I, d – IV
C. a – III, b – I, c – IV, d – II D. a – IV, b – III, c – I, d – II
Answer:
C. a – III, b – I, c – IV, d – II
Solution/Explanation:
(Based on their features and the conditions required for their growth, the crops can be matched
as follows:
• Rice grows well in regions of high rainfall that have high temperatures and high humidity.
• Ragi grows well in dry regions that have red, black, sandy or loamy soil.
• Wheat requires cool temperatures during its growing season and bright sunshine at the
time of ripening.
• Cotton grows well on black soil and requires a dry climate, therefore it grows well in the
Deccan plateau region.
Thus, option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

7) Fill in the blank. (1 mark)

Classification of Industries Basis of classification
Agro-Based & Mineral-Based Raw materials used
Large scale & Small scale ?
A. Main role B. Ownership
C. Capital investment D. Weight of raw material
Answer:
C. Capital investment
Solution/Explanation:
(Industries are classified based on the following factors:
Industries

Raw Material Main Role Weight Ownership Capital

Agro-Based Basic (Goods Heavy Public Sector Large scale

used as raw (Investment
materials) more than 10
Mineral-Based Light Private Sector crore rupees)
Consumer
(Goods used Joint Sector
Small Scale
by consumers) (Investment
Co-operative less than one
Sector crore rupees)

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 Hence, option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

8) Which one among the following pairs is CORRECTLY matched? (1 mark)

LIST I LIST II

A. Rural roads These roads are maintained by the Zila Parishad.

These roads received an impetus under the Pradhan

B. District roads
Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojna.

These roads are laid and maintained by the Central

C. National Highways
Public Works Department (CPWD).

D. Golden Quadrilateral These highway projects are implemented by the

Super Highways Border Roads Organisation.
Answer:
C. National Highways — These roads are laid and maintained by the Central Public Works
Department (CPWD).
Solution/Explanation:
(The correctly matched pairs are given below:

LIST I LIST II
These roads received an impetus under the Pradhan
A. Rural roads
Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojna.

B. District roads These roads are maintained by the Zila Parishad.

These roads are laid and maintained by the Central Public

C. National Highways
Works Department (CPWD).

D. Golden Quadrilateral These highway projects are being implemented by the

Super Highways National Highway Authority of India (NHAI).
Hence, option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

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9) Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution is NOT correct? (1 mark)
A. It provides special status to the majority religion.
B. It prohibits discrimination on the grounds of religion.
C. It allows the state to intervene in the matter of religion.
D. It provides the freedom to profess and propagate any religion.
Answer:
A. It provides special status to the majority religion.
Solution/Explanation:
(In India, ‘secularism’ means equal treatment of all religions by the state. The choice of a secular
state is reflected through the following provisions of the Indian Constitution:
• There is no official religion in the Indian state. Indian Constitution does not give a
special status to any religion. Hence, option A is not a feature of the Indian Constitution.
• All religious communities are to be treated equally. It prohibits discrimination on the
grounds of religion. Hence, option B is a correct statement.
• All individuals have the freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion of their
choice. Hence, option D is correct.
• However, the state can intervene in matters of religion in order to ensure justice. Hence,
option C is also correct.
Since the question asked to identify the incorrect statement, option A is the correct
answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

10) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding communal politics? (1 mark)
A. It promotes religious diversity in a country.
B. It ignores religious differences among people.
C. It is based on the idea that all religions are equal.
D. It often suppresses many voices in order to make one religion superior.
Answer:
D. It often suppresses many voices in order to make one religion superior.
Solution/Explanation:
(Religion causes social division when it is seen as the basis of a nation. Communal politics is the
use of religion in politics. It uses state power to establish the superiority of one religion over
others. The basic ideas of communal politics are as follows:
• Communal politics is based on the belief that people belonging to one religion form a
community. Thus, it does not support religious diversity. Hence, option A is not true.

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 • People belonging to different religions are not considered equal citizens. Hence, option
C is not true.
• Communal politics often suppresses many voices in order to make one religion superior.
Hence, option D is true and is the correct answer.
• Differences between members of the same religions are supposed to be considered
irrelevant.
• Communal politics does not ignore religious differences among people. Instead, it focuses
on the differences in political support. Hence, option B is also not true.
• Any commonalities that members of different religions have are considered superficial.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

11) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the caste system practised in India?
(1 mark)
A. It is not linked to the economic status of an individual in India.
B. It is neither hereditary nor is it sanctioned by any ritual in India.
C. It is based on the exclusion of and discrimination of the ‘outcaste’ groups.
D. It has strengthened in India due to economic development and urbanisation.
Answer:
C. It is based on the exclusion of and discrimination of the ‘outcaste’ groups.
Solution/Explanation:
(Unlike gender and religion-based divisions, caste-based division is unique to India. The caste
system places castes in a hierarchy. The so-called ‘upper castes’ are placed at the top of the
ladder, while the so-called ‘lower castes’ are placed at the bottom. Some of its characteristics are
given below:
• The Indian caste system was based on the exclusion of and discrimination of the
‘outcaste’ group. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Indian caste system continues to be closely linked to economic status. Hence, option A is
also not true.
• Caste system in India is a hereditary occupational division and is sanctioned by rituals.
Hence, option B is not true.
• The Indian caste system has undergone great changes. The old notions of caste hierarchy
are breaking down due to economic development, urbanisation, literacy growth, and
education. Hence, option D is not true.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

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12) Which of the following rights helps in promoting transparency in governance? (1 mark)
A. Right to education B. Right to information
C. Right against exploitation D. Right to freedom of religion
Answer: B. Right to information
Solution/Explanation:
(Transparency is the means to examine the process of decision-making in a country. It can
be achieved through the right to information as it helps a citizen to find out if a decision was
taken through the correct procedures. Hence, option B is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

13) Identify the correct statements about democracy. (1 mark)

I. It is always free from corruption.
II. It promotes equality among citizens.
III. It preserves the dignity of an individual.
IV. It is the most stable form of government.

A. I & II B. II & III C. II & IV D. III & IV

Answer: B. II & III
Solution/Explanation:
(Democracy is a form of government in which the leaders are elected by the people. It is the most
preferred form of government because of the following reasons:
• It promotes equality among citizens. Thus, statement II is correct.
• It preserves the dignity of citizens as it is built on ideals such as equality and justice. Hence,
statement III is correct.
• It provides ways to deal with differences and conflicts.
However, it suffers from a few limitations, some of which are as follows:
• A democratic government keeps changing its leaders, which leads to instability. Hence,
statement IV is incorrect.
• In a democracy, many people must be consulted before a decision is made. Sometimes, this
leads to delays and inefficient decision-making.
• Democracy could lead to corruption as it is based on electoral competition. Hence, the
statement I is incorrect.
Thus, we can conclude that option B is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 9

14) Which of the following is NOT a reasonable expectation from a democracy? (1 mark)
A. Regular and free elections
B. Rapid economic development
C. Open public debate on major policies
D. Granting the right to information to its citizens
Answer:
B. Rapid economic development
Solution/Explanation:
(Rapid economic development cannot be a reasonable expectation from a democracy
because economic development is dependent on many other factors such as the country’s
population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, and economic priorities
adopted by the country. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
However, it is reasonable to expect that a democratic government is legitimate, transparent,
accountable, and responsive. A democracy must regularly conduct free and fair elections,
allow open public debates, and grant citizens the right to information.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

15) Read the following table about the estimated number of Indian workers in the organised
and unorganised sectors and select the appropriate option from the following. (1 mark)
WORKERS IN DIFFERENT SECTORS (IN MILLIONS)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 1 231 232
Secondary 41 74 115
Tertiary 40 88 128
Total 82 393 475
Total in Percentage 17 83 100
(Source: http:/mospi.gov.in.)
Based on the table given above, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Tertiary sector workers are found only in the organised sector.
B. The organised sector employs the largest number of workers.
C. The secondary sector employs the largest number of workers.
D. Primary sector workers are mostly found in the unorganised sector
Answer:
D. Primary sector workers are mostly found in the unorganised sector.
Solution/Explanation:
(The following conclusions can be drawn from the provided data:

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 10

 • The primary sector workers are mostly found in the unorganised sector, accounting for
231 million of the total 232 million workers in the primary sector. Hence, option D is the
correct answer.
• The primary sector employs the largest number of workers. It is 232 million, which is
more than 115 million (in the secondary sector) and 128 million (in the tertiary sector). Hence,
option C is incorrect.
• The unorganised sector employs the largest number of individuals. It is 393 million,
compared to only 82 million in the organised sector. Hence, option B is incorrect.
• Workers in the tertiary sector are mostly found in the unorganised sector. This means
that there are more casual workers in the unorganised sector than in the organised sector.
Hence, option A is incorrect.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

16) Find the odd one out from the following options: (1 mark)
A. Grains, cattle, copper coins
B. Gold coins, silver coins, copper coins
C. Paper notes, cheques, demand drafts
D. Moneylenders, cooperative societies, commercial banks
Answer:
D. Moneylenders, cooperative societies, commercial banks
Solution/Explanation:
(While options A, B and C all can be classified as mediums of exchange, Option D includes
sources of credit.
Hence, option D is the odd one out.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

17) Read the information given below and select the correct option. (1 mark)
Megan has taken a loan of Rs 10 lakh from a bank to buy a house. The loan has an annual
interest rate of 8% and will be repaid in monthly instalments over 15 years. Before the bank
agreed to give Megan the loan, she had to submit documents proving her employment
history, salary, and official papers of new house.
The interest rate, documentation requirements, and mode of repayment are all referred to
as ___________.
A. collateral B. debt trap
C. terms of credit D. double coincidence of wants

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 Answer: C. terms of credit
Solution/Explanation:
(Every credit arrangement includes some terms of credit. Before entering into any credit
arrangement, the borrower must understand them. The terms of credit include the interest
rate, collateral and documentation requirements, and mode of repayment. The terms of
credit may vary greatly from one credit agreement to another. Hence, option C is the correct
answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

18) Which of the following organisations establishes rules regarding international trade and
aims to liberalise it? (1 mark)
A. World Bank B. United Nations (UN)
C. World Trade Organisation (WTO) D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Answer:
C. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Solution/Explanation:
(The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an international organisation whose aim is to liberalise
international trade. WTO was established at the initiative of developed countries to establish
rules for international trade and ensure that these rules are followed. The World Trade
Organisation currently has 164 member countries. Hence, option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

19) In 1991, the Indian government removed barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
What was this process called? (1 mark)
A. Privatisation B. Socialisation C. Globalisation D. Liberalisation
Answer: D. Liberalisation
Solution/Explanation:
(In India, significant policy changes were implemented beginning around 1991. The government
decided that it was time for Indian producers to compete with producers worldwide. The Indian
government believed that competition would improve the performance of domestic producers by
forcing them to improve their quality. As a result, many barriers to foreign trade and
investment have been removed. This process is called liberalisation.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 12

20) Identify the correct statements about Multinational Corporations. (1 mark)
I. It organises production in complex ways.
II. It employs labour only from its own country.
III. It tries to set up factories away from the markets.
IV. It owns and controls production in more than one nation.
A. I & II B. I & IV C. II & III D. III & IV
Answer:
B. I & IV
Solution/Explanation:
(A Multinational Corporation (MNC) is a company that operates or controls production in
more than one country. Hence, statement IV is correct.
MNCs have the following characteristics:
• MNCs establish production offices and factories in areas with cheap labour and other
resources. This is done to keep production costs low and profits high for multinational
corporations. Hence, statements II and III are incorrect.
• MNC not only sells its finished products globally but the goods and services are also
produced globally. As a result, production is organised in increasingly complex ways.
This proves that the statement I is correct.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

SECTION - B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 × 4 = 8)
21) Analyse the problems associated with manuscripts in 15th-century Europe. (2 marks)
Answer:
The problems associated with handwritten manuscripts because of which they could not
meet the ever-increasing demand for books in 15th-century Europe were as follows:
(i) Copying these manuscripts was a highly expensive, laborious, and time-consuming
business.
(ii) Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and needed careful handling.
(iii) Reading the manuscripts was not easy as they were written in different styles.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for each reason.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 13

22) Mention the challenges that political parties need to overcome to remain effective
instruments of democracy. (2 marks)
Answer:
Political parties need to overcome the following challenges to remain effective instruments
of democracy:
(i) Lack of internal democracy: The top leaders in parties are often extremely powerful.
They do not share important information with others and make decisions for the party
on their own.
(ii) Few meaningful choices for voters: If all parties follow similar policies, then there is
no choice for voters who want a different policy. This weakens democracy since people
may not vote if they do not see a party which shares their views.
(iii) Role of money and power: Many parties use money and muscle power to win
elections. Rich people give political parties money to influence political leaders when
laws are made. Parties can even choose criminals as election candidates to scare
people into voting for them.
(iv) Dynastic succession: Party leaders often give positions of power in the party to family
members who may not have experience in leadership or governance. It is tough for
others to achieve these positions.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant challenges. Give 1 mark for each challenge.

23) ‘Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in any country.’ Justify the
statement by giving suitable arguments. (2 marks)
Answer:
The development of a country is often associated with the growth of its manufacturing
sector. The manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in any country
due to the following reasons:
(i) Modernises agriculture: It helps modernise agriculture by providing facilities such as
irrigation pumps, fertilisers, and pesticides.
(ii) Creates jobs: It creates jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors, thereby reducing the
excessive dependence on agriculture.
(iii) Reduces poverty: It helps in reducing poverty in the country by generating
employment for the people.
(iv) Reduces regional disparity: It helps in reducing regional disparities as setting up
industries in underdeveloped areas generates employment for the people of these
regions.

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 (v) Expansion of trade: The export of goods produced in industries helps in expanding
trade and commerce and in earning foreign exchange.
(vi) Economic development of a country: It helps in the development of a country.
Countries that convert their raw materials into finished goods of a higher value are
considered more prosperous.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant arguments. Give 1 mark for each argument.
OR
‘Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand.’ Justify the statement by giving suitable
arguments. (2 marks)
Answer:
Industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand. This statement can be proved with the
help of the following points:
(i) Urbanisation leads to industrialisation: Cities provide various services to the
industries such as banking, insurance, transport, and labour. Cities also serve as the
market for goods produced in these industries. Sometimes, many industries are set
up together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres known as
agglomeration economies.
(ii) Industrialisation leads to urbanisation: Availability of products and employment
opportunities attract people from other parts to settle near industries. Thus,
industrialisation leads to urbanisation.
Thus, it can be said that after an industrial activity starts, urbanisation follows, and
sometimes, industries are located in or near cities. Hence, it can be concluded that
industrialisation and urbanisation go hand in hand.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept all relevant answers. Give 1 mark for each point.

24) Suggest any two measures that the Government of India can take to make globalisation
fairer. (2 marks)
Answer:
Fair globalisation refers to the idea that the benefits of globalisation must be shared by
everyone equally. The government can take the following measures to make globalisation
fairer:
(i) It can ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and that workers' rights
are safeguarded.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 15

 (ii) It can help small producers improve their performance until they are strong enough
to compete. The government may use trade and investment barriers to accomplish
this if necessary.
(iii) It can bargain with the WTO for ‘fairer rules’.
(iv) It can also form an alliance with other developing countries with similar interests
to fight developed-country dominance in the WTO.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant measures. Give 1 mark for each measure.

SECTION - C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3 × 5 = 15)
25) Examine the difficulties that early Indian entrepreneurs faced because of colonial rule in
India. (3 marks)
Answer:
When India was colonised, many restrictions were imposed on Indian entrepreneurs. Early
Indian entrepreneurs faced the following difficulties because of the colonial rule:
(i) Colonial laws imposed trade restrictions on Indian entrepreneurs: Indian
industrialists were stopped from trading in manufactured goods like cotton fabrics.
They were only free to trade in raw materials. This was done to ensure that machine-
made Indian textiles did not pose a threat to Manchester goods.
(ii) European companies controlled a large sector of Indian industries: Until the First
World War, three main European Managing Agencies — Bird Heiglers & Co., Andrew
Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. — controlled a large sector of Indian industries. They
set up joint-stock companies. Indian industrialists could invest in these joint-stock
companies, but they had no say in their financial decisions.
(iii) Indian industrialists were not a part of the chambers of commerce: European
industrialists had their chambers of commerce. Indians were not allowed to join these
associations.
(iv) Indian industrialists were barred from entering certain industries: European
industrialists were interested in tea and coffee plantations and mining as these
products were popular as exports.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant difficulties. Give 1 mark for each difficulty.
OR

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 16

 Examine the reasons why machines could NOT completely replace the demand for human
labour in Victorian Britain. (3 marks)
Answer:
Machines could not completely replace the demand for human labour in Victorian Britain
because of the following reasons:
(i) No shortage of human labour: Poor peasants and vagrants migrated to cities in large
numbers in search of work. As a result, the availability of human labour helped
industrialists avoid capital investments in machines.
(ii) Seasonal demand for labour: Labour demand in many industries was seasonal.
During the cold months, gas works and breweries were especially busy. As a result, in
those industries where production fluctuated, industrialists preferred labourers to
machines.
(iii) Many products could only be handmade: Products requiring intricate designs and
specific shapes could be produced only by hand. Hence, there was a demand for
labour to produce such goods.
(iv) High demand for handmade goods: The aristocracy preferred to buy high-quality
handmade goods in Victorian Britain. It was because handmade products symbolised
refinement and class.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for each reason.

26) How did the French revolutionaries create a sense of collective identity among the French
people? (3 marks)
Answer:
One major impact of the French Revolution was that it helped create a sense of collective
identity among the French people. The French revolutionaries created a sense of collective
identity among the people by adopting the following measures:
(i) They promoted ideas of the la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen),
which emphasised the concept of a united community with equal rights granted by a
constitution.
(ii) They replaced the royal standard with a new tricolour flag.
(iii) They established a centralised administrative system which made uniform laws for
all.
(iv) Regional dialects were discouraged, and French (as it was used in Paris) was adopted
as the common language.
(v) Internal customs duties and dues were abolished, and a uniform system of weights
and measures was adopted.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 17

 (vi) They composed new hymns, took oaths, and commemorated the martyrs in the
name of the nation.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant measures. Give 1 mark for each measure.

27) Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy with examples.
(3 marks)
Answer:
Based on the extent and status of their use, the sources of energy can be classified into two
categories — conventional and non-conventional. The differences between the conventional
and non-conventional sources of energy are as follows:
Basis Conventional Sources of Non-Conventional Sources of
Energy Energy
(i) Renewability These sources of energy are These sources of energy are
mainly non-renewable and usually renewable and are
are thus present in a limited continuously replenished by
quantity in nature. natural processes.
(ii) Usage These sources of energy have These sources of energy have
been in use for many years, been put to use more recently
and we have the technical and are not being used to their
know-how to use them. full potential.
(iii) Environmental The use of these sources of The use of these sources of
Impact energy tends to cause energy does not pollute the
pollution and harm the environment.
environment.
Examples Firewood, Coal, Natural gas, Nuclear energy, Wind energy,
Cow dung, Petroleum Tidal energy, Solar energy,
Biogas, Geothermal energy
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant differences. Give 1 mark for each difference. Accept relevant examples.
Give one mark for examples.

28) ‘In modern democracies, power-sharing arrangements can take many forms.’ Examine the
statement. (3 marks)
Answer:
In modern democracies, power-sharing arrangements can take many forms. The following
are some of the most common forms of power sharing:

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 18

 (i) Power shared among different organs of government: Power is shared among
various government organs such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary under
this arrangement. This is also known as horizontal power distribution because it allows
different government organs placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
(ii) Power shared among governments at different levels: Power is shared among
various government levels, such as the central government, state governments,
and local governments, under this arrangement. This is also known as vertical power
distribution because it involves higher and lower levels of government.
(iii) Power shared among different social groups: Under this arrangement, power is
shared among different social groups, such as religious and linguistic groups.
‘Community government’ in Belgium is a good example of this arrangement.
(iv) Power shared among different political parties and pressure groups: Power
sharing in this arrangement can be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups
and movements control or influence those in power. In a democracy, the citizens
must have the freedom to choose among various contenders for power.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant forms of power-sharing. Give 1 mark for stating each form correctly.

29) ‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services one needs to live well.’ Justify this statement
with examples. (3 marks)
Answer:
Money in our pockets cannot buy all the goods and services we need to live well. This
statement can be proved with the help of the following examples:
(i) Money cannot give us a pollution-free environment.
(ii) It cannot ensure unadulterated medicines to the people.
(iii) It cannot protect us from infectious diseases.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant examples. Give 1 mark for each example.

SECTION - D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5 × 4 = 20)
30) Highlight important economic, social, and political conditions created by the First World War
that led to the growth of nationalism in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The economic, social, and political conditions that led to the growth of nationalism in India
are as follows:
Economic factors

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 19

(i) Increased taxes: To meet their defence expenditures, the British took huge war loans.
They decided to repay the loans by increasing taxes and customs duties in their
colonies, which added to the miseries of the Indian public.
(ii) Shortage of food: The years immediately after the First World War, 1918–1919 and
1920–1921, also saw crop failures. This led to a shortage of food in many parts of the
country. The situation was further worsened by an influenza epidemic in 1920.
Social factors
(i) British did not treat Indians with dignity: The British did not treat Indians with
respect and dignity. Indians were considered inferior and were discriminated against.
Many laws passed by the British reflected this discrimination.
(ii) No opportunity in administration: In the colonial administration, higher positions
were held by the British, while Indians were given clerical jobs.
Political factors
(i) British did not share decision-making powers: All the decisions about the Indian
public were made solely by the British. The British did not consider Indians politically
responsible. For a long time, senior positions in the government were held only by the
British as they believed Indians could not be given positions of responsibility.
(ii) Rowlatt Act: Immediately after the First World War, the British also passed the Rowlatt
Act, which allowed the detention of political prisoners for two years without trial.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant points. Give 1 mark for each point.
OR
Highlight the main objectives of the Non-Cooperation Movement that was launched in 1921
under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The main objectives of the Non-Cooperation Movement were as follows:
(i) To withdraw cooperation with the British in all sectors so as to handicap the
government
(ii) The attainment of swaraj or self-rule under the British
(iii) The annulment of the Rowlatt Act and protesting against the injustice that
happened at Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar
(iv) The adoption of the Khilafat issue to foster Hindu-Muslim unity
(v) The adoption of the ideas of the Swadeshi Movement by spinning khadi cloth and
using Indian-made goods only
(vi) The promotion of self-reliance and the mobilisation of the masses
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant objectives. Give 1 mark for each objective.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 20

31) Analyse the reasons for the growing importance of road transport. (5 marks)
Answer:
Reasons for the growing importance of road transport are as follows:
(i) Lower construction cost: Roads have a lower construction cost as compared to
railway lines.
(ii) Easier to travel in rough landforms: Roads make it easy to travel in areas with rough
landforms.
(iii) Cover difficult mountainous regions: Roads can also cover difficult mountainous
regions such as the Himalayas.
(iv) Act as a feeder: Road transport acts as a feeder to other modes of transport as they
provide a link between railway stations, airports, and sea ports.
(v) Door-to-door services: Road transport makes door-to-door pick-ups and drops
possible for people and goods.
(vi) Economical: Road transport is economical to use over short distances.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for each reason.
OR
Analyse how the physical features of India pose challenges in the construction of railway
networks. (5 marks)
Answer:
Physical features of India pose challenges in the construction of railway networks in the
following ways:
(i) Northern Plain: The vast stretches of flat lands and dense population in this region
provide the most favourable conditions for the construction of railway networks.
However, the presence of several rivers in this region poses a challenge and
requires the construction of railway bridges.
(ii) Peninsular India: This region mostly has a hilly terrain and includes mountains,
plateaus and ghats. Therefore, railway tracks are laid through low hills, gaps, or
tunnels.
(iii) Sandy Plains: The sandy plain of western Rajasthan and the swamps of Gujarat pose
a challenge for the construction of railway lines.
(iv) Himalayan Mountainous Regions: These regions are unfavourable for the
construction of railway lines due to the high relief, sparse population, and lack of
economic opportunities. Therefore, railway lines are mainly present in the foothills.
(v) Forest Tracks: Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Jharkhand have vast
forested tracks, which pose a challenge for the construction of railway lines.
(vi) Stretch of Sahyadri: The contiguous stretch of Sahyadri could be crossed only through
gaps or passes (Ghats). However, the terrain poses a challenge in this region, and

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 21

 there have been instances of landslides and the sinking of railway tracks in some
places.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant points. Give 1 mark for each point.

32) Describe five provisions of the Constitutional Amendment of 1992 that strengthened the
third tier of democracy in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The following provisions of the Constitutional Amendment of 1992 strengthened the third
tier of democracy:
(i) Regular elections: The Amendment Act of 1992 made it constitutionally mandatory to
hold regular elections for local government bodies.
(ii) Compulsory reservations for marginalised groups: The Amendment Act of 1992
made the reservation of seats compulsory for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and Other Backward Classes in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these
institutions.
(iii) Compulsory reservations for women: It mandated that at least one-third of all
positions are reserved for women.
(iv) Independent state election commission: It created an independent institution called
the State Election Commission in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal
elections.
(v) Shared power and revenue resources: The act made it mandatory for the State
governments to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant provisions. Give 1 mark for each point.
OR
Describe any five key features of federalism in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The following are the key features of federalism:
(i) The government is divided into two or more levels or tiers. The most common levels
of government are the federal government, the state government, and the local
government.
(ii) Each tier has its own jurisdiction. They work together to ensure that all citizens of the
country are properly governed.
(iii) The Constitution specifies the jurisdiction of each tier. As a result, the Constitution
guarantees the existence and authority of each tier of government.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 22

 (iv) One level of government cannot change the fundamental provisions of the
Constitution unilaterally. Such changes involve the approval of both levels of
government.
(v) If any dispute over jurisdiction arises between different tiers of the government, the
judiciary takes the final decision in granting one tier the right to exercise power.
Courts have the power to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different levels
of government.
(vi) The Constitution specifies the sources of revenue for each tier.
(vii) Federalism maintains national unity while accommodating regional differences.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant features. Give 1 mark for each feature.

33) Define the tertiary sector of an economy. Discuss any four reasons for the growing
importance of the tertiary sector in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The tertiary sector includes activities that generate services and those activities that
support primary and secondary activities. For example, postal services, transportation,
trading, and professional services such as those of doctors and teachers.
The tertiary sector has recently emerged as India's largest sector. The following are the
major reasons for its growing importance in India:
(i) Need for basic services: Several services such as hospitals, educational institutions,
post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices,
municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks, and insurance companies are
considered basic services.
(ii) Demand for more services: As information and communication technology has grown
in importance and utility, there has been an increase in the number of new services
based on it. The demand for these services has been rapidly increasing.
(iii) Demand for advanced services: With an increase in income levels, more services like
hospitality, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, and professional
training are being demanded by people.
(iv) Development of agriculture and industry: Agriculture and industry development
lead to the development of services such as transportation, trade, and storage. In
recent years, as the primary and secondary sectors have grown, so has the demand for
services that support the primary and secondary sectors.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for stating the correct meaning. Accept any four relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for
each reason.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 23

 OR

Describe the primary sector and four ways in which employment can be generated in rural
areas in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
Primary sector activities include the direct use or extraction of natural resources such
as land, water, plants, and minerals. For example, fishing, forestry, agriculture, mining,
and quarrying.
The primary sector, or the agricultural sector, is largely rural. The following steps can thus be
taken to increase employment in this sector:
(i) Providing irrigation facilities to farmers by constructing dams and canals so that
they can also grow crops during the dry season.
(ii) Providing agricultural credit at low interest rates to buy good quality seeds and
fertilisers to ensure a good yield.
(iii) Providing storage facilities, such as cold storage for vegetables, so that farmers can
store their crops.
(iv) Providing transportation facilities, such as constructing roads, so that farmers can
sell their crops in nearby towns.
(v) Promoting and locating industries and services in rural areas where a large number
of people may be employed.
(vi) Establishing primary product processing industries such as potato, sweet potato,
rice, wheat, tomato, and fruits that can be sold in outside markets.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any four relevant ways to generate employment in rural areas. Give 1 mark for stating the
correct meaning of the primary sector and 1 mark for each way.

SECTION - E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 × 3 = 12)
34) Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 marks)
Dams were traditionally constructed to impound rivers and rainwater for later use in
irrigating agricultural fields. Dams are now built not only for irrigation but also for electricity
generation, residential and industrial water supply, flood control, recreation, inland
navigation, and fish breeding. As a result, dams are now referred to as multi-purpose
projects in which the various uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another.
For example, in the Sutlej-Beas River basin, water from the Bhakra-Nangal project is used for
both hydropower generation and irrigation.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 24

After independence, multi-purpose projects with integrated water resource management
methods were viewed as the vehicle that would lead the nation to development and
progress, overcoming the handicap of its colonial past.
However, for several reasons, multi-purpose projects and large dams have received much
attention and opposition in recent years.
(Sourced and adapted from Board recommended textbook.)
(a) How do dams help in water conservation and management? (1 mark)
Answer:
Dams help in water conservation and management by storing large amounts of water
from rivers and rainwater so that when there is no rain and when the crops require
water, it can be sourced from the dam to irrigate fields
Teacher Instruction:
Accept all relevant answers. Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru proclaimed dams as the ‘temples of modern India’. Explain why.
(1 mark)
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru proclaimed dams as ‘temples of modern India’ because dams would
connect agricultural and rural economic development with rapid industrialisation
and urban economic growth.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(c) Why have multi-purpose projects and large dams received so much attention and
opposition in recent years? Give any two reasons. (2 marks)
Answer:
Multi-purpose projects and large dams have received a lot of attention and opposition in
recent years for the following reasons:
(i) Affect rivers’ aquatic life: River regulation and damming affect the natural flow
of rivers, causing excessive sedimentation at the reservoir's bottom, resulting in
rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers' aquatic life.
(ii) Make migration difficult for aquatic animals: Dams also fragment rivers,
making migration of aquatic fauna difficult, particularly for spawning.
(iii) Submerge vegetation: The reservoirs formed on the floodplains submerge the
existing vegetation and soil, causing it to decompose over time.
(iv) Displaces local communities: The construction of multi-purpose projects results
in large displacements of local communities from the area.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for the correct answer.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 25

35) Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow. (4 marks)
The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative
democracies. As we have seen, representative democracy is necessary for large societies. As
societies like India grew larger and more complex, they required some kind of agency to
collect various points of view on various issues and present them to the government. They
needed some ways to bring various representatives together so that a responsible
government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the
government, make policies, and justify or oppose them. Political parties meet the needs of
every representative government. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for
democracy.
(Sourced and adapted from Board recommended textbook.)
(a) How do the political parties play a role in forming and running the government?
(1 mark)
Answer:
Political parties recruit and train leaders and then make them ministers to run the
government. Political parties also play a role when no party wins a clear majority in
elections. In that situation, different parties come together to form a coalition
government.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(b) What kind of party system is followed in a large and complex democracy like India?
(1 mark)
Answer:
The multi-party system is followed in a large and complex democracy like India.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(c) ‘Existence of political parties is a necessary condition for the functioning of democracy.’
Justify the statement by giving any two arguments. (2 marks)
Answer:
The existence of political parties is a necessary condition for the functioning of
democracy because of the following reasons:
(i) They are accountable to the country: Individual candidates work for their own
constituency. Without a political party, they cannot represent the entire country to
make policy changes.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 26

 (ii) They can make major policy changes: It is difficult for an individual candidate to
make major policy changes without the support of a political party in the
legislature. A government of individual candidates is not useful to voters.
(iii) They ensure a representative democracy: A political party represents the
experiences of different groups of people in a democracy. Political parties are
necessary to inform a government of diverse opinions and experiences.
(iv) They help control the powers of the government: A political party can criticise
the failures of the government and stop any leader from becoming too powerful.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant arguments. Give 1 mark for each argument.

36) Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow. (4 marks)
Sunita, a small farmer, grew peanuts on her three acres of land. She borrowed money from
a moneylender to cover cultivation costs, hoping her harvest would help repay the loan.
Pests attacked the crop halfway through the season, causing it to fail. Sunita sprayed her
crops with costly pesticides, but it made little difference. She could not repay the
moneylender, and the debt increased over a year. This year, Sunita took a new loan from the
same moneylender for cultivation. The crops are normal this year. However, the earnings
are insufficient to cover the old loan. She is caught in debt. She will have to sell a portion of
the property to pay off the debt.
(Sourced and adapted from Board recommended textbook.)
(a) What type of source of credit did Sunita opt for? (1 mark)
Answer:
Sunita opted for the informal source of credit as she borrowed from a moneylender.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(b) Why did Sunita need credit? (1 mark)
Answer:
Sunita needed credit to meet her cultivation expenses and buy expensive pesticides
for her fields.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(c) Analyse any two reasons that made Sunita’s situation risky. (2 marks)
Answer:
Sunita’s situation was very risky because of the following factors:
(i) Moneylenders charge a very high interest rate, and the collateral’s value is
generally higher than the loan amount.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 27

 (ii) Pesticides are expensive, and they increase cultivation costs. Extensive use may
even harm the soil’s quality.
(iii) Climate is unpredictable, especially the Indian monsoon, which makes farming
harder in the years with low rainfall.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for each correct reason.

SECTION − F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2 + 3 = 5)
37 (a) Two places, A and B have been marked on the given political map of India. Identify them
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2 marks)
(A) The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. - Amritsar
(B) The National Congress Session where the Non-Cooperation Programme was
adopted in December 1920. - Nagpur Session

37 (b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable symbols. (3 marks)
(A) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam - Telangana
(B) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant - Maharashtra
(C) Noida Software Technology Park - Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kandla Port – Gujarat
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for each correct location and identification for both the map questions.

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 28

Class 10 – Social Science – Mock Paper II – AK – 29