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Study Session 15
Reading 45: Derivative Markets and Instruments,
by Don M. Chance, PhD, CFA
Function: Managing financial risk, creating synthetic exposure to asset classes, enhance market efficiency
Backed by clearing house, minimal default risk Expose to default risk of counterparty
• Periodic premium for CDS = CDS spread (A function of probability of default, loss given default,
hazard/failure rate)
Note: Certain standardized CDS has a fixed periodic premium/coupon which is higher/lower than the CDS
spread. In this case, one party have to pay another an upfront payment which equivalent to the differences
between CDS coupon and spread times notional amount.
Purposes
Criticisms
Too risky Linked to gambling
Due to its complexity, especially to those with limited Because of the high leverage payoff and naïve
knowledge. speculation.
Participants
Hedgers- with existing or anticipatory underlying position.
Law of One Price: Two assets or combination of assets with similar characteristics (risk and return) should be traded at a
same price. If the relationship does not hold, there is arbitrage opportunity.
Eg 1: If asset A and asset B have the identical characteristic but the price of asset A is lower than asset B. Long asset
A and short asset B, thereby earning a riskless profit without investing any money or being exposed to any risk.
Eg 2: Risk free rate of 3% and there is a portfolio (consist of two assets) which will yield a certain return of 4%.
Borrow at risk free rate to invest in the portfolio, thereby earning a riskless profit without investing any money or
being exposed to any risk.
Arbitrageurs will continue this process until the prices in the both markets become the same (making market more
efficient).
The pricing of derivatives should ensure arbitrage free Left hand side of the equation is a fully
hedged position (long physical asset and
short forward contract).
With derivatives, a risk-free asset can be crated by taking a long position of a risky asset and
simultaneously short its underlying derivatives (i.e. fully hedged)
Scenario 1: Assumed that the palm oil is trade at MYR3,000 per metric ton at the end of 6 month. The forwards
contract can be settled via two ways:
• PPB deliver 1 metric ton of palm oil that now • No physical delivery. PPB will pay the difference
worth MYR3,000 to P&G for MYR2,869. between palm oil current market price and
agreed price to P&G. (3,000 – 2,869 = 131).
• P&G has a positive payoff of MYR131 and PPB
has a negative payoff of similar amount. • MYR131 is the value of forwards contract to
P&G and negative MYR131 to PPB at the end of
6 month.
• PPB deliver 1 metric ton of palm oil that now • No physical delivery. P&G will pay the
worth MYR2,600 to P&G for MYR2,869. difference between palm oil current market
• P&G has a negative payoff and PPB has a price and agreed price to PPB. (2,600 – 2,869 =
positive payoff. 269).
• MYR269 is the value of forwards contract to
PPB and negative MYR269 to P&G at the end of
6 month.
Spot price at contract expiration < agreed forward price = Long pays short (short has positive payoff)
Spot price at contract expiration > agreed forward price = Short pays long (long has positive payoff)
A party can terminate the forwards contract position prior to expiration by entering into an opposite forwards
contract position with an expiration date equal to time remaining on the original position with either:
2) Another counterparty:
Eg: 2 months after inception, 4-month forward price of 1 metric ton of palm oil is MYR2,800. P&G
would like to unwind its original long forwards position. P&G will take a 4-month short forwards
contract position with IOI for MYR2,800.
P&G has locked in a loss of MYR69, but has effectively exited the original position.
The differences between the two is credit risk. By entering the opposite
position with another party, P&G exposed itself to the credit risk of IOI
3. At expiration;
Eurodollar: Time deposits that denominated in USD at bank outside the United State
• Not under the jurisdiction of the Federal Reserve and these deposits are subject to much less
regulation than similar deposits within the U.S.
• Eurodollar deposits accrue interest by adding it on to the principal, using a 360-day year assumption.
The primary Eurodollar rate is called LIBOR.
LIBOR (London Interbank Offer Rate): Interest rate that top-tier bank charge each other to borrow USD
outside the U.S.
• LIBOR is used as reference rate for floating rate USD denominated loan world wide.
EURIBOR (Europe Interbank Offer Rate): Interest rate that top-tier bank charge each other to borrow
Euro outside the Europe.
30-day FRA on
90-day LIBOR
Solution:
Payoff = (Market rate – Forward rate) x (days to maturity for the loan/360) x Notional
1+ Market rate x (days to maturity for the loan/360)
= (6% - 5%) x (180/360) x $10 million
1+ 6% x (180/360)
= $ 48,544
Days
Discount back the interest saving at
0 30 current market rate, as the payoff will 210
FRA Expired be paid at the end of FRA tenure. Loan matured
Terminologies:
1-by-7 FRA or 1 x 7 FRA
The pricing of futures contract should be the same as Divergence of forwards price and futures price:
forwards contract, if the interest rate is constant or
uncorrelated with the underlying of the futures: If interest rates and the price of the contract asset is
positively/negatively correlated → MTM is preferred →
futures price > forwards price. (vice versa).
Margin
Price limit: Exchange-imposed limit on how much futures contract price can change from the previous day’s
settlement price (average prices of the trades during the last period of trading, called closing period)
Limit move: Occurs when futures price exceeds the limits (limit up or limit down)
Day Beg acc Futures Price Gain/(Loss) End acc Margin call
balance price change balance
0 0 82 0 0 100 0
1 100 84 2 40 140 0
2 140 78 -6
3 73 -5
4 79 6 120 220
5 220 82 3 60 280 0
6 280 84 2 40 320 0
2. Cash settlement
• Swaps are OTC instruments and terms are customized Types of swap:
• Swaps are not traded in secondary market • Currency swap
• Swaps market is unregulated • Plain vanilla interest rate swap (focus of Level 1)
• Default risk is an important aspect • Equity swap
• Most swap participants are large institutions
• Neither party pays anything to the other at the initiation of contract
Termination of Swaps
1. Mutual termination: A cash payment (that is acceptable to the other party) is to be made from one party to
another
2. Offsetting contract: Enter an offsetting swap. Exit a swap through an offsetting swap with other than the original
counterparty will also expose the investor to default risk (just as with forwards)
3. Resale: It is possible to sell the swap to another party, with the permission of the counterparty to the swap
4. Swaption: A swaption is an option to enter into a swap. The option to enter into an offsetting swap provides an
option to terminate an existing swap
Day
0 90 180 270 360
Day
0 90 180 270 360
2. Swap rate = A fixed rate that make a swap has zero value at initiation
3. Floating rate bond will have the value equal to its par value at reset date (coupon rate = market rate)
• In equity swap, it is possible for one party not to make any payment
It gives option owner (buyer) the right but not the obligation to buy (call) or sell (put) an
underlying asset with a predetermined price (exercise price) at a predetermined date. At the initiation, the buyer is required to
make a payment to option writer (option
• Long call option = right to buy the underlying premium)
• Long put option = right to sell the underlying
Options can be traded through an
The seller of option contracts (writer) is obligated to perform the contracts, if the buyer exchange (i.e. CBOE) or OTC. For exchange
exercises the options traded stock options, the size are 100
• Short call option = obligated to sell the underlying stocks per option contract
• Short put option = obligated to buy the underlying
In the money (ITM) At the money (ATM) Out the money (OTM)
Option premium Purchase consideration of the option c for European and C for American call
p for European and P for American put
What is the payoff of this option if the Padini is trading at MYR1.8 at the end of 3 months?
Solution:
MYR 0.3
0 Share price
Short call
Intrinsic value is the amount by which the option is in the money (How much is the positive payoff of that option)
Intrinsic value of an option can never below zero (Option is a right, not an obligation)
• What is the intrinsic value of that call option, if the share price at
the expiration date is MYR1.2?
• Maximum value of a put option occurs when the underlying asset price goes to zero → upper bound
for American put = X; European put = Present value of X
If the payoff is positive → lower bound (min value) of an option will be its payoff instead of zero (the range of
option value has tighten)
** American option should worth at least as much as an equivalent European option, due to its
early exercise option.
There is no advantage to exercise early a call option, as the Early exercise on a deep in the money put
payoff from immediate exercise will be lower than exercise at option may be viable as its payoff from an
maturity immediate exercise will be higher than
exercise at maturity
Early exercise will only make sense if the underlying asset pays *If there is large dividends, early exercise is
cash flow (i.e. dividend) during the option life which may not optimal so long as
reduce the value of the stock
Excersice price Hi gher exerci se pri ce resul ts i n l ower payoff from an opti on Hi gher exerci se pri ce resul ts i n hi gher payoff from an
to buy an asset opti on to sel l an asset
Volatility of the Hi gher vol ati l i ty resul ts i n hi gher chances for the pri ce Hi gher vol ati l i ty resul ts i n hi gher chances for the pri ce
underlying asset price move i n favor of cal l opti on hol der move i n favor of put opti on hol der
Time to maturity Longer ti me to maturi ty resul ts i n hi gher ti me val ue for a American Put: Longer ti me to maturi ty resul ts i n hi gher
cal l opti on (both Ameri can and European) ti me val ue for an Ameri can put
Benefits from underlying Hi gher di vi dend payout pri or to the opti on exerci se peri od Hi gher di vi dend payout pri or to the opti on exerci se peri od
(i.e. dividend) reduces the underl yi ng share's val ue, whi ch hurts the cal l reduces the underl yi ng share's val ue, whi ch i ncreases the
opti on i ntri nsi c val ue, hence l ower premi um put opti on i ntri nsi c val ue, hence hi gher premi um
Costs to hold the Hi gher hol di ng costs benefi t the cal l opti on hol der as he Hi gher hol di ng costs i ncreases the underl yi ng asset's
underlying (i.e. storage can have a l ong exposure on the underl yi ng wi thout payi ng future val ue (i .e.commodi ti es), whi ch decreases the
cost) the hol di ng costs, hence the cal l opti on i s more val uabl e i ntri nsi c val ue (X - S) of a put opti on, hence l ess val uabl e
and l ower pri ce
Risk free rate To avoi d wri ti ng a naked cal l , the cal l opti on wri ter wi l l To ensure there i s suffi ci ent fund to meet the obl i gati on
borrow fund to buy the underl yi ng to cover hi s downsi de ari si ng from wri ti ng a put opti on, the wri ter wi l l set asi de
from wri ti ng a cal l opti on. Hence, the wri ter wi l l ask for an amount of money whi ch enti tl e ri sk free return. Hence,
hi gher premi um i f the borrowi ng cost (ri sk free rate) i s hi gh the wri ter wi l l ask for hi gher premi um i f the ri sk free rate i s
l ow
c + X/(1+Rf)^T = p + S
Substitute S0
Put-call Forward
Parity
Input required:
• Beginning underlying asset value
• Size of up and down (U and D) → D = 1/U
• Possibilities of up and down →P(U) and P(D) → P(D) = 1 – P(U)