OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX 28-11-2022

5 Which of the following statement is true?

PHYSICS MARKS : 60
(1) Magnitude of average velocity and
1 The acceleration of a cart started at t = 0, average speed are always equal
varies with time as shown in figure. Find the
distance travelled in 30 seconds: (2) A body with non-zero acceleration can
have constant velocity
(3) A body with zero velocity can have non-
zero acceleration
(4) Magnitude of velocity may change for an
object in uniform motion
6 The acceleration versus time graph of particle
is shown in Fig. The respective v-t graph of
(1) 100 fts. (2) 3000 fts. the particle is :-

(3) 1000 fts. (4) 1500 fts.

2 Which of the following describes a
characteristic shared by both Uranus and
Neptune?
(1) A total of eighteen moons
(2) The fastest winds of any planet
(3) A distinctive red color from gaseous (1) (2)
nitrogen
(4) A distinctive blue color from atmospheric
methane
3 Two charges of +4µC and –16µC are separated
from each other by a distance of 0.6m. At (3) (4)
what distance should a third charge of +6µC
be placed from +4µC so that net  force exerts
on it will be zero 7 A ray of light is incident on plane mirror. If
the mirror is rotated by an angle 45o, then the
reflected ray will be rotated by 
(1) 18
(1) 0.4 m (2) 0.6 m
(2) 36
(3) 1.2 m (4) 0.3 m
(3) 90
4 In an explosion a body (at rest) breaks into
two pieces of unequal mass. In this : (4) 54
(1) both parts will have numerically equal 8 What process is seen in rainbow formation?
momentum (1) Refraction
(2) lighter part will have more momentum
(2) Internal Reflection
(3) heavier part will have more momentum (3) Dispersion
(4) cannot say anything (4) All of the above

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9 Phases of the moon occur because 13 The initial velocity v1  required to project a
(1) we can see only that part of the moon body vertically upwards from the surface of
which reflects light towards us. the earth to just reach a height of 10R, where
R is the radius of the earth, described in terms
(2) our distance from the moon keeps
changing. of escape velocity ve is 
−−
− −−
−
(3) the thickness of the moon's atmosphere is 10 11
(1) √ ve (2) √ ve
not constant. 11 10
−−
− −−
−
(4) None of these 20 11
(3) √ ve (4) √ ve
10 A man throws balls into the air one after the 11 20
other, throwing one when other is at the 14 If the ratio of the masses of two planets is 2 : 3
and the ratio of their radii are 4 : 7, then the
highest point. How high the balls rise if he
inverse ratio of their accelerations due to
throws twice a second? (g = 10 m/s2) gravity will be
(1) 0.49 m (2) 1.25 m (1) 49 : 24 (2) 7 : 8
(3) 2.45 m (4) 4.9 m (3) 24 : 49 (4) 8 : 7
11 A ball of mass 400g is dropped from a height 15 The value of ‘g’ at a particular point is 9.8 m/s2.
5m. A boy on the ground hits the ball vertically Assuming that the earth suddenly shrinks
uniformly to half of its present size without
upwards with a bat with an average force of losing any mass. The value of ‘g’ at the same
100N so that it attains a vertical height of 20 m. point (assuming that the distances of the point
The time for which the ball remains in contact from the centre of earth does not change) will
be
with the bat is [g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 4.9 m/s2 (2) 9.8 m/s2
(1) 0.12 s (2) 0.08 s
(3) 2.45 m/s2 (4) 19.8 m/s2
(3) 0.04 s (4) 12 s
12 A force time graph for the motion of a body is CHEMISTRY MARKS : 60
shown in figure. Change in linear momentum 16 .................. is used in metallurgical industries
between 0 and 8 s is :- as reducing agent.
(1) Phosphorus (2) Coke
(3) Sulphur (4) Paraffin Wax
17 Gases in air can be seperated by ...................
(1) Filtration
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Centrifugation
(4) Seperating funnel
18 Any substance which gives heat and light on
combustion is called -
(1) zero (1) flame
(2) 4 Ns (2) fire
(3) 8 Ns (3) fuel
(4) None of these (4) glow
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19 Read the given passage and fill in the blanks 24 Which of the following is incorrectly
by choosing an appropriate option.
matched?
A mixture of ink having different coloured (1) Butter – Gel
components is to be separated, a (i) paper is
(2) Milk – Emulsion
used due to different (ii)  of coloured
components present in the ink. After some (3) Fog – Sol
time, they will rise to (iii)  heights. The paper (4) Milky glass – Solid sol
with its separate coloured spots is called (iv).
25 At higher altitudes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) boiling point of a liquid increases.
(1) Kroma Volatility Same Kromogram
(2) boiling point of a liquid decreases.
(2) Chroma Density Different Chromogram
(3) no change in boiling point.
(3) Chroma Solubility Different Pigmogram
(4) melting point of solid increases.
(4) Chromatographic Solubility Different Chromatogram
26 The microscopic view of three different
20 Identify the gas that is generally produced substances are shown in the given
when the tough black porous substance diagram, where T1, T2 and T3 are temperatures
and F1, F2 and F3 are the forces of attraction of
obtained after the destructive distillation  of
the particles of the respective states. Choose
coal  is burnt completely in the presence of
the correct order among the following.
sufficient air.
(1) Carbon monoxide
(2) Sulphur dioxide
(3) Nitrogen dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide (1) T1 < T2 < T3 and F1 < F2 < F3
21 Which process is used to separate a mixture of (2) T1 > T2 > T3 and F1 > F2 > F3
two miscible liquid A and B having boiling
points 56°C and 78°C respectively ? (3) T1 < T2 < T3 and F1 > F2 > F3

(1) Simple distillation (4) T1 > T2 > T3 and F1 < F2 < F3

(2) Fractional distillation 27 In an experiment of conversion of ice into

water and water into vapour, observations
(3) Sublimation were recorded and a graph was plotted for
(4) Destructive distillation temperature against time as shown below.
From the graph it can be concluded that:
22 On burning candle colour of luminous flame
appears to be-
(1) black (2) yellow
(3) blue (4) green
23 20 g of calcium chloride salt dissolved in
water to make the mass percentage of solute
equal to 10%. How much water should be (1) ice takes time to heat up at 0°C.
evaporated to make the concentration exactly (2) during melting and boiling temperature
equal to 40%? does not rise.
(3) process of boiling takes longer time than
(1) 30 g (2) 90 g the process of melting.
(3) 120 g (4) 150 g (4) all of these

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28 Ozone is present in: 35 Cell sap is–

(1) thermosphere (2) stratosphere (1) Non living part of cytoplasm
(3) mesosphere (4) ionosphere (2) Living part of cytoplasm
29 Which of the following is not due to air (3) Living matter of cell
pollution?
(4) Non living part of vacuole
(1) Thinning of the ozone layer.
36 Which of the following cell division results in
(2) Eutrophication.
reduction of chromosomes number to half than
(3) Global warming. that of the mother cells?
(4) All of these (1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
30 What are the major contaminants of water? (3) Binary fission (4) Budding
(1) Sewage 37 Suspension made from dead or weakened
(2) Agricultural chemicals germs used to prevent infectious diseases is
called a
(3) Industrial waste
(1) Antiseptic (2) Antibodies
(4) All of these
(3) Antibiotics (4) Vaccine
BIOLOGY MARKS : 60 38 Which of the modified parenchyma is capable
of performing photosynthesis?
31 Which of the following hormone is considered
as ‘male sex hormone’? (1) Aerenchyma (2) Chlorenchyma
(1) Estrogen (3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma
(2) Testosterone 39 Legally protected area for conservation of
wild life in biosphere reserve is
(3) Growth hormone
(1) Buffer zone
(4) Thyroxine
(2) Transition zone
32 Increased concentration of ______gas in
atmosphere leads to global warming. (3) Core area
(1) CO2 (2) O2 (4) Manipulation zone
(3) H2O (4) N2 40 Which of the following cell organelle is also
known as the ‘suicidal bags’ of a cell?
33 A free-living, non-photosynthetic, aerobic
nitrogen-fixing bacterium is (1) Golgi apparatus (2) Lysosomes
(1) Azotobacter (3) Vacuoles (4) Mitochondria
(2) Nostoc 41 Which of the following classes of microorganisms
(3) Rhizobium play an important role in the nitrogen-cycle?

I. Bacteria
(4) Azospirillium
II. Blue green algae
34 The growth in plants is III. Amoeba
(1) limited to certain regions
(1) I only
(2) uniform in all parts
(2) I and II only
(3) limited to top region
(3) II and III only
(4) limited to roots only
(4) I, II and III

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42 Figure given below shows the stages of 45 Match Column I with Column II and select the
development after fertilisation has taken place correct option from the codes given below.
in the oviduct. Column I Column II
Species that exist
Endemic
(a) (i)  in very small
species
number
Which of the following represent P,Q and R?
Species found
P Q R Endangered
(b)  (ii)  exclusively in a
species
(1) Embryo Zygote Foetus particular area

(2) Zygote Embryo Foetus Species that are

Vulnerable
(c)  (iii)  likely to become
(3) Foetus Zygote Embryo species
endangered
(4) Zygote Foetus Embryo Species that are
Rare
43 (d)  (iv)  likely to get extinct
The information given below refers to a species
in the near future
hormone produced by an endocrine gland.

(I) Secreted by glands located on top of the (1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i) d-(iv)

kidneys. (2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)

(II) Converts glycogen into glucose. (3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(III) Deficiency can cause Addison's diseases. (4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
Identify the gland.
MATHEMATICS MARKS : 60
(1) Adrenal (2) Pancreas
1 1
46 The value of  (1 + )   ×  (1 + ) × 
(3) Pituitary (4) Thyroid x+1 x+2
1 1
44 Which of the following is/are true/false (1+ )  ×  (1 + )  is:
x+3 x+4
regarding the development of an embryo?

1 1
(i) An embryo is made up of many cells. (1) 1 + (2)
x+5 x+5
(ii) The stage of development in which all the
x+1 x+5
body parts can be identified is called the (3) (4)
x+5 x+1
foetus.
47 If x = 2, y = 3 and  z = 2, then the value of 
(iii) The stage of development in which the 1 1 1
x x + y y + z z
 is:
cells begin to form groups that develop into (x ) (y ) (z )

different tissues and organs of the body is 31

−
(1)
called the zygote. 108
(iv) The embryo gets nutrition from cervix. 31
(2)
108
(1) (i), (ii) & (iii) are true; (iv) is false.
125
(2) (i), (ii) are true; (iii) & (iv) are false. (3)
171
(3) (i) & (iv) are true; (ii) & (iii) are false.
(4) None of these
(4) (ii) & (iii) are true; (i) & (iv) are false.

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48 Study the given pattern: 54 Which of the following can be the coordinates
of R, if PR = QR ?

(a) Which algebraic expression is used to find

the number of cubes in nth pattern?
(b) Which pattern will have 161 cubes?
(a) (b)
A. 4n + 1 24
B. n2 + 4 24
C. n2 + 4 40
D. 4n + 1 40 (1) (1, –1) (2) (2, –2)
(3) (2, 3) (4) (3, 3)
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
49 3−−−
1
√ +
−−−−−−−
3 −−−−
5
+ +. . . + 53  = 55 In the given figure, AB||CD. The value of x is:

(1) 11 (2) 13
(3) 7 (4) 9
50 There are three quantities A, B and C, B is
2 2
16 % less than A and C is 14 % more than
3 7
B. By what percent is A more than C?
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
51 There are some toys. One third of them are (1) 50° (2) 100°
sold at a profit of 15%, one fourth of the total (3) 130° (4) 25°
are sold at a profit of 20% and the rest for 24%
profit. The total profit is Rs. 3200. The total
56 Match the columns:
–
3 − 2√5 –
price of the toys (in rupees) is: If  – = a − b√5, then
6 − √5
(1) 32000 (2) 64000
Column-I Column-II
(3) 16000 (4) 48000
72
52 If Manu's age is two years less than twice his (i) a + b (a) 
(31)2
sister Renu's age and the sum of twice Manu's
age and thrice Renu's age is 66 years, then 8
(ii) ab (b) 
Manu is how many years old? 9
(1) 10 (2) 18 a 1
(iii)  (c) −
b 31
(3) 16 (4) 12
17
53 The number of bricks, each measuring (iv) a – b (d) 
31
25 cm × 12.5 cm × 7.5 cm, required to
construct a wall 6 m long, 5 m high and (1) (i) → d, (ii) → c, (iii) → a, (iv) → b
0.5 m thick, while the mortar occupies (2) (i) → c, (ii) → b, (iii) → a, (iv) → d
5% of the volume of the wall, is :
(3) (i) → d, (ii) → a, (iii) → b, (iv) → c
(1) 3040 (2) 5740
(4) (i) → b, (ii) → c, (iii) → a, (iv) → d
(3) 6080 (4) 8120

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57 In the given figure (not drawn to scale), if

MENTAL ABILITY MARKS : 80
PQ = PR, PS = PT and ∠QPR = ∠SPT, then:
61 Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said,
"He is the son of the only son of my mother."
How is Suresh related to that boy?
(1) Brother (2) Uncle
(3) Cousin (4) Father
62 Choose the correct water image of the given
(1) ΔPSQ ≅ ΔTRP figure (X) from the four alternatives.

(2) ΔPQS ≅ ΔPTR

(3) ΔQSP ≅ ΔRTP
(4) ΔPSQ ≅ ΔRTP
58 Priya has ₹(x3 + x2 – 17x + 20). She wants to
buy ice-cream cones each of cost ₹(x – 3). (1) (2)
After buying maximum number of ice-cream
cones with her money, how much money is
left with her? (3) (4)
(1) ₹10 (2) ₹50
63 Choose the alternative which closely
(3) ₹15 (4) ₹5 resembles the mirror image of the given
59 Find the value of
combination.
a 3 + b3 + c3 − 3abc 1965lNDOPAK
,

ab + bc + ca − a 2 − b2 − c2 (1)
when a = –5, b = –6, c = 10.
(2)
(1) 1 (2) –1
(3)
(3) 2 (4) –2
(4)
60 ΔBEF is isosceles triangle in the square ABCD, 64 Rohan walks from Point A and covers 20 m
where E and F are the mid points of sides AD towards North then takes a left turn and walks
and CD respectively. If ∠AEB = 70°,  what is 30 m and then takes a right turn and walks 10
the measure of ∠FBE? m. He finally takes a left turn and walks 30 m
and stops at Point B. After Rohan reaches the
final Point B, Abhay starts from Point A. He
walks 5 m towards the East, takes a left turn
and walks 30 m to reach point C. How far and
towards which direction would Rohan have to
walk in order to meet Abhay at Point C?
(1) 85° (1) 90 m towards West
(2) 50° (2) 55 m towards North
(3) 65° (3) 65 m towards East
(4) 130° (4) 90 m towards South

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65 Find the next figure in the given series. 69 Some equal cubes are arranged in the form of
a solid block as shown in the adjacent figure.
All the surfaces of the block (except bottom
are the painted.)

(1) (2)

How many cubes have only three faces

(3) (4) painted?

(1) 0
66 Find the missing term :

12, 14, 18, 26, 38, ? (2) 6

(1) 62 (3) 8

(2) 74 (4) 4

(3) 50
70 Choose the box that is similar to the box
formed from the given sheet of paper (x).
(4) 60
67 I am facing south. I turn 90° in the anti
clockwise direction and walk 30 m, then
turning north. I walk 40 m and then turning
west I go 60 m. Then turning left I walk 80 m.
How far am I from the starting point?
(1) 30 m
(2) 40 m (1) (2)
(3) 50 m
(4) 210 m (3) (4)
68 Find the missing character in the following
question. 71 How many squares does the given figure
have?

(1) 17
(1) 10
(2) 12
(2) 15
(3) 13
(3) 12
(4) 15
(4) 13

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72 Find out the alternative figure which contains 76 How many such pairs of digits are there in the
figure (X) as its part. number 421579368 each of which has as many
digits between them in the number as when
they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) more than three
(2) One
(1) (2)
(3) Two
(4) Three
(3) (4) 77 Neha ranked 14th in a class of 50 students.
Find the difference of number of students after
73 Out of the 75 birders, 15 wanted to see only
sunbird, 10 wanted to see only flycather, 12 Neha and before Neha.
wanted to see both sunbird and nuthatch, 15
(1) 23
wanted to see only bee-eater, 13 wanted to see
both sunbird and bee-eater, 5 wanted to see (2) 36
both flycather and nuthatch and the remaining
(3) 22
wanted to see only nuthatch. The difference
between the birders who want to see sunbird (4) 13
and those who want to see flycather is: 78 Find the missing term in the series : 
(1) 12 AAZ, CEX, FIV, JOT, ?
(2) 25 (1) OUR
(3) 30 (2) MRS
(4) 15 (3) OTR
74 If RAM is coded as 5,SAP is coded as 9, then
(4) OSP
what is the code for 'GUI'?
79 If Alpha is brother of Beta, Beta is the sister of
(1) 3
Gamma and Gamma is the father of Delta.
(2) 9
How Delta is related to Alpha?
(3) 1
(1) Sister
(4) 4
(2) Nephew
75 In the following question, the Greek letters
standing for arithmetical operations are given. (3) Brother
Find the relationship which can definitely be (4) Can not be determined
deduced from the two relationships given:

Operations : α is 'greater than', β is 'less than', 80 Find the wrong term in the series given below:

λ is 'not greater than', δ is 'not less than', θ is 12, 7, 8, 13, 27, 69, 206.5
'equal to'.

If A α 2C and 2A θ 3B, then (1) 206.5

(1) C β B (2) 27
(2) C δ B (3) 69
(3) C α B (4) 8
(4) C θ B

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Space for Rough Work

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 (OVERSEAS_PRE-NURTURE_CLASS IX) 28-11-2022
TARGET: TALLENTEX : 2023
TEST PATTERN :OBJECTIVE ANSWER KEY TEST TYPE :TALLENTEX

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 4 3 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 1 1 1 4 2 4 2 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 2 1 2 4 4 4 4 4 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 1 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 3 1 4 1 1 4 3

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