Xi All Subj Shahjee 2023

A Project of
BOARD OF SECONDARY
EDUCATION KARACHI.
GOVT. OF SINDH NEW SYLLABUS
ALL SUBJECTS CHAPTER WISE MCQs
ALL SUBJECTS CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS
FOR
H.S.C. PART-I (CLASS-XI)
ANNUAL EXAMINATION 2023
SCIENCE GROUP
ACCORDING TO NEW SYLLABUS

 
 

        
            
  
              IX, X, XI, XII       
         

     
             
     
 (Outsiders)
     (Grand Test Kit)     
      
                   
   
            
    
 
   
Shah Group Educational ChannelYoutube    
        
Subject Wise MCQs  
        
  
 
       (Top Ten Positions)  


  

SHAHJEE COLLEGIATE
LIST OF DIFFERENT SUBJECTS AT H.S.C. ANNUAL EXAMINATION
FOR CLASS XI (SCIENCE GROUP)
INDEX
S. NO. SUBJECTS PAGE #
01 GOVT. OF SINDH NEW SYLLABUS (ALL SUBJECTS) 1 TO 2
CHAPTER WISE GUESS PAPERS
Section ‘A’ Important MCQs
Section ‘B’ Important Short Questions
Section ‘C’ Important Detailed Questions
ENGLISH 3 TO 12
PHYSICS 13 TO 49
02 CHEMISTRY 50 TO 64
MATHEMATICS 65 TO 87
BIOLOGY 88 TO 98
COMPUTER 99 TO 103
URDU 104 TO 105
ISLAMIAT 106 TO 109
‫ونٹرباےئامڈلرپیپز‬
‫رتحمموادلی‬
‫االسلمکیلع‬
‫اسیج ہک آپ ےک ملع ںیم ےہ ہک وکحتم دنسھ ےک االعن ےک اطمقب وبرڈ ےن اےنپ شیپ رکدہ وموجدہ امڈل رپیپز ںیم رتمیم رک دی ےہ اور اب صح (افل) وجہک‬
)‫رپلمتشموہاگہکبجصح(ج‬40%)‫رپلمتشموہایگےہاورصح(ب‬MCQs 20% ‫ےکاجبےئ‬MCQs 20%‫ریثکاالاختنیبوساالترپلمتشموہاتےہابوہ‬
‫ رپلمتشموہاگ۔انامتمزیچوںوکدمِرظنرےتھکوہےئاشہرگوپابلطءواطابلتیکرامنہیئےکےئلاےنپامڈلرپیپزاجریرکےاگ۔‬40%
‫رکشی‬
‫اشہرگوپاویٹیٹسنشن‬:‫ااظتنیم‬
04 SCHOLARSHIP LETTER 110
05 GRAND TEST TIMETABLE 111
ALL SUBJECTS
CHAPTER WISE
GUESS PAPERS
SECTION ‘A’ IMPORTANT MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
SECTION ‘B’ IMPORTANT SHORT QUESTIONS
SECTION ‘C’ IMPORTANT DETAILED QUESTIONS
ENGLISH PHYSICS
MATHS CHEMISTRY
BIOLOGY COMPUTER
URDU ISLAMIAT
XI-SCIENCE (ENGLISH) Page | 3
SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

XI-ENGLISH
CHAPTER 1 QUAID ON 11TH AUGUST, 1947
SECTION ‘A’ MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. The Quaid-e-Azam was speaking to the Constituent Assembly at ___________.
a) national level b) regional level c) global level d) provincial level
2. The main function of the Constituent Assembly was to ___________.
a) make country as example b) honour assembly members
c) make constitution d) practice constitution
3. According to the Quaid-e-Azam, ‘cyclonic revolution’ meant a wave of __________.
a) discrimination b) revolt c) elections d) legislation
4. The main task of the Govt. according to the Quaid-e-Azam is to __________.
a) make constitution for provinces b) stop black marketing
c) curb bribery d) make law and order
5. According to the Quaid-e-Azam, the poisonous thing is __________.
a) corruption b) black-marketing c) nepotism d) law & order situation
6. The colossal crime monster as stated in the text is ___________.
a) break the law b) black marketing c) favouritism d) bribery
7. On 11 August 1947, Quaid-e-Azam was speaking to __________.
a) already function assembly b) first legislative body
c) whole nation d) members of the provincial body
8. The first legislative body was bestowed with __________.
a) full powers b) limited powers
c) only make legislative powers d) only powers to curb bribery
9. The thing that was already prevailing in the continent after partition was __________.
a) bribery b) foodstuff c) nepotism d) starvation
10. The guided principles of the Quaid-e-Azam Muhammad Ali Jinnah are _________.
a) support & cooperation b) Justice & fair play
c) prejudice & honour d) angularities of majority & minority
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1: Which is the greatest curse according to the Quaid-e-Azam?
2: What was the Quaid’s vision about religious freedom?
3: How far the key ideas of the Quaid-e-Azam are applicable to the present scenario?
4: How can we make Pakistan prosperous in the light of the Quaid’s vision?
5: “I shall always be guided by the principles of justice and fair play without political language,
prejudice and ill-will.” Elaborate these words.
CHAPTER 2 ONCE MORE TO THE LAKE

1. The writer in the essay ‘Once More to the Lake’ is accompanied by his ___________.
a) brother b) son c) wife d) pet
2. In the beginning of ‘Once More to the Lake’, the writer characterizes himself as ___________.
a) lake-water man b) pond-water man c) salt-water man d) ordinary man
3. The writer has referred the word “placidity” in the context of ______________.
a) peacefulness b) calmness c) loneliness d) idleness
4. The __________ were/was tapping on the roof of the camp of writer.
a) mosquitoes b) swam c) squirrel d) mouse
5. The writer felt in the end of the essay _________
a) the fear of storm b) the danger of life c) happy d) the loneliness
6. ____________ caught two fish before lunch.
a) son b) father c) both son & father d) spinner
7. The writer revisited the lake with his son in ________ season.
a) summer b) winter c) autumn d) spring
8. The writer’s son has seen __________ while travelling by train.
a) weeds b) lily pads c) sheltered bay d) wet woods
9. The writer used to visit lake __________
a) in New York b) in Maine c) near his form house d) in his school
10. For __________, the writer used to go to the lake.
a) fishing b) seeing waves c) enjoying cool water d) enjoying swimming
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1: Why does writer take a vacation at this particular lake?
2: How has the lake changed since he was a boy?
3: Why is the arriving at the lake less exciting now than in the past?
4: How are the motor boats different in the present situation?
5: What is the central idea of the text “Once More To the Lake”?
CHAPTER 3 THE NECKLACE

1. ____________ was working in education.
a) Mathilide b) Loisel c) Mansion d) Forestier
2. Mathilde belonged to a/an ____________ family.
a) rich b) poor c) middle class d) elite
3. Loisel give Mathilde four hundred francs to ___________.
a) buy outfits b) go to theatre c) buy jewellery d) help her friend
4. Mathilde seemed happiest when she _______________.
a) received the invitation b) danced in the party
c) bought a new dress d) borrowed the necklace
5. The main theme of ‘The Necklace’ is: _________.
a) We suffer for our vanities b) It is unwise to borrow things
c) Parties can lead to trouble d) Friends should be honest with each other
6. When she borrowed necklace, Mme. Loisel spent whole evening in _________.
a) talking with her husband b) watching rich people
c) wishing she had not come d) dancing with many men
7. In order to pay the necklace, M. Loisel does all of the following except __________
a) contribute his entire inheritance b) make deals with loan swindlers
c) borrowing money from the bank d) paying his house loan
8. Throughout the story, Mme. Loisel values ______________.
a) love b) appearances c) knowledge d) wisdom
9. When Mathilde had to return the Necklace, she was looking as _________.
a) rich b) proud c) peasant d) miser
10. Mathilde bought another Necklace for __________ francs.
a) sixty b) fifty c) thirty six d) fifty six
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1: How was the life of Mme. Loisel before the loss the of the necklace?
Q2: Describe in your own words how to Loisel’s life changed after they had paid for the new
necklace?
Q3: How did Mr. and Mme. Loisel replace the necklace?
Q4: How did Mr. Loisel contribute to the cost of the necklace?
Q5: How had Mme. Loisel’s sacrifices been in vain?
CHAPTER 4 TECHNOLOGICAL REVOLUTION

1. Digital revolution mainly depends on _____________
a) physical nature b) improved life
c) hardware innovations d) integrated Circuit
2. During World War-II, transmission of information was in ___________ form:
a) material b) analogue c) electric d) catalogue
3. __________ is the technological option to work in dangerous situation.
a) Telephone b) Telecom c) Telepresence d) Television
4. It is technology that people get things better according to their _________.
a) market demand b) environment c) needs d) work
5. E-learning can only be possible through ____________.
a) portals b) internet c) smart adaption d) innovative system
6. People get information through _________ to help them better understand a medical condition.
a) internet b) integrated apps c) telemedicine d) visual images
7. Bits used to record or transmit information in ___________ form.
a) binary b) digital c) analogue d) logical
8. ____________ is an example of hydrological disaster.
a) earthquake b) hurricane c) floods d) wildfire
9. _____________ technology assesses environmental changes and disease predictions.
a) remote sensing b) satellite c) circuit d) visual images
10. A bulk of population at disaster risks may be located by ____________.
a) telecom b) satellite image c) actuators d) smart phones
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. What do you mean by technological revolution?
2. How is the technology boon for students?
3. How does the benefits of e-commerce in today’s world?
4. How has technology greatly supported doctors and medical practitioners?
5. How did technology contribute in keeping peoples' lives safe during the recent pandemic or
disaster?
CHAPTER 5 MY BANK ACCOUNT

1. The writer visited the bank __________.
a) frequently b) first time c) in a month d) yearly
2. The writer’s salary was raised to _________ a month.
a) sixty dollars b) fifty dollars c) thirty dollars d) fifty-six dollars
3. __________ presumed the writer to be a detective.
a) clerk b) manager c) accountant d) rich man
4. The writer first met the ___________ in the bank.
a) accountant b) manager c) clerk d) security guard
5. The writer had ________ dollars at the time of opening the account.
a) six b) fifty six c) fifty d) sixty
6. Mr. Montgomery was a/an __________.
a) manager b) accountant c) clerk d) detective
7. The ____________ of the author made the manager think that he was a detective?
a) mysterious manner b) simplicity c) harsh behaviour d) boldness
8. The author wrote fifty-six dollars instead of six dollars due to __________.
a) fear b) haste c) anxiety d) madness
9. The text ‘My Bank Account’ is an example of __________ tale.
a) detective b) humorous c) moral d) fictitious
10. After returning from the bank, the writer put his savings in _________.
a) bank b) pocket c) silver d) sock
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1. What was the experience of Stephen Leacock while he was opening his bank account?
Q2. What mistake did the author make while writing the cheque?
Q3. Why did the manager look relieved when he knew the purpose of the author’s visit to see
him?
Q4. Why was there “a roar of laughter” when the author left the bank?
Q5: Why did the author decide to open an account?
CHAPTER 6 SELF-RELIANCE
1. In every work of genius, we recognize our own rejected __________.
a) ideas b) thoughts c) concepts d) motives
2. According to the author, envy is ____________.
a) bliss b) evil c) suicide d) ignorance
3. Insist on yourself; never __________.
a) imitate b) indicate c) initiate d) imply
4. According to the author, it is ___________ in the world to live after the world’s opinion.
a) important b) unimportant c) easy d) difficult
5. Society undergoes ____________ changes.
a) continuous b) continual c) collective d) creative
6. Every great man is ____________.
a) simple b) unique c) rare d) common
7. Society acquires new arts, and loses old ________.
a) ways b) methods c) instincts d) approaches
8. Civilized man has lost his __________ strength.
a) aboriginal b) original c) real d) physical
9. The civilized man has lost the use of his feet because he has built __________.
a) car b) coach c) crutches d) castle
10. A solstice is a ___________.
a) position of moon b) position of sun c) time of the day d) period of year
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1. What makes a man great according to the author?
Q2. Why is self-reliance important for one’s development?
Q3. What is mark of genius according to the author?
Q4. What happens when a person doesn’t value one’s own qualities?
Q5. How can a person be happy according to the author?
Q6. “What I must do is all that concerns me, not what the people think.” What does author
wants to say by these lines?
CHAPTER 7 STRUGGLE FOR AN EDUCATION

1. __________ were discussing about school during work.
a) Coloured people b) Miners c) Brooker d) Lewis
2. The school was providing _________.
a) proper education b) education and skills c) physical training d) costs
3. __________ type of students were studying in the school of Virginia.
a) Poor b) Wealthy c) Workers d) All types of students
4. At ___________ salary did the writer work at the house of General Lewis Ruffner.
a) 1 dollar per day b) 5 dollar per month c) 50 dollar per month d) 50 cent per month
5. __________ city was eighty-two miles away from Hampton.
a) Maldon b) Richmond c) Washington d) Virginia
6. The writer spent first night of travel of Hampton at _____________.
a) large city b) step-father’s house
c) side walker near the port d) in the school
7. Writer ___________ to get money for breakfast.
a) swept the room b) loaded the vessels c) made the pillow d) worked in industry
8. __________ helped the writer in getting reception.
a) Lewis b) Step father c) Captain d) Head teacher
9. ___________ was the Head teacher’s impression of writer after cleaning the room.
a) Good b) Bad c) Lazy d) Unusual
10. The writer accepted the cleaning of recitation room because he wanted to ____________.
a) took it as challenge b) impress the Head c) get admission d) get proper food
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1: Why was the boy inspired to go to Hampton?
Q2: What did the author learn during work in the chapter “Struggle for Education”?
Q3: What happened to the money the author had earned at Mrs. Ruffner’s house?
Q4: What did the author do in Richmond in order to reach to Hampton city?
Q5: Why did the writer not make a favorable impression on the head teacher?
Q6: What did the author have to go through in order to get admission at the Hampton institute?
CHAPTER 8 A VOYAGE TO THE CITY OF LIONS

1. Singapore is located in __________.
a) South Asia b) Africa c) Central Asia d) Europe
2. ___________ in not a national language of Singapore.
a) English b) French c) Chinese d) Malay
3. __________ the population of Singapore is living far away from the port.
a) 20% b) 30% c) 50% d) 80%
4. One of the largest markets in Singapore is ___________.
a) Change alley b) Changi c) Raffles pulse d) Barges
5. Singapore is called Mr. Clean because of ____________.
a) rows of flowers b) greenery c) cleanliness d) seeing sight
6. __________ street of Singapore is reasonable for purchase.
a) Arab b) Club c) Amoy d) Bugis
7. _____________ city is one mile away from Singapore.
a) Kiamari b) Johar c) Jatty d) Raffles pulse
8. The land of Singapore consist of _________ area.
a) 225 square miles b) 2025 square miles c) 200 square miles d) 2005 square miles
9. In Singapore, we can find every currency of the world in _____________.
a) Change Valley b) Raffle Pulse c) Mr. Clean d) Arab Street
10. Which one is common in Singapore markets?
a) fixed prices b) bargaining c) free discounts d) Govt. subsidy
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1: What are barges and how are these operated?
Q2: Describe briefly the significance of Singapore port.
Q3: What are the reasons for prosperity of Singapore in spite of very little area?
Q4: How is Singapore one of the most attractive areas for tourists?
Q5: How does Singapore keep itself clean?
Q6: Describe briefly the education in Singapore.
CHAPTER 9 CHOOSING CAREER

1. Job is a ___________ term strategy.
a) long b) short c) medium d) none of these
2. Many students choose a particular field because of ______________.
a) prevailing social trends b) insistence of family
c) peer pressure d) all of these
3. An introverted person requires _________ interaction.
a) much b) less c) no d) constant
4. Engineering may be a good field for someone who likes to do __________ work.
a) practical b) theoretical c) analytical d) creative
5. Study of computer science requires __________ skills.
a) accounting b) chemistry c) logical d) imagination
6. Choosing career requires ____________.
a) interest b) personality c) skills d) all of these
7. Professional career counsellor may _____________.
a) give you a job b) decide your career c) guide you d) give you scholarship
8. SAT stands for ____________
a) Scholastic Assessment Test b) School Aptitude Test
c) Scholarship Achievement Test d) Selection & Admission Test
9. To get information about admission one should _____________.
a) ask other students b) visit university websites
c) read books d) consult parents
10. If you don’t succeed you should ___________.
a) give up b) try with same method c) rethink strategy d) sit idle
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1: What are the differences between a job and a career?
Q2: Why should you choose a career that interests you?
Q3: What causes de-motivation in career?
Q4: Why is it necessary to consult a veteran of the field before choosing a career?
Q5: How can a professional career counselor help you?
CHAPTER 10 PEARLS OF WISDOM

1. The second brother was living by ______________.
a) serving sultan b) doing Govt. service c) doing labour d) selling belts
2. ___________ said that it is better to eat barley than to gird with golden belts.
a) elder brother b) sultan c) wealthy man d) servant
3. “To grid with golden belt”, this phrase indicates to live __________.
a) hard life b) healthy life c) Wealthy life d) slavery life
4. The ____________ was fearful during travel in the vessel.
a) king b) sultan c) slave d) Wiseman
5. The slave was thrown in the sea to ___________.
a) catch fish b) gain experience c) go drowning d) save boat
6. The Arab became happy after _____________.
a) finding bag b) gaining grain c) finding water d) seeing pearls
7. The sage gave advice to his student that ____________.
a) property can be made b) silver and gold are necessary
c) riches can be relied d) profession is wealth
8. “Little drops make an ocean.” This proverb is appropriately depicted in _____________.
a) Text-I b) Text-II c) Maxim-V d) Maxim-III
9. A group of people travelling together is called as _____________.
a) sages b) caravan c) crew d) shrewd men
10. ____________ may be the suitable message of text-II.
a) ‘Self-done is well done,’ b) ‘Brave deeds need no show,’
c) ‘Small wit great boast,’ d) ‘Silent water run deep,’
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
Q1: What did the wealthy man ask the poor brother and what was his reply?
Q2: Why could the slave not be pacified even though he was in the same boat with the king?
Q3: What did the wise man do to make the salve realize about the security of boat?
Q4: The sage wanted to teach to his students then book?
POEM 1 THE CHARACTER OF A HAPPY LIFE

1. Briefly explain the meaning of the word “Nor rules of state” & “Rules of good”.
2. What is meant by “Whose passions not his master are and whose soul is still prepared for death”?
3. Why does a happy man pray to God?
4. Describe the lines “Whose passions not his masters are?
5. Who is free from servile band and how?
6. How does Sir Henry Wotton’s man enjoy his spare-time? (Important)
7. What does Henry Wotton’s man use for his defense? (Important)
8. What are the qualities of a happy man as described in the poem, ‘The Character of a Happy Life.’?
(Important)
9. What does the poet mean when he says that a happy man does not serve another’s will? OR What
a happy man is taught from his very birth? (Important)
10. What is the central idea of the poem, ‘The Character of Happy Life’? (Important)
11. Write the rhyming scheme of the poem. (Important)
POEM 2 DON’T QUIT

1. What is the poet’s message in the first stanza?
2. Why does the poet term life ‘queer with twists and turns?’
3. What is the benefit of not quitting as suggested in the poem?
POEM 3 OZYMANDIAS
1. What did the traveller see in the desert and whom he told about it?
2. How can you say that the sculptor was a great artist?
3. What was written on the pedestal of the statue of Ozymandias?
4. What is the meaning of the phrase in the poem, “the heart that fed”?
5. What is ironic about the fate of Ozymandias?
6. What is the message of the poem?
7. The proud Ozymandias lies forgotten in the desert. Comment.
POEM 4 GOOD TIMBER

1. What is the significance of the title of the poem?
2. What happens to the people who work hard?
3. How can one achieve one’s true potential in life according to the poem?
4. Why does the poet suggest people to be like good timber?
5. Which poetic devices are used in this poem?
POEM 5 LUCY GRAY

1. Why did William Wordsworth say that Lucy Gray” a solitary child?
2. What do people think about Lucy Gray?
3. Briefly narrate the tragic story of Lucy Gray.
4. How did the parents come to know about the death of Lucy gray?
5. What did Lucy mean when she said ‘yonder is the moon’?
6. Why did Lucy take lantern with her?
7. Do you think that the tragedy would have been prevented if Lucy’s father himself had gone
down the town?
POEM 6 THE ABBOT OF CANTERBURY

1. What are the three questions and what were the funniest answers of these questions given
by the shepherd?
2. What had the Abbot to do in order to save himself from being beheaded?
3. How did the real abbot benefit from his shepherd’s bold tricks?
4. What did the shepherd propose to do?
5. In answering the riddle, how did the shepherd justify valuing the king at twenty-nine pence?
6. How did King John behave on finding out that he had been deceived?
7. What reward did the shepherd receive?
8. How did Abbot prove himself innocent before king?
9. What is the main idea of this ballad?
POEM 7 SUR KAHORI

1. How is khahori’s character depicted by the poet?
2. How do the Khahoris experience sleep?
3. Where and why do Khahoris spend their days and nights?
4. What reward does a Khahori get after his hard work?
5. Sur Khahori is the narration of Khahoris’ struggle. Elaborate.
PLAY A VISIT TO A SMALL PLANET

1. Why did Kreton want to visit Earth?
2. Describe the reaction of different characters to Kreton’s visit?
3. Why is General Powers paranoid about Kreton’s visit?
4. What extraordinary powers does Kreton possess, and how does he exhibit these powers?
5. How does Kreton reveal that he does not have any favourable view of earthlings?
6. How does Kreton foil General Power’s attempts to confine him?
7. How much advanced is the civilization of Kreton than of the Earth?
GRAMMAR CORRECTION OF ERRORS

Do practice of the following.
1: Ali die in the First World War. 11: The bees get honey from flowers.
2: He was the enemy of war. 12: She is fond for tea.
3: We are now go to the market. 13: He had completed his work yesterday.
4: A honest man is noblest work of God. 14: Amjad is working in this institution for ten
5: He couldn’t saved his mother. years.
6: I shall go to my village in Sunday morning. 15: Birkenhead was a troopship.
7: She is a best student of our class. 16: We are now learn English.
8: It is raining since morning. 17: Children depend for their parents.
9: She is afraid from snake. 18: Nothing grow in a desert.
10: Where you spent your holiday? 19: Sometime it is difficult to live a honest life.
20: She must learned how to drive. 35: I’ve been in America since three months.
21: The English is a difficult language. 36: If I was going to the movies, I would invite
22: A green and a blue bird was caught. you.
23: Where you spent last Sunday? 37: He went five minutes before.
24: He had died of heart failure. 38: Neither Jack nor John has a car.
25: If I will visit London, I will meet you. 39: Neither Jack nor his friends has a car.
26: She is married with an engineer. 40: Neither his friends nor he have a car.
27: I did not saw him yesterday. 41: The thief has ran away.
28: They have sang songs. 42: My father said that the earth moved
29: Each of the cars are fast. around the sun.
30: One of the train is late. 43: I am waiting for you in the office for the
31: The police is coming. last two hours.
32: It is a old television set. 44: I will wait for them, till they will finish
33: She could not decide among the two their work.
shirts. 45: I have completed my project yesterday.
34: Ask him to sit besides me.
GRAMMAR ACTIVE PASSIVE

Change the voice of the following.
1: He plays cricket. 11: He must have paid the loan.
2: Biryani was not cooked by her. 12: Ali was not told the truth by Amna.
3: Will they rule the country? 13: A job was offered to me by him.
4: Is the room being cleaned by you? 14: Let this never be repeated.
5: I was being trained by them. 15: Do not open the window.
6: She has not watered the plants. 16: I am respected here.
7: Had it been done by us? 17: It cannot be bought now.
8: Will he not have won the match? 18: By whom was he trained?
9: We have to teach him. 19: Whom have you killed?
10: It cannot be repaired by them. 20: How much water do they need?
GRAMMAR NARRATION
Do practice of the following.
1: He said, “Life is not an empty dream.”
2: He said to me, “Go away from here.”
3: The peon said to me, “Sir, may I go downstairs and have a talk with my sister?”
4: She said to him, “What a big lie it is!”
5: He said, “Would that I were the owner of this factory!”
6: The teacher said, “Ahmed, stop talking.”
7: I said to her, “Can you help me with the assignment?”
8: They said, “What a hot day!”
9: He said, “I will not come tomorrow as I am not feeling well.”
10: She said to me, “When will you return my book?”
11: “Will you water the plants, please?” she said.
12: “Stop talking,” the teacher said to the students.
13: “Stay in bed for a few days,” the doctor said to me.
14: The leader said, “Alas! I have lost the election.”
15: Grandfather said, “Time is a great healer.”
16: She said, “My father died a year ago.”
17: The officer said to me, “How old are you?”
18: He said, “Old is gold.”
19: The manager said to the peon, “Get out and do not come again.”
20: He said, “May you live long!”
SECTION ‘C’
Q1. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow: OR Make a précis of the
passage and suggest a suitable title to it.
Many people enjoy reading books as a way to relax and escape from the stresses of everyday life.
There are a variety of different genres to choose from, such as romance, mystery, science fiction, and
historical fiction. Some people prefer to read physical books, while others like to read on electronic
devices such as tablets or e-readers. One advantage of e-readers is that they can hold thousands of
books in a single device, making it easy to take your entire library with you wherever you go. However,
some people still prefer the feel of a physical book in their hands and the experience of turning the
pages.
1. What are some popular book genres?
2. What are some ways that people like to read books?
3. What is one advantage of e-readers?
4. Why do some people still prefer physical books?
5. What is the difference between physical books and e-readers?
OR
Exercise is important for maintaining a healthy lifestyle. There are many types of exercises, including
aerobic, strength training, and flexibility exercises. Aerobic exercises are activities that get your heart
rate up, such as running, swimming, or cycling. Strength training exercises help build muscle and
increase bone density, such as weightlifting or resistance band exercises. Flexibility exercises help
improve range of motion and reduce the risk of injury, such as yoga or stretching.
1. Why is exercise important?
2. What are some types of exercises?
3. What are aerobic exercises?
4. What are strength training exercises?
5. What are flexibility exercises?
Q2. Write a formal email principal to Invite him in a seminar or conference on educational or
social issues. Or Complaint or issue resolution related to education or social issues.
Q3. Write a narrative essay on the given topics:

A personal achievement that you are proud of
An experience that changed your perspective on life
A time when you made a difficult decision
A trip that had a profound impact on you
NOTE: Remember that a narrative essay tells a story, so it should include details that engage the
reader and create a vivid picture of the experience you're describing.
OR Write an essay to compare and contrast on any one of the following:
Online shopping vs. traditional shopping
Public schools vs. private schools
Living in the city vs. living in the countryside
Working in a team vs. working independently
Renting vs. owning a home
College education vs. vocational education
Q6. Draft a covering letter with a CV in response to the following advertisement:

Applying for an internship in their desired field
Seeking entry-level positions in a particular industry
Applying for a job in a field that is related to their academic degree
Applying for a job in a field that is not related to their academic degree
Applying for a position in a non-profit or charity organization
XI-SCIENCE (PHYSICS) Page | 13

XI – PHYSICS
CHAPTER 1 THE SCOPE OF PHYSICS
1. [ML²Tˉ³] is the dimension of:
(a) Energy (b) Power (c) Work (d) Momentum
2. The dimension of linear momentum is.
(a) MLTˉ¹ (b) M²L²Tˉ¹ (c) ML²Tˉ¹ (d) MLT²
3. The dimension of power is:
(a) ML2 T - 3 (b) M2 L²T-3 (c) ML²T² (d) M2 L2 Tˉ1
4. The dimensions of “G” is:
(a) M-1 L3 T - 2 (b) M L-²T-3 (c) M-1 L-²T-3 (d) M2 L2 Tˉ1
5. The dimensions of angular momentum are:
(a) MLTˉ2 (b) MLTˉ¹ (c) ML²Tˉ¹ (d) ML2 T
6. The dimensions of kinetic energy are:
(a) 1/2ML2 Tˉ2 (b) 1/2MLTˉ¹ (c) ML-1 T2 (d) ML2 T-2
7. The dimensions of angular velocity are:
(a) T - 1 (b) LT-1 (c) ML2T (d)LT-2
8. The basic unit of luminous intensity is:
(a) W/m2 (b) decibel (c) diopter (d) candela
9. Light year is a unit of:
(a) Energy (b) Time (c) Distance (d) Intensity
10. The dimensions of torque are:
(a) ML2T (b) ML2T -2 (c) ML2T2 (d) MLT-2
11. The dimensions of force is:
(a) MLT (b) MLT-1 (c) MLT2 (d) MLT-2
12. The branch of science which deals with study of the properties of matter and energy and
interaction between them is called ____________.
(a) Physics (b) Chemistry (c) Mathematics (d) None ofthese
13. The branch of modern physics is____________.
(a) Optics (b) Mechanics (c) Nuclear Physics (d) None of these
14. ___________is the branch of physics, which is concerned with structure and properties of
atoms.
(a) Atomic physics (b) Nuclear physics (c) Mechanics (d) None ofthese
15. The branch of physics in which we study about the electric charge either at rest or in motion
is____________.
(a) Electrostatics (b) Electricity (c) Electronics (d) None ofthese
16. __________ physics is concerned with properties of highly ionized atoms.
(a) Atomic (b) Nuclear (c) Plasma (d) None of these
17. __________ is mainly concerned with the motion of bodies under the action of given forces.
(a) Mechanics (b) Optics (c) Magnetism (d) None of these
18. Electronic appliances are in common use due to the research in _____________.
(a) Solid state (b) Electricity (c) Electronics (d) None of these
19. Automobile technology are in common use due to the research in____________.
(a) Atomic physics (b) Thermodynamics (c) optics (d) None of these
20. Ibn-al-Haitham wrote __________ book, which deals with optics.
(a) Qanoon-ul-masoodi (b) Kitab-ul-manazi (c) Al-Shifa (d) None of these
21. ___________ refused the old theory of light, and declared it as a form of energy.
(a) Ibn-al-Haitham (b) Al-Beruni (c) Dr.Abdul Qadeer (d) None of these
22. ___________camera is constructed by Ibn-al-Haitham.
(a) Digital (b) Pinhole (c) Analog (d) None of these
23. __________was the first to give two laws of reflection.
(a) Al-Beruni (b) Nasir-ud-din (c) Ibn-al-Haitham (d) None of these
24. __________ discussed the measurement and shape of earth.
(a) Ibn-al-Haitham (b) Yaqub kindi (c) Al-Beruni (d) None of these
25. _________ discussed the movement of known planets.
(a) Al-Beruni (b) Yaqub kindi (c) Ibn-al-Haitham (d) None of these
26. The book “Qanoon Almosoodi” is written by ___________.
(a) Ibn-al-Haitham (b) Al-Beruni (c) Dr.Abdus salam (d) None of these
27. ____________ gave the method of determining the longitude and latitude of a place.
(a) Al-Beruni (b) Jabir bin Hayan (c) Ibn-al-Haitham (d) None of these
28. Method of counting is introduced by _________.
(a) Nasir-ud-din (b) Khwarzami (c) Yaqub kindi (d) None of these
29. __________ prepared precise and accurate tables about the planetary motion.
(a) Nasir-ud-din (b) Al-Beruni (c) Dr.Abdus Salam (d)None of these
30. The famous book Al-Shifa was written by the Muslim scientist ____________.
(a) Ibn-e-Sina (b) Ibn-al-Haitham (c) Abu-Rehan-al-Beruni (d) None of these
31. __________ was awarded Nobel Prize in Physics for his work on Grand Unification Theory (GUT).
(a) Dr.Abdul Qadeer (b) Dr.Abdus Salam (c) Al-Beruni (d) None of these
32. Laws of Reflection and Refraction are given by ___________.
(a) Al-Razi (b) Al-Beruni (c) Ibn-ul-Haitham (d) Ibn-e-Sina
33. The famous book Kitab-ul-Qanoon Masoodi was written by _________.
(a) Al Beruni (b) Al Battni (c) Al Masoodi (d) Al kindi
34. Which of the following was written by Ibn-ul-Haitham?
(a) Kitab-ul-Manazir (b) Kitab Qanoon-ul-Masoodi
(c) Al-shifa (d) Al Qanoon-Fil-Tib
35. Kitab-ul-manazir was written by ___________.
(a) Ibn-ul-Haitham (b) Al-Beruni (c) Ibn-e-Sina (d) Al-Razi
36. The noble prize in physics was awarded to this Pakistani scientist:
(a) Dr. Abdul Qadeer khan (b) Dr. Saleem uz zaman Siddiqui
(c) Dr. Abdus salam (d) Dr. samar mubarak mand
37. Intravenons injection by means of silver syringe was initially used by:
(a) Ibn-e-sin (b) Omer Khayyam (c) Al-Beruni (d) Jabir bin Hayyan
38. Units used to express fundamental quantities are called ______________.
(a) Fundamental units (b) Derived units (c) SI Units (d) None of these
39. Units are derived from fundamental units are called_____________ .
(a) Fundamental units (b) Derived units (c) Physical Units (d) None of these
40. A set of fundamental and derived units is called _________.
(a) Power set (b) System of unit (c) Derived unit (d) None of these
41. S.I Stands for ____________.
(a) System of information (b) Standard Information
(c) System international (d) None of these
42. In the British Engineering System the unit of length is_________ and the unit of mass is.
(a) Foot, slug (b) metre,kilogram (c) both a and b (d) None of these
43. The multiples (Large) units are obtained by ___________.
(a) Adding (b) Multiplying (c) Dividing (d) None of these
44. The submultiples (Small) units are obtained by___________.
(a) Subtracting (b) Multiplying (c) Dividing (d) None of these
45. Fundamental units are called units.
(a) Derived (b) Basic (c) S.I (d) None of these
46. 5 minutes = ___________ seconds.
(a) 50 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) 700
47. 30 seconds = __________minutes.
(a) 5 (b) 0.5 (c) 2 (d) None of these
48. 2 years = __________ minutes.
(a) 63072000 (b) 68273000 (c) 60000000 (d) 1051200
49. 1 century = __________hours.
(a) 678000 (b) 768000 (c) 876000 (d) 523000
50. 500mg = ___________kg.
(a) 5x10-1 (b) 5x10-4 (c) 5x10-6 (d) None of these
51. 2kg = _____________g.
(a) 0.5 (b) 200 (c) 1000 (d) 2000
52. 1 cm =_______ mm.
(a) 0.1 (b) 10 (c) 100 (d) 1000
53. Total number of fundamental units is.
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 10
54. 1 Decametre (Dm) = ___________ m.
(a) 10 (b) 10-1 (c) 102 (d) 105
55. 1 Gigametre (Gm) = ____________m.
(a) 106 (b) 109 (c) 1012 (d) 1015
56. 1 milimetre (mm) = ____________m.
(a) 10-3 (b) 103 (c) 105 (d) 10-5
57. 1 micrometre (𝜇𝑚) = ___________m.
(a) 10-3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-12
58. 1 nanometre (nm) = ____________m.
(a) -3 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-9 (d) 10-12
59. 1 metre = __________ mm (milimetre).
(a) 103 (b) 10-3 (c) 10-1 (d) 10
60. 1 metre = ______ pm (pecometre).
(a) 103 (b) 105 (c) 1012 (d) 10
61. 1 metre = ______ Hm (Hectometre).
(a) 10-1 (b) 10-2 (c) 102 (d) 10
62. 1 metre = ____________ km (kilometre).
(a) 103 (b) 10-3 (c) 10-1 (d) 10
63. Random error is also called __________ error.
(a) Instrumental (b) Accidental (c) both (d) None of these
64. If we reduce the errors, then __________ will be increased.
(a) Accuracy (b) Efficiency (c) Result (d) None of these
65. We can increase the accuracy by taking the of a large member of readings of the same
measurement.
(a) Sum (b) Difference (c) Average (d) None of these
66. The fundamental physical quantities which form the bases for MKS system are:
(a) Mass, Length, Force (b) Force, Length, Time (c) Mass, Length, Time (d) None of these
67. Metre, kilogram, second, ampere, Kelvin, candela and mole are the seven basic units in the
system called_______.
(a) MKS (b) SI (c) CGS (d) None of these
68. Candela is the unit of ___________.
(a) Force (b) Luminous Intensity (c) Mass (d) Velocity
69. The dimensions of acceleration are _________.
(a) LT-1 (b) LT-2 (c) L-1T-2 (d) None of these
70. The dimensions of force are_________.
(a) MLT-3 (b) MLT-2 (c) M-1L-1T (d) None of these
71. The dimensions of angular velocity are_________.
(a) T-1 (b) LT-1 (c) ML2T-1 (d) LT-2
72. The dimensions of “G” are_________.
(a) M-1L3T-2 (b) ML-2T-3 (c) M-1L-2T-3 (d) None of these
73. The dimensions of angular momentum are_________.
(a) L2M2T2 (b) L2M2T (c) L2MT (d) L2MT-1
(a) ML-2T-3 (b) M-1L-2T3 (c) M-1L3T-2 (d) M-1L2T2
75. The dimensions of torque are_________.
(a) ML2T (b) ML2T-2 (c) ML2T2 (d) MLT-2
(a) ML-1T (b) ML-2T3 (c) M-1L3T-2 (d) ML2T-2
(a) ML-1T (b) ML-2T3 (c) M-1L3T-2 (d) ML2T-2
78. The dimensions of angular velocity are:
(a) MPoT-1 (b) MLoT-2 (c) MoLoT-1 (d) MoLoT-2
79. The dimension of G/g are:
(a) MoL1T-2 (b) M1L2T-2 (c) M-1L2T2 (d) M-1L2To
80. The number 860.040 has_________.
(a) 3 significant figures (b) 4 significant figures
(c) 6significant figures (d) None of these
81. The number of significant figures in all the given number are________. 25.12, 4.156, 1.257x10-4.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) None of these
82. The number 0.00089 should be expressed in significant notation as_________.
(a) 89 (b) 89x10-5 (c) 8.9x10-4 (d) None of these
5
83. The number 9.40x10 has_________.
(a) 1 significant figures (b) 2significant figures
(c) 3 significant figures (d) None of these
84. For the quantity 0.121203, the number of significant figures is_________.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 7
85. The number of significant figures in 2.050x106 is_________.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
4
86. The number of significant figures in 1.20x10 are:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7
87. For the quantity 0.121203, the number of significant figures is_________.
(a) 3 (b) 4 c) 6 (d) 7
88. The number 860.040 has significant figures.
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
89. The number of significant figures in 2.050x106 is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
90. The number of significant figures in 0.005040 is:
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
3
91. The number of significant figures in 0.005040x10 :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7
92. The number of significant figures in 7.050x10-2 is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
93. The products of two numbers 5.642 and 4.71 in the prospective significant number is:
(a) 26.57382 (b) 26.574 (c) 26.6 (d) 26.5738
94. The number of significant figures in 1.6x10-19 is_________.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6
SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

1. Show that the following formulae are dimensionally correct:
𝐹𝑋𝑙
(a) V = f λ (b) T = 2𝜋√𝑚𝑘 (c) f =1/2l √ 𝑚
2. Give the dimensions of the following quantities:
a) Torque
b) Angular momentum
c) Pressure
d) K.E
CHAPTER 2 SCALAR AND VECTORS

1. (𝑖̂ x 𝑗̂) ∙ 𝑘̂ is equal to.
(a) Zero (b) 𝑗̂ (c) -𝑘̂ (d) 1
2. The vector which can be applied at any point and displaced parallel to itself is known as:
(a) Free vector (b) Position vector (c) Null vector (d) Unit vector
3. Two parallel vectors of magnitudes 4 units and 3 units are added the resultant vector has the
magnitude of:
(a) 5units (b) 7units (c) 9units (d) 11units
4. If a vector is divided by its own magnitude, the resultant vector will be:
(a) Null vector (b) Unit vector (c) Equal vector (d) Parallel vector
5. The Dot-product of Force and Velocity is:
(a) Work (b) Power (c) Momentum (d) Energy
⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
6. If 𝐴.𝐵 = 0 and 𝐴 x 𝐵 = 0 and |A| ≠ 0, then the vector 𝐵 is: ⃗⃗
(a) Equal to A (b) Zero of magnitude (c) Perpendicular to A (d) Parallel to A
7. The Dot-product of unit vectors 𝑖̂ and 𝑗̂ is:
(a) -1 (b) 𝑗̂ (c) Zero (d) 1
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 0
8. If two forces of same magnitude |𝐹| makes an angle of 180 with each other than their resultant
force is:
(a) 2F (b) Zero (c) 0.5F (d) F
9. Power is the scalar product of.
(a) Force and displacement (b) Force and velocity
(c) Force and acceleration (d) None of these
10. (𝑖̂ × 𝑗̂)is equal to:
(a) Zero (b) One (c)k̂ (d) – ̂𝑘
︢
11. If 𝐴⃗ = a i and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ = bĵ , then 𝐴⃗ x 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is equal to:
⃗⃗
(a) 0 ⃗⃗ (b) ab𝑘 ̂ (c) –ab𝑘̂ ``` (d) None of these
12. Two forces act together on an object, the magnitude of their resultant is found minimum when
the angle between them is:
(a) 0o (b) 45o (c) 90o (d) 180O
13. If 𝐴⃗.𝐵 ⃗⃗ = 0, and |𝐴|⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ≠ 0, then Vector 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is equal to:
(a) Equal to 𝐴⃗ (b) Zero (c) Perpendicular to 𝐴⃗ (d) Anti parallel to 𝐴⃗
̂
14. The magnitude of product, 𝑘 . (𝑗̂ × 𝑖̂) 𝑖𝑠:
(a) zero (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) |𝑘̂|
15. If 𝑖̂, 𝑗̂ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑘̂ 𝑎𝑟𝑒 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡 𝑣𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑠, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑘̂ . (𝑖̂ × 𝑗̂) 𝑖𝑠 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑜:
(a) One (b) zero (c) 𝑗̂ (d) 𝑘̂
16. (𝑖̂ × 𝑗̂) . (𝑗̂ × 𝑖̂) is:
(a) Zero (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) ̂𝑘
17. The sum of two or more vectors is called_________.
(a) Sum of vector (b) Addition of vector (c) Resultant vector (d) None of these
18. If a vector is resolve into its components such that the components make an angle of90owith each
other, then these components are known as_________.
(a) Horizontal components (b) Vertical component
(c) Rectangular Components (d) None of these
19. When two equal and opposite vectors are added then their resultant willhave_________.
(a) Same magnitude (b) Zero magnitude (c) Double magnitude (d) None ofthese
20. If a vector of 10N lies along x-axis then its y-component will be________.
(a) 5N (b) Zero (c) 10N (d) None of these
21. A force of 5N is acting along y-axis its component along x-axis will be________.
(a) 7N (b) 10N (c) Zero (d) None of these
22. A vector whose tail lies at the origin of the co-ordinates and whose head lies at theposition of
point “p” in space known as________.
(a) Parallel vector (b) position vector (c) fixed vector (d) None of these
23. Unit vector can be obtain by________.
A⃗ |A⃗|
(a) |A⃗| (b) A⃗
(c) 𝐴⃗|𝐴⃗| (d) None of these
24. A vector whose magnitude is unity in a particular direction is called____________.
(a) Null vector (b) component vector (c) unit vector (d) None of these
25. A vector whose magnitude is zero is called__________.
(a) Null vector (b) Unit vector (c) Parallel vector (d) None of these
26. The vectors that are different in magnitude but same in direction are called__________.
(a) Null vector (b) Equal vector (c) Parallel vector (d) None of these
27. Two vectors which are equal both in magnitude and direction are called____________.
(a) Equal vector (b) Parallel vector (c) Negative vector (d) None of these
28. Vector 𝐴⃗ has the same magnitude as 𝐵⃗⃗ and opposite in the direction is called_________.
(a) Normal vector (b) Negative vector (c) Unit vector (d) None of these
29. The scalar product of two vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵⃗ is written as___________.
(a) 𝐴⃗.𝐵⃗=𝐴𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (b)⃗.𝐵⃗=𝐴𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 (c) 𝐴⃗.𝐵⃗=𝐴𝐵𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 (d) None of these
30. 𝐴⃗.𝐵⃗=0 if the angle between 𝐴⃗ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵⃗ is___________.
(a) 0o (b) 90o (c) 180o (d) None of these
31. 𝐴⃗.𝐵⃗=𝐵⃗.𝐴⃗ shows that scalar product is__________.
(a) Distributive (b) Commutative (c) Associative (d) None of these
32. 𝐴⃗.(𝐵⃗+𝐶⃗⃗)=𝐴⃗.𝐵⃗+𝐴⃗.𝐶⃗⃗ suggests that scalar product is___________.
(a) Distributive (b) Commutative (c) Associative (d) None of these
33. 𝑗̂.𝑖̂ is equal to__________.
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) -k (d) None of these
34. 𝐴⃗.𝐵⃗=𝐴𝐵 if the angle between 𝐴⃗ 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵⃗ is__________.
35. When the product of two vectors is a scalar then the product is called____________.
(a) Cross product (b) Scalar product (c) Vector product (d) None of these
36. Which one is the scalar product:
(a) Torque (b) Angular momentum (c) Work and Power (d) None of these
37. 𝐴⃗.𝐴⃗ is equal to_________.
(a) 0 (b) A2 (c) 2A (d) None of these
38. The scalar product of two vectors is negative when___________.
(a) They are perpendicular (b) They are anti-parallel
(c) They parallel (d) None of these
39. The cross product of vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is written as________.
⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗
(a) 𝐴 × 𝐵 = 𝐴𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (b) 𝐴 × 𝐵 = 𝐴𝐵𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃𝑢̂ ⃗⃗ (c) 𝐴⃗ × 𝐵 ⃗⃗ = 𝐴𝐵𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 (d) None of these
40. According to cross product:
(a) 𝐴⃗ × 𝐴⃗ = 𝐴⃗ (b) 𝐴⃗ × 𝐴⃗ = 𝐴2 (c) 𝐴⃗ × 𝐴⃗ = 0 (d) None of these
⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗
41. 𝐴 × 𝐵 = 0 if the angle between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is________. ⃗⃗
42. When the product of two vectors gives us a vector quantity then the product iscalled________.
(a) Cross product (b) Scalar product (c) Dot product (d) None of these
43. Which one is the vector product:
(a) Torque (b) Work (c) Power (d) None of these
⃗ ⃗⃗
44. 𝐴 × 𝐵 = 𝐴𝐵 𝑢 ⃗ ⃗⃗
̂ if the angle between 𝐴 and 𝐵 is________.
45. If two vectors lie in xy-plane then their cross product lies________.
(a) Along perpendicular to that plane (b) Adjacent plan
(c) In the same plane (d) None of these
46. When we take cross product of two vectors 𝐴 and 𝐵 ⃗ ⃗⃗ then which statement is true:
(a) ⃗A⃗ × ⃗B⃗ = ⃗B⃗ × ⃗A⃗ (b) ⃗A⃗ × ⃗B⃗ = −A ⃗⃗ × ⃗B⃗ (c) ⃗A⃗ × ⃗B⃗ = −B
⃗⃗ × ⃗A⃗ (d) None of these
47. The cross product of two vectors is a negative vector, when the vectorsare .
(a) Parallel to each other (b) Anti-parallel to each other
(c) Rotated through270o (d) None of these
48. The cross product of two vectors is zero when________.
(a) They are at right angle to each other (b) They are at an angle 120o
(c) They are parallel to each other (d) None of these
⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗
49. The magnitude of 𝐴 × 𝐵, if the vectors 𝐴 and 𝐵 represent two adjacent sided of parallelogram is
equal to area of________.
(a) Rectangle (b) Square (c) Parallelogram (d) None of these
50. If A⃗⃗ and B ⃗⃗ are two vectors, which of the following is correct?
(a) A ⃗⃗. B
⃗⃗ = B⃗⃗. A ⃗⃗ (b) A ⃗⃗ × B⃗⃗ = B
⃗⃗ × A ⃗⃗ (c) A⃗⃗. B⃗⃗ = −B ⃗⃗
⃗⃗. A
51. If A⃗⃗. B⃗⃗ = 0 and A ⃗⃗ × B⃗⃗ = 0,then
⃗⃗
(a) A and B ⃗⃗ are parallel to each other (b) ⃗A⃗ and B ⃗⃗ are perpendicular to each other
⃗⃗ ⃗
(c) At least A or B is a null ⃗
52. If ⃗A⃗ and ⃗B⃗ are two vectors, then:
(a) ⃗A⃗. ⃗B⃗ = ⃗B⃗. ⃗A⃗ (b) ⃗A⃗. ⃗B⃗ = −B⃗⃗. ⃗A⃗ (c) ⃗A⃗ × ⃗B⃗ = ⃗B⃗ × ⃗A⃗ (d) none of these
53. 𝑘̂(𝑖̂.𝑗̂) has value:
(a) Zero (b) One (c) ĵ (d) k̂
54. 𝑗̂ × 𝑗̂ is equal to:
(a) j2 (b) j (c) 1 (d) Zero
⃗⃗ = 0 when a⃗⃗ ≠ 0, b
55. If a⃗⃗. b ⃗⃗ ≠ 0, then the vectors are:
(a) Parallel (b) Opposite (c) Perpendicular (d) none of these
⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗⃗
56. If A. B = 0 and A × B = 0 and A ≠ 0, the vector B is: ⃗⃗
(a) Equal to A ⃗⃗ (b) Zero (c) Perpendicular to A ⃗⃗ (d) Parallel to A ⃗⃗
57. The area of parallelogram formed by two vectors 𝐴⃗ and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ is given by:
(a) ½ (A ⃗⃗. B
⃗⃗) (b)|A ⃗⃗ × B⃗⃗| (c) ½ |A ⃗⃗ × B
⃗⃗| (d) |A ⃗⃗. B
⃗⃗|
58. Two perpendicular vectors having magnitude 4 units and 3 units are added. Theirresultant has the
magnitude of:
(a) 7 units (b) 12 units (c) 25 units (d) 5 units
59. If i, j, k are the unit vectors along x, y, z axes respectively then, k x j =
(a) −î (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) î
⃗⃗ ⃗⃗ ̂ ⃗⃗
60. If A = 5î + ĵ and B = 2k then A − B is equal to: ⃗⃗
(a) ⃗A⃗ = 5î + ĵ + 2̂k (b) ⃗A⃗ = 5î – ĵ – 2̂k (c) ⃗A⃗ = 5î + ĵ – 2̂k (d) ⃗A⃗ = −5î − ĵ + 2̂k
61. The y-component of vector |𝐴⃗|=15 units when it forms an angle of 50o with positivex-axis is:
(a) 9.6 units (b) -9.6 units (c) 11.5 units (d) -11.5 units
62. The magnitude of product 𝑘. (𝑗̂ × 𝑖̂) is: ̂
(a) Zero (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) |k̂|
63. The magnitude of the resultant of two forces of magnitudes 5N and 10N cannot be:
(a) 4N (b) 6N (c) 9N (d) 13N

1) Two vectors ⃗⃗⃗⃗ A and ⃗B⃗ are such that |A| ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 4, |B|
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 6 and ⃗⃗⃗⃗
A . ⃗B⃗= 8; find; (i) The angle between ⃗A⃗ & ⃗B⃗
(ii) The magnitude |𝐴⃗-𝐵 ⃗⃗|
2) Two sides of a triangle are found by vector A ⃗⃗ = 3î + 6Ĵ – 2k̂, and B ⃗⃗ = 4î – Ĵ + 3k̂, determine the area
of the triangle.
3) Prove that |𝐴⃗ × 𝐵 ⃗⃗|2 + (𝐴⃗. 𝐵 ⃗⃗)2 = A2 B2
4) Determine a unit vector perpendicular to the plane containing A ̅ &B ̅ = 2 î - 3ĵ - k̂&B
̅ if A ̂ = î + 4ĵ - 2k̂
5) 𝐴⃗ = 3 i︢ + j︢ -2k︢ and 𝐵⃗⃗ = - i+︢ 3 j︢ + 4𝑘⃗⃗. Find the projection of vector, 𝐴⃗ onto vector, 𝐵 ⃗⃗
6) Two vectors ⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝐴 and 𝐵 ⃗⃗ are such that |𝐴| ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 4, |𝐵|
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 6 and ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐴 .𝐵 ⃗⃗= 13.5; find the magnitude of difference
of vectors and the angle between ⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝐴 and 𝐵 ⃗⃗?
SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS
1) Show that the cross product of a vector is not commutative -𝐵̅ x 𝐴̅ = 𝐴̅ x 𝐵̅ and prove that the
magnitude of cross product of two vectors gives the area of a parallelogram.
2) Describe the addition of vector by rectangular component method.
3) Define scalar and vector products and give an example of each. show that:
a) 𝐴⃗ x 𝐵 ⃗⃗ ≠ 𝐵⃗⃗ x𝐴⃗
b) 𝐴 (𝐵 + 𝐶⃗ ) = 𝐴⃗𝐵
⃗ ⃗⃗ ⃗ ⃗⃗ + 𝐴⃗ .𝐶⃗⃗
c) 𝐴⃗ . 𝐵⃗⃗ = 𝐵⃗⃗ .𝐴⃗
CHAPTER 3 MOTION
1. Equation F= 6πηrv represents.
(a) Stokes law (b) Bragg’s law (c) Hook’s law (d) Newton’s law
2. Stokes law for fluid friction is given by;
(a) F = 6πηr2v (b) F = 6πηrv (c) F = 4πηrv (d) F = πrv
3. In stokes law vicious force is not proportional to;
(a) Coefficient of viscosity (b) Radius of sphere
(c) Terminal velocity (d) Mass of the sphere
4. Acceleration of an object moving down a frictionless inclined plane of 300 slope is;
(a) 4.9m/s2 (b) 9.8m/s2 (c) 980m/s2
5. The unit of linear momentum is:
(a) N/S (b) N-S (c)J/S
6. When a body slides over a surface the kinetic friction fk and static friction fs are related:
(a) fk < fs (b) fs >fk (c) fk = 0 (d) fs = 0
7. Stokes law holds good for the:
(a) Bodies of all shapes (b) Motion through viscous medium
(c) Motion through a vacuum (d) Motion through non viscous medium
8. If ‘F’ be the limiting friction and ‘R’ the normal reaction, then co-efficient of static friction ‘µ’ is:
𝐹 𝑅 1
(a) µ= (b) µ= (c) µ= FR (d) µ=
𝑅 𝐹 𝐹𝑅
9. The property of fluids due to which they resist their flow is called:
(a) Static friction (b) Coefficient of friction (c) Viscosity (d) Terminal velocity
10. When a constant force is applied on a body, it moves with:
(a) constant speed (b)constant velocity (c) constant acceleration (d)none
11. If a body continuously changes its position with respect to the surrounding it is said to bein .
(a) Equilibrium (b) Rest (c) Motion (d) None of these
12. The change of position of a body in a particular direction is called .
(a) Distance (b) Displacement (c) Velocity (d) None of these
13. The distance covered in unit time is called .
(a) Speed (b) Acceleration (c) Velocity (d) None of these
14. A body with uniform velocity has .
(a) Infinite acceleration (b) Negative acceleration
(c) Zero acceleration (d) None of these
15. If the values of instantaneous and average velocity are equal. Then the body is said to be moving
with .
(a) Uniform acceleration (b) Uniform speed
(c) Uniform velocity (d) None of these
16. The rate of change of position of a body when time interval is ∆𝑡 → 0, is said to be .
(a) Average velocity (b) Variable velocity (c) Instantaneous velocity (d) None of these
17. If the distance time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then it means that .
(a) The body is moving with uniform velocity
(b) The body is moving with uniform acceleration
(c) The body is at rest (d) None of these
18. If the velocity time graph is a straight line parallel to time axis then it means that .
(a) The body is moving with uniform velocity
(b) The body is moving with uniform acceleration
(b) The body is at rest (d) None of these
19. If a distance time graph is a curve then the body is said to be moving with .
(a) Constant velocity (b) uniform velocity (c) Variable velocity (d) None of these
20. If the velocity time graph is a straight line then its gradient represents .
(a) Uniform acceleration (b) Variable acceleration
(c) Both (d) None of these
21. Newton’s first law is also called .
(a) Law of torque (b) law of force (c) law of inertia (d) None of these
22. Action and reaction of two bodies upon each other are .
(a) Equal in magnitude and in the same direction
(b) Different in magnitude but opposite in direction
(c)Equal in magnitude but opposite in direction (d) None of these
23. Newton’s second law states that:
(a) Acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the applied force
(b) For constant force acceleration of a body is inversely proportional to its mass
(c) Force is equal to the rate of change of linear momentum
(d) All of these
24. When an object is suspended by string. The force that acts along the string but opposite in direction
to the weight is called .
(a) Frictional force (b) Tension (c) Gravitational force (d) None of these
25. The direction of tension depends upon .
(a) The point where the string is connected (b) Any point on the string
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
26. Magnitude of tension at all points on a string is .
(a) Different (b) Remains constant (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
27. When two bodies moves vertically (m >m
1 2 ) then:
𝑚 𝑔
(a) a = ( 1 ) 𝑇 = ( 𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑔 ) 𝑚 −𝑚
(b) a = ( 1 2 ) g T= ( 1 2 )
2𝑚 𝑚 𝑔
𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑚1 +𝑚2
𝑚 𝑔 𝑚1 −𝑚2
(c) 𝑎 = ( 1 ) T= ( )g (d) None of these
𝑚1 +𝑚2 𝑚1 +𝑚2
28. When one body m1 moves vertically and the other body m2 moves horizontally on a smooth
surface, then:
𝑚1 𝑔
(a) a = (𝑚 +𝑚 ) 𝑇 = (𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑔 ) 𝑚 −𝑚 2𝑚 𝑚 𝑔
(b) a = (𝑚1 +𝑚2 ) g T= ( 𝑚 1+𝑚2 )
1 2 𝑚 +𝑚 1 2 1 2 1 2
𝑚1 𝑔 𝑚 −𝑚
(c) 𝑎 = (𝑚 +𝑚 ) T= (𝑚1 +𝑚2 ) g (d) None of these
1 2 1 2
29. The product of mass and velocity of a body is called .
(a) Momentum (b) Force (c) Impulse (d) None of these
30. The quantity of motion is also called .
(a) Velocity (b) Momentum (c) Force (d) None of these
31. Force is equal to the rate of change of momentum is the alternate definition of .
(a) Newton’s 1st law of motion (b) Newton’s 2nd law of motion
(c) Newton’s 3rd law of motion (d) None of these
32. The product of force and time is called .
(a) Change in Momentum (b) Impulse
(c) Both A and B (d) None of these
33. According to law of conservation of momentum:
(a) m1u1-m1v1=m2v2-m2u2 (b) m1u1-m2u2=m1v1-m2v2
34. When the number of bodies are such that they can exert force upon one another but no external
agency exerts force on them. They are said to be .
(a) An inertial frame of reference (b) An isolated system
(c) A non-inertial frame of reference (d) None of these
35. The collision in which KE is conserved but momentum is not conserved is called .
(a) Elastic collision (b) Inelastic collision (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
36. A collision in which total momentum as well as total KE is conserved is called .
37. When a bullet is fired from a gun the total momentum of the system after firing is .
(a) Equal to the momentum of the bullet only (b) Equal to the momentum of the riffle only
(c) Equal to the momentum of the system before firing
(d) None of these
38. A collision in which momentum is conserved but KE is not conserved is known as .
39. Two spheres of unequal masses m1 and m2 are moving with the initial velocities u1 and u2 in the
same direction collide elastically, their velocities after collision v1 and v2 are;
𝑚1 −𝑚2 2𝑚2 2𝑚2 𝑚2 −𝑚1
(a) a = (𝑚 +𝑚 ) 𝑢1 + (𝑚 +𝑚 ) 𝑢2 , 𝑣2 = (𝑚 +𝑚 ) 𝑢1 + (𝑚 +𝑚 ) 𝑢2
1 2 1 2 1 2 2 2
𝑚 +𝑚 2𝑚1 2𝑚1 𝑚 −𝑚
(b) a = (𝑚 −𝑚 ) 𝑢1 + (𝑚
1 2
) 𝑢2 , 𝑣2 = (𝑚 ) 𝑢1 + (𝑚2 +𝑚1 ) 𝑢2
1 2 1 +𝑚2 1 +𝑚2 1 2
40. When two bodies of equal masses collides elastically and one body is at rest after collision.
(a) Both move with the same velocity
(b) The first body comes to rest and the other body moves with same velocity as that of first body.
41. If two bodies of equal masses are moving in the same direction and collide elastically, then their
velocities after collision:
(a) Are added (b) Do not change (c) Are exchanged (d) None of these
42. If a body whose mass is much less than a body at rest then it bounces back with .
(a) Same velocity (b) Double velocity (c) Half of the velocity (d) None of these
43. When the mass of colliding body is much larger than the mass of the body at rest its velocity after
collision________.
(a) Becomes half (b) Becomes zero (c) Becomes double (d) None of these
44. The force of friction is always in the direction to that of the applied force.
(a) Parallel (b) Opposite (c) Same (d) None of these
45. The maximum value of force of friction is known as .
(a) Static friction (b) Limiting friction (c) Sliding friction (d) None of these
46. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction acting between two surfaces in contact iscalled
.
(a) Coefficient of static friction (b) Coefficient viscosity
(c) Coefficient of dynamic friction (d) None of these
47. Rolling friction is than sliding friction.
(a) Greater (b) Equal (c) Less (d) None of these
48. The angle between the force of friction and the instantaneous velocity of a body moving over
roughsurface is.
(a) 90 o (b) 45o (c) 180o (d) None of these
49. If a body moves downward a slope of inclination 𝜃 with friction f the force on it is .
(a) mgsin 𝜃-f=ma (b) f-mgsin 𝜃=ma (c) mgsin 𝜃+f=ma (d) None of these
50. If a body moves upward a slope of inclination 𝜃 with friction f the force on it is .
(a) mgsin 𝜃-f=ma (b) f-mgsin 𝜃=ma (c) mgsin 𝜃+f=ma (d) None of these
51. If a block slides down and friction is negligible (f=0) then acceleration on an inclined planeis .
(a) a =gsin 𝜃 (b) a=-gsin 𝜃 (c) a =-gcos 𝜃 (d) None of these
52. when a body moves on an inclined plane it is acted upon by .
(a) One force (b) Two forces (c) Four Forces (d) None of these
53. On a frictionless inclined plane a heavy body and light body moves with the .
(a) Same acceleration (b) Different acceleration
54. A rain drop continues to fall with a uniform velocity when:
(a) Its weight is balanced by air friction.
(b) Its weight is balanced by air friction and upthrust
(c) Its weight is balanced by upthrust. (d) none of these
55. When a body thrown vertically upwards, it is a case of:
(a) Free fall motion (b) Projectile motion (c) Under gravity motion
56. As a result of constant unbalanced force a body moves with:
(a) Uniform velocity (b) Uniform speed
(c) Uniform acceleration (d) Variable acceleration
57. In an inelastic collision:
(a) Kinetic energy is conserved but momentum is not conserved
(b) Momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not conserved
(c) Both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved
(d) Neither kinetic energy nor momentum is conserved.
58. A 1kg stone when falling a height of 10m, strikes the ground.
(a) 10m/s (b) 14m/s (c) 98m/s (d) 196m/s
59. A car travelling at 65km/h north turns west without a change in speed. the car is moving with:
(a) Uniform velocity (b) Acceleration (c) Average velocity (d) None of these
60. The dimension of linear momentum are:
(a) MLT-1 (b) ML2T-1 (c) MLT-2 (d) M2L2T-1
61. If a light object collides elastically with a massive body which is at rest, the light object will:
(a) Rebound with the same velocity (b) Be stopped
(c) Rebound with twice the velocity (d) cause the massive body to move
62. How many metre(s) will a 20kg ball, starting from rest, fall freely in one second:
(a) 19.6m (b) 9.8m (c) 4.0m (d) 4.9m
63. When a body moves vertically upward, the work done will be:
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) Double
64. The acceleration of a body moving down a frictionless plane inclined at 30 degree will be:
(a) 4.9m/sec2 (b) 9.9m/sec2 (c) 98m/sec2 (d) 10m/sec2
65. A one kilogram stone, falling freely from height of 10metre, strikes the ground with velocity of:
(a) 14m/s (b) 10m/s (c) 98m/s (d) 19.6m/s
66. A body fall freely, the distance covered by it in 2 sec is:
(a) 9.8m (b) 19.6m (c) 19.2 (d) 100m
67. If the velocity of a body is decreasing, the direction of acceleration is:
(a) In the direction of velocity (b) opposite in the direction of velocity
(c) perpendicular to the direction of velocity (d) 60o in the direction of velocity
68. Kinetic friction is always:
(a) Greater than static friction (b) equal to static friction
(c) Less than static friction (d) zero
69. A bus of weight 30000N is moving with uniform velocity of 14m/s. its acceleration is:
(a) 14ms-2 (b) zero (c) 7ms-2 (d) 9.8ms-2
70. An object is falling through a viscous fluid with terminal velocity, its velocity:
(a) Is decreasing (b) is increasing (c) remains constant (d) become zero
71. If the time interval is very small (∆𝑡 → 0),the rate of change of velocity of a body is called:
(a) Average acceleration (b) acceleration
(c) Instantaneous acceleration (d) constant acceleration
1. Derive an expression for the acceleration of a body of mass ‘m’ moving down a plane of inclination
θ having the friction ‘f’:
2. State & prove the law of conservation of linear momentum.
3. A 150 gm bullet is fired from a 15 kg gun with a speed of 1,000 m/s. what is the speed of the recoil
of the gun?
4. A helicopter weight 3920 N.
a. Calculate the force on it if is ascending vertically at a rate of 2 m/sec2
b. What will be the force on the helicopter if it is moving up vertically with the constant speed of 4
m/sec.
5. It is observed that all bodies sliding down a frictionless inclined plane have the same acceleration.
How does it happen? Explain.
6. A 100g bullet is fired a 10 kg gun with a speed of 1000m/s. what is speed of recoil of the gun?
7. What is meant by an isolated system? Prove that the linear momentum of two intersecting bodies
is conserved in an isolated system.
8. Define tension in string. Derive the expression for the acceleration of two vertically moving bodies
connected to the ends of a string which passes over a frictionless pulley. When M > m.
9. A wooden block having 10 kg mass is suspended by a long cord that can swing as a pendulum. A 50
gram bullet is fired which lodges itself into the block. Due to the impact, the centre of gravity of
the block is raised by 10 cm. what was the initial speed of the bullet?
SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTION
1. Two bodies of unequal masses are attached to the ends of a string which passes over frictionless
pulley. If one body moves vertically downward and the second body moves horizontally on a
smooth horizontal surface. Derive the expression for tension in the string and acceleration of the
bodies.
2. Give the difference between elastic collision and inelastic collision. Two spheres of unequal
masses A and B moving with the initial velocities U1 and U2 in the same direction collide elastically.
Derive the relation for their final velocities V1 and V2.
CHAPTER 4 MOTION IN TWO DIMENSION

1. An angle subtended at its centre by an arc whose length is double to that of its radius is:
(a) 84.3o (b) 57.3o (c) 114.6o (d) 168.6o
2. Centripetal force is also called:
(a) centre-seeking force (b) tangential force (c) none
3. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 300 with the horizontal having a certain initial velocity. It will
have the same range if thrown with the same velocity as before at an angle of:
(a) 450 (b) 600 (c) 750 (d) 150
4. An angle subtended at its centre by an arc whose length is equal to its radius is:
(a) 37.3 (b) 47.3 (c) 57.3 (d) 67.3
5. The work done by the centripetal forces ‘F’ on a body moving in a circle is zero because:
(a) The body moves parallel to F (b) The body moves opposite to F
(c) The body moves at right angle to F
(d) The centripetal and centrifugal force balance each other.
6. A body moving along a circular path with an increasing speed possesses.
(a) Tangential acceleration only (b) Both tangential and centripetal acceleration
(c) No acceleration (d) Centripetal acceleration only
7. The unit of angular velocity is:
(a) Radian/cm (b) Meter/sec (c) Radian/sec (d) Radian/sec2
8. A cyclist cycling around a circular racing track skids because:
(a) The centripetal force upon him is less than the limiting friction
(b) The centripetal force upon him is greater than the limiting friction
(c) The centripetal force upon him is equal to the limiting friction
(d) None of them
9. When the angular velocity of a disk increases, angular acceleration α and angular velocity ω are:
(a) Parallel (b) Non Parallel (c) Perpendicular (d)None of these
10. One radian is equal to:
(a) 0.00170 (b) 57.30 (c) 35.70 (d) 0.1170
11. A body moving along a circumference of a circle, complete two revolution. If the radius of the
circle is R, the ratio of its displacement to the covered path will be.
(a) zero (b) 𝜋𝑅 (c) 2𝜋𝑅 (d) 4𝜋𝑅
12. The angular speed of the minute hand of a clock is:
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
(a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 1800 (d) 3600
13. A projectile is fired at an angle 𝜃 with the horizontal. Its velocity will be minimum at:
(a) The point of projection (b) the point of landing in the ground
(c) The highest point (d) all points of its path
14. A projectile is thrown upward with a certain velocity. Its time of flight will be minimum, if it is
launched at an angle of:
(a) 450 (b) 300 (c) 750 (d) 600
15. The motion of a body that is thrown with an initial velocity and moves under the action of gravity
is called ____.
(a) Harmonic motion (b) Linear motion (c) Projectile motion (d) None of these
16. Motion of projectile is ______________.
(a) One dimensional (b) two dimensional (c) Three dimensional (d) None of these
17. Time to reach maximum height is ____________.
(a) 2𝑉𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃/𝑔 (b)2𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃/𝑔 (c) 𝑉𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃/𝑔 (d) None of these
18. Throughout the complete projectile motion:
(a) Vx remains constant but Vy veries (b) Vy remains constant but Vx varies
(c) Both components remain constant (d) None of these
19. The vertical component of the velocity with which a projectile covers vertical distance is minimum.
(a) At the point of projection (b) At the landing point
(c) At the highest point of its trajectory (path) (d) None of these
20. The vertical component of the velocity is maximum.
(a) At the point of projection (b) just before striking the ground
21. The speed of a projectile is maximum.
(a) At the point of projection (b) just before striking the ground
22. Formula for horizontal range of projectile is:
(a) 𝑅 = 𝑉𝑜2𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃/𝑔 (b) 𝑅 = 𝑉𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃/𝑔 (c) 𝑅 = 𝑉𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃/𝑔 (d) None of these
23. The horizontal range of a projectile depends upon:
(a) Initial velocity (b) Angle of projection (c) Value of g (d) All of these
24. For maximum horizontal range the angle of projection must be:
25. Maximum range of projectile is:
(a) 𝑉𝑜2/2𝑔 (b) 2𝑉𝑜/𝑔 (c) 𝑉𝑜2/𝑔 (d) None of these
26. Horizontal range will be same for two projectiles projected at different angles if sum of these
angles is _______.
27. The path followed by projectile is known as .
(a) Cycle (b) Hyperbola (c) Trajectory (d) None of these
28. A body is said to be moving with uniform circular motion (U.C.M) if it has _____________.
(a) Variable speed (b) Constant speed (c) Constant velocity (d) None of these
29. Angle subtended by a body in a circular motion is called ______________.
(a) Linear displacement (b) Angular displacement
(c) Angular velocity (d) None of these
30. The SI unit of angular displacement is ____________.
(a) Degree (b) Radian (c) Revolution (d) None of these
31. The units of angular displacement are revolutions and radians they are related by ___________.
(a) 1Revolution = 𝜋radian (b) 1Revolution = 2𝜋 radian
(c) 1 Revolution = 1 radian (d) None of these
32. The direction of velocity in circular motion at any instant is __________.
(a) Parallel to the circle (b) away from the circle
(c) Tangent to the circle at that point (d) None of these
33. When a body moves in a circular path which thing of a body changes at every instant _________.
(a) Linear speed (b) Linear velocity (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
34. The direction of the linear velocity of the body moving along the circular path is ____________.
(a) Opposite to the radius (b) Along the radius
(c) Perpendicular to the radius (d) None of these
35. The rate of change of angular displacement with respect to time is called __________.
(a) Uniform velocity (b) Variable velocity (c) Angular velocity (d) None of these
36. Mathematical expression for angular velocity is ___________.
(a) 𝜔 = ∆𝑆/∆𝑡 (b) 𝜔 = ∆𝜃/∆𝑡 (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
37. The direction of angular velocity is _________.
(a) Along the radius (b) Along the axis of rotation
(c) Along the circle (d) None of these
38. The relation between linear velocity and angular velocity is ____________.
(a) 𝑉 = 𝑟 × 𝜔 (b) 𝑉 = 𝜔 × 𝑟2 (c) 𝑉 = 𝑤2 × 𝑟2 (d) None of these
39. Rate of change of angular velocity is called ___________.
(a) Angular acceleration (b) Angular momentum
(c) Angular velocity (d) None of these
40. Mathematical relation for angular acceleration is _____________.
(a) 𝛼 = ∆𝑎/∆𝑡 (b) 𝛼 = ∆𝜔/∆𝑡 (c) 𝛼 = ∆𝑠/∆𝑡 (d) None of these
41. The SI unit of angular acceleration is ___________.
(a) Rev/sec2 (b) Rev/min (c) Rad/sec2 (d) None of these
42. The relation between linear and angular acceleration is ___________.
(a) 𝑎 = 𝛼 × 𝑟 (b) 𝑎 = 𝜔 × 𝑟 (c) 𝑎 = 𝑟 × 𝜔 (d) None of these
43. The velocity which is tangent to the circular path at any instant is called ____________.
(a) Linear velocity (b) Tangential velocity (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
44. If a body is rotating in a circle with variable linear speed it must have _____________.
(a) Only centripetal acceleration (b) Only tangential acceleration
(c) Both centripetal and tangential acc. (d) None of these
45. Centripetal acceleration is equal to ___________.
(a) 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑣2/𝑟 (b) 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑚𝑣/𝑟2 (c) 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑚𝑣2/𝑟 (d) None of these
46. The acceleration produced due to change in the direction of the velocity of a body moving in
circular path is called ___________.
(a) Tangential acceleration (b) Linear acceleration
(c) Centripetal acceleration (ac) (d) None of these
47. The direction of centripetal acceleration is ____________.
(a) Tangent to circle (b) Away from the centre
(c) Towards the centre (d) None of these
48. The product of the distance of the point from the axis of rotation and angular acceleration is called
__________.
(a) Linear acceleration (b) Tangential acceleration
(c) Centripetal acceleration (d) None of these
49. Angle between tangential and centripetal acceleration is __________.
50. If a body is moving with constant speed it can have acceleration due to change is direction when
it is moving along ____________.
(a) Straight line (b) Circular path (c) Inclined path (d) None of these
51. The force which is needed to move the body in circular path is known as ___________.
(a) Centripetal force (b) Centrifugal force (c) Gravitational force (d) None of these
52. Formula for centripetal force is ____________.
(a) 𝐹𝑐 = 𝑚𝑣/𝑟2 (b) 𝐹𝑐 = 𝑚𝑣2/𝑟 (c) 𝐹𝑐 = 𝑚𝑣2/𝑟2 (d) None of these
53. The reaction force of centripetal force is called __________.
(a) Gravitational force (b) Centripetal force (c) Centrifugal force (d) None of these
54. Centripetal force is directly proportional to _____________.
(a) Velocity of the body (b) Square of the velocity
(c) Radius of the circle (d) None of these
55. Centripetal force is inversely proportional to __________.
(a) Velocity of the body (b) Square of the velocity
(c) Radius of the circular path (d) None of these
56. A particle moving with a uniform speed in a circle has acceleration.
(a) Zero (b) maximum (c) Uniform (d) none
57. When a particle moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity v and angular velocity 𝜔 is
always:
(a) 0o (b) 180o (c) 90o (d) none
58. every point on a rotating body has same:
(a) linear velocity (b) Angular velocity (c) Angular momentum (d) none
59. The range of the Ghori missile (Vo=3834m/s) is:
(a) 1500km (b) 2000km (c) 2500km (d) 3000km
60. When a body moves along circumference of a circle with uniform speed, changes take place in its:
(a) Linear velocity (b) Tangential acceleration
(c) Both (d) none
61. The angle between centripetal acceleration and tangential acceleration is:
(a) 0o (b) 90o (c) 180o (d) 45o
62. A body is moving along a circle with an increasing speed. it possesses:
(a) Tangential acceleration only (at) (b) Centripetal acceleration only (ac)
(c) Both tangential and centripetal acceleration (at and ac)
(d) none of these
63. If a projectile is lunched at 45o with velocity 100m/s. It hits the target. It will have double the range
if its velocity is:
(a) 141.4m/s (b) 200m/s (c) 173.2m/s (d) 400m/s
64. If “r” is the radius of the circular path of particle, its linear and angular velocities are:
(a) 𝑉 = 𝜔 × 𝑟 (b) 𝑉 = 𝛼 × 𝑟 (c) 𝜔 = 𝑉 × 𝑟 (d) = 𝑟 × 𝑉
65. If a projectile is thrown at an angle of 35o, it hits a certain target. It will have the same range if its
angle of projection is:
(a) 45o (b) 55o (c) 10o (d) 70o
66. Due to presence of air resistance the total time of flight of a projectile:
(a) Remains same (b) Decreases (c) Become zero (d) Increases
67. A projectile is fired with initial velocity of 90m/s to hit a ground level target. Its maximum
horizontal range will be:
(a) 9.2m (b) 826.5m (c) 413m (d) 81m
68. In projectile motion a body moves with:
(a) Constant vertical component of velocity (b) Constant horizontal component of velocity
(c) Both changing horizontal and vertical components of velocity
(d) Horizontal component changing but vertical component of velocity constant.
69. The motion on a curved path, when one component of velocity is constant and the other is variable
is called:
(a) Circular motion (b) Projectile motion (c) Vibratory motion (d) none
70. The work done by the centripetal force is always:
(a) Positive (b) Zero (c) Negative (d) none
71. When a body moves with a constant speed in a circle:
(a) Its velocity is changing (b) Its acceleration is zero
(c) Its acceleration is increasing (d) Its velocity is uniform
72. If “r” is the radius of the circular path of a particle; its linear acceleration (𝑎̅) and angular
acceleration (𝛼̅) are related by:
(a) 𝑎 = 𝑟𝛼 (b) 𝛼 = 𝑎𝑟 (c) 𝑎 = (d) none
73. Two projectiles “A” and “B” are thrown up with the same speed at an angle of 60o and 30o
respectively with the horizontal, then:
(a) The range of A will be greater (b) The range of B will be greater
(c) The range of A and B will be same (d) The range is independent of the angle
74. Which of the following is spin motion?
(a) The motion of the planets around the sun
(b) The motion of the electron around the nucleus
(c) The motion of the moon around the earth
(d) The daily rotation of the earth causing day and night
75. A body moving along a circular path with an increasing speed possesses:
(a) Tangential acceleration only (b) Centripetal acceleration only
(c) Both tangential and centripetal Acceleration (d) No acceleration
76. If the axis of rotation of a rotating body passes through the body itself, then its motion is called:
(a) Linear motion (b) Orbital motion (c) Spin motion (d) SHM
77. The angle between centripetal and tengential acceleration in circular motion is:
(a) 180o (b) zero (c) 90o (d) 45o
78. A body, moving along the circumference of a circle, completes two revolutions. If the radius of the
circle is R, the ratio of its displacement to the covered path will be:
(a) Zero (b) 𝜋𝑅 (c) 2𝜋𝑅 (d) 4𝜋𝑅

1) A machine gun is pointed upward at an angle of 30⁰ with the horizontal and fires a projectile with
a velocity of 200m/sec; calculate the height and range of the projectile.
2) A rocket is fired at a ground-level target 600m away with an initial velocity 85 m/s; find the two
possible values of the launch angle, calculate the minimum time to hit the target.
3) Define Angular velocity and angular acceleration. Show that:
(i) v=rω (ii) a= rαwhen the symbols have their usual meanings:
4) At what points will the speed of a projectile be maximum? Calculate the range of the projectile
1
5) At what suitable angle is the maximum height of the projectile 3 of its range?
6) A boy whose mass is 100 kg when resting on the ground at the equator if the radius of earth ‘R’ is
6.4 x 106m. Calculate the centripetal acceleration and centripetal force
7) Calculate the centripetal acceleration and centripetal force on a man whose mass is 80 kg or 64
kg when resting on the ground at the equator if the radius of earth is 6.4 x 106 meters
8) Tarzan swings on a vine of length 5 m in a vertical circle under the influence of gravity. When the
vine makes an angle of 30o with the vertical, Tarzan has a speed of 4 m/s. Find (a) centripetal
acceleration at this instant (b) his tangential acceleration.
9) What is the cause of centripetal acceleration?
10) Derive an expression for centripetal acceleration produced by the body of mass ‘m’, moving along
circular path of radius ‘r’.

1) Define centripetal acceleration and centripetal force. Derive an expression for centripetal
acceleration.
2) An object is thrown upward with initial velocity V⁰ at an angle ‘θ’ with the horizontal. Derive the
expression for:
(a) Horizontal range (b) Range
(c) Total time of flight (d) Time to reach at maximum height
TORQUE, EQUILIBRIUM AND

CHAPTER 5
ANGULAR MEMENTUM
1. The S.I unit of angular momentum is.
(a) Kg- ms-1 (b) Kg-m/s (c) J.S (d) J.S-1
2. Two forces which are equal in magnitude but opposite in diction and not acting on the same line
are.
(a) Circle (b) Power (c) Force (d) Couple
3. The rate of charge of angular momentum is called.
(a) Torque (b) Angular velocity (c) Force (d) Angular displacement
4. A body in equilibrium:
(a) Can move with constant acceleration (b) Is always at rest
(c) Can move with constant velocity (d) None
5. When the net torque acting on the system is zero, which of the following are constant:
(a) Force (b) Angular momentum
(c) Linear momentum
6. Every point on the rotating body has the same:
(a) Linear velocity (b) Angular velocity (c) Linear acceleration
7. The physical quantity that produce angular acceleration is called:
(a) Torque (b) Work (c) Power (d) Energy
8. The angular momentum of a particle is conserved if the:
(a) Net torque acting on the particle in zero (b) Net force acting on the particle in zero
(c) The acceleration of the particle in zero (d) Net displacement of the particle in zero
9. Which of the following is a spin motion?
(a) The motion of the plants round the sun
(b) The motion of the electrons round the nucleus
(c) The motion of the moon round the earth
(d) The daily rotation of the earth causing day and night
10. The angular momentum of a particle changes from 0 to 720 J.S in 4 sec; the magnitude of torque
acting will be :
(a) 1440 J.S. (b) 360 J.S (c) 180 Nm (d) 4.5 J.S.
11. A force of 8N is applied to the spanner perpendicularly at a distance of 0.15m from the centre of
the nut, the moment of the force acting on the nut is:
(a) 1.2 N.m (b) 1.5 N.m (c) 2.1 N.m (d) 3 N.m
12. Torque is maximum when force:
(a) Is parallel to moment arm (b) Is anti-parallel to moment arm
(b) Makes an angle of 60° to moment arm (c)Is perpendicular to moment arm
13. The ratio of S.I unit of angular momentum of linear momentum is:
(a) J.s (b) N/J (c) J.N (d) J/N
14. The physical quantity which tends to rotate a body is called ____________.
(a) Torque (b) Moment of force (c) Bothe A and B (d) None of these
15. Mathematical expression for torque is _____________.
(a) 𝑟⃗ = 𝑟⃗ × 𝐹⃗ (b) 𝑟 = 𝑟𝐹𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
16. The SI unit of torque is _____________.
(a) Nm (b) NJ (c) Ns (d) None of these
17. The perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation to the line of action of force is called
__________.
(a) Moment arm (b) Moment of force (c) Torque (d) None of these
18. The direction of torque is perpendicular to _____________.
(a) 𝐹⃗ (b) 𝑟⃗ (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
19. When two equal but opposite parallel forces acting at two different points on a body produce
rotation they are said to form a __________.
(a) Torque (b) Couple (c) Momentum (d) None of these
20. If every constituent particle of a body moves in a circle, the body is said to possess a:
(a) Vibratory motion (b) Translatory motion (c) Rotational motion (d) None of these
21. The line about which the body rotates is called ____________.
(a) Line of action (b) Axis of rotation (c) Circular line (d) Normal
22. The motion of the planet around the sun is an example of __________.
(a) Spin motion (b) Orbital motion (c) Translatory motion (d) None of these
23. Torque is defined as the time rate of change of __________.
(a) Angular momentum (b) Linear momentum (c) Angular velocity (d) Linear velocity
24. Torque is also called ____________.
(a) Angular velocity (b) Moment of inertia (c) Angular momentum (d) Moment of force
25. Conventionally anti clockwise torques are taken to be ____________.
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) None of these
26. Conventionally clockwise torques are taken as ___________.
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) None of these
27. Couple is said to be act on a body when ___________.
(a) Two equal & opposite non-collinear forces act upon a body
(a) Two equal & collinear forces act upon a body
(c) When two unequal collinear forces act upon a body
(d) When two opposite force act upon a body
28. The center of gravity is the point at which the ___________ may be considered to act.
(a) Mass (b) Weight (c) Torque (d) None of these
29. The center of mass is the point at which the whole of the body may be concentrated:
(a) Mass (b) Weight (c) Torque (d) None of these
30. The center of mass & center of gravity are the same point when _____________.
(a) The body is in a constant gravitational field
(b) The body is in a non-uniform gravitational field
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
31. If the net torque acting on body is zero then it is said to be in ___________.
(a) Translation equilibrium (b) Rotational equilibrium
32. If the net force acting on body is zero then it is said to be in ___________.
(a) Translation equilibrium (b) Rotational equilibrium
33. For a body to be in complete equilibrium following conditions should be satisfied:
(a) ∑ 𝐹𝑥 = 0, ∑ 𝐹𝑦 = 0 (b) ∑ 𝑟 = 0 (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
34. A body is at rest or moving with uniform velocity, then the body is said to be in:
(a) Motion (b) Equilibrium (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
35. All the bodies in equilibrium don’t possess any _____________.
(a) Velocity (b) Acceleration (c) Shape (d) None of these
36. The equilibrium in which a body is at rest is said to be equilibrium.
(a) Dynamic (b) Static (c) Stable (d) Unstable
37. The equilibrium in which body is in uniform motion along a straight line is said to be:
(a) Static (b) Dynamic (c) Stable (d) Unstable
38. A book lying on a horizontal table is in __________ equilibrium.
(a) Static (b) Unstable (c) Stable (c) Both A and C
39. The jumping of paratrooper is an example of ____________ equilibrium.
(a) Static (b) Unstable (c) Stable (d) Dynamic
40. There are _____________ states of equilibrium.
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
41. If body is disturbed & it returns to its original position then it is in ___________ equilibrium.
(a) Stable (b) Unstable (c) Neutral (d) None of these
42. If a body is disturbed & it falls away from the original position, then the body is said to be in
equilibrium.
(a) Dynamic (b) Neutral (c) Stable (d) Unstable
43. The cross product of position vector and linear momentum is called ___________.
(a) Linear momentum (b) Angular momentum (c) Momentum (d) None of these
44. Mathematical form of angular momentum is __________.
(a) 𝐿⃗⃗⃗⃗ = 𝑟⃗ × 𝑃⃗⃗⃗⃗ (b) ⃗⃗ = 𝑚(𝑟⃗ × 𝑉⃗⃗) (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
45. According to law of conservation of angular momentum, if no external torque acts on the system
the total angular momentum of a system:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains constant (d) None of these
46. Angular momentum is a ____________.
(a) Vector quantity (b) Scalar quantity (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
47. Angular momentum of a body about a fixed axis conserved if its velocity __________.
(a) Is increasing (b) Is decreasing (c) Is constant (d) None of these
48. In terms of angular velocity (𝜔). The magnitude of angular momentum is given by _________.
(a) 𝐿⃗⃗ = 𝑚𝑟2𝜔 (b) 𝐿⃗⃗ = 𝑚𝑟𝜔 (c) 𝐿⃗⃗ = 𝑚2𝑟2𝜔2 (d) None of these
49. If no external torque acts, the angular momentum of a body rotating about a fixed axis is _______.
(a) Variable (b) Constant
(c) Dependent on the square of the inertia of the body
(d) Is not conserved
50. The physical quantity which produces angular acceleration is called:
(a) Centripetal force (b) Centrifugal force (c) Torque (d) none
51. The dimension of angular momentum is:
(a) MLT-1 (b) ML2T-1 (c) M2LT-1 (d) MLT2
52. The unit of angular momentum is:
(a) Newton sec (b) Joule sec (c) Newton metre (d) Joule metre
53. The dimension of angular momentum is:
(a) MLT2 (b) MLT-1 (c) ML2T-1 (d) ML2T
54. The centre of mass of a system of particles:
(a) Always coincide with the centre of gravity (b) Never coincide with the centre of gravity
(c) Coincide with the centre of gravity in a uniform gravitational field
(d) Coincide with the centre of gravity in non-uniform gravitational field
55. The angular momentum of a particle is conserved if the:
(a) Net torque acting on the particle is zero (b) Net force acting on the particle is zero
(c) The acceleration of the particle is zero (d) Net displacement of the particle is zero
56. The magnitude of torque of the couple depends on:
(a) The distance of (F) from origin (b) The distance of (-F) from origin
(c) The distance between (F) and (-F) (d) None of these
57. If the sum of torques acting on a body is zero, then this will be constant:
(a) Force (b) Angular momentum (c) Linear momentum (d) Pressure
58. The center of mass of a body:
(a) Always coincide with the centre of gravity (b) Never coincide with the centre of gravity
(c) Coincide with the centre of gravity in a uniform gravitational field
(d) Coincide with the centre of gravity in non-uniform gravitational field
59. Torque is maximum when:
(a) Is parallel to moment arm (b) is anti-parallel to moment arm
o
(c) makes an angle 60 with moment arm (d) is perpendicular to the moment arm
60. The ratio of S.I unit of angular momentum to linear momentum is:
(a) J.s (b) N.J-1 (c) J.N (d) J.N-1
61. A force of 8N is applied to the spanner perpendicularly at a distance of 0.15m from the centre of
the nut, the moment of force acting on the nut is:
(a) 1.2N.m (b) 1.5Nm (c) 2.1Nm (d) 3Nm
62. The point which describes the motion of the whole system or body is known as the:
(a) Center of gravity (b) center of mass (c) inertia (d) moment of inertia
63. Two forces which are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction and acting along the same
straight line form a:
(a) Circle (b) couple (c) power (d) torque

1) Define a couple, show that the magnitude of the moment of a couple is given by 𝜏= Fd, when the
symbol have their usual meanings.
2) Define the following:
a) Static equilibrium b) Dynamic equilibrium
c) Couple d) Angular momentum
3) A 15 m ladder weighting 350 N rests against a smooth vertical wall at a point 12 m above the
ground. The centre of gravity is one-third the way up. A boy of mass 47 kg climbs half way up the
ladder. Calculate the reaction exerted by the wall and the ground.
4) Why does a slight push on an axle of a wheel not cause any motion?
5) A uniform ladder having length ‘ℓ’ and weighing 50N, rests against a smooth vertical wall. If the
coefficient of friction between the ladder and the ground is 0.40, find the minimum angle θ, such
that the ladder may not slip.
6) In a translator motion, it is not necessary for a body to move in a straight line. Discuss the
statement
7) A particle of mass 500 gm rotates in a circular orbit of radius 25 cm at a constant rate of 1.5
revolutions per second. Find the angular momentum with respect to centre of the orbit
8) What is the difference between static and dynamic equilibrium? State the conditions of
equilibrium.
9) A particle of mass 0.5 kg moves along x y-plane. At that instant, the coordinates are (3, 4) m and
its velocity is (4 i︢ + 5 j︢) m/sec. Determine the angular momentum relative to origin at that time.
10) State and prove the law of conservation of angular momentum.
CHAPTER 6 GRAVITATION
1. If we go up from the surface of the earth to a distance equal to the radius of earth, the value of ‘g’
will become:
(a) One-fourth (b) one-eight (c) one ninth (d) double
2. A man goes up to a height from earth’s surface equal to the radius of the earth. His weight relative
to the earth’s surface would:
(a) Become half (b) Become double (c) Remain the same (d) Become one-four
𝑔
3. The weight of a man is 600N at the earth; his weight on the moon, where gm =( 6 ), will be:
(a) 3600N (b) 600N (c) 300N (d) 100N
4. If a person’s ascends from the surface of the earth to a distance equal to the radius of the earth,
The value of g will be:
1 1
(a) 2g (b) 4g (c) 2g (d) 4g
5. The value of gravitational constant ‘G’ was determined experimentally by:
(a) Cavendish (b) Newton (c) Joules (d) Huygens
6. The ocean tides are caused by:
(a) Gravitational force of both the sun and the moon
(b) Earth’s gravitational force only
(c) Sun’s gravitational force only (d) Moon’s gravitational force only
7. If a man goes above the earth’s surface to a distance equal to thrice the earth’s radius, the value
of acceleration due to gravity at that point becomes:
1/3 g (b) ¼ g (c) 1/9 g (d) 1/16 g
8. At a distance equal to twice of radius of the earth above the surface of earth, the value of
gravitational acceleration becomes:
(a) one Half (b) One fourth (c)one ninth (d) Four times
9. If the radius of earth were to shrink and its mass were to remain the same, the value of “g” at the
surface of earth will:
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remains same (d) Zero
10. Above the surface of earth if we go to a distance equal to double the earth radius, the value of
“g”:
(a) One ninth (b) One third (c) One fourth (d) None of these
11. The gravitational force does not depend upon the between bodies.
(a) Distance (b) Medium (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
12. The gravitational force (weight) of a body reduces to __________ when the distance between the
body and the center of earth becomes three times.
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/9 (d) None of these
13. The approximate value of mass of earth is ____________ kg.
(a) 6x1020 (b) 6x1024 (c) 6x1028 (d) None of these
14. The value of G is _________.
(a) 6.67x10-9Nm2kg-2 (b) 6.67x10-11Nm-2kg-2 (c) 6.67x10-11Nm2kg-2 (d) None of these
15. If the distance between two masses is doubled the gravitational force between them is
___________.
(a) Double (b) One fourth (c) Halved (d) None of these
16. Mass of the earth is determined by using _____________.
(a) Coulomb law (b) Newton’s law of gravitation
(c) Ampere’s law (d) None of these
17. Mathematical expression for mass of the earth is _____________.
(a) 𝑀𝑒 = 𝐺𝑅𝑒2/𝑔 (b) 𝑀𝑒 = 𝐺𝑅𝑒/𝑔2 (c) 𝑀𝑒 = 𝑔𝑅𝑒2/𝐺 d) None of these
18. The value of g for planets depends on its ____________.
(a) Radius (b) Mass (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
19. If mass of the earth increases by four times then the value of g on its surface will become
__________.
(a) 2 times (b) 4 times (c) 8 times (d) None of these
20. The value of g does not depend upon of the body.
(a) Mass (b) Height (c) Depth (d) None of these
21. Earth is ____________ at the pole.
(a) Flattened (b) Oblonged (c) Spherical (d) None of these
22. The value of “g” at the pole is little than at the equator.
(a) Greater (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) None of these
23. The equatorial radius of earth is _____________ than the radius at the pole.
(a) Greater (b) Smaller (c) Equal (d) None of these
24. The value of acceleration due to gravity g increases with ___________.
(a) Depth (b) Decrease in altitude (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
25. At the centre of the earth acceleration due to gravity is ______________.
(a) Infinity (b) Zero (c) Remains constant (d) None of these
26. The force with which the earth attracts a body towards its centre its ____________.
(a) Mass (b) Weight (c) Both A and B (d) None ofthese
27. If the distance between the center of the body and the center of the earth increases, the value
of “g”:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains constant (d) none of these
28. The dimensions of “G” are:
(a) M-1L3 T -2 (b) ML-2 T -3 (c) M-1 L-2 T -3 (d) None of them
29. The radius of earth were too shrink and its mass were to remain the same, acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth will.
(a) Decrease (b) Increase (c) Remain the same (d) None of them
30. the ocean tides are caused by:
(a) Earth’s gravitational only (b) moon’s gravitational force only
(c) sun’s gravitationalforce only (d) gravitational force of both the sun and the moon
31. The gravitational constant was determined experimentally by:
(a) Newton (b) Einstein (c) Cavendish (d) Maxwell

1) Discuss the variation of ‘g’ with the depth and drive the relevant mathematical expression.
2) How would the weight of a body vary as it is taken from the earth to the moon? What will be the
effect on its mass?
3) A simple pendulum completes 4 vibrations in 8 seconds on the surface of the earth. Find the time
period on the surface of the moon where the acceleration due to gravity is one-sixth that of the
earth.
4) Show by calculation why acceleration due to gravity at the centre of the earth zeros. Also calculate
the mass of earth.
1
5) The mass of moon is approximately one eightieth (80) of the mass of earth and it radius is
1
approximately one fourth (4) that of earth. Determine the acceleration due to gravity at the
surface of the moon.
6) Suppose a new planet ‘X’ is discovered which has a diameter 10 times bigger as compared to that
of earth and a mass equal to 300 times that of earth. Compute the gravitational acceleration at
the surface of the planet ‘X’
7) At what distance from center of earth does the gravitational acceleration have one third of the
value that it has on the earth`s surface?
8) The radius of moon is 27% of the earth’s radius and its mass is 1.2% of the earth’s mass. Find the
acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon. How much will a 422 N body weight there?
9) In what way was Newton able to conclude that the force responsible to rotate the moon around
the earth in same as the force which causes an apple to fall on the surface of earth?
10) What will be the effect on acceleration due to gravity and universal constant of gravitation if mass
of the earth becomes 4 times and its radius remains the same?
11) The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity inside a deep mine to that on the surface of the earth
is 0.99. Find the depth of the mine, assuming that the density of the earth is uniform. Take the
radius of the earth as 6.38 x 106m.
SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTION
1) Derive expressions for the variation of acceleration due to gravity with altitude or depth from
the surface of earth.
2) Why and how is artificial gravity created in space derive a formula for spinning frequency of the
space craft to provide artificial gravity.
CHAPTER 7 WORK, POWER & ENERGY

1. If the velocity of a body is doubled and mass is reduced to one fourth of its initial value, the K.E is:
(a) Doubled (b) Four-fold (c) Same (d) Halved
2. The dot product of force and velocity is:
(a) work (b) power (c) energy (d) momentum
3. A weight lifter consumes 500J of energy to lift a load in 2 seconds, the power used by him is:
(a) 125 watt (b) 250 watt (c) 500 watt (d) 1000 watt
4. Kilowatt hour is a unit of:
(a) Energy (b) Power (c) Time (d) Force
5. If mass and speed both are doubled, the Kinetic energy will be:
(a) Double (b) Four times (c) Six times (d) Eight times
6. This one of the following is not the unit of power:
(a) Horse power (b) Joule/sec (c) Kilowatt hour (d) Food-pound/sec
7. The rate of doing work is zero when the angle between force and velocity is:
(a) 0o (b) 45o (c) 180o (d) 90o
8. Electron volt is the unit of:
(a) Power (b) Voltage (c) Energy (d) Charge
9. Both kilowatt hour and electron volt are the units of:
(a) Angular momentum (b) power (c) energy (d) charge
10. A 600N man runs up a stair of 4m height, in 3 secs. The power needed is:
(a) 240 watts (b) 350 watts (c) 450 watts (d) 800 watts
11. One Kilowatt hour is equal to:
(a) 3.6 x 106 J (b) 3.3 x 109 J (c) 3.9 x 106 J (d) 3.6 x 109 J
34. Anybody which can do work is said to possess.
(a) Mass (b) Volume (c) Energy (d) Power
35. ___________ is the capability of doing work.
(a) Energy (b) Force (c) Power (d) None of these
36. The work is done when force produces_________.
(a) Velocity (b) Displacement (c) Acceleration (d) None of these
37. Work is always done on a body when_____________.
(a) A force acts on it (b) It moves through certain distance
38. Work is equal to __________.
(a) 𝑊 = 𝐹⃗. 𝑆⃗ (b) = 𝐹⃗ × 𝑆⃗ (c) = 𝐹𝑆𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (d) None of these
39. The SI unit of work is____________.
(a) Erg (b) Joule (c) Dyne (d) None of these
40. Work done is maximum when the angle between force and displacement is ___________.
41. If the force and displacement are in opposite direction then the work is taken as ___________.
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero work (d) None of these
42. Work done in carrying a box walking on a level road is _____________.
(a) Maximum (b) Zero (c) Infinity (d) None of these
43. When a body is lifted to a certain height then work bone by lifting force is __________.
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Maximum (d) None of these
44. When a body moves vertically upward then the work done by gravitational force will be _______.
(a) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero (d) None of these
45. Work done along a closed path in a gravitational field is _____________.
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum (c) Zero (d) None of these
46. The field in which work done in moving body between two points is independent of the path
followed and work done along a closed path is zero is called ___________.
(a) Electric field (b) Nuclear field (c) Conservative field (d) None of these
47. ______________ is the capability of doing work.
(a) Energy (b) Force (c) Power (d) None of these
48. Nuclear energy is used for the production of .
(a) Light (b) Electricity (c) heat (d) None of these
49. In fans electric energy is converted into ____________ energy.
(a) Light (b) Heat (c) Mechanical (d) None of these
50. Wind mills transfer the ______________ energy to mechanical energy.
(a) Wind (b) water (c) Light (d) None of these
51. 1 mega joule = _______________ joule.
52. ____________ energy possessed by the body by virtue of its configuration.
(a) Kinetic (b) Potential (c) Both (d) None of these
53. _____________ energy is directly proportional to the ____________ of the body.
(a) Kinetic, velocity (b) Potential, height (c) Both A and B (d) None of these
54. If the height of the body is doubled, PE will be _____________.
(a) Doubled (b) Halved (c) Four times (d) None of these
55. The energy due to of the body is called kinetic energy.
(a) Position (b) Motion (c) acceleration (d) None of these
56. KE is directly proportional to the square of _____________ of the body.
(a) Mass (b) Acceleration (c) Force (d) None of these
57. If the velocity of the body is increased by the three times, its KE will be increased ________ times.
(a) Three (b) Six (c) Nine (d) None of these
58. The fuel that burns in transport in mainly obtained from _____________.
(a) Underground deposits (b) Space
(c) Atmosphere (d) None of these
59. The consumption of too much energy is having adverse effects on our ______________.
(a) Body (b) Environment (c) Health (d) None of these
60. The air in big cities is _____________.
(a) Light (b) Heavy (c) Clean (d) None of these
61. When an electric current passes through a thin wire in a bulb, it produces ___________ and
___________.
(a) Mechanical energy, Light (b) Heat, Light
(c) Both A and B (d) None ofthese
62. In a car engine, burning of fuel releases ____________ energy.
(a) Heat (b) Mechanical (c) Chemical (d) None of these
63. In the motion of simple pendulum __________ energy is zero at extreme position and _________
energy is maximum at mean position.
(a) Kinetic, potential (b) Potential, kinetic (c) Kinetic, kinetic (d) None ofthese
64. As the pendulum moves from “A” to “O” its will go on increasing.
(a) Velocity (b) Kinetic energy (c) Both (d) None of these
65. Work done on a body against the force of gravity is called ___________.
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Gravitational P.E (c) Chemical energy (d) None of these
66. The energy possessed by a body due to its position is called ____________.
(a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic energy (c) Chemical energy (d) None ofthese
67. The SI unit of energy is ____________.
(a) Joule (b) Erg (c) Dyne (d) None of these
68. An elevator weighing 2.5x104N is raised to a height of 10m. If friction is negligible, the work done
is _________.
(a) 2.5x104J (b) 7.5x106J (c) 2.5x105J (d) 2.5x103J
69. Work-Energy equation is expressed in form of ______________.
(a) Loss of P.E=Gain of K.E + Work (b) Loss of K.E=Gain of P.E + Work
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
70. In the absence of frictional force:
(a) Loss of P.E ≠ Gain in K.E (b) Loss of P.E = Gain in K.E
(c) Loss of P.E > Gain in K.E (d) None of these
71. The velocity with which the body strike the ground falling through a height h is _____________.
(a) 𝑣 = 2𝑔ℎ (b) 𝑣 = √2𝑔ℎ (c) 𝑣 = √2ℎ (d) None of these
72. Energy may change from one form to another form but total energy remains constant is the
statement of _____.
(a) Law of conservation of momentum (b) Law of conservation of energy
(c) Law of inertia (d) None of these
73. The sum of K.E and P.E of falling body is ______________.
(a) Constant at all points (b) Maximum at the top
(c) Maximum just before hitting the ground (d) None of these
74. A body has P.E=mgh when it is at height h from the ground. At the point A distance x below from
the top its P.E will be _______________.
(a) mgh (b) mgx (c) mg(h-x) (d) None of these
75. A body has K.E=0 when it is at height h from the ground. At the point A distance x below from the
top its K.E will be ______________.
(a) mgh (b) mgx (c) mg(h-x) (d) None of these
76. ______________ of doing work is called power.
(a) Ability (b) Rate (c) Amount (d) None ofthese
77. W=Px ____________.
(a) V (b) S (c) t (d) None ofthese
78. 1 hp= ____________ watt.
(a) 746 (b) 764 (c) 476 (d) None ofthese
79. Mathematical expression for power is ______________.
(a) P = F/t (b) P = W/t (c) P = S/t (d) None ofthese
80. The unit of power is ______________.
(a) J/s (b) Watt (c) Horse power (d) All of these
81. Power is equal to _____________.
a) = ⃗𝐹
⃗⃗ × 𝑉
⃗⃗ (b) 𝑃⃗⃗ = ⃗𝐹
⃗⃗ . 𝑉
⃗⃗ (c) = ⃗⃗𝐸
⃗⃗ . 𝑉
⃗⃗ (d) None of these
82. If one joule work is done in one sec then the power is _____________.
(a) One watt (b) One erg (c) One Newton (d) None ofthese
83. If ⃗𝐹⃗⃗⃗ = 4𝑖 − 2𝑗 and 𝑑⃗ = 3𝑖 + 4𝑗, the work done will be,
(a) 4 joules (b) 8 joules (c) 2 joules (d) 12 joules
84. The work done by the centripetal force is always:
(a) Positive (b) Zero (c) Negative (d) none of these
85. In case of the negative work the angle between the force and the displacement is:
(a) Zero (b) 90o (c) 180o (d) 45o
86. The dimensions of power is:
(a) ML2 T -3 (b) M2 L2 T -3 (c) ML2 T 2 (d) M2 L2 T -1
87. The dimensions of the kinetic energy are:
(a) ½ ML2 T -2 (b) ML2 T -2 (c) ½ ML2 T 2 (d) MLT -1
88. A bucket of mass 10kg is moved downwards in the gravitational field through a distance of 1m.
The work done in this case equal to:
(a) 10 joule (b) 98 joule (c) -98 joule (d) 0.1 joule
89. If mass and speed both are doubled, the kinetic energy will be:
(a) Double (b) Four times (c) Six times (d) Eight times

1) A car weighing 9.800 N is moving at 25 m/s. if the frictional force acting on it is 2,000 N, how fast
is the car moving when it has traveled 60 m?
2) Prove that power is scalar product of force & velocity.
3) A horse pulls a cart horizontally with a force of 40N at an angle of 25o above the horizontal and
moves along at a speed of 15 m/s. How much work will be horse do in 5 minutes? What is the
power output of the horse? Give your answer in horse power.
4) A 80 kg man runs up a hill through a height of 3m in 2 sec. what is his average power output?
5) Derive the work energy equation.
6) A pump of how much minimum horse power is needed to lift water through a height of 2.5m at
the rate of 500 g/min?
7) An object weighing 98N is dropped from a height of 10m. it is found to be moving with a velocity
12m/sec just before it hits the ground. How large was the frictional force acting upon it?
8) A crane lifts a load of 6000N through a vertical distance of 15m in 30s. What is the potential energy
at the highest point of this operation?
9) A horse pulls a cart horizontally with a force of 60lb at an angle of 30o above the horizontal and
moves along at a speed of 8 miles per hour. How much work will be horse do in 15 minutes? What
is the power output of the horse? Give your answer in horse power. (1hp= 550ft-lb/s) (1 mile =
5280ft).
10) State and prove low of conservation of energy for free falling body.
CHAPTER 8 WAVE MOTION & SOUND

1. Which of the following represent longitudinal waves?
(a) Light waves (b) Sound waves (c) Radio waves (d) X-ray
2. One sone at 1000 Hz is equal to:
(a) 60 dB (b) 40 dB (c) 30 dB (d) 100 dB
3. The S.I unit if intensity of sound is:
(a) Watt/m2 (b) Decibel (c) Weber (d) Diopter
4. Power Law determines:
(a) Power (b) Work (c) Intensity (d) Loudness of sound
5. The earthquake waves are the examples of:
(a) Audible waves (b) Infrasonic waves (c) Shock waves (d) Ultrasonic waves
6. Which of the following does not exhibit simple harmonic motion?
(a) A hanging spring supporting a weight (b) The balance wheel of watch
(c) The wheel of an automobile (d) The string of a violin
7. The velocity of sound in space is:
(a) 332 m/sec (b) 344 m/sec (c) 330 m/sec (d) Zero
8. The velocity of a wave of wavelength ‘λ’ and frequency ‘v’ is given by:
𝑣 𝜆 1
(a) 𝜆 (b) 𝑣 (c) V λ (d)𝑣𝜆
9. If the mass of the bob of a simple pendulum is doubled, its time period will:
(a) Be doubled (b) Become triple (c) Remain the same (d) Halved
10. When the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound waves increases because:
(a) The frequency of the wave increase (b) The wavelength of the wave increase
(c) Both the frequency and wavelength increase
(d) Neither frequency nor wavelength increase
11. The time period of simple pendulum depends upon:
(a) Mass (b) Length
(c) Acceleration due to gravity (d) Both length and acceleration due to gravity
12. Decibel is the unit of:
(a) Intensity level (b) Frequency (c) Wave length (d) Speed of wave
13. The speed of sound is the highest in:
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) Vacuum
14. The voice of two person having the same pitch and loudness can be recognized due to the
characteristic of the sound known as:
(a) Beats (b) Quality (c) Frequency (d) Intensity
15. The pitch of the sound depends on:
(a) Frequency (b) Wavelength (c) Intensity (d) Velocity
16. Weber fechner law is:
(a) I 𝛼 log L (b) L 𝛼 log I (c) I 𝛼 I/log L (d) I 𝛼 Log L
17. The range of audible sound is:
(a) 1 Hz – 10 Hz (b) 20Hz–20000Hz (c) 21000Hz–24000Hz (d) 25000Hz–50000 Hz
18. The product of frequency and time period is:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
19. When a body moves to-and-fro motion this type of motion is called ___________.
(a) Circular (b) Translatory motion (c) Oscillatory motion (d) None of these
20. A vibratory motion is which acceleration is directly proportional to the negative of displacement
from mean position is called __________.
(a) Linear motion (b) Circular motion
(c) Simple harmonic motion (d) None ofthese
21. Which one is the example of S.H.M:
(a) Motion in car (b) Motion in swing (c) Motion is circle (d) None of these
22. The maximum displacement of a body on either side of its equilibrium position is called _______.
(a) Frequency (b) Amplitude (c) Displacement (d) None of these
23. The distance of a vibrating body at any instant from its equilibrium position is called __________.
(a) Amplitude (b) Displacement (c) Frequency (d) None of these
24. One complete round trip of the body about its mean position is called __________.
(a) Displacement (b) Vibration (c) Circular motion (d) None of these
25. One vibration is the motion of vibrating body moves from _____________.
(a) Mean position to any one of the extreme (b) From one extreme to another extreme
(c) From one extreme to another and then back to the first extreme
(d) None of these
26. In S.H.M the acceleration of body is always directed towards .
(a) The extreme position (b) The mean position
(c) The point at which force is applied (d) None of these
27. The frequency of second pendulum is ____________.
(a) 0.5 Hz (b) 2 Hz (c) 4 Hz (d) None of these
28. Time taken for one complete vibration is called _____________.
(a) Time for complete rotation (b) Time period
(c) Frequency (d) None of these
29. The number of vibrations executed by a body in one second is called __________.
(a) Frequency (b) Amplitude (c) Time period (d) None of these
30. If a mass attached to spring is increased then its time period ___________.
(a) Remains constant (b) Decreases (c) Increases (d) None of these
31. In the equation 𝑣 = 𝜔√𝑥𝑜2 − 𝑥2 , xo and x are called ______________.
(a) Amplitude and displacement (b) Displacement and amplitude
(c) Distance and displacement (d) None of these
32. The motion of a simple pendulum closely approximates S.H.M. provided its maximum angular
displacement does no exceed.
(a) 0.1o (b) 5o (c) 1o d) None of these
33. Sound wave is an example of ________________.
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Electromagnetic waves
(c) Transverse wave (d) None of these
34. Waves on the water surface are an example of ____________.
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Electromagnetic waves
(c) Transverse wave (d) None of these
35. Frequency, wavelength and speed of a wave are related to each other as __________.
(a) 𝜆 = 𝑓𝑣 (b) 𝑣 = 𝑓𝜆 c) 𝑓 = 𝑣𝜆 (d) None of these
36. The longitudinal waves produced in a spring are also called __________.
(a) Electromagnetic waves (b) Transverse waves
(c) Compressional waves (d) None of these
37. The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs is called ____________.
(a) Wave number (b) Wavelength (c) Frequency (d) None of these
38. Crest and trough are formed in ____________.
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Transverse waves (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
39. When a wave travels from one place to another place it transfers _____________.
(a) Matter (b) Energy (c) Particles of medium (d) None of these
40. The characteristics of waves can be explained by three main physical concepts wavelength,
frequency and ______________.
(a) Acceleration (b) Velocity (c) Time period (d) None of these
41. Sound wave can travel only through ____________.
(a) Non-material (b) Vacuum (c) Material medium (d) None of these
42. The speed of sound in air (in m/sec) is nearly ____________.
43. Laplace assumed that sound waves travel trough gases under _____________.
(a) Isothermal condition (b) Adiabatic condition
(c) Isochoric condition (d) None of these
44. The value of speed of sound calculated by Newton’s formula (in m/sec) at 0o is ___________.
45. A process in which no heat is gained or lost by a system is called ___________.
(a) Isothermal process (b) Adiabatic process (c) Isochoric process (d) None of these
46. The velocity of sound waves in air is no affected by changes in ____________.
(a) Temperature of air (b) The atmospheric pressure
(c) The moisture contents of air (d) None of these
47. Sound waves of frequency _____________ are audible by human ear:
(a) 5c/s (b) 5000c/s (c) 27000c/s (d) 50000c/s
48. The velocity of sound waves in air depends upon _____________.
(a) Density and elasticity of gas (b) Pressure
(c) Frequency of sound (d) None of these
49. Speed of sound is faster in ____________.
(a) Solids (b) liquids (c) Gases (d) None of these
50. The speed of sound is greatest in ____________.
(a) Air (b) Steel (c) Water (d) None of these
51. Through which medium sound waves travel faster ____________ .
(a) H2 (b) O2 (c) He (d) None of these
52. The rate of transfer of energy per unit area on a surface perpendicular to the direction of
propagation is called ____________.
(a) Loudness (b) Intensity (c) Pitch (d) None of these
53. In MKS the unit of intensity is _____________.
(a) Wm-2 (b) W/m (c) W/m3 (d) None of these
54. The magnitude of auditory sensation produced by sound is called ____________.
55. The difference between the loudness L of a sound of intensity I and loudness Lo of minimum
audible intensity called ___________.
(a) Intensity (b) Intensity level (c) Pitch (d) None of these
56. In MKS system the unit of intensity level is ____________.
(a) Bel (b) Decibel (db) (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
57. 1 Bel is equal to ____________.
(a) 40 db (b) 10 db (c) 100 db (d) None of these
58. The property of sound by which shrill and grave sound can be distinguished is called __________.
59. If there is a relative motion between the source of sound waves and the observer there will be
apparent change in __________.
(a) Its speed (b) Its frequency (c) Its time (d) None of these
60. Doppler Effect applies to _____________.
(a) Sound waves only (b) Light waves only (c) Both sound and light (d) None of these
61. The instrument which detects the presence of underwater rocks and submarines is called ______.
(a) Radar (b) Sonar (c) Wave detector (d) None of these
62. In aerodynamics the ratio of speed of sound (v) to the speed of source (vs) is called ___________.
(a) Wave number (b) Sonic boom (c) Mach number (d) None of these
63. The supersonic object produce ____________.
(a) Shock wave (b) Standing wave (c) Transverse wave (d) None of these
64. Loud explosion or sonic boom is result of ____________.
(a) Shock wave (b) Standing wave (c) Transverse wave (d) None of these
65. A pendulum bob is swinging with simple harmonic motion. Its potential energy is maximum at:
(a) Extreme position (b) Mean position
(c) At any other point along the path (d) none of these
66. The loudness of sound depends upon:
(a) Wavelength (b) Frequency (d) Amplitude (d) none of these
67. When a sound source moves towards a stationary listener there is:
(a) An apparent increase in wavelength (b) An apparent increase in frequency
(c) A decrease in pitch
68. The speed of sound:
(a) Increase with temperature (b) Decrease with temperature
(c) Does not change with temperature (d) none of these
69. Sound waves are:
(a) Longitudinal waves (b) Transverse waves (c) Not made material medium
70. When speed of jet plane becomes greater that the speed of sound then the loud sound
produced due to:
(a) Shock wave (b) Standing wave (c) both of these (d) none of these
71. Pitch of sound depends on:
(a) Intensity (b) Loudness (c) Frequency (d) none of these
72. A decibel is:
(a) Musical instrument (b) Musical note
(c) Wavelength (d) Measure of intensity level
73. Beats are the result of:
(a) Diffraction (b) Constructive interference only
(c) Destructive interference only
(d) Both constructive and destructive interference
74. Speed of sound waves does not depend upon:
(a) Wind speed (b) Temperature (c) Pressure (d) Density of medium
75. We recognize the voice of a friend over the telephone by the ____________ of sound.
(a) Quality (b) Intensity (c) Loudness (d) Pitch
76. The acceleration of free fall on the moon is 1/6 of that on the earth. What would be the period
on the moon of a simple pendulum which has period of 1sec on earth.
(a) 1/6 sec (b) 1/√6 sec (c) √6sec (d) 6sec
77. When the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound waves increases because:
(a) Only frequency increases (b) Only wavelength increases
(c) Both increase (d) Only wavelength decreases
78. The frequency of oscillation of simple pendulum depends up on:
(a) Mass of the bob (b) Amplitude of vibration
(c) Length of the pendulum (d) None of these
79. The relative intensity (I/Io) of the sound of a jet engine is 1013. The intensity level in dB will be:
(a) 13 (b) 130 (c) 1300 (d) 1.3
80. A spring mass system is performing simple harmonic motion with the time period “T”. if we
double the mass of the bob, the new time period will be:
(a) T (b) 2T (c) 1.414T (d) 0.707T
81. As a source of sound moves away from a stationary listener, there is an apparent:
(a) Decrease in wavelength (b) Increase in pitch
(c) Decrease in phase (d) Decrease in pitch
82. The time period of a simple pendulum depends upon its:
(a) Length (b) Amplitude (c) Mass of the bob (d) Temperature
83. The physical quantity which is related to loudness of sound is:
(a) Frequency (b) Intensity (c) Quality (d) Wavelength
84. An object is executing SHM. Its kinetic energy is maximum at its:
(a) Mean position (b) Extreme position
(c) At any point along the path (d) None of them
85. Which one of the following properties of sound is affected by the change in temperature:
(a) Amplitude (b) Wavelength (c) Frequency (d) Intensity
86. If the bob of simple pendulum is replaced another bob of double mass but of the same size, its
time period:
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same (d) Becomes infinity
87. Supersonic waves have the frequency of more than:
(a) 20Hz (b) 2000Hz (c) 5000Hz (d) 20000Hz
88. The intensity level of sound of intensity 10-12 watt/m2 in bel is:
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
89. The frequency of a second’s pendulum is:
(a) 1Hz (b) 2Hz (c) 0.5Hz
90. The pitch of sound depends upon:
(a) Velocity (b) Intensity (c) Frequency
91. Which of the following is compressional wave:
(a) Light wave (b) Sound wave (c) Radio wave
92. If the bob of a vibrating simple pendulum is suddenly detached from the string at its mean
position, its path will be:
(a) Straight line (b) Circle (c) Parabola (d) Hyperbola
93. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with:
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Loudness (d) Both (a) and (b)
94. Sone is the unit of:
(a) Intensity level (b) Intensity of sound (c) Pitch of sound (d) Quality of sound
95. When the temperature of air rises, the speed of sound wave increases because:
(a) The frequency of the wave increases (b) The wavelength of the wave increases
(c) Both of them (d) None of them
96. A wave enters from one medium to another medium no change occurs in its:
(a) Frequency (b) Wavelength (c) Amplitude (d) Speed
97. The time period of simple pendulum depends upon:
(a) Mass (b) Length
(c) Acceleration due to gravity (d) Both length and acceleration due to gravity
98. The range of audible sound is:
(a) 1Hz – 19Hz (b) 20Hz – 20000Hz
(c) 21000Hz – 24000Hz (d) 25000hz – 50000Hz
1. Explain the Newton`s formula for the speed of sound waves in air and laplace`s correction. What
was Newton’s fault?
2. Find the speed of sound in air at the temperature of 27⁰ C (Given γ = 1.42, R = 8.313 J/mole-K,
molecular mass of air = 28.8 x 10-3 Kg/mole).
3. Find the length of the second`s pendulum on the planet Jupiter the value of ‘g’ is 2.63 times that
of the ‘g’ on the surface of the Earth.
4. What is Doppler`s effect? Derive the expression for the apparent frequency when the source of
sound is moving away from the stationary observer.
5. A car has its siren sounding 2 KHZ tone. If the frequency heard by stationary observer 2,143 Hz
find the speed with each it approaches the stationary observer(speed of sound in air – 340 m/s)
6. A note of frequency 650Hz is emitted from an ambulance what frequency will be detected by a
listener if the ambulance move (i) at the speed of 18 m/s towards the listener (ii) at the speed
of 15 m/s away from the listener (speed on sound = 340 m/s)
7. Define intensity of sound and loudness. Give Weber Fechner law and explain the intensity level
with its unit
8. A wire hangs from a dark high tower so that upper end is not visible. How can we determine the
length of the wire?
9. The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 seconds on the surface of the earth. Calculate its time
period on the surface of the moon where the value of the acceleration due to gravity is one-sixth
that of its value on the earth’s surface
10. A note of frequency of 500 Hz is being emitted by an ambulance moving towards a listener at rest.
If the listener detects a frequency of 526 Hz, calculate the speed of the ambulance. (Speed of
sound is 340 m/s at that moment)
11. Find the velocity of sound in a gas when two waves, of wavelengths 0.8m and 0.81m respectively,
produce 4 beats per second.
12. A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz in air enters from a region of temperature 25 oC to a region of
temperature 5oC.
Calculate the percent fractional change in wavelength.
13. A car emitted a note of frequency 490 Hz, if the car approaching towards a stationary listener at
speed of 55km/h, what frequency will be detected by the listener. Take speed of sound as 334m/s.
14. For simple harmonic motion, will the time period change or not, by doubling the mass of the bob
attached to:
• Elastic spring?
• Inelastic string? Explain.
15. A moving car has a siren sounding a 2KHz tone. What frequency will be detected by a stationary
observer as the car approaches him at 80 km/h? speed of sound = 1200 km/h
16. What does the radar stands for? On what principle does the radar work? Which one of the
following have larger wavelength and larger frequency? a) sound waves b) light waves

1) How do the pressure and temperature affect the speed of sound?
2) What is a simple pendulum? Prove that the motion of a simple pendulum is simple harmonic.
Derive the expression for its time period
3) What is Doppler’s effect? Derive the expressions for the frequency detected by a stationary
listener when the source moves towards the listener.
a) When the source moves away from the listeners.
b) When the listener move towards the stationary source.
c) When the listener move away from the stationary source.
4) Discuss the Newton formula for the speed of sound and the flaw in it. In what way did Laplace
correct the formula?
5) Show the projection of a particle executing uniform circular motion is S.H.M.
CHAPTER 9 NATURE OF LIGHT

1. According to Maxwell’s theory, light travels in the form of:
(a) Transverse wave (b) Longitudinal wave (c) Mechanical wave (d) Electromagnetic wave
2. In young`s double-slit experiment, the condition for the constructive interference is that the path
diff must be.
(a) An odd multiple of the half wavelength (b) An odd multiple of the whole wavelength
(c) An integral multiple of the wavelength (d) An even number of the wavelength
3. The wave theory of light cannot explain:
(a) Polarization (b) Photoelectric effect (c) Interference (d) Diffraction
4. Wave front near the point source is:
(a) Plane (b) Cylindrical (c) Spherical (d) Conical
5. Diffraction of x-rays can be studied by using:
(a) A thin film (b) Diffraction grating (c) Rock salt (d) None
6. Huygens’s principal is used to:
(a) Determine the speed of light (b) Expressed polarization
(c) Locate the wave front (d) Find the refractive index
7. Monochromatic yellow light is unable to show:
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Dispersion (d) Interference
8. Diffraction of light is a special type of:
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Interference (d) Polarization
9. If 2000 lines/cm are ruled on a grating element is:
(a) 5 x 10-4 m (b) 5 x 10-5 m (c) 5 x 10-6 m (d) 5 x 10-7 m
10. The wave front of waves will be spherical when the rays of light are:
(a) Parallel (b) perpendicular (c) monochromatic (d) not parallel
11. The number of lines per cm of a diffraction grating is 4000. Its grating element is:
(a) 2.5 x 10-4 cm (b) 2.5 x 10-6 cm (c) 4 x 102 cm (d) 4 x 105 cm
12. The locus of all points in the same phase of vibration is _____________.
(a) Wave front (b) Interference (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization
13. Huygens theory of light says that light consist of ___________.
(a) Wave front (b) Particles (c) Photons (d) Dual nature
14. The wave theory of light was proposed by ___________.
(a) Galileo (b) Huygens (c) Kepler (d) Newton
15. Electromagnetic theory of light was proposed by ____________.
(a) Faraday (b) Maxwell (c) Ampere (d) De-Broglie
16. The path difference in constructive interference must be __________.
(a) d = 0, 𝜆, 2𝜆, 3𝜆 (b) d = 𝜆/2, 3𝜆/2, 5𝜆/2
(c) d = 0, 𝜆/6, 3𝜆/6, 5𝜆/6 (d) d = 0, 3𝜆/4, 5𝜆/4
17. The path difference in destructive interference must be ____________.
(a) d = 0, 𝜆, 2𝜆, 3𝜆 (b) d = 𝜆/2, 3𝜆/2, 5𝜆/2
(c) d = 0, 𝜆/6, 3𝜆/6, 5𝜆/6 (d) d = 0, 3𝜆/4, 5𝜆/4
18. One condition for interference is that the two sources should be coherent and ___________.
(a) Close together (b) At a far off distance
(c) Opposite to each other (d) Coinciding
19. Light has ____________.
(a) Wave nature (b) Particle nature (c) Dual nature (d) None of these
20. Light wave are _____________.
(a) Transverse wave (b) Longitudinal waves
(c) Compressional waves and electromagnetic waves
(d) None of these
21. Law f reflection and refraction can also be explained by _____________.
(a) Particle nature of light (b) Wave nature of light
(c) Quantum nature of light (d) None of these
22. According to Huygens, every point on a wave front may be regarded as a source of ____________.
(a) Primary wavelets (b) Secondary wavelets (c) Base wavelets (d) None of these
23. According to plank’s theory of light, energy emits in the form of packets or bundles of energy, is
called ______.
(a) Quanta (b) Photon (c) Wave front (d) None of these
24. When the crest of one wave coincides with the trough of other wave, it gives to rise to _________.
(a) Constructive interference (b) Destructive interference
(c) Polarization (d) None of these
25. When the crest of one wave coincides with the crest of other wave, it gives to rise to __________.
(a) Constructive interference (b) Destructive interference
(c) Diffraction (d) None of these
26. Young’s double silt experiment is used to observe ___________.
(a) Diffraction pattern (b) Interference pattern (c) Polarization (d) None of these
27. In young’s double slit experiment to obtain condition for phase coherence ______________.
(a) Two sources are used (b) Two slits are used
(c) One slits is used (d) None of these
28. In young’s double slit experiment at the center of screen is formed.
(a) Dark fringe (b) Bright fringe (c) No fringe at all (d) None of these
29. In the young’s double slit experiment at the center of screen is always bright fringe because the
path difference is ___________.
(a) Zero (b) Maximum (c) Minimum (d) None of these
30. The distance between two consecutive bright or dark fringes is called ____________.
(a) Path difference (b) Fringe spacing (c) Amplitude content (d) None of these
31. In young’s double slit experiment if the distance between the slits and also distance between slit
and screen is double then the fringe spacing ____________.
(a) Becomes double (b) Becomes four times (c) Remains same (d) None of these
32. The fringe width in young’s double slit experiment can be increased by decreasing ____________.
(a) Width of the slit (b) Slits separation
(c) Distance between slits and screen (d) None of these
33. If the slits in young’s double slit experiment are made closer fringe spacing will ___________.
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remains same (d) None of these
34. Michelson’s interferometer is usually used to measure _____________.
(a) Amplitude of light (b) Wavelength of light (c) Nature of light (d) None of these
35. Michelson’s interferometer can also be used to determine the ___________.
(a) Speed of light (b) Amplitude of light (c) Direction of light (d) None of these
36. In Michelson’s Interferometer a convex lens is used to ___________.
(a) Collimate incident light (b) Disperse incident light
(c) Distribute incident light (d) None of these
37. Semi-silvered glass plate is used to ___________.
(a) Disperse incident light (b) Collimate incident light
(c) Divide incident light (d) None of these
38. The phenomenon of bending of light around the edges of an obstacle is called ___________.
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarization (d) None of these
39. Diffraction effect is ____________.
(a) More for round edge (b) More for sharp edge
(c) Less for sharp edge (d) None of these
40. The diffraction is found to be prominent when the wavelength of light is ____________.
(a) Small as compared with the size of obstacle (b) Large as compared with the size of obstacle
(c) Equal as compared with the size of obstacle (d) None of the these
41. In Fresnel diffraction the source of light and screen are kept at ____________.
(a) Finite distance (b) Infinite distance
(c) Adjacent to each other (d) None of these
42. In Fraunhofer diffraction the source of light and screen are kept at ______________.
(a) Finite distance (b) Infinite distance
(c) Adjacent to each other (d) None of these
43. In Fresnel diffraction the incident wave front is __________.
(a) Spherical (b) Plane (c) Parallel (d) None of these
44. In Frauhofer diffraction the incident wave front is __________.
(a) Plane (b) Spherical (c) Circular (d) None of these
45. A glass plate upon which thousands of equally spaced opaque lines are ruled is called _________.
(a) Interferometer (b) Thin film (c) Diffraction grating (d) None of these
46. A typical diffraction grating has lines per centimeter ____________.
(a) 10 to 100 (b) 100 to 500 (c) 5000 to 6000 (d) None of these
47. The distance between centers of two adjacent slits is called __________.
(a) Grating space (b) Grating element (c) Grating distance (d) None of these
48. The spacing between the parallel lines is served as ___________.
(a) Slit (b) Fringe (c) Source of light (d) None of these
49. When light enters into a denser medium its velocity ___________.
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains the same
50. A monochromatic light beam is entering from one medium into another which one of the
following properties remains unchanged?
(a) Amplitude (b) Velocity (c) Wavelength (d) Frequency
51. The structure of crystal can be studied with the help of ____________ of x-rays:
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Polarization
52. When both the point source and the screen are placed at finite the phenomenon is called:
(a) Fresnel diffraction (b) Fraunhofer diffraction
53. Which of the following is not electromagnetic waves?
(a) X-rays (b) Radio waves (c) Ultra waves (d) 𝛼-rays
54. Light possesses:
(a) Transverse nature (b) Electromagnetic character
(c) Dual nature (d) All of these
55. Which of the following equation represents the Bragg’s law?
(a) m𝜆 = 2𝑑𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 (b) m𝜆 = 2𝑑𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃/2 (c) m𝜆 = 𝑑𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃
56. In young’s double-slit experiment the fringe spacing is:
(a) 𝑑𝜆/𝐿⃗⃗ (b) 𝜆𝐿⃗⃗/𝑑 (c) 𝑑/𝜆𝐿⃗⃗ (d) none
57. To replace a bright fringe by the next bright in Michelson’s interferometer, the movable mirror is
moved through a distance equal to:
(a) 𝜆 (b) 𝜆/2 (c) 𝜆/4 (d) 2𝜆
58. Which property of light is used to determine the concentration of an optically active substance
such as sugar?
(a) Interference (b) Dispersion (c) Diffraction (d) Polarization
59. The number of lines per cm of a diffraction grating is 4000, its grating element is:
(a) 2.5x10-4cm (b) 2.5x10-6cm (c) 4x102cm (d) 4x103cm

1) If the diffraction grating produces first order spectrum of light of wavelength 6 x 10-7 m at an angle
of 20o from the normal, calculate the number of lines per mm.
2) Why are X” rays not diffracted by diffraction grating or thin films?
3) In a double slit experiment, eight fringes occupy 2.62 mm on a screen 145 mm away from the slits.
The wave length of light is 545nm. Find the slit separation.
4) What is the difference between Fresnel and fraunhofer diffraction? Derive bragg`s law for X-ray
diffraction.
5) What is interference of Light? Differentiate between Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction. and what
is diffraction of light?
6) Green light of wavelength 5400Á is diffracted by grating having 2000 lines/cm. Compute the
angular deviation of the third order image.
7) What are the necessary conditions to observe the interference of light? Differentiate between
interference and diffraction or sound wave.
8) A parallel beam of X-rays is diffracted by rock salt crystals. The 1st order maximum being obtained
when the glancing angle of incidence is 6 degree and 5 minutes, the distance between the atomic
planes of crystal is 2-81 x 10-10 m. calculate the wavelength of radiation
9) 271 fringes are passed through a reference point when a moveable mirror of Michelson’s
interferometer is moved by 0.08mm. find wavelength of light used in Å?
10) A diffraction grating produces 3rd order spectrum of light of wavelength 7000 Å at an angle of 30°
from the normal. What is the grating element? Calculate the number of lines of grating per cm.
11) In a double slit experiment, the separation of the slit is 1.9 mm and the fringe spacing is 0.31 mm,
at a distance of 1mm from the slits. Find the wavelength of light.
12) A diffraction grating produces 3rd order spectrum of light of wavelength 7 x 10-7 m at an angle of
30° from the normal. What is the grating element? Calculate the number of lines of grating per
mm.

1) What is diffraction grating? How is it used to determine the wavelength of sodium light? Derive
the relevant mathematical expression.
2) Give the construction and working of Michelson interferometer. How is it used to determine the
wavelength of monochromatic light.
3) Explain the young`s double slits experiment and derive formula for fringe spacing.
4) What are the basic conditions for interference of light?
5) What are Newton’s rings? How are they produced? Derive expression of radius of n’th bright and
dark Newton’s ring.
CHAPTER 10 GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

1. If an astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 180cm and the focal length of its eye
piece in 20cm the magnification of the telescope is.
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
2. The power of a diverging lens of focal length 100cm is.
(a) 0.1diopter (b) -0.1diopter (c) 1diopter (d) -1diopter
3. The power of concave lens of focal length 50cm is:
(a) 0.5 dioptre (b) -2dioptre (c) 2 dioptre (d) none
4. The unit of power of lens is:
(a) Watt (b) joules (c) Dioptre (d) Newton
5. If an object is placed at 2F of the convex lens, the image will be formed at:
(a) 2F (b) 4F (c) 3F (d) F
6. A student is wearing the glasses of power 2.5 diopters its focal length will be:
(a) 25 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 40 cm
7. An astronomical telescope is focused at infinity with fo=60cm and fe=3cm has its length equal to:
(a) 63cm (b) 20cm (c) 57cm (d) 180cm
8. If an object is placed at principle focus ‘F’ of a converging lens, the image will be formed:
(a) At F (b) At 2F
(c) At Infinity (d) Between focus & optical centre
9. The final image formed by a compound microscope is:
(a) Virtual and diminished (b) Real and diminished
(c) Real and magnified (d) Virtual and magnified
10. An astronomical telescope of focused at infinity. The focal length of its objective is 0.2m and that
of the eyepiece is 5 cm. the length of the telescope is:
(a) 2.5cm (b) 4cm (c) 5.2cm (d) 25cm
11. A lens of linear magnification 3 is placed between an object and a fixed screen. If the size of the
image obtained is 6cm, the size of the object will be:
(a) 0.5 cm (b) 2cm (c) 3cm (d) 18cm
12. Speed of light in air __________________ km/s.
(a) 3x105 (b) 3x106 (c) 3x108 (d) None of these
13. A piece of transparent material is called __________.
(a) Mirror (b) Glass (c) Lens (d) None of these
14. If one side is plane and other is convex, then the lens is called ____________ lens.
(a) Double (b) Plano-concave (c) Plano-convex (d) None of these
15. Concave lens is a __________ lens.
(a) Diverging (b) Converging (c) Convex (d) None of these
16. ___________ lens is converging lens.
(a) Plane (b) Concave (c) Convex (d) None of these
17. The focal length of __________ lens is negative.
(a) Concave (b) Convex (c) Plane (d) None of these
18. If the focal length is 50cm, then the power of the lens is __________ dioptre.
19. The power of a concave lens is -1 dioptre, its focal length is m.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) -1 (d) None of these
20. If object is placed _______________, then the image formed by convex lens is “virtual”.
(a) Beyond 2F (b) between F and 2F (c) In the focal length (d) None of these
21. The image formed by concave lens is always __________.
(a) Virtual, smaller and erect (b) Virtual, grater and erect
(c) Real, smaller and inverted (d) None of these
22. If magnification is 1, then the size of image is ___________ the size of object.
(a) Greater than (b) Less than (c) Equal to (d) None of these
23. The reciprocal of the focal length (in metre) of a lens is called the __________ of the lens.
(a) Magnification (b) Size (c) Power (d) None of these
24. The unit of the power of lens is __________.
(a) Metre (b) Dioptre (c) Watt (d) None of these
25. A lens which is thicker at the center and thin at its edges is called ___________.
(a) Concave lens (b) Convex (c) Double concave (d) none of these
26. A lens which is thin at its center and thick at its edges is called __________.
(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens (c) Double convex (d) Plano convex
27. The center point of a lens is called ___________.
(a) Focal point (b) Optical center (c) Focal length (d) Principle focus
28. The distance of the principle focus to the optical center is called __________.
(a) Principle length (b) Focal length (c) Principle axis (d) None of these
29. A point at which all the rays which are parallel to the principle axis falls on a lens and converge, is
called ______.
(a) Focal point (b) Principle focus (c) Focal length (d) Optical center
30. If the object is placed at focus of a convex lens, then its image is formed at _________.
(a) F (b) 2F (c) infinity (d) None of these
31. If the object is placed between F and 2F of a convex lens then its image is formed ___________.
(a) At F (b) Between F and 2F (c) At 2F (d) Beyond 2F
32. If the object is placed beyond 2F of a convex lens then its image is formed __________.
(a) At 2F (b) Between F and 2F (c) Beyond 2F (d) At infinity
33. A ray passing through optical center of a lens after refraction __________.
(a) Passes through focus (b) Go undeflected
(c) Retraces its path (d) Both b and c
34. If the focal length of a convex lens is 5cm then to get real and inverted image of the same size as
that of the object, the object should be placed at __________.
(a) 5cm (b) 10cm (c) 15cm (d) 20cm
35. If the object and its image are located at a distance 50cm from that of a convex lens then focal
length of the lens will be________.
(a) 5cm (b) 10cm (c) 20cm (d) 25cm
36. The ratio of size of the image of that of object is called ________.
(a) Focal length (b) Principle axis (c) Linear magnification (d) Aperture
37. The sign convention of focal length of converging lens is _________.
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
38. The sign convention of focal length of diverging lens is _________.
(a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
39. The compound microscope consist of__________.
(a) One convex lens (b) Two convex lenses (c) One concave lens (d) Two concave lenses
40. In a compound microscope the focal length of objective lens is __________.
(a) Short (b) Large (c) Medium (d) None of these
41. In a compound microscope the focal length of eye-piece is __________.
(a) Small (b) Large (c) Medium (d) None of these
42. The eye piece of a compound microscope acts as __________.
(a) Converging lens (b) Converging mirror (c) Magnifying glass (d) None of these
43. In a compound microscope magnification is produced __________.
(a) Only by objective (b) Only by eye piece
(c) By both objective and eye piece (d) None of these
44. The working of a compound microscope is based on the principle of __________.
(a) Reflection (b) Refraction (c) Both a and b (d) None of these
45. The final image formed by compound microscope is __________.
(a) Virtual and inverted (b) Real and erect (c) Real and inverted (d) Virtual and erect
46. A simple astronomical telescope consist of __________.
(a) One convex lens (b) Two convex lenses (c) One concave lens (d) Two concave lenses
47. The objective of astronomical telescope has __________.
(a) Short focal length (b) Long focal length
(c) Very short focal length (d) None of these
48. The eye-piece of astronomical telescope has __________.
(a) Short focal length (b) Long focal length
(c) Very long focal length (d) None of these
49. Magnifying power of astronomical telescope is increases with __________.
(a) Decrease of fo (b) Increase of fo (c) Increase of fe (d) None of these
50. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is increased when the focal length of eye
piece is ________.
(a) Increased (b) Decreased (c) Kept constant (d) None of these
51. The power of a convex lens of focal length 5cm is:
(a) 1 dioptre (b) 5 dioptre (c) 20 dioptre (d) 0.2 dioptre
52. If an astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 90cm and the focal length of its eye
piece is 10 cm the length of the telescope will be:
(a) 9cm (b) 100cm (c) 80cm (d) None of these
53. As astronomical telescope is focused at infinity. The focal length of its objective is 0.2 and that of
the eyepiece is 5cm. The length of the telescope is:
(a) 2.5cm (b) 4cm (c) 5.2cm (d) 25cm

1) If an astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 5cm of its eye-piece is 10cm, the
length of the telescope will be.
2) A compound microscope has an objective of a focal length of 10mm and a tube 100mm long. An
image is produced 250mm from the eye-piece when the object is 12mm from the objective. What
is the angular magnification?
3) If the magnification of a telescope is 11 and its length is 120 cm, determine the focal lengths of its
objective and eye piece when the telescope is focused for infinity.
4) An astronomical telescope has a length of 105 cm, and its magnification is 6. Determine the power
of objective and eye piece.
5) How is the magnifying power of the (i) Astronomical telescope and (ii) compound microscope
affected by increasing the focal length of their objectives?
6) An astronomical telescope having angular magnification 5 consists of two lenses 24cm apart. Find
the power of its lenses
7) A microscope has an objective of 12mm focal length and eyepiece of 25mm focal length. What is
the distance between the lenses? What is the magnifying power if the object is in sharp focus
when it is 15mm from the objective?
8) Derive expression to show the focal length of lens combination.

1) Draw a neat ray diagram of a compound microscope & derive expression for its magnification.
(Description is not required) and explain its construction and working?
2) What is magnifying power? Give its formula. With the help of a ray diagram, describe the working
of a magnifying glass and derive the formula for its magnification.
XI-SCIENCE (CHEMISTRY) Page | 50

XI-CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER 1 STOICHIOMETRY
SECTION A (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
1. If the volume occupied by oxygen gas (O2) at STP is 44.8dm3, the number of molecules of O2 in
the vessels are:
a. 3.01 x 1023 b. 6.02 x 1023 c. 12.04 x 1023 d. 24.08 x 1023
2. The number of carbon atoms in 1 mole of sugar (C12H22O11) are approximately:
a. 6 x 1023 b. 24 x 1023 c. 60 x 1023 d. 72 x 1023
3. In the reaction 2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2, if 23g of Na reacts with excess of water, the
volume of hydrogen gas (H2) liberated at STP should be:
a. 11.2dm3 b. 22.4dm3 c. 33.6dm3 d. 44.8dm3
4. Which of the following sample of substances contains the same number of atoms as that of
20g calcium:
a. 16g S b. 20g C c. 19g K d. 24g Mg
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a. The mass of 1 mole Cl2 gas is 35.5g
b. One mole of H2 gas contains 6.02x1023 molecules of H2
c. Number of atoms in 23g Na and 24g Mg are equal
d. One moles of O2 at S.T.P occupy 22.4 dm3 volume
6. For Avogadro’s number, this statement is incorrect:
a. It is the no. of particles in one moles of any substances
b. its numerical value is 6.02 x 1023
c. Its value change if temperature increases
d. Its value change if number of moles increases
7. The minimum number of moles are present in:
a. 1 dm3 of methane gas at STP b. 5 dm3 of helium gas at STP
c. 10 dm3 of hydrogen gas at STP d. 22.4 dm3 of chlorine gas at STP
8. Number of atoms in 60g carbon are:
a. 3.01 x 1023 b. 3.01 x 1024 c. 6.02 x 1024 d. 6.02 x 1024
9. Maximum number of molecules present in the following sample of gas:
a. 100g O2 b. 100g CH4 c. 100g CO2 d. 100g Cl2
10. Generally actual yield is:
a. Greater than theoretical yield b. Less than theoretical yied
c. Equal to the theoretical yield
d. Some times greater and some times less than theoretical yield
SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Important Definitions. (Most Important 100%)
• Molar Volume
• Stoichiometry
• Limiting Reactant
• Excess Reactant
• Rounding off
• Significant figures
• Error and accuracy
• Empirical formula
• Molecular formula
• Mole
• Exponential notation
• Avogadro’s Number
• Theoretical yield
• Percentage yield
• Actual yield
Numerical Questions (Given Separately)

1. Calculate the No Of atoms in 9.2gm of Na.
2. Find the No of Moles of 2400gm of (i) CO2, (ii) CaCO3. (iii)Na2CO3 ,(iv) MgBr2
3. Ammonia gas can be produced by heating together the solid NH4Cl and Ca(OH)2
2NH4CL + Ca(OH)2 →2NH3 + CaCl2 + 2H2O
4. Determine the No of molecules of 0.105g of H2S gas. Also find its Volume occupied at STP.
5. Book Question Pg # 20 Q#3
6. Chlorine is Produced on a Large Scale by Electrolysis of NaCl Aqueous solution. Calculate the
Mass Of NaCl Required to produce 142gm Of Chlorine.
2NaCl + 2H2O → Cl2 + H2 + 2NaOH.
7. Calculate the Volume Of CO2 gas Produced at STP by Complete Combustion Of 20gm Of CH4, Also
Find the Volume Of O2. CH4 + 2O2 →CO2 + 2H2O
8. Text Book Page 21 Q#5.
9. Text book Page 20 Q#4
10. 58gm Of Solid Dinitrogen Pentaoxide is decomposed on burning as follows:
2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2
Find the volume of NO2 produced and mass of O2 produced.
11. Find the Mass of CH3OH produced when 356g of CO is mixed 65g Of H2.
CO + 2H2 ---------------------> CH3OH
12. 100g of KNO3 heated to Redness. Find Volume of Oxygen is liberated at 39°C and 765 torr
Pressure. 2KNO3→ 2KNO2 + O2
13. ZnCl2 is prepared by the reaction Zn + 2HCL →ZnCl2 + H2
6.54gm of Zn Reacts with 73gms of HCL. Find the Limiting Reactant and mass Of ZnCl2 Produced.
14. Iron pyrites are commonly used to produce Sulphur dioxide (SO2) for production of Sulphuric
acid (H2SO4). When 90g FeS2 is completely burnt, what volume of SO2 gas will be obtained at
25OC and 975 torr.
FeS2 + O2 → Fe2O3 + SO2
15. What volume of CO2 measured at 20OC and 720 torr pressure will be produce by the reaction
between 200gm of Na2CO3 and HCl.
Na2CO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + CO2 + H2O
16. Text Book Example 1.17 page 16
17. Zn reacts with H2SO4 As given .
Zn +H2SO4→ ZnSO4 +H2
Calculate the mass of ZnSO4 , the volume of of H2 , the Moles and the Molecules of H2 and ZnSO4
which will be produced by reacting 163.5gm of Zn with H2SO4 at S.T.P.
18. Sodium Thiosulphate (Na2S2O3) can be prepared by the Reaction given below.
2Na2S + Na2CO3 + 4SO2 → 3Na2S2O3 + CO2
Find the mass of Na2S2O3 that can be obtained by heating 200g of each of the given three
reactants together.??
19. What is the minimum mass of Al(OH)3 That can be obtained by 13.4g of AlCl3 and 10g NaOH.
AlCl3 + 3NaOH → Al(OH)3 + 3NaCl
20. Diethyl Zinc Combustion gives 53% Zn , 38.9%C And 8.1% Hydrogen. Find the Empirical formula
of the compound.
21. Find the Mass of KCLO3 , Required to prepare 3.2gm of O2.
2KCLO3 →2KCL +3O2
22. Find the Mass , No of moles and No of molecules of 44800cm3 Of H2S at S.T.P.
23. 1300g of CH4 is burnt in the Presence of 4000g Of Oxygen.
CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
Calculate the Volume of CO2 AND H2O Produced.
24. Text Book Example 1.16 and self-assessment page no 14 ,15.
CHAPTER 2 ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1. Bohr’s theory is not applicable to which of the following species.
a. H b. H+ c. He+1 d. Li+2
2. Nitrogen has the electronic configuration 1s 2s 2p x2p y2p z and not 1s22s22p2x2p1y. This is
2 2 1 1 1
determined by.
a. Aufbau principle b. Pauli’s rule c. Hund’s rule d. n + ℓ rule
3. Quantum number values for 3s orbital are
a. 𝑛 = 0, ℓ = 1 b. 𝑛 = 1, ℓ = 0 c. 𝑛 = 3, ℓ = 1 d. 𝑛 = 3, ℓ = 0
4. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is …….
a. 529 Å b. 52.9 Å c. 5.29 Å d. 0.529 Å
5. Line spectrum is used as a tool for the identification of …..
a. Colors b. Electrons c. Elements d. Molecules
6. In 1935 A.D. James Chadwick was awarded Nobel Prize because…
a. He discovered proton b. He discovered neutron
c. He determined the radius of hydrogen atom d. he gave the rules for electronic configuration
7. When 4d orbital is filled, the next electron pair
a. 5s b. 5p c. 5d d. 6s
8. Which of the following is not an iso electronic pair
a. Na+ and Ne b. Na+ and F– c. Na and Ca d. Na+ and Mg+2
9. Balmer series appears in the hydrogen spectrum if electron jump from any appropriate higher
energy orbit to
a. Second orbit b. Third orbit c. Fourth orbit d. Fifth orbit
10. The shape of orbital for which ℓ = 0 is
a. Spherical b. Dumbbell c. Double dumbbell d. Complicated

1. Defects of Rutherford atomic model and Bohr’s Postulates
2. Derivations of Radius, Energy, Frequency, Wavelength and Wave Number. (Most
Important 100%)
3. Difference Between Continues spectrum and line spectrum
4. X – Rays, Who Discovered them and how? Explain the construction and working of the
apparatus used for the discovery of X Rays.
5. Comparison between alpha, beta and gamma Rays.
6. Short note on Quantum numbers.
7. Statement of Pauli’s, Hund’s, Aufbau and n + L rule. (Most important 100%)
Numerical Questions.
• Calculate the radius of 4th and 5th orbit of hydrogen atom.
• Calculate the wave number of photons when electron jumps from 6th Orbit to Balmer Series,
also calculate the wavelength of photons.
(Similar questions can be asked regarding Lyman, Brackett, Paschen and Pfund Series.
• Write the Electronic Configuration of the following (Z = 17, 24, 29, 42, 47, 35, Ca++, Br-)
Or arrange the following by n+l Rule (1s, 4p, 4s, 2s, 3p, 3s, 3d, 2p, 4f, 5s, 5d)
• Write the correct sequence of orbitals for electronic configuration according to (n+l) rule.
*4d, 7s , 4f, 4s, 3p, 1s, 3d, 2p, 2s
Also write the electronic configuration of the following.
Br - (Z=35) * Cu (Z = 29)
• Describe Each Quantum No and write the value of Four Quantum Numbers for 3d1.
• State Pauli’s and Hund’s Rule of Electronic Distribution. And Write the Electronic
Configuration Of K+(Z=19) , Ca+2 (Z=20) , Cr(Z=24) , Cu (Z=29)
• Bohr’s Radius is 0.529A°. Find the radius of 3rd ,4th and 6th orbit of Hydrogen atom.
THEORIES OF COVALENT BONDING AND

CHAPTER 3
SHAPES OF MOLECULES
1. If the bond angle in AB2 type molecule is 104.5o, it geometry should be:
a) Linear b) Pyramidal c) Bent d) Planar Trigonal
2. The highest bond energy in the following is:
a) Cl – Cl b) H – F c) H – O d) H – N
3. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is:
a) NH3 b) HCl c) H2O d) CCl4
4. The molecule which has maximum bond angle:
a) CS2 b) H2O c) NH3 d) BF3
5. The shape and hybridization of BCl3 molecule is:
a) Tetrahedral and sp3 b) Linear and sp
2
c) Planar trigonal and sp d) Angular and sp3
6. Amongst the following molecules which one has trigonal pyramidal shape?
a) SO2 b) CO2 c) NH3 d) C2H4
7. A simple covalent molecule possesses two bond pairs and two one pairs around the central
atom, its shape should be:
a) Linear b) Planar trigonal c) Angular d) Tetrahedral
8. The correct relation between Debye and coulomb meter is:
a) ID = 3.33 X 10-30Cm b) ID = 1.6 X 10-19Cm c) ID = 1.88 X 10-12Cm d) ID = 1.23 X 10-8Cm
9. The bond order of N2 molecule is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
10. The number of sigma and pi bonds in C2H4 molecule are respectively:
a) 3 and 1 b) 2 and 2 c) 5 and 1 d) 4 and 2

(i) Differentiate between Valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory
(ii) Write the Molecular Orbital Electronic Configuration of the following.
(H2, O2, N2). Also write their Bond Order, Magnetic Nature and Stability. Also Draw Energy
diagrams of all of the above.
(iii) Write the Postulates of VSEPR Theory and Predict the Shape of the following According to
VSEPR Theory and Hybrid Orbital Theory.
(H2O, CH4, CCl4, NH3, BF3, BeCl2, C2H2, C2H4, H2S, SO3, CO2). Also Predict whether the
Dipole Moment is Zero Or Not in all of the above.
(iv) Define Hybridization and Explain Hybridization Of Methane, Ethane, Ethene and Ethyne
Molecule.
Numerical Questions.
25. Explain the Structure Of BF3 and H2O on the basis of Electron Pair Repulsion Theory.
26. Explain the shapes of the Following Molecules on the basis Of VSEPRT And Hybird Orbital model.
• H2O
• BeCl2
• NH3
• C2H4
• HCl
CHAPTER 4 GASES
1. According to Graham’s Law of diffusion, the ratio of diffusion of H2 and O2 are respectively:
a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 1:4 d) 4:1
2. Collection of gas over water is an example of:
a) Graham’s law b) Dalton’s law c) Avogadro’s law d) Gaylussac law
3. The molar volume of oxygen gas is maximum at:
a) 0oC and 1 atm b) 0oC and 2 atm c) 25oC and 1 atm d) 25oC and 2 atm
4. The diffusion rate of C3H8 and CO2 are same because:
a) Both are poly atomic gases b) Both are denser than air
c) Both have same molar mass d) Both contains carbon atoms
5. The volume of gas would be theoretically zero at:
a) 0oC b) 0 K c) 273 K d) 273o K
6. Real gas reaches the ideal behavior at:
a) Low temperature and low pressure b) High temperature and high pressure
c) Low temperature and high pressure d) High temperature and low pressure
7. Which one of the following statement is incorrect about the gas molecules?
a) They have large spaces b) They possess kinetic energy
c) Their collision is elastic d) Their molar mass depends upon temerature
8. If the Kelvin temperature of ideal gas is increase to double and pressure is reduce to one half,
the volume of gas will:
a) Remains same b) Double c) Reduced to half d) Four time
9. The molar volume of oxygen gas is 22.4 dm3 at:
a) 0oC and 1 atm b) 25oC and 0.5 atm c) 0 K and 1 atm d) 25 K and 0.5 atm
10. Under similar condition CH4 gas diffuses …….. times faster than SO2 gas:
a) 1.5 time b) 2 times c) 4 times d) 16 times

(i) Write the Postulates of KMT of gases.
(ii) Calculate two of R in different units. Also explain the deviation of real gas from ideal
behavior.
(iii) Derive Mathematical expression for Van Der Waal’s Equation.
(iv) State Daltons law of partial pressure and derive a mathematical expression for the partial
pressure of gas. Explain its application as well.
(v) State Graham’s law of diffusion and derive mathematical expressions relevant to it.
(vi) State Joule Thomson effect, how gases can be liquified, Explain briefly.
Numerical Questions (Chapter 4, 5 & 6).

27. Calculate the Density Of CH4 and H2S in g/dm3 at 25°C and 300 torr Pressure.
28. A Gaseous Mixture of CH4 and CO2 at 60°C and total pressure of 3.5 atm contains 65mole % CH4.
What are the Partial Pressures of both the gases in the mixture.
29. 1100ml of CO2 at a pressure of 500 Torr ,1500ml N2 at pressure of 400 torr and 800ml O2 at 600
torr are placed together in a container of 1000ml capacity. Find the Partial pressure of each gas
and also find the total pressure of the mixture.
30. If 16ml Of Hydrogen diffuse in 30 sec, what volume SO2 will diffuse in the same time (30sec)
under similar conditions.
31. Calculate 2 possible value of General gas constant (R) .
32. A 15dm3 flask at 200C contains a gaseous mixture if H2 and He at a total pressure of 1420 torr. If
0.152 mole of H2 is present, find the partial pressure of the gases.
33. In the preparation of oxygen in the Laboratory, 500cm3 of moist oxygen gas was collected
overwater at 25OC and at 824 torr pressure. What volume of dry oxygen gas is produced at
S.T.P? (Pressure of water vapour at 250C = 24torr).
34. Compare the Relative Rate of Densities of O2 And N2 . Which Gas diffuses faster?
35. What Volume will be Occupied by 14gm Of N2 gas at 20°C and 740 torr Pressure.
36. If 2gm Nitrogen , 0.4gm Hydrogen gas and 9.0gm O2 gas are placed in a Container of 1 liter at
30°C, Calculate Total Pressure and Partial Pressure Of gas?
37. Calculate the Density Of SO2 in g/dm3 at 25°C and 300 torr Pressure.
38. How do Real Gas Differ From IDEAL gas behaviour? Derive Ideal Gas Equation.
39. Give Reasons Of the Following:
• A Liquid is less viscous at high Temperatures.
• Why cooking takes longer at Mountain than Sea Level.
• Metallic Crystals are good conductor of electricity and Ionic Crystals are not. Why?
• Lighter Gas Can Diffuse Faster than Heavier Gas, why?
40. Calculate the Volume Of Nitrogen Gas Produced By Heating 800gm Of Ammonia at 21°C and 824
torr Pressure. 2NH3 →→→→→N2 + 3H2
41. Helium Takes 5 sec to effuse from a hole 10dm3 Container. How long would it take for Oxygen
gas to Effuse from the Same Container at the same Temperature and Pressure.
42. A 500cm3 Vessel Contains 2gm of He and 8gm of CH4. What is the Total Pressure of the Mixture
of these gases at 30°C?
43. Calculate the Volume of gas weighing 25gm at 25°C and 1.5 atm Pressure, Which diffuses twice
faster than SO2.
CHAPTER 5 LIQUIDS
1. The boiling point of water (H2O) is 100oC where as that of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is 42oC, this
can be attributed to:
a) Smaller bond angle of H2S than H2O b) Smaller radii of oxygen than sulphur
c) High I.P of oxygen than sulphur d) Tendency of water to form hydrogen bond
2. Liquids can form convex meniscus in a narrow glass tube when:
a) Cohesive forces are stronger than adhesive forces
b) Adhesive forces are stronger than cohesive forces
c) Cohesive and adhesive forces are equal in strength d) None of these
3. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Viscosity is the resistance against flow of liquid
b) Liquid possess definite volume
c) One feels sense of cooling after bath due to condensation
d) Sublimation is endothermic process.
4. Which of the following possesses weakest London dispersion forces:
a) Cl2 b) F2 c) Br2 d) I2
5. Hydrogen bond is not found in
a) H2O b) CH4 c) NH3 d) HF
6. The boiling points of different liquids may be different at the same external pressure due to:
a) Amount of liquids b) Intermolecular forces c) Surface area d) Viscosities
7. Which statement is incorrect about evaporation?
a) It is an exothermic process b) It is a reverse process of condensation
c) It occurs at all temperature and pressure d) It causes cooling effect
8. Which of the following liquids show maximum surface tension?
a) Water b) Mercury c) Ethyl alcohol d) Gasoline
9. A non-polar molecule with bigger size will experience:
a) London forces b) dipole-dipole interaction
c) Hydrogen bonding d) All of these
10. Cooking time is reduced in a pressure cooker because:
a) Boiling point of water increases b) Boiling point of water decrease
c) Vapor pressure of liquid is reduced d) Heat is uniformly distributed
(i) Define Hydrogen Bonding and explain the hydrogen bonding in water and HF molecule.
Why H2SO4 has high viscosity and high boiling point or why ethyl alcohol is more viscous
than di methyl ether. Explain.
(ii) Define Viscosity and explain the factors effecting on viscosity. Write its unit as well.
(iii) Define Surface tension and explain the factors effecting on Surface Tension. Write its unit.
(iv) Define Vapor Pressure and explain the factors effecting on vapor pressure. Write its unit.
(v) Simple Definitions of (Normal Boiling point, Evaporation, Molar Heat of fusion and molar
heat of vaporization, Sublimation, Condensation, Capillary action and liquid crystals.
SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)
CHAPTER 6 SOLIDS
1. Quantity of energy released when 1 mole of the ionic crystal is formed from the gaseous ions
is called:
a) Bond energy b) Potential energy c) Ionization energy d) Lattice energy
2. Graphite ca conduct electricity in one direction only. With this behavior, it is said to be:
a) Amorphous b) Symmetrical c) Anisotropic d) Polymorphous
3. NaCl and MgO are isomorphous solids because these have same:
a) Melting point b) Boiling point c) Geometrical shapes d) Chemical Properties
4. The temperature at which two allotropic forms co-exist in equilibrium is called as:
a) Melting temperature b) Fusion temperature
c) Transition temperature d) Critical temperature
5. Diamond is the example of:
a) Ionic solid b) Covalent solid c) Metallic solid d) Molecular solid
6. Ice is molecular solid, the intermolecular force of attraction among its molecules are:
a) Ionic bond b) Covalent bond c) Metallic bond d) Hydrogen bond
7. If all three axes in unit cell are of different length but all angles are of 90o then it is identified
as:
a) Orthorhombic system b) Cubic system
c) Tetragonal system d) Hexagonal system
+ –
8. In NaCl, each Na ion is surrounded by Cl ions in the numbers:
a) Four b) Three c) Six d) Seven
9. It is an example of crystalline solid:
a) Alum b) Glass c) Plastic d) Rubber
10. Each unit cell of sodium chloride consists of:
a) Eight Na+ and Eight Cl– ions b) Two Na+ and Two Cl– ions
c) Four Na+ and Four Cl– ions d) Four Na+ and Six Cl– ions

(i) Differentiate between Crystalline and amorphous solids.
(ii) Define Unit Cell. Draw a diagram to show its axial distances and axial angles.
(iii) Differentiate between Isomorphism and Polymorphism.
(iv) Some important definitions.
(Transition temperature, Sublimation, melting and melting point, Allotropy, Lattice energy).
CHAPTER 7 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

1. In the equilibrium system of 𝑃𝐶𝑙2(𝑔) ⇌ 𝑃𝐶𝑙3(𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2(𝑔) , the correct relationship between Kc
and Kp is:
𝐾𝑝
a) Kp > Kc b) Kp < Kc c) Kp = Kc d) 𝐾𝑐
=1
2. The equilibrium of which of the following reaction would not be affected by an increase in
pressure:
a) 𝑃𝐶𝑙5(𝑔) ⇌ 𝑃𝐶𝑙3(𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2(𝑔) b) 2𝑁𝑂(𝑔) + 𝐶𝑙2(𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂𝐶𝑙(𝑔)
c) 𝑁2(𝑔) + 𝑂2(𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑁𝑂(𝑔) d) 2𝑆𝑂2(𝑔) + 𝑂2(𝑔) ⇌ 2𝑆𝑂3(𝑔)
3. What happens to the value of Kc when a catalyst is added to a chemical system at equilibrium?
a) It decreases b) It Increases c) It becomes zero d) It remains unchanged
4. The correct Ksp expression of a sparingly soluble salt Li2C2O4 among the following is:
a) Ksp = [Li+ ][C2 O−2
4 ] b) Ksp = [Li+ ]2 [C2 O−2
4 ]
−2
+
c) Ksp = [2Li ][C2 O4 ] d) Ksp = [2Li ] [C2 O−2
+ 2
4 ]
2
5. If the equilibrium expression of a reversible reaction is

[C]2
Kc =
[A][B]
The balanced equilibrium equation should be:
a) C ⇌ A + B b) A + B ⇌ C c) 2C ⇌ A + B d) A + B ⇌ 2C
6. The equilibrium of N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) (∆H = +ve) is affected by change in:
a) Temperature only b) Pressure only
c) Both temperature and pressure d) Neither temperature nor pressure
7. In the reaction 𝐴(𝑔) + 𝐵(𝑔) ⇌ 2𝐶(𝑔) , the equilibrium constants Kp = Kc because:
a) ∆n > 1 b) ∆n < 1 c) ∆n = 1 d) ∆n = 0
8. The term active mass use in law of mass action means:
a) No. of mole b) No. of molecules c) Mole per dm3 d) gram per dm3
9. NaCl when added to an aqueous silver chloride solution:
a) Decreases the solubility of AgCl b) Increases the solubility of AgCl
c) Forms a clear solution d) Does not effect
10. Some reactions are nearly to completion in the forward direction and identified by their:
a) Very high value of Kc b) Very low value of Kc
c) Very high value of ∆H d) Very low value of ∆H

(i) Statement of Law of mass action and Derivation of Kc and Applications of Kc.
(ii) Statement of Le – Chatelier’s Principle and Explain effect of temperature, pressure and
concentration on equilibrium state.
(iii) Industrial application of Le – Chatelier’s Principle in contact process and Haber Bosch
Process.
(iv) Define Solubility Product, Ionic Product, Common ion effect and their applications.
Numerical Questions:
KC:-
44. In a Reaction H2 + I2 →→→→→ 2HI , When Equilibrium was attained.
The Concentrations were [H2] = [I2] =[HI] = 4moles /dm3.Calculate the Equilibrium
Constant and the initial concentrations of H2 and I2.
45. One mole of HI is introduced into a vessel held at constant temperature. When equilibrium is
reached, it is found that 0.1 mole of I2 has been formed. Calculate the equilibrium constant (Kc).
46. Apply Le-Chatelier Principal on the application of CONTACT Process and Predict the direction of
equilibrium. 2SO2 + O2 →→→→→2SO2
❖ Temperature is increased to 2000C.
❖ More O2 is added.
❖ Pressure is increased from 1 atm to 2 atm.
47. 5.88 moles of nitrogen and 16.2 moles of Oxygen are mixed and heated at 2000°C
until the Equilibrium was established , 11.28 moles of nitric oxide are formed. Calculate the
Value OF Equilibrium Constant. N2 + O2 →→ 2NO
48. When 60gm of Acetic acid , 46gm of Ethyl Alcohol are heated to give an Equilibrium Mixture,
12gm of Water and 58.7gm of Ethyl Acetate are Formed. Find Kc For the Reaction . Chemical
Reaction is Mentioned Below.
CH3COOH + C2H5OH →→→→CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
49. In a Reaction A + B →→ 2C, When Equilibrium Was Attained the Concentration was [A] = [B] =
4moles/dm3, And [C] = 6moles/dm3. Calculate the Equilibrium Constant Kc and the Initial Conc.
Of A and B.
50. 4.6gm Of Ethyl Alcohol and 6gm Of Acetic Acid were Kept at Constant Temperature until
equilibrium , 2 gm Of acetic acid remained unused. Calculate Kc For the Reaction.
CH3COOH + C2H5OH →→→→CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
51. Equilibrium Mixture Contains 76.4gm N2O4 and 1.56gm NO2 Confined in a 3L Flask at 25°C,
Predict the Direction of Reaction in which Reaction N2O4 →→2NO2 has to Proceed In
Order To attain Equilibrium. (Kc is 5×105).
52. A Quantity Of PCl5 was heated in a 12dm3 vessel at 250°C.
PCL5 ➔➔PCL3 + Cl2
At Equilibrium, the Vessel Contains 0.21 mole PCL5 , 0.32 mol PCL3 and 0.32 Mole Cl2. Compute
the Equilibrium Constant Kc.
53. For the gaseous equilibrium PCl5 ➔➔ PCl3 + Cl2 ; ∆H = 87.9 KJ/mole;
Explain the effect upon the Material distribution Of (a)Increased Temprature (b)Increased
Pressure (c) Higher Concentration Of Cl2 (d) Higher Conc. Of PCL5 (e) Presence Of Catalyst.
54. Consider the Following Equilibrium :
(i) 3O2 ➔➔ 2O3 ∆H = positive
(ii) H2 +I2 ➔➔ 2HI ∆H = positive
(iii) 2SO2 + O2➔➔ 2SO3 ∆H = negative
(iv) CH2=CH2 ➔➔CH3-CH3 ∆H = negative
(a) Write the Equilibrium Constant Expressions.
(b) In which direction will Each Equilibrium Change as the Temperature is Raised?
(c) What will be the effect on reaction Will Be by the change in total Pressure.
55. When 1 mole of Pure Ethyl Alcohol (C2H5OH) is mixed With 1 mole Of Acetic acid CH3COOH at
Room temperature, the Equilibrium Mixture Contain 2/3 mole of ester (CH3COOC2H5) and water.
What is the Equilibrium Constant Kc. How many moles of ester are formed when3 moles of
alcohol are mixed with 1 mole of acetic acid?
56. A Quantity Of PCl5 of 1mole was heated in a 10dm3 vessel at 250°C.
PCL5 ➔➔PCL3 + Cl2
Find the Concentrations at Equilibrium . Kc = 0.041.
KSP:-
57. Should Mg(OH)2 Precipitate out from 500ml of 4.75g/dm3 solution of MgCl2, On the Addition of
200ml NaOH Having PH 12? The Solubility Product Of Mg(OH)2 is 9.0×1011 moles/dm3.
58. The Solubility Of AgCl at 25°C is 1.40×10-3 grams/dm3. Its Molecular Mass is 143.5.
Calculate the Molarity Of AgCl Solution and Solubility Product Of AgCl.
59. What is the Ionic Conc. Of Ag+ and CrO4- in a saturated Solution of AgCrO4 at 25°C. Ksp Of AgCrO4
is 1.9×10-13 moles3/dm9.
60. The Conc. Of Ag+ ions is 1×10-6 moles/dm3 in AgBr Solution. Find The Minimum Conc. Of Br - ions
necessary to cause precipitation of AgBr. (Ksp Of AgBr = 4×10-13 moles/dm3.
61. Should AgCl Precipitate From a Solution Prepared by mixing 400ml of 0.1M NaCl and 600ml Of
0.03M of AgNO3? (Ksp Of AgCl = 1.6×10-10 moles/dm3).
62. Will Cadmium Hydroxide From 0.01M of saturated Solution Of CdCl2 at PH 9. (Ksp Of Cd(OH)2 is
2.5×10-4 moles2/dm6.
63. Should PbCrO4 Precipitate From a Solution Prepared by Mixing 100cm3 of 2.5×10-4M Pb(NO3)2
and 300cm3 of 1.5×10-8M K2CrO4?(Ksp Of PbCrO4 = 1.8×10-14)
64. The Solubility Product Of Lead iodide (PbI2) at 25°C is 1×10-9mol3/dm9. If Its Molecular Mass is
461. Find its Solubility ?
65. The Solubility Of Mg(OH)2 at 25°C is 0.00764g/dm3. What is the Solubility Product Of Mg(OH)2?
Ksp = 9.0×10-12 mol2/dm6)
CHAPTER 8 ACIDS, BASES & SALTS

1. H2SO4 is stronger acid than CH3COOH because:
a) It gives two H+ ion per molecule b) Its boiling point is high
c) Its degree of ionization is high d) It is highly corrosive
2. Al2O3 is amphoteric oxide because it reacts with:
a) Acids b) Base c) Both acids and base d) neither acid nor base
3. Which of the following is not a Buffer solution:
a) CH3COOH/CH3COONa b) Na2CO3/NaHCO3
c) NH4OH/NH4Cl d) NaOH/HCl
4. Which oxide is amphoteric in nature:
a) K2O b) CO2 c) CaO d) Al2O3
5. Which of the following does not alter the pH of a solution?
a) NH4Cl b) Na2CO3 c) NaCl d) Mg(OH)Cl
6. Conjugated acid of NH3 is:
a) NH4+ b) NH2− c) NH2 d) NH
7. Salt which is formed by the neutralization of weak acid and strong base is:
a) NaNO3 b) NH4Cl c) Na2CO3 d) NH4CN
8. Which of the following statements is not correct about the bases?
a) They have bitter tastes b) They have high pH value
c) They react with acids to form salts d) They turn blue litmus red
9. A conjugate acid base pair has the difference of only:
a) One electron b) One proton c) One electron pair d) One proton pair
10. Salt formed by neutralization of weak acid and weak base is:
a) NH4Cl b) Na2CO3 c) NH4CN d) Na2SO4

(i) Define buffer solutions, how buffers are made and how they resist the change of PH upon
addition of acids and bases.
(ii) Differentiate between hydrolysis and hydration.
Numerical Questions (Chapter 8 & 10):

PH /POH And Molarity.
66. Define PH And POH. What is the PH of 0.1M Of HCl at 25°C.
67. PH Of a Solution is 8.4. Calculate the Conc Of H+ and OH- ion.
68. 3.86gm Of NaOH is Dissolved in 2.5 dm3 Of Solution. Find Its Molarity and its PH.
69. Define PH. What is the PH Of 0.002M NaOH solution at 25°C?
70. Calculate the PH and POH of a Solution Of Nitric Acid Whose Concentration is 2.0×10-2
mole/dm3.
71. The Aqueous Solution Of Mg(OH)2 is 60% Ionized. Calculate its PH.
72. Find The Conc. Of H+ and OH- ion concentration of a solution having PH equal to 7.86?
CHAPTER 9 CHEMICAL KINETICS

1. For a hypothetical reaction x + y → z, if the conc. of x is double, the rate increases by square
and if the conc. of y doubled the rate increases by twice. The experimental rate law of this
reaction is:
a) 𝑅 = 𝐾[𝑥]1 [𝑦]1 b) 𝑅 = 𝐾[𝑥]1 [𝑦]2 c) 𝑅 = 𝐾[𝑥]2 [𝑦]1 d) 𝑅 = 𝐾[𝑥]2 [𝑦]2
2. The unit of rate constant (K) for the first order reaction is:
a) 𝑠 −1 b) 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐. 𝑠 −1 c) 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐 −1 . 𝑠 d) 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐.−1 𝑠 −1
3. Rate constant of a reaction is affected by:
a) Conc. of reactants b) Conc. of products c) Temperature d) Reaction time
4. The purpose of using of catalyst in a chemical reaction is to change:
a) Equilibrium constant b) Enthalpy of reaction
c) Activation energy d) Nature of reaction
5. The overall order of reaction to which the rate law is R = K:
a) Zero order b) First order c) Second order d) Third order
6. Ionic reactions are classified into:
a) slow reaction b) Moderate reactions c) Fast reactions d) Reversible reaction
7. The decomposition of H2O2 is inhibited by:
a) 2% ethanol b) Glycerin c) MnO2 d) V2O5
8. The best alternative term for the velocity of reaction is:
a) Rate of appearance b) Rate of disappearance
c) Average rate d) Instantaneous rate
9. Order of reaction is the power to which concentration of reactant is:
a) Lowered b) Raised c) Stopped d) Constant
10. In the reaction A → B, the rate of disappearance is written as:
𝑑𝐴 −𝑑𝐴 𝑑𝐵 −𝑑𝐵
a) 𝑑𝑡 b) 𝑑𝑡 c) 𝑑𝑡 d) 𝑑𝑡

(i) List of Factors effecting the rate of chemical Reactions and their details explicitly.
(ii) Reasoning from text book Page 197 Q4.
(iii) Define the following.
❖ Activation energy and activated complex
❖ Threshold energy and internal energy
❖ Promotor and Inhibitor
❖ Rate Constant, Rate of Reaction, Order of reaction and Rate Expression.
Numerical Questions:
73. The rate constant for the decomposition of Nitrogen dioxide is 1.8x10-3Ms-1
2NO2→→→→→→2NO + O2.
❖ Write rate expression.
❖ Find the initial rate when initial Conc. of NO2 is 0.75M.
❖ Find the rate constant when initial Conc. of NO2 is doubled.
74. For The Given Reaction A + B ➔ 2C. Determine the
(a) Order of Reaction
(b) Rate Constant
(c) What will be the Effect on the Rate Constant , If the Conc. Of A Or B is Doubled?
(d) What will be the Effect on the Rate of Reaction, If the Conc. Of A Or B is Doubled?
S.NO [A] Moles/dm3 [B] Moles/dm3 Rate Moles/dm3s-1
1 0.1 0.1 1×10-3
2 0.2 0.1 4×10-3
3 0.1 0.3 3×10-3
75. For A Chemical Reaction A ➔ B, the threshold energy of a reaction is 31KJ/mol. The Average
Internal Energy Of A is 12KJ/Mol. Calculate the Activation energy Of A.
76. For the Decomposition Of Ethyl ChloroCarbonate (ClCO2C2H5)
ClCO2C2H5 ➔➔➔➔CO2 + ClC2H5.
K = 1.3×103 s1 at 200°C. What is the Initial Rate when the initial Conc. Of ClCO2C2H5 is 0.25M?
CHAPTER 10 SOLUTION, SUSPENSION AND COLLOIDS

1. Only one pair of the liquid in the following set does not obey Roault law, identify it:
a) Methanol and Ethanol b) Benzene and toluene
c) n-Hexane and n-heptane d) Ethanol and Acetone
2. Identify the incorrect statement about colloidal solution:
a) It shows Tyndall effect b) Its particles movement is Brownian type
c) Its particle size is less than 1 nm d) Its physical appearance is translucent
3. Effect of pressure change play significant role in the solubility of:
a) Solid into liquid b) Liquid into liquid c) Gas into liquid d) All of them
4. Which is not a colligative property:
a) Lowering in vapours pressure b) Elevation in boiling point
c) Depression in freezing point d) Atmospheric pressure
5. According to Raoult law the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to:
a) Mole fraction of solvent b) Mole fraction of solute
c) Molality d) Molarity
6. The sum of mole fractions of components of a solution is equal to:
a) 0.0 b) 1.0 c) 10 d) 100
7. How many moles of NaOH are present in a 2dm3 of 1 molar aqueous solution of it.
a) 0.5 mole b) 1 mole c) 1.5 mole d) 2 mole
8. A colloidal solution of liquid into liquid is known as:
a) Gel b) Foam c) Sol d) Emulsion
9. An example of completely immiscible liquid pair is:
a) Benzene of toluene b) Water and phenol
c) Water and Benzene d) Water and methanol
10. A 15% W/W KOH solution can be prepared by mixing 15g KOH in:
a) 15g water b) 85g water c) 100g water d) 115g water

(i) State Raoult’s and derive its mathematical expression.
(ii) Define osmosis and osmotic pressure. Give four daily life examples of osmosis.
(iii) What are colligative properties? Why does the boiling point of a liquid get raised when a
non-volatile solute is added.
(iv) Define the following.
(v) (Molarity, Molality, Mole Fraction, Ideal solution, Colloid and Suspension)
Numerical Questions (combine in Chapter 8):
CHAPTER 11 SOLUTION, SUSPENSION AND COLLOIDS

1. Least entropy found in which of the following state of water:
a) Liquid water at 4oC b) Liquid water at 25oC c) Steam at 100oC d) Ice at 0oC
2. The energy corresponds to the given thermochemical process is labeled as:
+
𝐿𝑖(𝑔) + 𝐶̅ 𝑙(𝑔) → 𝐿𝑖𝐶𝑙(𝑠)
a) Ionization energy b) Lattice energy
c) Enthalpy of combustion d) Enthalpy of atomization
3. Which of the following change is not an endothermic reaction:
a) Decomposition of lime b) Cracking of alkanes
c) Combustion of butane d) Photosynthesis
4. Heat transfer can not be feasible across the boundary of a :
a) Open system b) Close system
c) Isolated system d) Thermo permeable system
5. Which of the following enthalpy change is always negative:
a) Enthalpy of formation b) Enthalpy of decomposition
c) Enthalpy of combustion d) Enthalpy of reaction
6. Standard enthalpy of formation of all of the following elements at 25oC and 1 atm pressure are
zero except:
a) C(diamond) b) C(graphite) c) O2 a) N2
7. Int eh equation of First law of thermodynamics (E = q + w), the property(s) which depends
upon initial and final state is (are):
a) E b) q c) W d) Both q and W
8. Which state is incorrect:
a) For constant pressure, H = E + PV b) For constant volume process, E = q
c) For exothermic reactions, H  0 d) For Hess law Ho(cycle) = 0
9. In a thermochemical process, no work is done if the system is kept at:
a) Constant temperature b) Constant pressure
c) Constant volume d) Constant mass
10. Volume is a:
a) State function b) Path function
c) Intensive properties d) Colligative property

(i) State and explain First law of Thermodynamics and Derive an expression for pressure
volume work of a system.
(ii) Discuss the applications of first law of thermodynamics at constant pressure and constant
volume.
(iii) State Hess’s law and Explain heat of summation. Discuss its applications.
(iv) Explain exothermic and endothermic reactions with the help of energy diagrams.
(v) Differentiate between Intensive and Extensive properties.
(vi) Some Important Definitions.
❖ System, Surroundings and boundary. Types of systems.
❖ Enthalpy, Heat of Formation, Internal energy, Thermochemistry.
❖ Entropy, State Function, Born Haber Cycle.
Numerical Questions (combine in Chapter 8):
77. Calculate the Heat Of formation of M2A at 25°C:
a. 2M + 1/2A2 →→ M2A ∆Hf =?
b. M + Y2A →→ MAY + 1/2Y2 ∆H= -43.2 KJ / mole
c. Y2 + 1/2A2 →→ Y2A ∆H= -68.5 KJ/mole
d. M2A + Y2A →→2MAY ∆H= -63.2 KJ/mole
78. Calclulate the Heat Of formation of Mg3N2 at 25°C:
3Mg +N2 →→ Mg3N2 ∆H=?
3Mg + 2NH3 →→Mg3N2 +3H2 ∆H=-371KJ
½N2 + 3/2 H2→→NH3 ∆H=-46KJ
79. Calculate the Heat Of formation of C2H6 at 25°C:
2C + 3H2 →→ C2H6 ∆H = ?
C + O2 →→ CO2. ∆H = -394 KJ/mol
H2 + 1/2O2 →→H2O ∆H = -286 KJ/mol
C2H6 + 7/2O2 →→2CO2 + 3H2O. ∆H = -1560.632 KJ/mol
80. Calclulate the Heat Of formation of CH3COOH at 25°C:
2C + 2H2 + O2 →→ CH3COOH ∆H=?
C + O2 →→CO2. ∆H = -394 KJ/mol
H2 + ½O2 →→H2O ∆H = -286 KJ/mol
CH3COOH + 2O2 →→2CO2 +2H2O ∆H = -870.8 KJ/mo
81. Calculate the Heat Of formation of CH4 at 25°C:
C+2H2 →→CH4 ∆H = ?
C + O2 →→CO2. ∆H = -394 KJ/mol
H2 + 1/2O2 →→H2O ∆H = -286 KJ/mol
CH4 + 2O2 →→CO2 + 2H2O ∆H = -890.34 KJ/mol
82. Calclulate the Heat Of formation of Fe2O3 at 25°C:
2Fe + 3/2O2 →→Fe2O3 ∆H=?
H2 + ½O2 →→H2O ∆H = -286 KJ/mol
Fe2O3 +3H2O →→2Fe(OH)3 ∆H = +289 KJ/mol
Fe +3H2O →→Fe(OH)3 + 3/2 H2 ∆H= +161 KJ/mol
83. Calclulate the Heat Of formation of C6H6 at 25°C:
6C + 3H2 →→C6H6 ∆H=?
C + O2 →→CO2. ∆H = -394 KJ/mol
H2 + 1/2O2 →→H2O ∆H = -286 KJ/mol
C6H6 +15/2O2→→6CO2 +3H2O ∆H = -3267 KJ/mol
84. Calclulate the Heat Of formation of Na2O at 25°C:
2Na +1/2O2 →→Na2O ∆H=?
Na+H2O →→NaOH +1/2H2 ∆H=-43.2 kcal/mol
Na2O+H2O →→2NaOH ∆H= -63.2 kcal/mole
H2 +½O2 →→H2O. ∆H=-68kcal/mole
85. If 1800cals of heat is added to a system while the system does work equivalent to
2800cals Expanding against the surrounding, What is the Value Of internal energy
for the system.
When 4000J Of Heat is Added to a Gaseous system at a Constant Pressure Of 101300N/m2, Its
Internal Energy Increased By 500J. Calculate the Change in Volume of the system.
CHAPTER 12 ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. The outer body of dry cell serves as anode, it is made up of:
a) Copper b) Zinc c) Lead d) Iron
2. The conduction of electricity through an electrolytic solution is due to the flow of:
a) Electrons b) Ions c) Atoms d) Molecules
3. During electrolysis, the reaction that takes place at anode is:
a) Oxidation b) Reduction
c) Hydrolysis d) Simultaneous oxidation and reduction
4. This statement is not correct for lead storage battery:
a) It can be recharged b) It is a primary battery
c) Anode is made up of lead d) Cathode is made up of lead oxide
5. In Zn-SHE voltaic cell, the half reaction occurs at anode is:
a) 𝑍𝑛+2 + 2𝑒̅ → 𝑍𝑛 b) 𝑍𝑛 → 𝑍𝑛+2 + 2𝑒̅
c) 2𝐻 + + 2𝑒̅ → 𝐻2 d) 𝐻2 → 2𝐻 + + 2𝑒̅
6. The strongest oxidizing agent in the electro chemical series is:
a) Li b) H2 c) Cu d) F2
7. Galvanized rode of iron is coated with:
a) Nickel b) Zinc c) Chromium d) Carbon
8. Fuel cell is a typical Galvanic cell which is based on the reaction between:
a) Nitrogen and oxygen b) Hydrogen and oxygen
c) Methane and oxygen d) Hydrogen and zinc
9. Oxidation number of Cr in Na2Cr2O7 is:
a) + 3 b) + 6 c) + 8 d) + 12
10. Which of the following half cell reaction show oxidation:
a) 𝐹𝑒 +3 → 𝐹𝑒 +2 b) 𝐶𝑙2 → 2𝐶𝑙 − c) 𝑆𝑂4−2 → 𝑆𝑂4−3 d) 𝑍𝑛 → 𝑍𝑛+2
(i) Oxidation and Reduction. Oxidation Number Numerical.
(ii) Balance the following equation by ion electron method (Acidic medium and basic medium)
Most Important question 100%
(iii) Explain the Construction and working of Electrolytic Cell. Define all the terms involved.
(iv) Explain the Construction and working of Galvanic cell with all chemical equations.
(v) Define Standard hydrogen electrode and how it is constructed.
(vi) Determination of Electrode potential of Zinc and copper.
(vii) Explain the construction and working of Dry cell with all chemical equations.
(viii) Write a short note on corrosion and its prevention and Galvanizing.
BALANCE THE FOLLOWING EQUATION BY ION-ELECTRON METHOD:

ACIDIC MEDIUM
86. KMnO4 + H2SO4 + FeSO4➔➔➔➔➔➔MnSO4 + Fe2(SO4)3 + K2SO4 + H2O (Skip it)
87. Cr2O7-2 + H+ +I2 ➔➔➔➔➔➔Cr+3 +IO3- +H2O
88. MnO4 + SO3 + H ➔➔➔➔➔➔Mn+2 +SO4-2
-1 -2 +
89. HNO3 + H2S ➔➔➔➔➔NO + S + H2O.

90. Fe+2 + MnO4-1 + H+ ➔➔➔➔➔Fe+3 + Mn+2 +H2O.
91. MnO4- + Cl- ➔➔➔➔➔Mn+2 + Cl2
92. Fe+2 + Cr2O7-2 + H+ ➔➔➔➔➔Fe+3 + Cr+3 + H2O
BASIC MEDIUM
93. Cr(OH)3 + SO4-2 ➔➔➔➔➔➔CrO4-2 + SO3-2
94. MnO4 + SO3 + OH ➔➔➔➔➔➔Mn+2 +SO4-2
-1 -2 -
95. Cl2 + OH- ➔➔➔➔➔Cl- +ClO3-1 + H2
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(Atomic Masses: Fe=56, S=32, O=16 , Na=23 , C=12 , H = 1, Cl = 35.5, He = 4
N=14, P=31, Al=27, Br=80, Cr=52 , K=39 , Ca=40 , I=127 , Ba = 137.4 )
XI-SCIENCE (MATHEMATICS) Page | 65

XI – MATHEMATICS
CHAPTER 1 COMPLEX NUMBER
1. √−1 belongs to set of:
a) Real numbers b) Complex numbers c) Prime numbers d) Even numbers
2. Multiplicative inverse of (1, 0) is:
a) (–1, 0) b) (0, –1) c) (0, 1) d) (1, 0)
3. √−5 belongs to set of:
a) Real numbers b) Prime numbers c) Even numbers d) Complex numbers
4. Multiplicative inverse of –i is:
a) i b) –i c) 1 d) –1
5. Conjugate of –3 –2i is:
a) 3 + 2i b) –3 + 2i c) 2 + 3i d) –2 + 3i
6. The multiplicative property of real numbers is:
a) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑎 = 𝑏𝑐 b) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑏 c) 𝑎 + 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑐 d) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑎𝑐 = 𝑏𝑐
7. Every irrational number is also:
a) Prime no. b) Real no. c) Rational no. d) Complex no.
8. ∀ 𝑍 ∈ 𝐶.
a) 𝑍̿ = 𝑍 b) 𝑍̿ = 𝑍 c) 𝑍̿ = −𝑍 d) None of these
9. ∀ 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ ℜ, 𝑎 = 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑏 = 𝑎 this property is called:
a) Transitive b) Symmetric c) Reflexive d) Additive
22
10. 𝑖 =:
a) 𝑖 b) −𝑖 c) −1 d) 1
11. The multiplicative inverse of complex number (𝑎, 𝑏) is ________
−𝑎 −𝑏 +𝑎 +𝑏 𝑎 −𝑏 −𝑎 −𝑏
a) (𝑎2 +𝑏2 , 𝑎2 +𝑏2 ) b) (𝑎2 +𝑏2 , 𝑎2 +𝑏2 ) c) (𝑎2 +𝑏2 , 𝑎2 +𝑏2 ) d) (𝑎2 +𝑏2 , 𝑎2 +𝑏2 )
12. If 𝑧 = −2 − 3𝑖, then 𝑧 − 𝑧 is --------
a) −4𝑖 b) −6𝑖 c) 6𝑖 d) 4𝑖
13. Conjugate of −2 + 3𝑖 is:
a) −2 − 3𝑖 b) 2 − 3𝑖 c) 2 + 3𝑖 d) −2 + 3𝑖
14. The set {0,1} is closed under:
a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Subtraction d) Division
15. √3 is a ------------- number.
a) Rational b) Irrational c) Prime d) Complex
16. Multiplicative identity of complex number is:
a) (0,0) b) (0, 1) c) (1, 0) d) (1,1)
17. Union of set of rational and irrational numbers is set of:
a) Whole numbers b) Complex numbers c) Real numbers d) Natural numbers
18. Every recurring Decimal or Terminating Decimal is:
a) Rational number b) Irrational number c) Integer d) None of these
19. Reflexive property is: ∀ 𝑎, 𝑏, 𝑐 ∈ 𝑅
a) 𝑎 = 𝑎 b) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑏 = 𝑎
c) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ∧ 𝑏 = 𝑐 ⟹ 𝑎 = 𝑐 d) 𝑎 = 𝑏 ⟹ 𝑎 + 𝑐 = 𝑏 + 𝑐
22
20. The number 7 is called a:
a) Irrational number b) Rational number c) Integer d) Natural number
21. ′𝜋′ is a:
a) Rational number b) Irrational number c) Integer d) None of these
22. Polar form of complex number 𝑥 = 𝑖𝑦 is:
a) 𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 b) 𝑟 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑖𝑟 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 c) cos 𝜃 + sin 𝜃 d) sin 𝜃 + 𝑖 cos 𝜃
23. If 𝑧 = 3 + 4𝑖, then |𝑧| = ------------:
a) 5 b) –5 c) 25 d) –25
24. The factors of ( 4x 2 + 9y 2 ) is the Set of Complex numbers are ____________.
a) (2x + 3y)2 b) (2x – 3yi)2 c) (2x – 3iy) (2x + 3iy) d) (2x + 3yi)2
25. Which is the identity element w.r.t. ordinary addition ____________.
1
a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) − 2
𝑍
26. If Z1 = 4 – 3i and Z2 = -1 + 2i then 𝑍1 = ___________.
2
a) 4 + 3i b) 2 – I c) -2 – I d) -2 + i
27. If Z1= 1 + i and Z2= 3 – 2i then find the value of |5Z1 - 4Z2| = _____________.
a) √218 b) 310 c) √312 d) 218
28. The Conjugate and Modulus of the Complex number -7 + i are __________ and _________.
a) -7 – i 5√2 b) 3⁄5 , 7 c) 320 d) -252 , √2
29. √2 is __________ a/an number.
a) Rational b) Irrational c) Odd d) Even
30. (0, 0) is the identity in Complex number w.r.t. ___________.
a) Addition b) Subtraction c) Multiplication d) Division
31. (1, 0) is the identity in Complex number w.r.t. ___________.
a) Addition b) Subtraction c) Multiplication d) Division
32. The additive inverse of (a, b) is __________.
a) (−a, b) b) (a,−b) c) (−a, −b) d) (0, b)
33. ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝑍1 + 𝑍2 = ____________.
a) ̅̅̅
𝑍1 . ̅̅̅
𝑍2 b) ̅̅̅
𝑍1 − ̅̅̅𝑍2 c) Z1 + Z2 d) ̅̅̅
𝑍1 + ̅̅̅
𝑍2
34. ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝑍1 . 𝑍2 = ____________.
a) ̅̅̅
𝑍1 . ̅̅̅
𝑍2 b) ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝑍1 + 𝑍2 c) ̅̅̅
𝑍1 + ̅̅̅
𝑍2 d) None of these
35. Z ∙ ̅̅̅
𝑍1 = _____________.
a) O b) |Z Z | c) |Z|2 d) None of these
2 2 2
36. Express x + y = a in terms of conjugate Coordinates ___________.
a) Z + 𝑍 b) Z Z = a2 c) Z − Z d) Z Z = 0
37. Subtract (4 + i ) from (2 – 3i ) = ___________.
a) 2 + 4i b) -2 + 4i c) 3 + 5i d) -2 – 4i
38. √−1 = ___________.
a) 0 b) i c) –i d) 1
39. The additive identity of real number is _____________.
a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) None of these
40. The multiplicative identity of real number is ____________.
a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) None of these
2
41. Solution of equation x + 1 = 0 belongs to _________ numbers.
a) Natural b) Integers c) Complex d) Rational
42. Additive inverse of a + ib is _________.
a) 1 + 0i b) –a – bi c) 0 + i d) 1 + i
43. The real and imaginary parts of i (3 + 2i) = ____________.
a) -5, -i b) 5, 2 c) -252 d) -2, 3
44. Associative property w.r.t. multiplication of Complex numbers (Z1 ∙ Z2) ∙ Z3 = __________.
a) Z1 ∙ (Z2 ∙ Z3) b) (Z1 ∙ Z2 ∙ Z3) c) (Z1 ∙ Z2) ∙ Z3 d) None of these
45. If (x, y) (2, 3) = (-4, 7) then x = __________ and y = __________.
a) x = 3, y = 2 b) x = -1, y = -2 c) x = 0, y = 0 d) x = 1, y = 2
46. Modulus of the Complex number a + ib is __________.
a) a – ib b) a2 + b2 c) √a2 + b 2 d) √a2 + ib 2
47. If Z = 3 + 4i then |𝑍̅| = ___________.
2
a) 25 b) √5 c) 6 d) 5
48. The multiplicative inverse of (a, b) is __________.
a −a 1 1 a −b 1 1
a) (b ,
b
) b) (a , b) c) (a2 +b2 , a2 +b2 ) d) (a2 , b2 )
49. The Conjugate of a Complex number (a, b) is __________.
a b
a) (-a, -b) b) (a, -b) c) (–a, b) d) (b , a)
50. (a, b) ∙ (c, d) is equal to ___________.
a) (ac – bd, ad – bc) b) (ac – bd, ad + bc) c) (ac + bd, ad + bc) d) (ac – bd, ad – bc)
51. (a, b) ÷ (c, d) is equal to ____________.
ac+bd bc+ad ac−bd bc+ad ac+bd bc−ad ac−bd bc−ad
a) ( 2 2 , 2 2 ) b) ( 2 2 , 2 2 ) c) ( 2 2 , 2 2 ) d) ( , )
c +d c +d c +d c +d c +d c +d c2 + d2 c2 + d2
52. For what value of x is (x + 3, 3) is equal to (-5, 3) __________.
a) -7 b) -2 c) -8 d) -5
√3 + 𝑖
53. Imaginary part of a complex number 3 − 𝑖 is ____________.
√
1 √3 √3 1
a) 2 b) 2 c) − 2
d) − 2
54. The factor of 3m2 + 8t2 in Complex form are :
a) ( √3m + 4it ) ( √3m – 4it ) b) ( √3m + √8 it ) ( √3m - √3 it )
c) (√3m + 2√2 ti ) ( √3m - 2√2 ti ) d) √3m + √8 it
55. The value of i3 is equal to __________.
a) 1 b) – i c) i d) -1
2
56. Roots of x + 16 = 0 are __________.
a) 4i and -4i b) 2i and -2i c) 4i and -2i d) None of these
57. Additive inverse of (0, 0) is ___________.
a) (a, 0) b) (0, 1) c) (0, 0) d) Does not exist
58. Multiplicative inverse of (0, 0) is _________.
a) (1, 0) b) (0, 1) c) (0, 0) d) Does not exist
59. If Z = 3 + 4i then Z + 𝑍̅ = __________.
a) 6 b) 8i c) 0 d) None of these
a −b
60. (a, b) . ( 2 2 , 2 2) = __________.
a +b a +b
a) (0, 0) b) (0, 1) c) (1, 0) d) (1, 1)
61. The additive inverse of i = ___________.
−1
a) (0, 1) or –i b) (1, 0) or i c) 𝑖 d) (1, 0)
62. Z + 𝑍̅ = __________ ∀ Z ∈ C
a) Purely real b) Purely imaginary c) 2Z d) 2𝑍̅
63. ̅
Z - 𝑍 = _________ ∀ Z ∈ C
a) Purely real b) Purely imaginary c) Zero d) None of these
64. Real part of Complex number (x + iy)2 is ___________.
a) x b) x 2 c) x 2 + y 2 d) x 2 − y 2
4
65. The value of ( 1 – i ) is equal to ___________.
a) 4 b) - 4 c) 1 – i d) 1 + i
66. If (a, b) = (c, d) then a = c, b = d .
a) True b) False c) Neither d) None of these
67. 𝑖 2 + 𝑖 4 = ___________.
a) -1 b) 1 c) 2 d) 0
2 3 4
68. 5i + 4i + 3i = ___________.
a) -2 – 4i b) 2 – 4i c) -2 + 4i d) 0
69. 𝑖 14 + 𝑖 15 + 𝑖 16 + 𝑖 17 = ___________.
a) 1 b) 1 + i c) 0 d) 1 – 2i
70. The imaginary part of (x + 2yi )2 is __________.
a) 4xy b) – 4xy c) 𝑥 2 − 4𝑦 2 d) None of these
71. If Z = 3 + 4i then (𝑍̅)2 = ___________.
a) 9 + 16i b) -7 – 24i c) 7 – 24i d) 24 – 7i
72. If x = 2 + 3i and y = 2 – 3i then x 2 + y 2 = ____________.
a) 10 b) -10 c) 12i d) 10i
73. √2 − 𝑖 + 𝑖(√2 − 1) = ____________.
a) 2i b) -2i c) -2 d) 2
EXERCISE
Ex. # 1.1 Q5, Q9 (i, ii) Ex. # 1.2 Q11 (all parts) & Q8 (all parts)
Ex.# 1.3 Q1, Q,2, Q3 (all questions)
CHAPTER 2 MATRICES & DETERMINATIONS

1. A matrix which has only one row is called _________ matrix.
(a) Row (b) Column (c) Real (d) Imaginary
2. A matrix which has only one column is called __________ matrix.
(a) Row (b) Column (c) Real (d) Imaginary
3. A matrix in which number of rows are not equal to number of columns is called _______
matrix.
(a) Row (b) Column (c) Rectangular (d) Square
4. A matrix whose each element is zero is called ________ matrix.
(a) Scalar (b) Diagonal (c) Null (d) Identity
5. A matrix in which number of rows is equal to number of columns is called _________ matrix.
(a) Square (b) Horizontal (c) Scalar (d) Null
(a) Scalar (b) Diagonal (c) Identity (d) Null
6. A diagonal matrix in which all the diagonal elements are equal/same is called ________
matrix.
(a) Diagonal (b) Identity (c) Scalar (d) Null
0 0
7. If A = [ ] then A is called __________ matrix.
0 0
(a) Rectangular (b) Square (c) Column (d) Null
2 3 4−2 2+1
8. If A = [ ] and B = [ ] then A and B are called ___________ matrices.
5 −7 4 + 1 −7
(a) Equal (b) Rectangular (c) Null (d) Diagonal
1 0
9. [ ] is known as _________ matrix.
0 1
(a) Unit (b) Null (c) Scalar (d) Transpose
10. Transpose of a row matrix is called _________ matrix.
(a) Square (b) Rectangular (c) Row (d) Column
11. Transpose of a column matrix is called ___________matrix.
(a) Square (b) Rectangular (c) Row (d) Column
t
12. (A + B + C ) = __________.
(a) A + B + C (b) At + B t + C t (c) ABC (d) C t B t At
t
13. (ABC) = __________.
(a) A + B + C (b) At + B t + C t (c) ABC (d) C t B t At
t t
(A ) = __________.
14.
(a) A (b) At (c) І (d) A−1
15. Matrix of order m × n is a square matrix if:
(a) m ≠ n (b) m = n (c) m < n (d) m > n
16. [0] is _________ matrix.
(a) Square (b) Rectangular (c) Identity (d) Unit
1 0 0
17. [0 1 0] is a __________ matrix.
0 0 1
(a) Unit (b) Rectangular (c) Scalar (d) Square
1 2 3
18. If A = [ ] then At __________.
2 1 0
1 2
1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 0
(a) [ ] (b) [2 1] (c) [ ] (d) [ ]
2 1 0 0 1 2 1 2 3
3 0
19. (A + B)t _________.
(a) A + B (b) B t At (c) At + B t (d) At − B t
1 2
20. If A = [ ] then 3A = ____________.
2 3
3 6 3 6 1 2 3 6
(a) [ ] (b) [ ] (c) [ ] (d) [ ]
2 3 6 3 6 9 6 9
21. A square matrix A is singular if
(a) A = 0 (b) A = 1 (c) A = Scalar matrix (d) |A| = 0
a b
22. If a = [ ] then adj A = ?
c d
d −b a −b −a c a c
(a) [ ] (b) [ ] (c) [ ] (d) [ ]
−c a −c d b −d b d
−1
23. For a non-singular matrix A, A = ___________.
1 1 1
(a) |A| (b) |A| adj A (c) |A| adj A (d) |A|
adj A
24. Matrix form of system 3x1 − x2 = 1: x1 + x2 = 3 is:
3x −x𝟐 1 3 −1 x1 3 −1 x1 1
(a) [ 𝟏 ] = [ ] (b) [ ] [x ] (c) [ ] [ ] = [ ] (d) None of these
x1 x2 3 1 1 2 1 1 x2 3
x+3 1 2 1
25. [ ]= [ ] then x = _________.
−3 2 −3 2
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) -1 (d) 0
26. The transpose of a zero matrix is _________ matrix.
(a) Identity (b) Zero (c) Column (d) Row
27. By commutative property of addition for any two matrices A and B.
(a) AB = BA (b) A + B = B + A (c) A – B = B – A (d) A−1 B = B −1 A
28. By Associative property w.r.t. addition for any three matrices A, B and C.
(a) (A + B) + C = A + (B+ C) (b) A (BC) =(AB) C
(c) A + B = B + C (d) A + C = B + C
29. Additive identity of every matrix is ___________ matrix.
(a) Null (b) Scalar (c) Column (d) Row
30. If order of matrix A is m × n and order of matrix B is n × p then order of AB is
____________.
(a) m × m (b) n × n (c) m × p (d) p × m
31. If order of matrix A is m × n then the order of matrix At is
(a) m × m (b) n × n (c) m × n (d) n × m
3 0 0
32. The matrix [0 3 0] is a _________ matrix.
0 0 3
(a) Diagonal (b) Scalar (c) Unit (d) Null
𝜆 3
33. If matrix [ ] is a singular matrix then the value of λ is ___________.
2 4
(a) 2⁄3 (b) 4⁄3 (c) 3⁄2 (d) - 3/2
sin θ −cos θ sin θ cos θ
34. The product of [ ][ ] is ____________.
cos θ sin θ −cos θ sin θ
1 0 0 0 0 1
(a) [ ] (b) [ ] (c) [ ] (d) None of these
0 1 0 0 1 0
35. The additive inverse of a matrix A is __________.
adj A
(a) A (b) –A (c) A2 (d) |A|
36. If |A| ≠ 0 then A is called _________ matrix.
(a) Singular (b) Non-singular (c) Zero (d) Identity
37. (AB)t = __________.
(a) A + B (b) At B t (c) B t At (d) AB
38. By distributive property of multiplication of matrices over addition A (B + C) = ___________.
(a) AB + BC (b) AB – BC (c) AB + AC (d) None of these
39. By distributive property of multiplication of matrices over subtraction A (B – C ) =
___________.
(a) AB – BC (b) AB – AC (c) AB + AC (d) AB + BC
40. If AB = І then B is called the __________ inverse of A.
(a) Additive (b) Multiplicative (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
41. By associative property of matrices w.r.t. multiplication A (BC) = __________.
(a) (AB) C (b) (AC) B (c) ABC (d) CBA
42. Two matrices are conformable for multiplication if the number of columns in the first matrix
_____________ to the number of rows in the second matrix.
(a) Not equal (b) Equal (c) Less than (d) None of these
43. The Cofactor of an element aij denoted by Aij is ___________.
(a) (−1)ij Mij (b) (−1)i+j Mij (c) (−1)i−j Mij (d) (1)i+j Mij
2 −3 0
44. Order of matrix [1 2 4] is ___________.
3 −1 5
0 1 2
(a) 3 × 3 (b) 3 × 4 (c) 4 × 3 (d) 4 × 4
2 3
45. Additive identity of matrix [ ] is ____________.
1 −1
−2 −3 1 0 0 0 −1 3
(a) [ ] (b) [ ] (c) [ ] (d) [ ]
−1 1 0 0 0 0 −1 2
1 2 3
46. If A = [3 1 2] then M11 = _____________.
2 1 2
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) – 5
1 1 −1
47. If A = [2 1 3 ] then M21 = ___________.
1 1 2
(a) – 1 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) 2
a b c
48. If A = [d e f ] then M33 = ___________.
g h i
d e a b b c e f
(a) | | (b) | | (c) | | (d) | |
g f d e e f h i
49. (KA)t = __________ where K is scalar.
(a) KAt (b) K t At (c) (AK)t (d) At K t
x
50. [x y z] [y] = _________.
z
x2
2 2 2 2 2
(a) [x + y ] (b) [x + y + z ] (c) [y 2 ] (d) None of these
2
z
i 0 2
51. If A = [ ] then A = _________ where i = √−1
0 −i
(a) – I (b) І2 (c) - І2 (d) None of these
52. Y = [yij ] ( 4, 2 ) then matrix “Y” in tabular form.
y11 y12 y11 y12 y13
y y y11 y12
(a) [y21 y22 ] (b) [y21 y22 y23 ] (c) [y ] (d) None of these
31 32 21 y22
y41 y42 y31 y 32 y33
53. If order of matrix “A” is m × n then order of (At )t is _____________.

(a) n × m (b) m × n (c) m × m (d) n × n
54. І4 is the ___________ matrix.
(a) Reactangular (b) Identity (c) Diagonal (d) None of these
4 x
55. If | | = 0 the value of x is
2 3
(a) 6 (b) – 6 (c) 12 (d) 0
−7 6
56. The value of the determinant | | is ___________.
−4 3
(a) – 3 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 3
57. Determinant of null matrix is ___________.
(a) 1 (b) – 1 (c) 3 (d) 0
1 2
58. If |A| = | | then 5|A| = _________.
2 4
5 2 5 2 5 10 5 10
(a) | | (b) | | (c) | | (d) | |
15 20 6 8 3 4 15 20
1 1 1
59. The value of determinant | 𝜔 𝜔2 1| ___________.
𝜔2 𝜔 1
2
(a) 3(𝜔 – 𝜔 ) (b) 3 (𝜔2 + 𝜔 ) (c) 3𝜔2 (d) 3
a b c
60. In the matrix A = [d e f ] what is the cofactor of f ?
g h i
(a) ah – bg (b) ah + bg (c) ah (d) bg – ah
2 4 5
61. In the matrix A = [6 7 0] what is the cofactor of 7 = ___________.
9 2 3
(a) – 39 (b) 39 (c) 50 (d) 40
1 0
62. The inverse of [ ] is ____________.
0 1
1 0 −1 1 1 −1 1 0
(a) [ ] (b) [ ] (c) [ ] (d) [ ]
−1 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
2
1 𝜔 𝜔
63. If 𝜔 is imaginary Cube root of unit, then the value of | 1 𝜔2 𝜔 | is ____________.
𝜔2 1 𝜔
2
(a) 1 (b) 𝜔 (c) 𝜔 (d) 0
1 1 𝜔
64. The value of the determinant | 1 1 𝜔2 | is ____________.
𝜔 𝜔2 1
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
1 1 0
65. The value of the determinant |1 0 1| is ___________.
0 1 1
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) – 1 (d) – 2
1 1 1
66. The value of the determinant |−1 −1 0| is ____________.
−1 0 1
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) – 1 (d) – 2
67. If all the elements of a column of square matrix A are zero then |A| = .
(a) 1 (b) – 1 (c) 2 (d) 0
a b a b
68. If A = [ ] is a square matrix then |A| = | | is known as ___________ of matrix A.
c d c d
(a) Adjoint (b) Determinant
(c) Multiplicative Inverse (d) Additive Inverse
EXERCISE
Ex. # 2.1 Q6, 7, 8, 9, 10 & 11 Ex. # 2.2 (All questions)
Ex.# 2.4 Q2, 3, 4 & 5 Ex.# 2.5 (Complete)
Ex.# 2.6 (all 4 methods)
CHAPTER 3 VECTORS
1. If a⃗ = î, ⃗b = ĵ and c = k̂ and a⃗ . ⃗b x c = _____________.
a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) 3
2. If the coordinates of two points P and Q are (2, 1, -3) and (-1, 2, 4) respectively then vector ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
PQ
_____________.
a) (-3, 3, 7) b) (2, 4, -3) c) (3, 3, 3) d) (-3, 1, 7)
3. The position vector of the point p (x, y, z) is ______________.
a) P ⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ |
b) |OP ⃗|
c) |P ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
d) OP
4. If two vectors A and B are such that A.B = 0 then the vectors are _____________.
a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) Tangent d) None of these
5. If a⃗ is any vector the vector with 3 times the length of a⃗ & opposite to the direction of a⃗ is
______________.
a) -3 |a⃗| b) -3 â c) -3 a⃗ d) -3
6. ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
If U = i + j + k and V = 2i – j + 2k then U . V = _______________.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) -2
7. If a⃗ = P1P2 where P1 (0, 0, 1) and P2 (0, 4, 4) then |a⃗| = _____________.
a) 4 b) 25 c) 5 d) 9
8. If a⃗ and b⃗ are any two vectors then (a⃗ – b ⃗ ) × (a⃗ + b⃗ ) = _______________.
2
a) a – b 2
b) 0 c) a⃗ × ⃗b d) 2 (a⃗ × ⃗b)
9. If a⃗ . ⃗b = 0 then the angle between the vectors a⃗ and ⃗b is ______________.
π π
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) π
10. |a⃗| of a vector b ⃗ when a⃗ = P1P2 where P1 (0, 0, 1) and P2 (-3, 1 , 2) is ______________.
a) √12 b) √10 c) √11 d) √13
11. The Unit vector in the direction of a vector a⃗ = (3, -2, 7).
3i−2j+7k 3i−2j+7k 3i−2j+2k
a) b) c) d) 1
√62 √54 √62
12. If the position vectors of ⃗S and ⃗T are a⃗ and 4a⃗ – 3b ⃗ , then ⃗⃗⃗⃗
ST is ________________.
a) 3a⃗ – 3b ⃗ b) - 3a⃗ – 3b c) - 3a⃗ + 3b d) 4a2 – 3ab
13. If a⃗ x ⃗b = 0, then angle between a⃗ and ⃗b is ________________.
a) 0° b) 45° c) 90° d) 60°
14. If 2𝑖̂ – 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂, 𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ – 3𝑘̂, 3𝑖̂ + a𝑗̂ + 5𝑘̂ are coplanar then a =?
a) – 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) – 6
15. 3𝑖̂ . (-4𝑗̂ x 5𝑘̂)= ________.
a) 60o b) -60° c) 0° d) 30°
16. ̂
The angle b/w the positive z-axis and the vector 3𝑖̂ – 𝑗̂ + 2𝑘 is __________________.
2 1 1
a) Cos-1 ( 14) b) Sin-1 ( 14) c) tan-1 ( 14) d) Cos-1 (2)
√ √ √
17. 𝑖̂ . (𝑖̂ x 𝑘̂) = _________________.
a) 1 b) – 1 c) 0 d) None of these
18. If ⃗⃗⃗
P1 = (1, - √3, - 5), ⃗⃗⃗P2 = (3, √3, 𝑘) then find k if |P1P2 | = 5.
a) -2, -8 b) 2, 8 c) 5, -5 d) None of these
19. ⃗
If a = 3, b = 2 and α = 60𝑜 find |a⃗ + b| = ______________.
a) √7 b) √19 c) √11 d) √13
20. If a = 1, b = 4 and α = 120o find |a⃗ − b ⃗ | = _______________.
a) √21 b) 3 c) 4 d) √11
21. If a = 2, b = 2 and α = 90o find the resultant angle θ = _____________.
a) 30o b) 60o c) 90o d) 45o
22. What condition must “a” and “b” hold if |a⃗ + b ⃗ | = |a⃗ − b⃗|
a) a ⊥ b b) Angle between a and b is obtuse angle
c) Angle between a and b is acute angle d) None of these
23. Find the angle between the positive y-axis and a⃗ = 2𝑖̂ + 2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂.
a) 30o b) 45o c) 60o d) 55o
24. Express a vector length 2, and having the same directions are the vector 2𝑖̂ – 2𝑗̂ – 𝑘̂.
4 4 2 −4 4 2
a) 3 𝑖̂ − 3 𝑗̂ − 3 𝑘̂ b) 3 𝑖̂ + 3 𝑗̂ + 3 𝑘̂ c) 4𝑖̂ – 4𝑗̂ – 2𝑗̂ d) None of these
−7
25. Decide whether r = 6𝑖̂ + 7𝑗̂ and t = î + 3ĵ are ______________.
2
a) Parallel b) Perpendicular
c) Neither parallel nor perpendicular d) None of these
26. ⃗⃗
⃗ ̂
If a⃗ = 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ and b = 𝑗̂ + k find Sin θ = ______________.
√3 √3 √3
a) b) 2 c) 3 d) None of these
√2
27. Find the value of [a⃗ + ⃗b, b
⃗⃗⃗ + c, c + a⃗] = _____________.
a) 2 [a⃗⃗ ] b) 2 [a⃗, b ⃗] ⃗,c]
c) 2 [a⃗, b d) None of these
28. Find the volume of the parallelepiped whose sides are a⃗ = 2𝑖̂ – 3𝑗̂ , b = 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ – 𝑘, c = 3𝑖̂ – 𝑘̂.
⃗ ̂
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 0
29. The volume of parallelepiped is _______________.
⃗ ×c)
a) a⃗ . (b ⃗ ×c)
b) a⃗ x ( b ⃗ .c)
c) a⃗ . (b d) None of these
30. The point a, b, c are collinear if ______________.

a) [a, b, c] = 0 b) (a + b) c = 0
c) (a × b) + (b × c) + (c × a) = 0 d) None of these
31. ⃗ ⃗
|a⃗ − b| = |a⃗| - |b| if angle θ b/w them is ______________.
a) 180o b) 0o c) 90o d) Not possible
32. ̂ ̂
𝑖̂ . 𝑖̂ = 𝑗̂ . 𝑗̂ = 𝑘 . 𝑘 = ______________.
a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2
33. ̂ ̂
𝑖̂ × 𝑖̂ = 𝑗̂ × 𝑗̂ = 𝑘 × 𝑘 = _______________.
a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 3
34. 𝑖̂ × 𝑗̂ = _____________.
a) 𝑖̂ b) 𝑗̂ c) 𝑘̂ d) -𝑘̂
35. ̂
In which of the following vectors, is parallel to 3𝑖̂ – 𝑗̂ – 2𝑘.
a) 6𝑖̂ – 3𝑗̂ – 4𝑘̂ b) -9𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂ + 6𝑘̂ c) -3𝑖̂ – 𝑗̂– 2𝑘̂ d) -6𝑖̂ - 2𝑗̂ - 2𝑘̂
36. a⃗ . (b ⃗ × c) is called ______________.
a) Vector product b) Scalar product c) Scalar triple product d) None of these
37. The measure of the angle between two vectors a⃗ and ⃗b are ____________.
⃗ . ⃗b
a |a ⃗|
⃗ | |b
⃗)
a) Cos-1 (a⃗ . b ⃗ |)
b) Cos-1 (|a⃗| . |b c) Cos-1 ( ) d) Cos-1 ( )
|a ⃗|
⃗ | |b ⃗ . ⃗b
a
38. If two vectors a and b are parallel, then their cross product is _____________.
a) Zero vector b) 0 c) Null vector d) Both (a) or (c)
39. a⃗ × a⃗ = ____________
a) 0 b) 1 c) |a⃗| d) |a⃗|2
40. The dot product of a vector a by itself is _____________.
a) |a⃗| b) |a⃗|2 c) |a⃗|3 d) √𝑎
41. ⃗
If two vectors 𝐚 and 𝐛 are in opposite in directions, then their dot product is ____________.
|a
⃗| |a
⃗|
⃗|
a) - |a⃗| . |b ⃗|
b) |a⃗| . |b c) d) −
⃗|
|b ⃗|
|b
42. ⃗ are in same direction, then their dot product is _______________.
If two vectors a⃗ and b
|a
⃗|
⃗|
a) |a⃗| + |b b) ⃗|
c) |a⃗| . |b ⃗|
d) |a⃗| - |b
⃗|
|b
43. Evaluate [ 2i – 3j, i + j – k, 3i – k ] = _____________.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 0
44. Express [a, 2b – 3c, -2a + b + c]
a) 5 [a, b, c] b) 2 [a, b, c] c) 3 [a, b, c] d) None of these
45. Find the work done if F ⃗ = 4𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ – 3𝑘̂ and r = 3𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ – 𝑘̂.
a) 14 b) 15 c) 16 d) 17
46. ⃗ = λB
If A ⃗ and λ > 0 then A ⃗ and B ⃗ have ________________ direction.
a) Opposite b) Same c) Any d) None of these
47. ⃗ ⃗ ⃗ ⃗
If A = λB and λ < 0 then A and B have _______________ direction.
a) Opposite b) Same c) Any d) None of these
48. ̂
The value of [𝑖̂ x 𝑗̂] . [𝑗̂ x 𝑘] = ________________
a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) α
49. ⃗ ⃗
a⃗ × b = 0 and a⃗ . b = 0 then _________________.
a) a and b are parallel b) a and b are perpendicular
c) Either a = 0 or b = 0 d) Both a and b are non-zero.
EXERCISE
Ex. # 3.3 Ex. # 3.4 Ex. # 3.5 Ex. # 3.6
CHAPTER 4 SEQUENCES OF SERIES

1. Sequence is also called ____________.
a) Progression b) Power set c) Universal set d) Matrix
2. The individual numbers of a sequence are known as _____________.
a) Vector b) Component c) Terms d) Matrix
3. If the sequence has unlimited number of terms then it is called ___________ sequence.
a) Finite b) Limited c) Definite d) Infinite
4. The nth term is represented by ____________.
a) Tn b) T2 c) Tn−1 d) Tn+1
5. In sequence 3, 7, 11…………………. The nth term will be ____________.
a) 2n – 1 b) 4n – 1 c) 4n + 1 d) 1 – 4n
6. In sequence 2, 4, 8………………. The nth term Tn will be ___________.
2
a) 2n+1 b) 2n−1 c) 2n d) n
7. In sequence 3, 6, 9,………………….. the nth term Tn will be ____________.
3
a) 3𝑛 b) 3 + n c) n d) 3n
8. The formula for nth term i – e Tn of arithmetic sequence is ____________.
a) a – (n - 1) d b) a + (n + 1) d c) a + (n - 1) d d) a + (1 - n) d
9. The formula for the sum of the terms of Arithmetic sequence is ___________.
n n
a) Sn = 2 {2a + (n - 1) d} b) Sn = 2 { 2a + (n + 1) d }
n n
c) Sn = 2 {2a - (n - 1) d} d) Sn = 2 {2a - (n + 1) d}
10. The formula for the sum of the terms of the arithmetic sequence in terms of first and last
terms ___________ are given.
n n
a) Sn = 2 (a – 𝓵) b) Sn = 2 (a + 𝓵) c) Sn = 2n (a + 𝓵) d) Sn = 2n (a – 𝓵)
11. When three terms are in A.P then the middle term is called _____________.
a) Median b) Mode c) Geometric mean d) Arithmetic mean
12. If A is A.M between the numbers a and b then A = __________.
a+b a−b
a) 2 b) 2 c) 2 (a + b) d) 2 (a – b)
13. If 𝐴1 , 𝐴2 , 𝐴3 ,………………. 𝐴𝑛 be the “n” Arithmetic mean between two given numbers a and b
then d = _____________.
a−b b−a a+b n+1
a) b) c) d)
n+1 n+1 n+1 b−a
14. If three terms are in A.P then they are denoted by ____________.
a) A, a – d, a +d b) d – a, a, a – d c) a – d, a, a + d d) a + d, a, a + 2d
15. A.M of (a + b) and (a – b) is ____________.
a) b b) a c) 2a d) 2b
16. a, ar, ar 2 , ar 3,………….. ar n−1 represents.
a) Arithmetic sequence b) Harmonic sequence
c) Arithmetic sequence d) Geometric sequence
17. Tn i – e nth term of a G.P is ___________.
a) ar n b) ar n−1 c) ar n+1 d) ar 2n
18. The formula for the sum of n terms of a geometric series when r < 1 is given by ____________.
a(1+rn ) a(1−rn ) a(1−r2n ) a(1−rn )
a) Sn = 1−r b) Sn = 1−r c) Sn = 1+r d) Sn = 1+r
19. If G is Geometric mean between a and b then G = _____________.
2 a b
a) (ab) b) ± √ c) ± √ d) ± √ab
b a
20. Geometric mean between 15 and 60 is _________.
a) 4 b) ± 30 c) 900 d) 14
21. If three numbers are in G.P then they are generally written as _____________.
a a a
a) ar, a, ar 2 b) ar 2 , r, ar c) r, a, ar d) a, r, ar 2
1
22. G.M between √2 and is ______________.
√2
1
a) ±2 b) ±√2 c) ±1
d) ±
√2
23. The formula for the sum of the infinite geometric series is_________ when |𝑟| < 1.
a 1−r a
a) Sn = b) Sn = a (1 – r) c) Sn = d) Sn =
1−r a 1+r
1 1 1
24. Sum of the infinite geometric series 5
+ 15 + 45
+……………………. is __________.
10 3
a) 3 b) 10
c) 13 d) 7
25. If a and b are the first and second terms of an H.P then it’s nth term i – e Tn will be _________.
ab ab ab ab
a) Tn = b) Tn = c) Tn = d) Tn =
b−(n−1)(a+b) b+(n−1)(a−b) b−(n+1)(a−b) b+(n+1)(a+b)
26. If H is the harmonic mean between a and b then H = ___________.
ab 2ab 2ab ab
a) 2(a+b)
b) a+b c) a−b d) 2(a−b)
1 2
27. The Harmonic mean of 3 and 5 is ___________.
11 4 7
a) 4 b) 7 c) 11 d) 11
28. If 3, G, 27 are in G.P what is the value of G ?
a) ±81 b) ±30 c) ±9 d) 9
29. The sum of the A.P 1, 59, 13, ……………….to 40 terms is __________.
a) 3160 b) 8000 c) – 630 d) 150
2 4
30. The sum of the infinite series 1 + 3 + 9 +…………… is _________.
2
a) 5 b) – 20 c) 3 d) 5
31. What term of the following A.P is 125 ? 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, ___________.
a) 30 b) 25 c) 40 d) 50
32. If Tn = 2n – 3, 1st four terms of { Tn } are ___________.
a) -3, -1, 1, 3 b) -1, 1, 3, 5 c) -1, 1, 3, 6 d) -3, -1, 1, 5
33. The sum of the first n even natural numbers is ___________.
n(n−1) n n(n+1)
a) 2 b) n (n + 1) c) 2 d) 2
34. By relation b/w A.P, G.P and H.P; A × H = ____________.
a) A2 b) G2 c) H 2 d) HG
1 1 1
35. If a, b, c are in A.P then a , b , c are in ____________.
a) A.P b) G.P c) A.G d) H.P
G b
36. If = then G = ___________.
a G
1 1
3 n
a) ±ab b) ±√ab c) ±(ab) d) ±(ab)
𝑡ℎ 2 2
37. Find the 20 term of an H.P of which the first two terms are and .
39 37
a) – 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2
EXERCISE
Ex. # 4.1 (Q4, 5, 6, 9 to 13) Ex. # 4.3 (All questions)
Ex. # 4.4 (Q4, 5 to Q12) Ex. # 4.5 (Q2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8)
Ex. # 4.6 (Q2, 3, 4,7) Ex. # 4.7 (Q1, 3, 4, 5, 6)
Ex. # 4.8 (Complete) Ex. # 4.9 (Q2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9)
CHAPTER 5 MISCELLANEOUS SERIES

1) The sum of the first n natural numbers 1 + 2 + 3 + …….. + n = ∑n = __________
n (n+1) n (n+1)(2n+1) n (n+1) 2
* 2 * 6
* [ 2 ] * None
2) Sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers 1 + 2 + 3 + ……….. + n2 = ∑n =
2 2 2
n (n+1) n (n+1)(2n+1) n (n+1) 2

* 2
* 6
*[ 2
] * None
3) Sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers 13 + 23 + 33 + ………. + n3 = ∑n3 =
n (n+1) n (n+1)(2n+1) n (n+1) 2
* 2
* 6
*[ 2
] * None
4) Find the sum of 6 + 7 + 8 + ………… + 25 = __________
* 310 * 325 * 340 * None
2 2 2 2
5) Find the sum of 11 + 12 + 13 + …………….+ 25 = __________
* 5140 * 5525 * 6295 * None
3 3 3 3
6) Find the sum of 16 + 17 + 18 + …………… + 25 = __________
* 91225 * 105625 * 14400 * None
10
∑n=1 n will be equal to __________
7)
* 10 * 50 * 55 * 100
5 2
8)
* 10 * 50 * 55 * 100
5 3
9)
* 25 * 220 * 225 * 100
n (n−1) n (n−1)(n−2) 3
10) 1 + nx + 2! x2 + 3!
x + ………….. = __________?
n n
* (1 + x) * (1 – x) * (1 + x)-n * (1 – x)-n
11) 1 – x+ x2 – x3 + …………. = __________?
* (1 + x)-1 * (1 – x)-1 * (1 – x)-2 * (1 – x)-2
12) 1 + x+ x2 + x3 + …………. = __________?
* (1 + x)-1 * (1 – x)-1 * (1 – x)-2 * (1 – x)-2
13) 1 – 2x + 3x2 – 4x3 + …………….. = __________?
* (1 + x)-1 * (1 – x)-1 * (1 – x)-2 * (1 + x)-2
14) 1 + 2x + 3x2 + 4x3 + …………….. = __________?
* (1 + x)-1 * (1 – x)-1 * (1 – x)-2 * (1 + x)-2
2 2
15) (1 + x + x + …………..) (1 + 2x + 3x + ……………) = __________?
* (1 + x)-2 * (1 – x)-2 * (1 + x)-3 * (1 – x)-3
1 1.3 1.3.5
16) Find the sum of 1 + 22
+ 2! 24
+ 3! 26
+ …………. = __________
1
* * √2 * √3
√2
1 1.3.5
17) Find the sum of 1 + + + …………= __________
3 33 . 3!
1
* √2 * √3 *
√3
18) The Pascal’s Rule is __________
n n n n n+1 n n!
*( )=( ) *( )+ ( )= ( ) * ( ) = r!(n−r)!
r n−r r−1 r r r
19) Write the next term 2, 5, 10, 17, __________?
* 24 * 27 * 26 * 25
20) If 5 + 15 + 45 + ------- is the infinite geometric series. S = __________
* -5/2 * 5/2 * 2/5 * None of them
1 1 1 1
21) If + + + + ----------- ∞ then sum = __________.
2 4 8 10
*0 *1 * -1 * 1/2
1 1 1
22) Find the value of 3 . 3 . 3 ……….. = __________
2 4 8
*2 *3 *4 *1
1 1 1
23) Find the value of 2 . 4 . 8 ……….. = __________.
2 8 24
*1 *2 *3 *4
EXERCISE
Ex. # 5.1 (Q1 to 8) Ex. # 5.2 (All questions)
Ex. # 5.3 (All questions) Ex. # 5.4 (All questions)
PERMUTATION, COMBINATION &

CHAPTER 6
PROBABILITY
(𝑛+1)!
1. If n = 0, then 𝑛! = ______________
a. 0 b. 1 c. n d. ∞
2. Probability of getting 7 in throwing a dice is:
a. 0 b. 1 c. – 1 d. not defined
3. The factorial form of 12 ∙ 11 ∙ 10 ∙ is:
12! 12
a. 9! b. 12! c. ( 9 ) ! d. (12!) ∙ (9!)
4. If two independent events A and B occur in p and q ways respectively, then number of ways
that both events can occur is:
a. 𝑝 + 𝑞 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 b. 𝑝 ∙ 𝑞 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 c. (𝑝𝑞)𝑟 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠 d. 𝑟𝑝 + 𝑞𝑟 𝑤𝑎𝑦𝑠
5. And arrangement of n objects according to some definite order is called:
a. Combination b. Permutation c. Factorial d. none of these
6. An arrangement of n objects without any order is called:
a. Combination b. Permutation c. Factorial d. none of these
7. The number of permutation of the letters of the word COMMITTEE is:
9 6 9 9
a. ( ) b. ( ) c. ( ) d. ( )
2, 2, 2 1, 2, 2 2, 2, 1 2, 3, 1
8. 8.7.6 is equal to:
a. 8P3 b. 8C3 c. 8P5 d. 8C5
9. If r = n, then nPr is equal to:
a. r! b. (n – r)! c. 1 d. 0
10. The number of ways that a necklace of n beads of different colours be made is:
𝑛! 𝑛!−1 (𝑛−1)!
a. (n – 1)! b. 2 c. 2
d. 2
11. Any subset of a sample is called:
a. Sample space b. an event c. a Trial d. Random Variable
12. For two events A and B if A ∩ B = , then events A and B are called:
a. Mutually exclusive b. Not mutually exclusive
c. Overlapping d. Dependent events
13. When a dice is rolled and coin is tossed, all possible outcome are:
a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24
14. If two events A and B have equal chance of occurrence, then the events are:
a. equally likely b. not equally likely
c. Dependent d. Not mutually exclusive
15. If E be an event of a sample space S, then:
𝑛(𝑠)
a. 𝑃(𝐸) = 𝑛(𝐸) b. 0 ≤ 𝑃(𝐸) ≤ 1 c. 0 < 𝑃(𝐸) < 1 d. all of these
16. The probability of getting the tail in a single toss of a coin is:
1 2 1 1
a. 3 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4
17. Three dice are rolled simultaneously, then n(S) is equal to:
a. 36 b. 18 c. 216 d. 6
18. Two teams A and B are playing a match, the probability that team A does not lose is:
1 2 1
a. b. c. d. 0
3 3 2
n n
19. If C6 = C12, then n equals:
a. 18 b. 12 c. 6 d. 20
EXERCISE
Ex. # 6.1 (Q2, 4, 5, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 15, 17 to 19)
Ex. # 6.3 (Q3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9)
Ex. # 6.4 (Q1, 2, 4, 6, 11, 17)
MATHEMATICAL INDUCTION AND

CHAPTER 7
BINOMINAL THEOREM
1. For n = 2 the statement.
n
1 + 4 + 7 + …… + (3n – 2) = 2 (3n – 1)
a) True b) False c) Both d) None of these
2. For n = 1 the Statement 1 + 5 + 9 + …. + (4n – 3) = n (2n – 2) is:
a) True b) False c) Both d) None of these
3. Sum of first n natural numbers 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + …….. + n = Σn = ___________.
n (n+1) n (n+1)(2n+1) n2 (n+1)2
a) 2 b) 6
c) 2
d) n2
4. Sum of the squares of first n natural numbers 12 + 22 + 32 + ……. + n2 = Σn = ___________.
n(n+1) n(n+1)(2n+1) n2 (n+1)2
a) b) c) d) n (n + 1)
2 6 4
3 3 3 3
5. Sum of the cubes of first n natural numbers 1 + 2 + 3 + …… + n = Σn = ___________.
n(n+1) n(n+1)(2n+1) n2 (n+1)2
a) 2 b) 6
c) 4
d) n (n + 1)
n 2
6. Which number satisfied the relation 2 > n .
a) n = 5 b) n = 4 c) n = 3 d) n = 2
7. If (a2n – b2n) is divisible by (a + b) when n = ________.
1
a) 3 b) -1 c) -2 d) 1
8. 2 + 4 + 6 + ……. + 2n = _____________.
n (n−1) n (n−1)
a) n (n – 1) b) 2 c) n (n + 1) d) 2
9. If a proposition is true for n = K then it must be true for n = ___________.
1 1
a) K+1 b) K – 1 c) K−1 d) K + 1
2 2 2 2
10. Find the sum of 1 + 2 + 3 + ………. + 10 .
a) 55 b) 45 c) 65 d) 385
n n
11. ( ) + ( ) =?
r−1 r
n
a) (n + 1) b) (n – 1) c) ( ) d) None of these
r−1
12. 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + ……….. + 15 =?
a) 12 b) 220 c) 120 d) None of these
n n-1
13. If n is any positive integer then 4 >3 true for all.
a) n ≤ 3 b) n < 3 c) n ≥ 5 d) n > 3
14. The inequality n! > 2n – 1 is valid if:
a) n = 3 b) n ≤ 3 c) n < 4 d) n ≥ 4
15. (a + b)n is called ___________.
a) Binomial b) Trinomial c) Multinomial d) None of these
n n n-1 1 n
16. a + ( ) a b + ……….. + b = ____________.
1
a) (a – b)n b) (a + b)n c) (a + b)-n d) (a – b)-n
n
17. The number of terms of binomial (a + b) are ____________ ∀ n ∈ N.
a) n b) n + 1 c) n – 1 d) n + 2
n n n n n
18. ( ) + ( ) + ( ) + ( ) + ……….. + ( ) = ___________ ∀ n ∈ N.
0 1 2 3 n
a) Binomial Theorem b) Binomial Coefficient c) Binomial expression d) None of these
19. In binomial expansion of (a + b)n then geneala term Tr+1 = ____________ ∀ n ∈ N.
n n n
a) ( ) an-r-1 br+1 b) ( ) an-r br c) ( ) an br d) None of these
r+1 r r−1
n
20. In the expansion of (a + b)n ∀ n ∈ N, then the term Tr+1 = ( ) an-r br is called _____________.
r
a) Binomial Theorem b) Binomial Expansion c) General Term d) None of these
n
21. In the expansion (a + b) if n even then there is ____________.
a) Is one middle term b) Are two middle term c) Are three middle tem d) None of these
22. In the expansion of (a + b)n if n is even then there is _____________.
a) One middle term b) Two middle term c) Three middle term d) None of these
23. In the expansion of (a + b)n if n is even then the Middle term is _____________.
n n+1 n+2 n+3
a) (2) th term b) ( 2
) th term c) ( 2
) th term d) ( 2
) th term
24. In the expansion of (a + b)n if n is odd then the Middle Term is _____________.
n+1 n+2 n+1 n+3
a) ( ) th term and ( ) th term b) ( ) th term and ( ) th term
2 2 2 2
n+2 n+3
c) ( 2 ) th term and ( 2 ) th term d) None of these
14
𝑥2
25. The middle term in the expansion of (𝑥 − 2
) is _____________.
th th
a) 7 b) 9 c) 8th d) 6th
1 2n
26. The midddle term in the expansion of (x − ) is _____________ term.
x
a) (n + 1)th term b) nth c) (n – 1)th d) (n + 2)th
1 7
27. The two middle terms of (𝑥 3 − 𝑥2
) are ___________ terms.
rd th th th
a) 3 and 4 b) 4 and 5 c) 5th and 6th d) None of these
1 2n+1
28. The two middle terms of (x − ) are __________ terms.
x
a) nth and (n – 1)th b) (n + 1)th and (n + 2)th
c) (n + 1)th and (n + 3)th d) (n – 1)th and nth
29. If n < 0 and |x| < 1 then number of terms of (1 + x)n is ____________.
a) n b) n + 1 c) n – 1 d) Infinite
30. If number of terms of binomial (a + b)n is 14 then n = _____________.
a) 12 b) 11 c) 14 d) 13
31. If number of terms of binomial is 15 then middle term of binomial is _____________.
a) 7th term b) 8th term c) 9th term d) 11th term
n n
32. According to Pascal’s Rule ( ) + ( ) = ____________.
r−1 r
n−1 r−1 1−n n+1
a) ( ) b) ( ) c) ( ) d) ( )
r n r r
33. The Coefficient of the last term in (a – b)5 is ____________.
a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) None of these
7 nd
34. In the expansion of (a + b) the 2 term is ____________.
a) a7 b) 7a6b c) 7ab6 d) None of these
35. If the exponent in the binomial expansion is 6, then the middle term is ____________.
a) 2nd term b) 3rd term c) 4th term d) 5th term
36. The general term in the expansion of (a + x)n is _____________.
a) (r – 1)th term b) rth term c) (r + 1)th term d) None of these
37. If |x| < 1, then the expansion of (1 – x)1/2 upto terms is _____________.
1 1
a) 1 + 2 x b) 1 - 2 x c) 1 – x d) 1 + x
38. If number of tems of binomial is 15 then middle term of binomial is ____________.
a) 7th term b) 8th term c) 9th term d) 11th term
39. In order to calculate (2.02)4 by mean of binomial theorem we write it.
a) (2 + 0.02)4 b) (2 - 0.02)4 c) (2 + 0.2)4 d) (2 + 0.04)2
𝑥 7
40. Second term in the expansion of (2𝑎 − ) is ____________.
𝑎
𝑥 2 𝑥 2 𝑥
a) 7 (2a)6 b) 7 (2a)6 (− 𝑎) c) 7 (2a)5 (− 𝑎) d) 7 (2a)6 (− 𝑎)
EXERCISE
Ex. # 7.1 (Q1, 2) Ex. # 7.2 (Q4 to 9)
Ex. # 7.3 (ex# 2 Page 232) (ex# 1 Page 233) (Ex# 2 Page 239) (Q1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9)
CHAPTER 8 FUNCTIONS & GRAPHS

20. If 𝑓: 𝐴 → 𝐵 be a function, then it is an onto function if:
a. Range = B b. Range ⊏ B c. image is not repeated d. Domain ≠ A
21. The graph of y = x6 is symmetric to ______________.
a. 𝑥 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 b. 𝑦 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 c. origin d. none
22. An one to one function is also called ___________ function:
a. Injective b. Surjective c. Bijective d. Inverse
23. Inverse of a function exits only if it is:
a. Injective b. Bijective c. Surjective d. all of these
24. The function 𝑓 = {(𝑥, 𝑦)|𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑐}, m and c are real numbers is:
a. Linear b. Quadratic c. A circle d. A point
25. The function 𝑓 = {(𝑥, 𝑦)|𝑦 = 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐, 𝑎 ≠ 0} is:
a. Linear b. Quadratic c. A circle d. A point
26. The range 𝑓 = (𝑥) = 𝑥 2 + 3∀𝑥 ∈ ℝ is ___________.
a. ℝ b. ℝ− c. (3, ∞) d. [3, ∞]
𝑛
27. Graph of 𝑦 = 𝑥 is symmetric to ___________ if n is an odd integer.
a. 𝑥 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 b. 𝑦 − 𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑠 c. origin d. none
28. The graph of linear function is:
a. Circle b. Straight line c. Parabola d. Triangle
29. If 𝑓 is function from A to B. Domain of 𝑓 is equal to:
a. Any subset of A b. A x B c. A d. B
30. Every function is a:
a. Relation b. Inverse function c. One to one d. None of these
31. If 𝑓 and 𝑔 are equal where 𝑓(𝑥) = 7𝑥 − 4 and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥 then 𝑥 =:
1 2 4
a. b. c. 1 d.
3 3 3
3𝑥+1
32. Domain of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥−1 is set of all:
a. real numbers b. rational numbers
c. complex numbers d. real numbers except 1
33. A function 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥| − 𝑥 2 is:
a. odd b. Linear c. Even
d. Neither even nor odd
EXERCISE
Ex. # 8.1 (All questions) Ex. # 8.2 (Q3 to 4)
Ex. # 8.3 (All questions) Ex. # 8.4 (Q1, 2, 3, 4)
CHAPTER 9 LINEAR PROGRAMMING (LP)

1. If 2𝑥 − 5 ≥ 3 then its solution set is _________ where 𝑥 ∈ ℤ
a. [2,3,4, … . ] b. {4,5, … } c. {2,1,0, … } d. {1,0, −1, … }
2. If 4𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 8 is the corresponding equation of an inequality 4𝑥 − 3𝑦 ≤ 8 then its
x-intercept is __________
3 2 1
a. b. c. 2 d.
2 3 2
3. {𝑥|𝑥 ∈ ℝΛ𝑥 > 5} = _____________
a. [5, ∞) b. (−∞, 5) c. (5, ∞) d. (−∞, 5]
4. Linear Programming (LP) is used to obtain ________ solution.
a. Feasible b. Trivial c. Optimal d. Infeasible
5. Solution space of the linear inequality 2𝑥 + 3𝑦 ≤ 6, ∀𝑥, 𝑦 ∈ ℝ includes ___________.
a. All points above the line b. All points on and below the line
c. All points below the line d. All points on and above the line
6. If 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = 5𝑥 + 4𝑦 is an objective function and the corner points of the feasible region are
(5,4), (0,0), (4,0) and (0,6) then the function is maximum at:
a. (4,0) b. (0,6) c. (0,0) d. (5,4)
7. ________ are the entities whose values are to be determined from the solution of the LP
problem.
a. Objective function b. Decision Variables
c. Constraints d. Opportunity cost
8. _________ specifies the objectives or goal of solving the LP problem.
a. Objective function b. Decision Variables
c. Constraints d. Opportunity cost
9. ________ are the restrictions or limitations imposed on the LP problem.
a. Variables b. Costs c. Profits d. Constraints
10. The region of solution in LP problem is called ___________.
a. Infeasible region b. Unbounded region c. Infinite region d. Feasible region
11. In case of an ‘__________’ constraint, the feasible region is a straight line.
a. Less than or equal to b. Greater than or equal to
c. Mixed d. Equal to
12. 𝑎𝑥 + 𝑏 ≤ 0, 𝑎 ≠ 0, 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ ℝ, is called __________.
a. Non-linear inequality b. Linear inequality
c. Linear equality d. Complex inequality
13. A point of a solution region where two of its boundary lines intersect, is called __________.
a. Middle point b. Origin c. Corner point d. Feasible point
14. The solution region of an inequality restricted to the first quadrant is called _________ region.
a. Combined b. Unbounded c. Infeasible d. Feasible
15. A function which is to be maximized or minimized is called __________.
a. Linear function b. Equal function
c. Objective function d. non linear function
16. The feasible solution which maximizes or minimizes the objective function is called the _____.
a. Optimal solution b. Corner solution
c. Initial solution d. Complex solution
EXERCISE
Ex. # 9.1 (Q1, 2, 3, 4) Ex. # 9.2 (All questions)
Ex. # 9.3 (Q1)
TRIGONOMETRIC IDENTITIES OF SUM AND

CHAPTER 10
DIFFERENCE OF ANGLES
1. If Sin (-θ) = - Sin θ, Cos (−θ) = Cos θ then tan (-θ) = ______________.
1 1
a) – tan θ b) tan θ c) – Cot θ d) Cot θ
θ θ
2. The value of 2 Sin 2 . Cos 2 is _______________.
θ
a) – 2 Sin 2 b) Cos θ c) Sin θ d) Cot θ
2 2
3. Cos θ + Sin θ = _____________.
a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) ∞
4. 1 + tan2 θ = _____________.
a) Sec2 θ b) Cosec2 θ c) – Sec2 θ d) Cot2 θ
2
5. 1 + Cot θ = _____________.
a) Cos2 θ b) Cosec2 θ c) Sec2 θ d) – Cosec2 θ
6. Cos (𝛼 – 𝛽) = ____________.
a) Cos 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Sin 𝛼 Sin 𝛽 b) Cos 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 -- Sin 𝛼 Sin 𝛽
c) Sin 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Cos 𝛼 Sin 𝛽 d) Sin 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Cos 𝛼 Sin 𝛽
7. Sin (𝛼 + 𝛽) = ____________.
a) Cos 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Sin 𝛼 Sin 𝛽 b) Cos 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 -- Sin 𝛼 Sin 𝛽
c) Sin 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Cos 𝛼 Sin 𝛽 d) Sin 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Cos 𝛼 Sin 𝛽
8. tan (𝛼 + 𝛽) = ____________.
tan 𝛼−tan 𝛽 tan 𝛼+tan 𝛽 Sin 𝛼+Sin 𝛽 Sin 𝛼−Sin 𝛽
a) 1+tan 𝛼 tan 𝛽 b) 1−tan 𝛼 tan 𝛽 c) 1−Sin 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 d) 1+Sin 𝛼 Sin 𝛽
9. Sin 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 = _______________.
1 1
a) 2 [𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 + 𝛽) + 𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 − 𝛽)] b) 2 [𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 + 𝛽) − 𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 − 𝛽)]
1 1
c) 2 [𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 + 𝛽) + 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 − 𝛽)] d) - 2 [𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 + 𝛽) − 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 − 𝛽)]
10. Cos 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 = _______________.
1 1
a) 2 [𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 + 𝛽) + 𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 − 𝛽)] b) 2 [𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 + 𝛽) − 𝑆𝑖𝑛 (𝛼 − 𝛽)]
1 1
c) 2 [𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 + 𝛽) + 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 − 𝛽)] d) - 2 [𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 + 𝛽) − 𝐶𝑜𝑠 (𝛼 − 𝛽)]
11. Sin U - Sin V = ____________.
U+V U−V U+V U−V
a) 2 Sin ( 2
) Cos ( 2 ) b) 2 Cos ( 2
) Sin ( 2 )
U+V U−V U+V U−V
c) 2 Cos ( 2 ) Cos ( 2 ) d) -2 Sin ( 2 ) Sin ( 2 )
12. Cos U - Cos V = ____________.
U+V U−V U+V U−V
a) 2 Sin ( ) Cos ( ) b) 2 Cos ( ) Sin ( )
2 2 2 2
U+V U−V U+V U−V
c) 2 Cos ( 2 ) Cos ( 2 ) d) -2 Sin ( 2 ) Sin ( 2 )
13. Cos (-θ) = ____________.
a) Sin θ b) – Sin θ c) Cos θ d) – tan θ
14. Sin (-θ) = ____________.
a) Sin θ b) – Sin θ c) Cos θ d) – Cos θ
15. Sin 2θ = _____________.
θ θ θ
a) Cos θ b) 2 Sin θ Cos θ c) 2 Sin Cos d) 2 Cos2
2 2 2
𝜋
16. Cos ( 2 − θ) = ____________.
a) Sin θ b) – Sin θ c) Cos θ d) 2 Sin θ Cos θ
𝜋
17. tan ( 2 − θ) = ____________.
a) tan θ b) – tan θ c) Cot θ d) – Cot θ
𝜋
18. Sin ( + θ) = ____________.
2
a) Sin θ b) Cos θ c) - Cos θ d) – Sin θ
𝜋
19. Cos ( + θ) = ____________.
2
a) Sin θ b) – Sin θ c) Cos θ d) – Cos θ
𝜋
20. Tan ( 2 + θ) = ____________.
a) Sin θ b) tan θ c) - tan θ d) – Cot θ
21. Sin (𝜋 – θ) = _____________.
a) Cos θ b) – Cos θ c) Sin θ d) Sec θ
3𝜋
22. Sin (2 − θ) = _____________.
a) – Cos θ b) Sin θ c) – Sin θ d) Sec θ
3𝜋
23. tan ( 2 − θ) = _____________.
a) tan θ b) - tan θ c) – Cot θ d) Cot θ
3𝜋
24. Sin (2+ θ) = _____________.
a) Cos θ b) - Cos θ c) Sin θ d) - Sin θ
25. Sin (2𝜋 - θ) = _____________.
a) – Sin θ b) Sin θ c) Cos θ d) – Cos θ
26. Cos (2𝜋 - θ) = _____________.
a) Cos θ b) - Cos θ c) tan θ d) – tan θ
27. tan (2𝜋 - θ) = _____________.
a) Cos θ b) - Cos θ c) - Sin θ d) – tan θ
28. Cos (2𝜋 + θ) = _____________.
a) Cos θ b) Sin θ c) - Cos θ d) tan θ
Cos θ
29. = _____________.
tan θ
a) tan θ b) Cot θ c) Cosec θ d) Sec θ
30. Cos 2θ = _____________.
a) 1 – 2 Cos2 θ b) 2 Sin2 θ – 1 c) 2 Cos2 θ – 1 d) 2 Cos θ – 1
31. Tan 2θ = ______________.
2 tan θ 1+tan2 θ 2 tan θ 1+tan θ
a) 1−tan2 θ b) 2 tan θ
c) 1+tan2 θ d) 2 tan θ
32. Cos θ = ______________.
θ θ θ θ
a) 1 – 2 Sin2 b) Sin2 – 1 c) 1 - 2 Cos 2 d) 1 - 2 Sin2
2 2 2 2
33. 1 + Cos θ = _____________.
θ θ θ θ
a) 2 Cos2 2 b) 2 Sin2 2 c) 2 Cosec 2 2 d) 2 Sec 2 2
𝛼
34. Sin = _______________.
2
1+𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼 1−𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼 1−𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼
a) ± √ 2
b) ± √1+𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼 c) ±√ 2
d) None of these
𝛼
35. Cos = _______________.
2
1+𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼 1−𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼 1−𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼
a) ± √ b) ± √ c) ±√ d) None of these
2 1+𝐶𝑜𝑠 𝛼 2
36. Sin (α + β) + Sin (α − β) = ________________.
a) 2 Sin α Cos β b) 2 Cos α Sin β c) – 2 Cos α Sin β d) Cos2 α
37. Cos (α + β) - Cos (α − β) = ________________.
a) 2 Sin α Cos β b) 2 Cos α Sin β c) 2 Cos α Cos β d) -2 Sin α Sin β
38. (1 + tan2 θ) (1 - Sin2 θ) = _____________.
a) 1 b) -1 c) Sin θ d) Cos θ
39. The value of Sin 15° = _______________.
1 √3−1
a) √2 b) c) d) None of these
√3 2√2
θ θ 2
40. (Sin − Cos )
= ________________.
2 2
a) 1 b) Cos θ c) 1 – Sin θ d) Sec θ
41. A triangle is called Isosceles triangle if ______________ are equal.
a) Two sides b) Three sides c) Three angles d) None of these
42. A triangle is called equilateral triangle if ______________ are equal in lengths.
a) Two sides b) Three sides c) Three angles d) None of these
43. A triangle is a right-angle triangle when the two angles of a triangle are _____________.
a) Acute b) Obtuse c) 90° d) 180°
44. The law Cos (𝛼 – 𝛽) = Cos 𝛼 Cos 𝛽 + Sin 𝛼 Sin 𝛽 is called ____________.
a) Fundamental of Trigonometry b) Law of cosine
c) Law of sine d) None of these
𝛼
45. Cot = ______________
2
2 2 1−Cos α 1+Cos α
a) ±√ b) ±√ c) ±√ d) ±√
1−Cos α 1+Cos α 1+Cos α 1−Cos α
46. Sin 2θ Cos θ – Cos 2θ Sin θ = ______________.
a) Sin θ b) Sin 3θ c) Cos θ d) Cos 2θ
1 1
47. If Sin 𝛼 = 2 and Cos 𝛼 = 2 then Sin 2𝛼 = ______________.
√ √
2
a) 2 b) Zero c) 2 d) 1
√
48. If tan 𝛼 = 1 then tan 2𝛼 = ______________.
1
a) 2 b) 2 c) Zero d) ∞ (Undefined)
49. Sec (-θ) = _____________.
a) – Cos θ b) – Sec θ c) Sec θ d) – Cosec θ
EXERCISE
Ex. # 10.1 (Q5, 6, 7, 8) Ex. # 10.2 (Q2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 6, 7, 8)
Ex. # 10.3 (Q1 to 16, 18, 19, 20) Ex. # 10.4 (Q1, 2, 3, 4, 5)
CHAPTER 11 APPLICATION OF TRIGONOMETRY

1. The Law of Cosine where m ∠A = 𝛼 in Standard Position is ______________.
a) b2 = a2 + c 2 – 2ac Cos β b) a2 = b2 + c 2 – 2bc Cos α
2 2 2
c) c = a + b – 2bc Cos γ d) Cos β = a2 + c 2 + b2 + 2ac
2. If the sides of a triangle are 3, 4 and 5 units, then “S” is ____________.
a) 4 b) 12 c) 5 d) 6
3. A circle passes through the vertices of a triangle is called _____________.
a) Ortho Circle b) Circum Circle c) In Circle d) e-Circle
4. A circle touches all the sides of a triangle is called __________________.
a) e-Circle b) In-Circle c) Circum-Circle d) Ortho-
Circle
5. A circle touches one side and two rays of other two sides of a triangle is called ____________
or _______________.
a) Escribed circle or e-circle b) Incircle or e-circle
c) Incircle or circumcircle d) Orthocircle or e – circle
6. If 𝛼, 𝛽 and 𝛾 are angles of any triangle then 𝛼 + 𝛽 + 𝛾 = ______________.
a) 360° b) 270° c) 90° d) 180°
7. A triangle with one angle of measure 90° is called _____________ angle triangle.
a) Obtuse b) Acute c) Right d) Oblique
8. According to law of Cosine, Cos 𝛼 = ________________
b2 +c2 −a2 a2 +b2 −c2 b2 +c2 +a2 a2 +c2 −b2
a) 2bc b) 2bc c) 2bc d) 2bc
9. Area of triangle when measured of all of its three sides is given by _____________.
a) ∆ = √s(s + a)(s + b)(s + c) b) ∆ = √s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)
c) ∆ = √s(s − a) d) None of these
a b c
10. Sin α
= Sin β = Sin γ when a, b, c are lengths of sides of triangle rhen this law is called of _______.
a) Cosine b) Sine c) Tangent d) None of these
𝛽
11. Sin = ______________.
2
(s−c)(s−a) (s−b)(s−c) (s−c)(s−a) (s−a)(s−b)
a) √ b) √ c) √ d) √
ab bc ab ab
𝛼
12. Cos 2
= ______________.
s(s−b) s(s−c) s(s−a) s(s−a)(s−b)
a) √ b) √ c) √ d) √
ac ab bc abc
𝛼
13. tan = ______________.
2
(s−b)(s−c) (s−c)(s−a)
a) √ s(s−a) b) √ s(s−b)
(s−a)(s−b)
c) √ s(s−c)
d) √s(s − a)(s − b)(s − c)
14. Area of triangle when measure of two sides and there included angle “𝛼” is given by _______.
1 1 1
a) ∆ = 2 ab Sin 𝛾 b) ∆ = 2 ab Sin 𝛽 c) ∆ = 2 ab Sin 𝛼 d) None of these
15. If the measures of the Sides of a triangle are 17, 10, 21, ∆ = 84 and S = 24 then R = _________.
a) 10.625 b) 3.5 c) 12 d) 6
16. If the measures of the Sides of a triangle are 17, 10, 21, ∆ = 84 and S = 24 then r = __________.
a) 10.625 b) 3.5 c) 12 d) 6
17. If a = b = c = x cm then R = ____________ cm.
√3x √3x √3x
a) 6 b) 3 c) 2 d) √3
18. If a = b = c = x cm then Area will be ∆ = ____________ cm.
1 𝑥2 𝑥√3 √3𝑥 2
a) b) c) d)
√2 2 6 2
r
19. s−c
= _______________.
β γ α
a) tan 2 b) tan 2 c) tan 2 d) None of these
20. Law of sine was given by a muslim mathematician ________________.
a) Al – Kindi b) Bin Ali – Sina c) Al – Razi d) Al – Beruni
21. 1 + Cos α = _______________.
α α α α
a) 2 Sin2 b) 2 Sec 2 c) 2 Tan2 d) 2 Cos2
2 2 2 2
22. Area of triangle = ______________.
1 1
a) 2 × base × height b) 2 + base + height
1 1
c) 2 − base – height d) 2 × base ÷ height
1
23. ∆ = 2 bc _____________.
a) Sin β b) Sin α c) Sin γ d) Sin2 α
1 2
24. ∆ = 2 c _______________.
Sin γ Sin α Sin γ Sin α Sin β Sin γ Sin β
a) Sin α Sin β b) Sin β
c) Sin γ
d) Sin α
β−γ
tan
2
25. According to Law of tangent β+γ = ___________.
tan
2
a−b c−a b+c b−c
a) a+b b) c+a c) b−c d) b+c
a−b
26. Law of tangent = ______________.
a+b
β−α α−β γ−α α+β
tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2
a) β+α b) α+β c) γ+α d) α−β
tan tan tan tan
2 2 2 2
(s−a)(s−b)(s−c) α
27. If r2 = s
then tan 2 = _____________.
r r r r
a) s−b b) s−c c) s−a d) s+a
Sin α
28. According to law of Sine, Sin β = _______________.
a b a b
a) b b) a c) c d) c
29. According to law of Cosine Cos 𝛾 = _______________.
a2 +b2 −c2 b2 +c2 −a2 a2 +c2 −b2 a2 +c2 +b2
a) 2ab b) 2bc c) 2ac d) 2ac
30. If a, b, c are the Sides of the triangle ABC, then S = ________________.
a+b+c a+b+c a+b+c
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) a + b + c
31. The angles of a triangles are in the ratio 2: 3: 4 what is the largest angle of the triangles?
a) 90° b) 80° c) 100° d) 180°
32. If “r” is the radius of the circle and “R” is radius of circumcircle of a ∆ABC then ___________.
a) r = 2R b) R = 2r c) r = R d) r > R
33. With usual notation, the value of a – b + c is _____________.
a) s + b b) s – b c) 2s - b d) 2 (s – b)
34. The greatest angle is opposite to ___________.
a) Smallest side b) Greatest side c) Same side d) Right side
𝛼
35. Cot 2 = __________________.
s(s−a) s(s−a) s(s−c) (s−b)(s−c)
a) √(s−b)(s−c) b) √(s−c)(s−a) c) √(s−a)(s−b) d) √
bc
EXERCISE
Ex. # 11.1 (Q6, 7, 8) Ex. # 10.2 (Q1, 2, 7 to 15)
Ex. # 11.3 (Complete) Ex. # 11.4 (Q3, 4, 5, 6)
CHAPTER 12 TRIGONOMETIRC EQUATIONS & GRAPHS

-1
1. f(x) = Sin x what is the range of f =?
𝜋 𝜋
a) 0 ≤ x ≤ 2𝜋 b) -1 < x < 1 c) 0 ≤ x ≤ 𝜋 d) - 2 ≤ x ≤ 2
-1
2. f(x) = Cos x what is the domain of f?
𝜋 𝜋
a) 0 b) - 2 ≤ x ≤ 2 c) - 1 ≤ x ≤ 1 d) 0 < x < 1
3. The function tan (Sin-1 ½ ) = ____________.
1 1 √3 1
a) b) 2 c) d) 3
√3 2
4. In generally Sin-1 x _____________ (Sin x)-1
a) < b) ≠ c) = d) >
-1
5. Cos (-1) = _______________ Radians.
𝜋 𝜋
a) 0 b) 2 c) - 2 d) 𝜋
√3
6. Cos-1 ( 2 ) = _______________ Radians.
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
-1
7. Sin (-1) = _______________ Radians.
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) - b) c) - d) 𝜋
2 2 6
√3
8. Sin-1 ( ) = _______________ Radians.
2
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) b) - c) d)
3 4 4 6
1
9. Sin-1 ( ) = _______________ Radians.
√2
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) ± 3
b) – 4 c) 4 d) 6
10. tan-1 (√3) = _______________ Radians.
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 𝜋 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
1
11. tan-1 ( ) = _______________ Radians.
√3
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 𝜋 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
-1
12. tan (∞) = _______________ Radians.
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
13. An equation involving ______________ functions is called a trigonometric equations.
a) Trigonometric b) Algebraic c) Exponential d) None of these
−1
14. Cos (tan 0) = _____________.
a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) ∞
1 π
15. Sin θ = 2, then θ = 4 is called ______________.
√
a) Principle Solution b) General Solution c) Common Solution d) None of these
-1 -1
16. tan A - tan B = ______________.
A−B A+B 1+AB 1−AB
a) tan−1 (1+AB) b) tan−1 (1−AB) c) tan−1 ( A−B ) d) tan−1 ( A+B )
2A
17. tan-1 (1−A2 ) = _______________.
A 2
a) tan-1 ( ) b) tan-1 ( ) c) tan-1 (A) d) 2 tan-1 (A)
B A
-1 1 𝜋
18. If Sin (2) = 2 – x, then the value of x is ________________
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 2 b) 3 c) 𝜋 d) 4
19. The general solution of the equation 1 + cos x = 0 is:
𝜋 𝜋
a) { + 2𝑛𝜋} b) {− + 2𝑛𝜋} c) {𝜋 + 2𝑛𝜋} d) {− 𝜋 + 2𝑛𝜋}
2 2
1
20. If Sin x = 2 then x = _______________.
𝜋 5𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 𝜋 5𝜋 𝜋 2𝜋
a) 6 , 6
b) − 6 , 6
c) - 6 , 6
d) 3 , 6
1
21. Cos x = has a solution.
2
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
22. If Sin x + Cos x = 0, then x = _______________.
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 𝜋 3𝜋
a) 4 , - 4 b) - 4 , - 2 c) - 4 , - 4
d) None of these
23. Solution of 1 + Cos x = 0 is:
𝜋
a) 2 b) 𝜋 c) 2𝜋 d) 0
24. If Sin θ = √3 Cos θ, then θ = _____________ where (0 < θ < 90°).
a) 45° b) 30° c) 90° d) 60°
-1 1
25. tan (𝑥) = ___________.
1 1
a) tan-1 (x) b) Cot-1 (x) c) Cot-1 (x) d) tan (x)
26. If Sin2 θ + Sin θ = 0; then θ will be:
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
a) 0, 𝜋, 2 b) 𝜋, 2 c) - 𝜋, 2 d) None of these
EXERCISE
Ex. # 12.3 (Complete) Ex. # 12.4 (Complete)
Ex. # 12.5 (Complete)
XI-SCIENCE (BIOLOGY) Page | 88

XI-BIOLOGY
CHAPTER 1 BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES
1. The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive
charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
a) Covalent bond b) Hydrogen bond c) Ionic bond d) Hydrophilic bond
2. Tendency of water to coalesce oil drop into large droplet called
a) Hydrophilic force b) Hydrophobic exclusion
c) Hydrophilic exclusion d) Hydrogen bonding
3. The covalent bond between two monosaccharides is called
a) Peptide bond b) Ester bond c) Phosphodiester bond d) Glyosidic bond
4. Most abundant carbohydrate found in nature?
a) Glucose b) Maltose c) Cellulose d) Glycogen
5. Most important organic compound of the cell which carry out virtually all of the cell’s activities.
a) Protein b) Carbohydrates c) Nucleic acid d) Lipids
6. All amino acids have same formula except
a) Alpha carbon b) Hydroxyl group c) Radical group d) Amino group
7. A trihydroxy alcohol, made of three carbon atoms called
a) Glucose b) Glycerol c) Maltose d) Ribose
8. Large and important class of lipid made up of isoprenoid unit called
a) Phospholipid b) Terpenoids c) Waxes d) Acylglycerol
9. How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 21 monomers
longs?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 21 d) 2
10. Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?
a) they are both polymers of glucose b) they are geometric isomers of each other.
c) they can both he digested by humans d) they are both used for energy storage in plants.

1. Condensation & Hydrolysis
2. Properties of water
3. Stereoisomers in carbohydrate
4. Structure of amino acids
5. Formation of polypeptide.
6. Significance of sequence of amino acids
7. Saturated & unsaturated acylglycerol.
8. Composition of nucleotide.
9. Types of RNA i) DNA & ii) Differentiate RNA
10. Note on conjugated molecule
1. Discuss Carbohydrates, protein or lipids
CHAPTER 2 ENZYMES
1. Which of the following statements is (are) true zabout enzyme catalyzed reactions?
a) The reaction is faster that the same reaction in the absence of the enzymes.
b) The free energy change of the reaction is opposite from the reaction in the absence of the
enzyme.
c) The reaction always goes in the direction toward chemical equilibrium.
d) Both a and b.
2. The active site of an enzyme is the region that
a) Binds allosteric regulators of the enzyme
b) Is involved in the catalytic reaction of the enzyme
c) Binds the products of the catalytic reaction
d) Is inhibited by the presence of a coenzyme or a cofactor.
3. According to the induced fit hypothesis of enzyme catalysis, which of the following is correct?
a) The binding to the substrate depends on the shape of the active site.
b) Some enzymes change their structure when activators bind to the enzyme.
c) A competitive inhibitor can outcompete the substrate for the active site.
d) The binding of the substrate changes the shape of the enzyme’s active site.
4. Which curve represents the behavior of an enzyme taken from
a bacterium that lives in hot-springs.
I. Curve 1 II. Curve 2 III. Curve 3
a) I only b) II only c) III only
d) I and II e) II and III
5. Increasing the substrate concentration in an enzymatic reaction could overcome which of the
following?
a) Denaturization of the enzyme b) Allosteric inhibition
c) Competitive inhibition d) Saturation of the enzyme activity
6. Competitive inhibitors block the entry of substrate into the active site of an enzyme. On which of
the following properties of an active site does this primarily depend?
a) The ability of an enzyme to form a template for holding and joining molecules
b) The enzyme’s ability to stretch reactants and move them toward a transition state.
c) The enzyme providing an appropriate microenvironment conducive to a reaction’s occurrence
d) The enzyme forming covalent bonds with the reactants
7. The series of enzymes catalyze the reaction X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that
converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the
enzyme. What is substance X?
a) A coenzyme b) An allosteric inhibitor c) A substrate d) An intermediate
8. If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are inequilibrium, what would
occur?
a) Additional product would be formed b) Additional substrate would be formed
c) The free energy of the system would change d) Nothing; the reaction would stay at equilibrium
9. Which one of the following is the mechanism of action of enzymes?
a) the act upon substrate molecules to release new substrate molecules.
b) They actually increase the amount of energy of activation.
c) Enzymes dramatically decrease the amount of energy of activation.
d) Enzymes break product molecules to release new product molecules.
10. How does a noncompetitive inhibitor decrease the rate of an enzyme reaction?
a) By binding at the active site of the enzyme b) By changing the shape of a reactant
c) By changing the free energy change of the reaction
d) By acting as a coenzyme for the reaction

1. Characteristics of enzymes
2. Structures of enzymes
3. Mechanism of enzymes action (any one)
4. Energy of activation
5. Significance of enzyme inhibition
1. Factor affecting on enzymes activities
2. Classification of enzyme
CHAPTER 3 CELL STRUCTURE & FUNCTIONS

1. A primary objective of cell fractionation is to
a) View the structure of cell membranes b) Identify the enzymes outside the organelles
c) Determine the size of various organelles
d) Separate the major organelles so that their particular functions can be determined.
2. The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the
corresponding for this observation is that
a) Plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface to volume ration than animal cells.
b) Plant cells have a much more highly convoluted plasma membrane than animal cells.
c) Plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
d) Animal cells are more spherical, while plant cells are elongated.
3. Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following
molecules?
a) Lipids b) Starch c) Proteins d) Steroids
4. In animals cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packed to prevent general destruction of cellular
components. Which of the following organelles functions in the compartmentalization?
a) Chloroplast b) Lysosome c) Peroxisome d) Glyoxysome
5. Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality in cells accumulating and becoming clogged
with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?
a) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi complex
c) Lyosome d) Mitochondria
6. Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells?
a) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Golgi complex
c) Lyosome d) Mitochondria
7. Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA
I. Ribosomes II. Chloroplast III. Mitochondria
a) I only b) II only c) II and III d) I and II
8. Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
a) Chloroplast b) Cell wall c) Central vacuole d) Mitochondria
9. Cell organelle mainly concerned with the detoxification of alcohol.
a) Chloroplast b) Peroxisome c) Central vacuole d) Mitochondria
10. Clarity of image is generally known as
a) Magnification b) Contrast c) Resolution d) Sedimentation

1. Cell wall, types & functions
2. Note on Mitochondria, Endoplasmic reticulum, Cytoskeleton, Chloroplast, Golgi bodies,
Ribosome, Nucleus.
3. Prokaryotes & Eukaryotes.
1. Technique used in cell biology
2. Structure, chemical composition & functions of cell membrane.
CHAPTER 4 BIOENERGETICS
1. Chlorophyll-a is almost identical to chlorophyll-b but slight structural difference between them is
enough to give
a) Similar energy during the light reaction b) Different absorptive spectrum
c) Different absorptive spectrum d) All of these
2. Chlorophyll is organized along with other molecules into photosystem, which has light gathering.
a) Reaction Centre b) Carotenoid compound c) Antenna complex d) Cytochrome
3. Select the correct statement
a) PSI and ATP synthase complexes are located in the appressed part of thylakoid
b) PSI and NADP reductase are located in the appressed part of thylakoid membrane
c) Appressed part Contain NADP reductase and ATP synthase
d) Non appressed (non-stacked) Having PSI
4. The linear flow of electrons from water to NADP+ coupled to ATP synthesis is
a) Cyclic photophosphorylation b) Non-Cyclic photophosphorylation
c) Chemiosmotic Phosphorylation d) Oxidative Phosphorylation
5. The intermediate carbon fixing compound in the member of grass family to pass CO 2 to Calvin
cycle is
a) Citric acid b) Oxaloacetic acid c) Pyruvic acid d) Crassulacean acid
6. Oxidative decarboxylation of isocitrate form?
a) 𝛼-Ketoglutarate b) Succinate c) Cis-aconitate d) Fumarate
7. How many ATP molecules are forms during substrate level phosphorylation in kreb’s cycle when
one glucose is consumed?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
8. Enzyme involves during carboxylation
a) Rubisco oxygenase b) Rubisco carboxylase
c) Rubisco dehydrogenase d) No need of enzyme during carboxylation
9. The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or events?
a) Glycolysis
b) Accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain
c) The citric acid cycle d) The oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoA
10. How many carbon atoms are fed into the citric acid cycle as a result of the oxidation of one
molecule of pyruvate?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

1. Types of phosphorylation
2. Role of light, chlorophyll, water & CO2.
3. Fermentation & its types
4. Note on photorespiration
5. C4 cycle
6. CAM cycle

1. Light reaction
2. Light independent reaction
3. Glycolysis
4. Kreb cycle
CHAPTER 5 ACELLULAR LIFE

1. Viruses evolve by using the
a) Cellular organelles b) Cellular enzymes c) Cellular energy d) All of them
2. The pathogenicity of a virus depends upon
a) the immunity of the host body b) the effective penetration of its genome
c) the overall environment inside the body d) the overall environment outside the body
3. Bacteriophages escape from host cell by the activity of
a) Lysozyme b) Ribozyme c) Peroxisomes d) Glyoxisomes
4. The smaller proteins are cut down and forms a new virus structure by the process called
a) Integration b) Transcription c) Budding d) Assembly
5. Virus that severely damage motor neurons and causes paralysis called
a) HIV b) Dengue c) Polio d) Herpes
6. Proteins that cause pathogenicity in humans and animals called
a) Prions b) Viroids c) Antigen d) Antibodies
7. Smaller than viruses having single stranded RNA with some double stranded regions are called
a) Prions b) Viroids
c) Minus strand viruses d) Double stranded DNA viruses
8. Dengue fever, encephalitis and yellow fever are caused by which group of viruses?
a) Arbo-viruses b) Retro-viruses c) Rhabdo-viruses d) Rhino-viruses
9. Aedes mosquito is the vector of
a) Dengue virus b) Ebola virus c) Hepatitis virus d) Measles virus

1. Non-Living & Living characters of viruses
2. Discovery of virus
3. Structure of virus
4. Baltimore classification of viruses / Animal Disease
5. Survival of virus within host
6. Label diagram of bacteriophage virus
7. Prions & Viroid
1. Lytic cycle of bacteriophage
2. Life cycle of HIV
3. AIDS
4. Classification of Viruses
CHAPTER 6 PROKARYOTES
1. The prokaryotes may have evolved from ancestors called
a) Protobionts b) Virion c) eukaryote d) RNA
2. The earliest undisputed evidence of life on earth dates at least from
a) 3.5 billion years ago b) 4.5 billion years ago c) 2.5 billion years ago d) 5.5 billion years ago
3. Gram positive bacterial peptidoglycan layer is
a) Thick b) Moderate c) Thin d) No
4. When habitat conditions become harsh and nutrients are exhausted the development is initiated
called
a) capsule b) cell wall c) endospore d) pathogenicity
5. Bacteria show several types of movements such as flexing, spinning, free swimming and creeping
are called
a) bacillus b) spirochetes c) vibrio d) coccus
6. Photoautotrophic anaerobe bacteria have bacteriochlorophyll and another pigment
a) Biliverdin b) Phycoeythrin c) Bacteriovirdin d) Phycocyanin
7. Nitrogen-fixing bacterium lives in the roots of such plants as Pea is
a) Rhizobium leguminosarum b) Erwinia amylovora
c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Xanthomonas
8. Cholera is caused by the bacteria
a) Mycoplasmas b) Clostridium c) Vibrio d) Enterococcus
9. One of the first chemical to be used for disinfection
a) Phenol b) Heavy metals c) Halogens d) Aldehydes
10. Exposure to flame or destroy bacteria by burning called
a) Lyophilization b) Incineration c) Autoclave d) desiccation

1) Comparison of domain system of classification
2) Aerobic & Anaerobic bacteria
3) Groups of bacteria
4) Label diagram of bacteria
5) Differentiate between gram positive & gram negative bacteria
6) Shapes of becteria
7) Endospore formation in bacteria
8) Structure of flagella
9) Mode of nutrition in bacteria
10) Growth phases of bacteria
11) Genetic recombination in bacteria (Human bacterial disease)
12) Normal flora of Human.

1) Control of bacteria by physical & chemical agent
2) Structure of bacteria.
CHAPTER 07 PROTOCTISTS & FUNGI

1. Which of the following is true about the kingdom Protoctista
a) All organisms are prokaryotes b) All organisms are eukaryotes
c) All organisms are autotrophic d) All organisms are heterotrophic
2. All members of green algae have the pigment combination
a) Chlorophylls a and b b) Chlorophylls a and c
c) Chlorophylls a and Phycobilins d) Chlorophylls a, b and c
3. The major grouping of protozoa is based upon their
a) Feeding habits b) Mode of reproduction
c) Mode of Nutrition d) Mode of locomotion
4. Protoctista having isomorphic alternation of generation
a) Chlorella b) Ulva c) Euglena d) Phytophthora
5. The amoeboid stage of slime mold is
a) Plasmodium b) Fruiting bodies c) Euglena d) Merozoites
6. Trypanosomes and Leishmanias are disease causing
a) Viruses b) Bacteria c) Protoctists d) Fungi
7. Ulva is commonly called
a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Mushroom d) Sea lettuce
8. The study of fungi is called
a) Zoology b) Microbiology c) Botany d) Mycology
9. The most important cellulose degraders in ecosystem are
a) Ascomycota b) Zygomycota c) Basidiomycota d) Deutromycota

1) Oomycete (Structure & reproduction)
2) Importance of Protoctista
3) General characters of fungi
4) Importance of fungi
1) Life cycle of Ulva
2) Protozoa & its classes
3) Compression between all divisions of fungi
CHAPTER 08 DIVERSITY AMONG PLANTS

1) The rapid diversification of plants occurred in the period:
a) Silurian b) Devonian c) Carboniferous d) Paleozoic
2) Spores of land plants tough, flexible and resistant to biodegradation by:
a) Lignin b) Chitin c) Waxes d) Sporopollenin
3) Hepaticae, Anthocerotae and Moss are the classes of:
a) Angiosperms b) Gymnosperms c) Tracheophytes d) Bryophytes
4) The most successful kind of reproduction is:
a) Heterogamy b) Oogamy c) Anisogamy d) Isogamy
5) The dominant generation of living vascular plants existing as free-living plants is:
a) Sporophyte b) Gametophyte c) Tracheophyte d) Pteridophyte
6) The most primitive living vascular plants is:
a) Lycophyta b) Sphenophyta c) Psilophyta d) Filicinophyta
7) The gametophyte of Fern is called:
a) Archegonium b) Antheridium c) Cones d) Prothallus
8) Double fertilization is the characteristic feature of:
a) Bryophytes b) Gymnosperms c) Angiosperms d) Ferns
9) Resins, turpentine and pine oil are obtained from:
a) Rose b) Onion c) Pins d) Banana
10) In banana tree, flowers are covered over by one or many large brackets called:
a) Spathes b) Spadix c) Capitulum d) Palea

1. General characters of bryophytes
2. Adaptation to land habitat for bryophytes
3. Diagram of T.S. of Marchantia thallus
4. General characters of Psilopsida, lycopsida, sphenopsida.
5. Evolution of leaf / seed
6. Heterospory / heterogamy
7. Vascular plant as successful group.
8. General characters of Gymnosperm & its uses.
9. Differentiate between Monocot & Dicot.
10. Inflorescence & types
1) Life cycle of Moss/Ferm / Angio-spermic plant
CHAPTER 09 DIVERSITY AMONG ANIMALS

1) Choose the incorrect pair?
a) Sponges → Spicules b) Cnidaria → Nematocycts
c) Segmented worm → Psuedopodia d) Arthropoda → jointed legs
2) Water movement through sponge?
a) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum b) Spongocoel → Osculum → Ostia
c) Ostia → Osculum → Spongocoel d) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia
3) Choose the term which encompasses all other in the list
a) Coelomate b) Protostome c) Bilateria d) Triploblastic
4) Dry scaly skin, ectothermic, two pairs of legs, lungs, Internal Fertilization, eggs with amniotic
shell, and a three chambered heart are all properties of which class?
a) Amphibia b) Reptilia c) Aves d) Mammals
5) Pick the odd one out?
a) Star fish b) Brittle star c) Lamprey d) Sea urchin
6) Which of the following terms of structures is properly associated only with animals?
a) Genes b) Cell wall c) Autotrophy d) Sexual reproduction
7) An adult animal that possesses bilateral symmetry is most certainly also
a) Triploblastic b) Deuterostomes c) Coelomate d) Protostomes
8) Protostome characteristics generally include which of the following?
a) A Mouth that develops secondly and far away from the blastopore
b) Radial body c) Radial Cleavage d) Determinate cleavage
9) Sponges structural materials (spicules) are manufactured by the
a) Pinacocytes b) Choanocytes c) Amoebocytes d) Phorocytes
10) Which of the following can be used to distinguish a nematode from annelids?
I. Type of body cavity II. Number of muscle layers in the body wall
III. Presence of segmentation IV. Number of embryonic tissue layers
a) I only b) II only c) I and II d) I, II and III

1) Ectoderm & Endoderm
2) Note on Symmetry / Coloem
3) Characters & Evolutionary adaption of Porifera, Cnidarians, Nematoda, Platyhelminthes,
Echinodermata
4) Chondrichthyes & Osteichthyes
5) Economical importance of Mollusca, Arthropod

1) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Aves or Mammals
CHAPTER 10 FORMS & FUNCTIONS IN PLANTS

1. From where Plants primarily obtain essential nutrients:
a) Water b) Air c) Soil d) Light
2. Identify a micro nutrient for plants amongst the following:
a) Potassium b) Phosphorus c) Iron d) Sulphur
3. In which mineral deficient soil carnivorous plant typically live:
a) Nitrogen b) Calcium c) Magnesium d) Potassium
4. The plants growing in salt marshes close to sea are termed as:
a) Hydrophytes b) Xerophytes c) Mesophytes d) Halophytes
5. The cause of colour of leaf turns in to dull or bluish green is the deficiency of:
a) Nitrogen b) Phosphate c) Potassium d) Magnesium
6. Which principle type of auxin of higher plants synthesized at the apices of stem and root:
a) PAA b) 24-D c) IAA d) NAA
7. Active transport of sucrose into sieve elements is a step commonly called:
a) Phloem loading b) unloading c) Diffusion d) Osmosis
8. The capacity of a living system to lose water is:
a) Osmotic pressure b) Water potential c) Osmosis d) Plasma
9. The production of lateral appendages depends on the activity of:
a) Lateral meristem b) lutercalary meristem c) Apical meristem d) none of these
10. Which process involved in the promotion of flowering by cold treatment:
a) Photoperiodism b) Vernalization c) Secondary Growth d) Transpiration

1. Role of deficiency symptom of Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Potassium, Sulphur & Zinc.
2. Note on Carnivorous plants
3. Note on Gaseous exchange in plants
4. Define water potential, solute potential
5. Process of uptake of water & minerals.
6. Transpiration & mechanism
7. Translocation & source sink movement.

1) Osmoregulation in different plants
2) Growth response in plants
3) Movement in plants
CHAPTER 11 HOLOZOIC NUTRITION

1. The process of nutrition does not include this:
a) Taking in of food b) Breaking down of food
c) Absorption of nutrients d) Removal of undigested food
2. The chemicals playing the most important role in digestion of food are:
a) Hormones b) Enzymes c) HCl d) both a & B e) none of these
3. The thecodont condition referes to:
a) Presence of two sets of teeth during life time b) all alike teeth
c) sharp, pointed teeth d) embedded teeth
4. The type of digestion in Planaria is:
a) Intracellular b) Extracellular c) Intercellular d) Both a & b
5. Number of milk teeth is:
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
6. Teeth meant for cutting are:
a) Incisors b) Canines c) Pre-molars d) Molars
7. The part of gut also associated with respiratory system is:
a) Stomach b) Esophagus c) Pharynx d) Both b & c
8. The number of salivary glands in our oral cavity are:
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
9. The rugae are related to:
a) Stomach b) Duodenum c) Jejunum d) Ilium
2
10. BMI over 30 kg / m is considered as:
a) Normal b) Over-weight c) under-weight d) Obesity

1. Intra-cellular & Extra-cellular digestion
2. Note on digestion in Amoeba & Planaria
3. Role of Accessory gland in digestion

1. Human digestive system
2. Gastro-intestinal Tract (GIT) disorders (any five)
CHAPTER 12 CIRCULATION
1. Lymph most closely resembles which of the following?
a) Blood b) Urine c) Plasma d) Interstitial fluid
2. What event initiates blood clotting?
a) Contact with an irregular surface by platelets and other factors in plasma.
b) production of the enzyme thrombin c) Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin
d) Excess flow of blood through a capillary
3. Damage to the S.A Node in humans
a) is a major contributor to heart attacks
b) Would block conductance between the bundle branches and the Purkinje fibers
c) Would have a negative effect on peripheral resistance
d) Would disrupt the rate and timing of cardiac muscle contractions.
4. Which of the following is measured by an electrocardiogram?
a) Impulses from the AV node
b) Impulses of the parasympathetic nervous system that control heartbeat
c) The speed on impulses from the SA node d) Contraction of the two atria
5. Where are semilunar valves to be found in the mammalian heart?
a) Where blood goes from atria to ventricles b) On the right side of the heart only
c) Where the pulmonary veins attach to the heart
d) at the places where blood leaves via the aorta and pulmonary arteries
6. Organisms in which a circulating body fluid is distinct from the fluid that directly surrounds the
body’s cells are likely to have which of the following?
a) An open circulatory system b) A closed circulatory system
c) A gastrovascular cavity d) Branched tracheae
7. Average blood pressure is lowest in which structure (s)
a) Aorta b) Arterioles c) Capillaries d) Vena cava
8. Which of the following is / are a causes (s) of vasoconstriction?
a) Lying down after standing b) Standing after lying down
c) Stress of hormone concentration d) Histamine secretion
9. Blood returning to the human heart in a pulmonary vein drains first into the?
a) Left atrium b) Right atrium c) Left ventricle d) Right ventricle
10. Which of the following is NOT an important function of the human circulation?
a) Transport of nutrients and respiratory gases b) Regulation of body temperature
c) Protection of the body by circulating antibodies
d) Removal of waste products for excretion from the body

1. Open & close type circulatory system
2. General characters of circulatory system
3. S.A & A.V node
4. Note on ECG & its uses.
5. Differentiate between Arteries & Veins
6. Lymphatic system in advantages

1. Cardio Vascular disorder
2. Structure of Heart
CHAPTER 13 IMMUNITY
1. The study of functioning and disorders of immune system is termed as:
a) Immunity b) Immune response c) Immunology d) all of these
2. It is responsible for specific immune response:
a) Innate Immune system b) First line of defense
c) Second line of defense d) Third line of defense
3. Following serves as physical barriers:
a) Macrophage b) Mucous membrane c) HCl d) Saliva
4. Our digestive tract consists of what kind of barriers?
a) Physical barriers b) Biochemical barriers c) Both a & b d) None of these
5. Which of the following is involved in phagocytosis of bacteria?
a) Neutrophil b) Macrophage c) Both a & b d) None of these
6. It is not involved in antigen presentation:
a) Macrophage b) Dendritic cell c) Neutrophil d) Both a & b
7. The type of receptor exhibited by all nucleated cells other than macrophages is:
a) MHC-I b) MHC-II c) Both a & b d) TCR
8. Any foreign substance that can elicit immune response is called:
a) Antibody b) Antigen c) Both a & c d) Antihistamine
9. The type of immunity through the transfer of antibodies from mother to her fetus is:
a) Natural Active Immunity b) Natural Passive Immunity
c) Artificial Active Immunity d) Artificial Passive Immunity
10. Antibodies are secreted by:
a) T cells b) B cells c) Plasma cells d) Macrophages

1. Skin, structure & role in immune system
2. Role of digestive system in immunity
3. Cells of immunity (Neutrophils, Monocyte, Macrophages, Dendritic cell), Natural killer cell
4. Temperature response (pyrexia)
5. Active & passive Immunity
6. Allergies, Autoimmune disorder, transplant rejection.

1. Innate immunity (1st & 2nd line of defence)
2. Adaptive immunity (3rd line of defence)
CHAPTER 14 GASEOUS EXCHANGE

1. In which part of the respiratory system, gaseous exchange takes place?
a) Alveoli b) Pharynx c) Larynx d) Trachea
2. Which of the following statements is true about involuntary breathing?
a) It is controlled by the bronchioles b) It is controlled by the pulmonary arterioles
c) It is controlled by the alveolar-capillary network
d) It is controlled by the neurons, located in the medulla and pons
3. The tiny air sacs present in human lungs is called.
a) Alveoli b) Bronchus c) Bronchioles d) All of the above
4. The exchange of gases between the external environment and the lungs.
a) Respiration b) External respiration c) Cellular respiration d) None of the above
5. The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced inhalation is called.
a) Tidal volume b) Vital capacity c) ventilation rate d) Total lung capacity
6. Which one of the following is correct regarding larynx?
a) It houses the vocal cords
b) it prevents the invading pathogens into the trachea
c) it is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to trachea d) All of the above
7. Which of the following is the function of the trachea?
a) Gaseous Exchange b) Filters the air we breathe
c) Exhales the air from the body d) all of the above
8. Which of the following organs functions as an air condition?
a) Larynx b) Pharynx c) Nasal chambers d) All of the above
9. Which of the following statements is true about the entry of air into the lungs?
a) Air enters the body and travels to the lungs through the mouth and the nose
b) Air enters the body and travels to the lungs through the esophagus and gullet
c) Air enters the body and travels to the lungs through the windpipe and the pores
d) Air enters the body and travels to the lungs through the nose and the nervous system.

1. Character of respiratory surface
2. Disorder of respiratory system
3. Functions of respiratory system
4. Note on lung capacity

1. Human respiratory system
XI-SCIENCE (COMPUTER) Page | 99

XI – COMPUTER
CHAPTER 1 INTRODUCTION TO COMPUTERS
SECTION “A” (MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS)
Q. Multiple Choice Questions.
i. Dot matrix is a type of:
a) Impact Printer b) Non-impact Printer c) Scanner d) Plotter
ii. ASCII is an abbreviation of:
a) Application Software Code for Information Interchange
b) American Standard Code form Information Interchange
c) American System Code for Information Interchange
d) American Symbolic Code for Information Interchange
iii. Compiler is a / an:
a) Operating System b) Language Translator c) Debugger d) Linder
iv. The internal process of starting up a computer is known as:
a) Booting b) Self-start c) Warm up d) Start up
v. The common Language of internet to develop a web page is:
a) www b) HTTP c) HTML d) BASIC
vi. Laser beam technology is used in:
a) Optical disk b) Magnetic disk c) Floppy disk d) Hard disk
vii. An operating system falls in the category of a / an:
a) Application Software b) System Software c) Network Software d) None of these
viii. Daisy wheel is a type of:
a) Tape b) Printer c) Scanner d) Disk
ix. 1 Giga Byte (GB) is equivalent to:
a) 1024 Bytes b) 1024 KB c) 1024 MB d) 1024 TB
x. The full form of SIMM is:
a) Single Interfacing Memory Module b) Simple Inline Memory Module
c) Single Inline Memory Module d) Single Inline Memory Mode
xi. This part of CPU performs all arithmetic and logic operations:
a) CU b) MU c) ALU d) ROM
xii. This software is stored permanently on the ROM chip by the manufacturer:
a) Spyware b) Firmware c) Hardware d) Software
xiii. A bar-code Reader is an example of:
a) Input Unit b) Output Unit c) Storage Unit d) Processing Unit
xiv. This number of bits or bytes that a microprocessor can manipulate as a unit is called:
a) Word b) unit c) byte d) string
xv. One kilobyte is equal to:
a) 1000 bytes b) 1024 bytes c) 1 MB d) none of these
xvi. Another name of secondary storage is:
a) Memory b) Auxiliary c) Density d) Main Memory
xvii. This is a volatile memory:
a) Rom b) Hard disk c) Buffer d) Ram
xviii. UPS stands for:
a) Universal Power Supply b) Un-interrupted power supply
c) Universal Power Socket d) none of these
xix. This technology is used in compact disks:
a) Mechanical b) Electrical c) Electro Magnetic d) Laser
xx. Ribbing is used in:
a) plotter b) Ink-jet-printer c) Laser printer d) Dot matrix printer
xxi. During the normal PC boot process, this activates first:
a) RAM BIOS b) CMOS c) ROM BIOS d) Hard disk information
xxii. Dos is a
a) Application software b) System software c) Analog Computer d) Digital Computer
xxiii. The three main components of a computer system are:
a) Tape, CPU printer b) CPU, Input device c) CPU, alu, C.U.
d) CPU, output device memory unit control unit
xxiv. A plotter is an:
a) A Storage device b) A Character device c) An output device d) an input device
xxv. A source program is a program
a) Written in machine language b) Translated into machine language
c) Written in high language d) Required to boot a computer
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Explain the term computer and I.T.
2. What is CPU? Describe its role and various components with diagram.
3. What are I/O devices? Describe any three I/O devices.
4. Define RAM and its types.
5. What is software? Explain its different types.
6. What is Secondary Memory? Discuss its three types.
7. Differentiate between following:
 Volatile memory and Nonvolatile memory * Primary Storage and
Secondary Storage
8. What are peripheral devices? Mention some examples of peripheral devices.
9. What is an impact printer? Describe any two types.
10. Explain any three scanning devices with examples.
11. Differentiate between following:
* Soft Copy andHard Copy * Language and Package
CHAPTER 2 COMPUTER NETWORKS

i. The most reliable topology is:
a) Star b) Bus c) Ring d) Tree
ii. A network Topology that always uses central server is:
a) Bus b) Star c) Ring d) Hybrid
iii. It is the most common network used to connect two or more computers which are lying in the
same office or building:
a) GAN b) MAN c) LAN d) WAN
iv. The physical layout of a LAN is called:
a) link b) layer cake c) contention d) topology
v. The network of networks is called:
a) Intranet b) Internet c) Extranet d) Instinct
vi. In the word e-mail, ‘e’ stands for:
a) Extra b) External c) Electronic d) Easy
vii. Two dissimilar networks are connected with:
a) Server b) Bridge c) Router d) Gateway
viii. In Bus topology all nodes are connected to a common communication medium or central cable
this central cable is called __________
a) Ethernet card b) HUB c) Fiber optic d) Bus
ix. LAN stands for __________
a) Less area Network b) Large Area Network c) Local Area Network d) Low Area Network
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. What is a Computer Network? Write down its advantages and disadvantages.
2. What is meant by Network Topology? How many kinds of topologies exist? Define each with
diagram.
3. What are the components of LAN?
4. Define WAN and GAN.
5. Define Internet. Write down its uses and abuses.
6. Write some advantages and disadvantages of email
7. Define browser search engine.
CHAPTER 3 DATA COMMUNICATION

i. OSI model has:
a) 6 Layers b) 5 Layers c) 7 Layers d) 8 Layers
ii. The method of communication that allows data to travel in only one direction is called:
a) Simplex b) Half duplex c) Half simplex d) Full duplex
iii. FM stands for:
a) Frequent Modulation b) Functional Module
c) Frequency Modification d) Frequency Modulation
iv. The of rules to send and receive data is called:
a) Ethernet b) Register c) Protocol d) Bus
v. Coaxial cable and fibre optics are the examples of:
a) Router b) Communication Media
c) Modem d) Communication Mode
vi. A mode of communication that allows two way communication but not simultaneously is
called:
a) Full duplex b) Half duplex c) Half simplex d) Simplex
vii. The process of converting analog signal into digital signal is called:
a) Modulation b) Demodulation c) Telecommunication d) Compilation
viii. Telephone line is an example of:
a) Simplex Mode b) Half-duplex Mode c) Half-simplex Mode d) Full-duplex Mode
ix. This is the fastest data communication media:
a) Coaxial Cable b) Twisted Pair c) Microwave d) Fiber Optic
x. In full duplex transmission, data travels in:
a) one direction b) parallel direction
c) two directions simultaneously d) two directions but not simultaneously
xi. The software that enable to view web pages on internet is called:
a) Browser b) HTML c) Ms Word d) e-mail
xii. The transport layer on OSI model is:
a) layer 3 b) Layer 4 c) Layer 5 d) Layer 6
xiii. Computer data is transmitted block by block in this transmission:
a) Full duplex b) Asynchronous c) Synchronous d) Parallel
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Define data transmission? Explain various type
2. What is Communication media? Discuss the various Medias used in data communication.
3. What is OSI model?
4. Define modem and browser.
5. Define Network Protocols.
6. Define Transmission mode. Transmission signals. Transmission direction.
CHAPTER 4 USE OF COMPUTER

i. When business is conducted with the help of computer networks the activity is usually termed
as _______
a) e-mail b) net-business c) e-trade d) e-business
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Define role of computer in education / science and research.
2. Write merits and de-merits of computer.
CHAPTER 5 COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE

i. The component of CPU that manages all operations is called:
a) Control Unit b) Memory Unit c) Arithmetic & Logic Unit d) None of these
ii. Accumulator is a type of register found in
a) Control Unit b) Memory Unit c) Hard disk d) Arithmetic & Logic Unit
iii. The electrical path used to transfer data in CPU is called:
a) wire b) Cable c) Bus d) All of these
iv. The electrical path that carries data from one place to another place is called:
a) Bus b) Modem c) SIMM d) DIMM
v. It is used to transmit data from memory to microprocessor and vice versa:
a) data bus b) address bus c) control bus d) central bus
vi. It is also known as Memory Data Register:
a) Memory Address Register b) Memory Buffer Register
c) Instruction Register d) Program counter
vii. A microprocessor contains:
a) ALU & CU b) ALU & MU c) RAM & ROM d) none of these
viii. The register holds the instruction for waiting execution
a) MBR b) MAR c) AC register d) Program Counter
ix. CPU is linked to every hardware device in the computer system with:
a) ROM b) BUS c) printer d) operating system
x. Sequence control register is also known as:
a) Program counter b) Instruction counter c) sequence register d) controlling register
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Define a Register and its function. Describe various registers in CPU.
2. How many types of buses are there in a computer? Explain the function of each bus.
3. Explain fetch cycle / execution cycle.
CHAPTER 6 COMPUTER CRIME

i. This is a computer crime:
a) Backup b) Restoring c) Hacking d) Formatting
ii. This is not a computer virus:
a) Time Bomb b) Worm c) Trojan Horse d) CD Rom
iii. This is an antivirus program:
a) Torjan b) Worm c) McAfee d) Internet Explorer
iv. A computer virus is a:
a) Bacteria b) Hardware c) Signal d) Program
v. This software is used to detect and remove viruses:
a) Utilities b) System software c) Antivirus d) backup
vi. Which of the following is applied to prevent unauthorized access to the software documents or
hardware?
a) Protection b) Password c) Access word d) Prevent word
vii. A computer viruses is the part of
a) Software b) Hard ware c) firmware d) Fare ware
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Define computer crime in detail. How can we protect our computer and data from damage?
2. Discuss E-crime.
3. What do you mean about copyright laws of software?
4. What is Computer Virus? How can we protect our Computer from it?
CHAPTER 7 OPERATING SYSTEM

i. A software that enables user to interact with computer hardware is called:
a) Operating system b) data base c) Firmware d) Application software
ii. DOS Linux and Unix are the types of:
a) Operating system b) Viruses c) Translators d) Restoring
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Define Operating System. What are the components of Operating System? Describe its function
also.
CHAPTER 8 WORD PROCESSING

i. Which of the following is an example of character formatting.
a) justification b) bold c) indentation d) spacing
IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. What do you mean by word processing? Write down the functions of word.
CHAPTER 9 SPREADSHEET
1. What do you mean by electronic spreadsheet?
EXTRA FULL FORMS

TCP/IP, CD-RW, Http, HTML, OCR, PDF,
DPI, MAN, PROM, IBM, LCD, ASCII,
LED, BIOS, MBR, DIMM, CRT, VGA
ͳͲͶȁ      
  
  
    
    
        
    
  
  
  

       

  
  
            

   
 

     
     
   
   
 


   
     
      
  
      
        
ͳͲͷȁ      
    

 
      
   
  
      
     


ͳͲ͸ȁ      
  
  

    
        
  
100(iv) 27(iii) 70 ii 60(i)
    
  iv
     iii   ii  i
  

   iv  iii   ii   i



   
    
  iv     iii    ii   i
     
   iv   iii   ii  i
    
  iv   iii
  ii  i
       
  iv
   iii
    ii
    i
  
 
  
  iv   iii    ii    i
     
 iv   iii    ii   i
 
  
3 iv 4 iii 6 ii 2 i
  ''  
   iv    iii   ii  i
  
 iv    iii  ii   i
ͳͲ͹ȁ      
   
 
  

 iv   iii   ii   i

  

 iv   iii   ii 



 i
   
     
                  
   
   
       
 
                      
    
              

        
            
      
             
      
                  
           
         
       
            
          
               
      
        
          
            
       
      
ͳͲͺȁ      
  
        
         
       
      
             
          
         
       
       
     
      
    
        
       
   
      
            
     
                
     
 
  
   
     
  
        
    
  
    
    
  
     
    
        
      

ͳͲͻȁ      
     
     
       
      
     
     
     
    
   
  
      
     
    
    
         
       
       
      
    
     
       
        
    
        
     
        
       
    
      
      
Page | 110
SHAHJEE COLLEGIATE
SCHOLARSHIP POLICY
1. SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS is offering scholarships up to 100% to top 3 students; up to 50% scholarships to
those who secure Position from 4 to 6 and up to 30% scholarships to those who secure position from 7 to 10 in
Grand Test Result. The scholarships will be rewarded for the next session (2023-2024). Class IX students will get
scholarship in class X; Class X students will get scholarship XI (in college or coaching); XI students will get
scholarship in XII according to their result.
Selection will be on merit basis.
Applicant’s Name
Father’s Name
Mother’s Name
Current Address (Complete)
Date of Birth
PTCL No.
Applicant’s Mobile No.
Applicant’s Facebook ID
Father’s / Guardian’s Occupation
Admission required in: (Please ✔) & Write faculty: _____________________________________________

SHAH GRAMMAR HIGH SCHOOL SHAHJEE COLLEGIATE THE CASPIAN COLLEGE
(IX & X) Science IX-X-XI-XII (Science & Commerce) IX-X-XI-XII (Science & Commerce)
FOR APPLICATION SUBMISSION, PLEASE VISIT / CONTACT US DURING OFFICE HOURS:

OUR CAMPUSES
WATERPUMP GULSHAN SHARIFABAD MADRAS
Time: 09am to 09pm Time: 09am to 09pm Time: 09am to 09pm Time: 03pm to 09pm
021-36809239 – 36346645 021-34821006 – 34821007 021-36374167 – 36374168 0342-2004125

Page | 111
SHAHJEE COLLEGIATE
GRAND TEST SCHEDULE 2022-23
XI – XII (Science & Commerce Group)
XI-SCI XII-SCI DATE DAY
th
Urdu Urdu 28 April Friday
th
Islamiat Pakistan Studies 30 April Sunday
English English 02nd May Tuesday
th
Chemistry / Computer Chemistry / Computer 4 May Thursday
Mathematics / Botany Mathematics / Botany 06th May Saturday
th
Zoology Zoology 08 May Monday
Physics Physics 10th May Wednesday
XI-COM XII-COM DATE DAY

Urdu Urdu 28th April Friday
th
Islamiat Pakistan Studies 30 April Sunday
nd
English English 02 May Tuesday
POC Banking 4th May Thursday
th
Economics Commercial Geography 06 May Saturday
th
Business Maths Statistics 08 May Monday
Accounting Accounting 10th May Wednesday
‫سیٹ ٹ‬
‫ونٹرباےئرگڈنی ٹ‬
‫سل‬
‫ٹرپیپزوبرڈےکدےیئےئگ یبسےکاطمقبےیلاجےگنیئ۔ ٹ‬ ‫۔‬1
‫ٹرپیپزاکدوراہینوبرڈےکےطرکدہدوراہینےکاطمقبوہاگ ٹ۔ ٹ‬ ‫۔‬2
‫ںیموموجدںیہاسےکالعوہامتماضمنیمےکسیگرپیپزدےیئےئگںیہ‬Grand Test Kit‫اس‬

‫ ےکامہوساالت ٹ‬B & C‫اورنشکیس‬MCQs‫امہ‬Chapter Wise‫ٹرہومضمنےک‬ ‫۔‬3
‫ینیقیانبےتکسںیہ۔ ٹ‬100%‫سجیکدمدےساینپایتریوک‬
‫ سلیڈ میسقت ےئکٹ‬،‫ٹوجنٹوک ایک اجاگیئ اور سج ںیم امنایں اکایمیب احلص رکےن واےل ابلطء و اطابلت ںیم رسٹیفیکٹ‬5th‫ٹایگروہںی اور ابروہںی امجتع ےک رگڈنی سیٹ ےک اتنجئ اک االعن‬ ‫۔‬4
‫کتااکسرلپشےکاالعانتیھبےئیکاجںیئےگ ٹ۔‬100%‫اجےگنیئاوراسےکالعوہدقنااعنامتیھبدےیئاجےگنیئاوراےلگنشیسےکےیل‬
OUR CAMPUSES
WATERPUMP GULSHAN SHARIFABAD MADRAS
021-36809239 – 36346645 021-34821006 – 34821007 021-36374167 – 36374168 0342-2004125

Xi All Subj Shahjee 2023

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Xi All Subj Shahjee 2023

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

A Project of

SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

CHAPTER 2 ONCE MORE TO THE LAKE

CHAPTER 3 THE NECKLACE

CHAPTER 4 TECHNOLOGICAL REVOLUTION

CHAPTER 5 MY BANK ACCOUNT

CHAPTER 7 STRUGGLE FOR AN EDUCATION

CHAPTER 8 A VOYAGE TO THE CITY OF LIONS

CHAPTER 9 CHOOSING CAREER

CHAPTER 10 PEARLS OF WISDOM

POEM 1 THE CHARACTER OF A HAPPY LIFE

POEM 2 DON’T QUIT

POEM 4 GOOD TIMBER

POEM 5 LUCY GRAY

POEM 6 THE ABBOT OF CANTERBURY

POEM 7 SUR KAHORI

PLAY A VISIT TO A SMALL PLANET

GRAMMAR CORRECTION OF ERRORS

GRAMMAR ACTIVE PASSIVE

Q3. Write a narrative essay on the given topics:

Q6. Draft a covering letter with a CV in response to the following advertisement:

SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 2 SCALAR AND VECTORS

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 4 MOTION IN TWO DIMENSION

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS

TORQUE, EQUILIBRIUM AND

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 7 WORK, POWER & ENERGY

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 8 WAVE MOTION & SOUND

SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 9 NATURE OF LIGHT

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS

CHAPTER 10 GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

SECTION ‘B’ SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

SECTION ‘C’ DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS

SHAH GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Numerical Questions (Given Separately)

CHAPTER 2 ATOMIC STRUCTURE

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

THEORIES OF COVALENT BONDING AND

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Numerical Questions (Chapter 4, 5 & 6).

SECTION C (DETAILED ANSWER QUESTIONS)

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

CHAPTER 7 CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM

5. If the equilibrium expression of a reversible reaction is

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

CHAPTER 8 ACIDS, BASES & SALTS

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

Numerical Questions (Chapter 8 & 10):

CHAPTER 9 CHEMICAL KINETICS

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

CHAPTER 10 SOLUTION, SUSPENSION AND COLLOIDS

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)

CHAPTER 11 SOLUTION, SUSPENSION AND COLLOIDS

SECTION B (SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS)