300 GA Questions For RBI Phase 1

300-Important Questions
RBI Grade B
2023
RBI Grade B 2023 (300) Important Questions
Q1. During Merger and Acquisitions, which of the following changes are relevant to
management of Organizational Change?
i. Accepting cultures of another company

ii. Managing uncertainty about job roles and lay-offs
iii. Smooth transition of operating procedures
a) Only III
b) Only II
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above
Q.2. Which of the following Budget documents is not presented to the Parliament, besides the
Finance Minister’s Budget Speech?
a) Annual Financial Statement (AFS)

b) Demands for Grants (DG)
c) Finance Bill
d) Expenditure Budget
e) Loan Budget
Q.3. Consider the following document and give the answer:
i. Annual Financial Statement (AFS)

ii. Demands for Grants (DG)
iii. Finance Bill
iv. Expenditure Budget
v. Receipt Budget
Which of the above document is/are mandated by Article 112,113 and 110 to be presented to
the Parliament?
a) I, II and III only

b) II, III and IV only
c) I, III and IV only
d) III, IV and V only
e) IV and V only
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Q.4. All revenues received by the Government, loans raised by it, and also receipts from recoveries
of loans granted by it, together form the _________.
a) Contingency Fund of India

b) Consolidated Fund of India
c) Public Account of India
d) Annual Financial Statement
e) None of the above
Q.5. Which of the following authority is authozrizing the withdrawl from the Consolidated Fund and
kept in the Public Account for expenditure on specific objects?
a) President
b) PMO
c) Vice-president
d) Parliament
e) Does not require any approval
Q.6. How much funds is targeted for the animal husbandry, Dairy, and Fisheries Sector?
a) 10 Lakh Crore
b) 20 Lakh Crore
c) 25 Lakh Crore
d) 30 Lakh Crore
e) 35 Lakh Crore
Q.7. Consider the following statement:
i. 157 new nursing college will be established under this.

ii. New Programme to research promote in Pharmaceuticals to be launched.
iii. Joint Public and Private Medical Research to be encouraged via select ICMR labs.
Which of the above is/are covered under Sabka Sath Sabka Vikas - Inclusive Development in
Health?
a) I and II only
b) I, II and III
c) I and III only
d) II only
e) III only
Q.8. Which of the following statement is not correct under the Infrastructure and Investment in
Budget 2023-24?
a) Increased capital investment outlay by 33.4% to 10 lakh crore

b) Continuation of 20 year interest-free loan to State governments to incentivize
infrastructure investment
c) Highest ever Capital outlay of 22.4 lakh crore for Railways
d) 100 transport infrastructure projects identified for end-to-end connectivity for ports, coal, steel,
and fertilizer sectors
e) Creating Urban Infrastructure in Tier 2 and 3 cities via the establishment of UIDF
Q.9. Which of the given statement is not correct about Fiscal Management in Budget 2023-24?
a) 50 year Interest Free Loans to States to be spent on Capex within 2023-24

b) Part of the loan is conditional on States increasing actual Capital expenditure
c) The parts of outlay will be linked to States undertaking several reforms.
d) Fiscal Deficit of 3.5% of GSDP allowed for States (0.5% tied to Power sector reforms)
e) All of the above are correct
Q.10. Income limit for rebate of income tax increased from ₹5 lakh to ₹ ____ lakh in the new regime
of Budget of 2023-24.
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
e) 10
Q.11. How much amount was allocated to the Ministry of Rural Development in the Budget 2023-
24?
a) 1.25 Lakh Crore

b) 1.45 Lakh Crore
c) 1.60 Lakh Crore
d) 1.95 Lakh Crore
e) 1.99 Lakh Crore
Q12. Which of the following can be termed as Revenue Expenditure?
i. Subsidies
II. Interest Payments
III. Loan to State Government Options
a) Only III
b) Only II
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above
Q13. Which of the following is correct about Atal Pension Yojna (APY)?
i. The scheme was introduced in year 2002

ii. Total enrollments under APY crossed 20 crore
iii. Total Assets Under management (AUM) in the scheme are Rs.27,000 Cr plus
a) Only II
b) Only III
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above
Q14. Which of the following is correct about RBI’s recent monetary policy announcement of
June 2023?
i. Repo rate remains unchanged at 6.5%
II. FY24 CPI inflation is expected to be at 5.1%
III. The MPC voted 5 members to 1 to remain focused on withdrawal of accommodation
a) Only II
b) Only III
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above
Q 15. The Cabinet has approved a revival plan for the state-run Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd (BSNL)
worth ______ including an allotment of 4G/5G spectrum for BSNL through equity infusion.
a) Rs.29,570 crore
b) Rs42,370 crore
c) Rs.73,562 crore
d) Rs.89,047 crore
Q 16. Two companies A and B has the same number of outstanding shares, equity capital, dividend
and earning. But the Market price of A is 1800 and that of B is 600.
Which of the following is true?
a) Dividend of one is Higher than other
b) EPS of one is Higher than other
c) Book value of one is Higher than other
d) P/E value of one is Higher than the other
Q 17. The MSP of moong, which is one of the main pulses grown during the kharif season, has
been raised by 10.35 per cent in 2023-24, compared to 2022-23, from Rs 7,755 per quintal to
_______ per quintal ?
a) Rs. 8,558
b) Rs. 7,558
c) Rs. 6,558
d) Rs. 5,558
Q 18. Which city has topped ECA International’s Cost of Living Rankings for 2023?
a) New York
b) Singapore
c) London
d) Tokyo
e) Hong Kong
Q 19. Mr. Unsoo Kim, CEO of Hyundai India, meets the press at the launch of new edition of
Hyundai’s flagship car in India. While replying to a questions, he answers something not correct as
he could not understand the questions correctly. This type of error is called?
a) Attitudinal
b) Semantic
c) Physical
d) Psychological
e) None of Above
Sol- Semantic barriers, then, are obstacles in communication that distort the meaning of a message
being sent. Miscommunications can arise due to different situations that form the semantic barrier
between the sender and the receiver. These situations, to name a few, may be language,
education, or cultural differences.
Q 20. Moorkoth Vengakandi Shankaran popularly known as Gemini Shankaran, passed away
recently. He was associated with…
a) Telgu cinema
b) Indian Circus
c) Tamil literature
d) Malyalam comedy
e) Indian History
Q 21. Which if the following is / are benefit/s of foreign trade?

i. Increases competition and therefore innovation
ii. Bridges resources gap between countries
iii. Helps in economic growth
a) Only III
b) Only II
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above
Q22. During Merger and Acquisitions, which of the following changes are relevant to
management of Organizational Change?
i. Accepting cultures of another company
ii. Managing uncertainty about job roles and lay-offs
iii. Smooth transition of operating procedures
a) Only III
b) Only II
c) Only I and II
d) Only II and III
e) All of the above
24?
a) 1.25 Lakh Crore
b) 1.45 Lakh Crore
c) 1.60 Lakh Crore
d) 1.95 Lakh Crore
e) 1.99 Lakh Crore
Explanation- Ministry of Rural Development - 1.60 Lakh Crore
Q.24. A detailed report on the working of public sector enterprises is given in the document titled
_________ brought out separately by the Department of Public Enterprises.
a) Public Sector Companies Survey
b) Public Enterprises Survey
c) Public Companies Survey
d) Public Sector Enterprises Survey
Ans – B-
A detailed report on the working of public sector enterprises is given in the document titled
‘Public Enterprises Survey’ brought out separately by the Department of Public Enterprises.
Q.25. According to the Budget 2023-24, how much amount was allocated to the Atmanirbhar Clean
Plant Program to boost the availability of disease-free, quality planting material for high-value
horticultural crops?
a) 2200 Crore
b) 2550 Crore
c) 2675 Crore
d) 2890 Crore
e) 2990 Crore
Ans – A-
Government will launch an Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Program to boost availability of disease-
free, quality planting material for high value horticultural crops at an outlay of Rs.2,200
crore.
Q.26- According to the budget 2023-24, which of the following year will be decided to eliminate
Sickle Cell Anaemia?
a) 2030
b) 2035
c) 2040
d) 2047
e) 2050
Sol- A Mission to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by 2047 will be launched. It will entail
awareness creation, universal screening of 7 crore people in the age group of 0-40 years in
affected tribal areas, and counselling through collaborative efforts of central ministries and
state governments.
Q.27. Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission will be launched to improve socio-economic
conditions of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs), how much amount was allocated to
implement the Mission in the next three years?
a) 14,000 crore
b) 14,550 crore
c) 15,000 crore
d) 15,550 crore
e) 16,000 crore
Sol- To improve socio-economic conditions of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups
(PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission will be launched. An amount of
Rs.15,000 crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years
under the Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes.
Q.28. According to the Budget 2023-23, for realizing the vision of “Make AI in India and Make AI
work for India”, how many centres of excellence for AI will be set-up in top educational institutions?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Sol- For realizing the vision of “Make AI in India and Make AI work for India”, three centres of
excellence for Artificial Intelligence will be set-up in top educational institutions.
Q.29. Accordion to the announcement of Budget 2023-24, which of the following documents will be
used as the common identifier for all digital systems of specified government agencies for the
business establishments?
a) Aadhar
b) MANREGA Card
c) PAN
d) Driving License
e) All of the above
Sol- For the business establishments required to have a Permanent Account Number (PAN),
the PAN will be used as the common identifier for all digital systems of specified
government agencies.
Q.30. As per the recent budget, the agriculture credit target will be increased to:
a) ₹15 lakh crore.
b) ₹20 lakh crore.
c) ₹25 lakh crore.
d) ₹30 lakh crore.
e) ₹35 lakh crore.
Explanation:-
The agriculture credit target will be increased to ₹20 lakh crore with a focus on animal
husbandry, dairy, and fisheries.
Q.31. What is ‘Shree Anna’?

a) A variety of cotton.
b) A type of fruit.
c) A type of vegetable.
d) A type of grain
Explanation- Shree Anna was called by FM for Millets which is a grain.
Q.32. The highest surcharge rate of 37% on income above 5 crores shall be reduced to ______ %
under the new tax regime.
a) 33
b) 31
c) 30
d) 27
e) 25
Answer e) 25
The FM has proposed to reduce the highest surcharge rate on income above 5 crores from
37% to 25%, which will reduce the Maximum Marginal rate of Tax from 42.74% to 39% of
income.
Q.33. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to budget 2023-24?
1. Per Capita income is 1.97 lakhs
2. Government to launch Atma Nirbhar clean plant programme
3. The PM-PRANAM scheme to be launched
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 3
e) None
Explanation- Per Capita income is 1.97 lakhs and the government to launch Atma Nirbhar
clean plant programme to enhance the yield of horticulture crops, disseminate and adopt
climate resilient varieties and to protect the ecosystem through proactive virus and disease
control measures.The PM-PRANAM scheme to be launched to reduce the dependency of
farmers on chemical fertilizers.
Q.34 - Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to budget 2023-24?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 3
e) None
Answer e) None
Per Capita income is 1.97 lakhs
The government to launch Atma Nirbhar clean plant programme to enhance the yield of
horticulture crops, disseminate and adopt climate resilient varieties and to protect the
ecosystem through proactive virus and disease control measures
The PM-PRANAM scheme to be launched to reduce the dependency of farmers on chemical
fertilizers.
Q.35 - Which of the following is not one of the major economic challenges that posed threat to
global growth, according to the Economic Survey of 2023?
a) Covid-19 pandemic
b) Russia-Ukraine conflict
c) Monetary tightening by some nations
d) Excessive aid to Ukraine
e) All of the above are major challenges of recent years
Explanation- The Covid-19 pandemic notified by the WHO in January 2020 was the first
challenge of the third decade that hit global growth.
Two years later, as the global economy was recovering from the pandemic-induced output
contraction, the Russia-Ukraine conflict broke out in February 2022, triggering a swing in
commodity prices and, thus, accelerating existing inflationary pressures. This posed the second
challenge.
Soon after, the third challenge emerged when nations undertook monetary tightening to rein in
inflation causing growth to weaken. Monetary tightening also drove capital flows to safe-haven US
markets, contributed to rising sovereign bond yields, and depreciation of most currencies against
the US dollar. The consequent increase in borrowing costs also stressed high levels of public and
private debt, threatening the financial system.
Q.36 - Which of the following Schemes of Government contributed towards Inclusive Growth of
India?
I- Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
II- PM-KISAN
III- PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
a) Only I
b) I & II Only
c) I & III Only
d) III Only
e) I, II, & III
Explanation: Growth is inclusive when it creates jobs. Both official and unofficial sources
confirm that employment levels have risen in the current financial year. The Periodic Labour
Force Survey (PLFS) shows that the urban unemployment rate for people aged 15 years and
above declined from 9.8 per cent in the quarter ending September 2021 to 7.2 per cent one
year later (quarter ending September 2022).
The scheme implemented by the government under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) has been rapidly creating more assets in respect of
“Works on individual’s land” than in any other category. In addition, schemes like PM-
KISAN, which benefits households covering half the rural population, and PM Garib Kalyan
Anna Yojana have significantly contributed to lessening impoverishment in the country.
Q.37 - The Economic Survey 2023 projects a baseline GDP growth of ________ in real terms in
FY24.
a) 6.2%
b) 6.3%
c) 6.5%
d) 6.8%
e) 7%
Explanation: The Economic Survey projects a baseline GDP growth of 6.5 per cent in real
terms in FY24.
The projection is broadly comparable to the estimates provided by multilateral agencies
such as the World Bank, the IMF, and the ADB and by RBI, domestically.
The actual outcome for real GDP growth will probably lie in the range of 6.0 per cent to 6.8
per cent, depending on the trajectory of economic and political developments globally.
Q.38 - The country’s retail inflation had crept above the RBI’s tolerance range in January 2022. It
remained above the target range for ten months before returning to below the upper end of the
target range in November 2022. What is the retail inflation target upper end?
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
Explanation: The country’s retail inflation had crept above the RBI’s tolerance range in
January 2022. It remained above the target range for ten months before returning to below
the upper end of the target range of 6 per cent in November 2022.
Q.39 - The banking system, which had accumulated bad debts during the period of economic
resurgence after the 1991 reforms, was supported through the deregulation of interest rates and the
enactment of the SARFAESI Act in which year?
a) 1992
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 2000
e) 2002
Explanation: The banking system, which had accumulated bad debts during the period of
economic resurgence after the 1991 reforms, was supported through the deregulation of interest
rates and the enactment of the SARFAESI Act 2002.
Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act,
2002
Q.40 - The National Infrastructure Pipeline was launched with 6,835 infrastructure projects with a
projected infrastructure investment of _________.
a) ₹111 lakh crore

b) ₹121 lakh crore
c) ₹119 lakh crore
d) ₹211 lakh crore
e) ₹181 lakh crore
Explanation: The NIP was launched with 6,835 infrastructure projects with a projected
infrastructure investment of ₹111 lakh crore. This has expanded to over 9,000 projects
across 35 sub-sectors and covers economic and social infrastructure projects jointly funded
by the Central Government, State Governments, and the private sector.
Q.41- Ayushman Bharat provides health coverage of _____ per beneficiary family per annum to
poor and vulnerable families.
a) 2 lac
b) 2.5 lac
c) 3.5 lac
d) 4 lac
e) 5 lac
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat provides health coverage of Rs. 5 lac per beneficiary family
per annum to poor and vulnerable families.
Q.42- Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana risk coverage of ________for accidental
death and complete disability and _______ for partial disability is given to beneficiaries.
a) ₹2 lakh & ₹1 lakh
b) ₹2 lakh & ₹1.5 lakh
c) ₹2.2 lakh & ₹1.7 lakh
d) ₹3 lakh & ₹1 lakh
e) ₹2 lakh & ₹4 lakh
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
Under the scheme, risk coverage of ₹2 lakh for accidental death and complete disability and
₹1 lakh for partial disability is given to beneficiaries.
Q.43- PM SVANidhi allows street vendors to avail an initial loan of ___________.

a) Rs. 12,500
b) Rs. 22,500
c) Rs. 10,000
d) Rs. 8,500
Explanation: PM Street Vendor’s Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (PM SVANidhi): This is a Central
Sector Scheme launched on 1 June 2020, to empower street vendors by extending working
capital loans of up to Rs.10,000 with a one-year tenure and free onboarding of beneficiaries
on digital payment platforms. Beneficiaries are also eligible for the second tranche of loan
up to `20,000 with 18 months tenure after timely repayment of the first tranche.
Q.44. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched in _______ as a flagship scheme to make
clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to rural and deprived households which were otherwise
using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung cakes, etc.
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
Explanation: The ‘Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana’ (PMUY) was launched in May 2016 as a
flagship scheme to make clean cooking fuel such as LPG available to rural and deprived
households which were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal,
cow-dung cakes, etc.
Q.45 - Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched in _______ as a flagship scheme to make
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
e) None
households which were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal,
cow-dung cakes, etc.
Q.46 Which of the following is the major objective of SAUBHAGYA- Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har
Ghar Yojana?
a) Install Solar Power Panel on rooftop
b) achieve universal household electrification
c) Capitalise the Distributer Companies
d) Promote Electric Buses
Explanation: The government launched the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana –
Saubhagya in October 2017 with the objective to achieve universal household electrification
by providing electricity connections to all willing un-electrified households in rural areas and
all willing poor households in urban areas in the country by March 2019.
Q.47. National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is one of India’s most ambitious step
towards sustainable Development. In which of the following years, it was launched?
a) 2005
b) 2008
c) 2014
d) 2016
Explanation: In 2008, India launched the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC),
establishing eight National Missions, covering several initiatives and a slew of measures in
the area of solar, water, energy efficiency, forests, sustainable habitat, sustainable
agriculture, sustaining Himalayan ecosystem, capacity building and research and
development (R&D).
Q.48. National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) was initiated in 2015-16 to support
adaptation activities in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the
adverse effects of climate change. What kind of initiative NAFCC is?
a) Central Sector
b) Centrally Sponsored
c) Jointly Implemented by some States
d) World Bank backed
Explanation: National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC), a central sector
scheme, was initiated in 2015-16 to support adaptation activities in the States and Union
Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. NAFCC
is implemented in project mode, and to date, 30 projects have been sanctioned in 27 States
and UTs with a total project cost of ₹847.5 crore.
Q.49. Which of the following statements are correct in regards to the Indian Economy in Economic
Survey 2022-2023?
1. 2rd largest economy in the world in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
2. 5th largest in the world in market exchange rates
3. GDP forecast for FY24 to be in the range of 6 - 6.8 %
a) 1 only
b) 1 & 2
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 3
e) All
Explanation- India is the 3rd largest economy in the world in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
terms and the 5th largest in market exchange rates and GDP forecast for FY24 to be in the
range of 6 - 6.8 %.
Q.50. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to the Economic Survey of
India 2022-2023?
1. It is an annual document
2. It released by the Ministry of Finance
3. It is legally binding to the government
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 3
e) none
Explanation- The Economic Survey of India is an annual document released by the Ministry
of Finance. It is usually presented in Parliament a day before the Union Budget and it is not
binding to the government.
Q.51. Which of the following statements is/are correct in regards to the Economic Survey of India?
1. The first Economic Survey of India was released in 1947-48 as part of the Union Budget
2. After 1964, it was split from the Budget and delivered each year during the Budget Session,
prior to the presentation of the budget
3. Economic survey of India 2021-22 was published in 1 volume
a) 1 & 2
b) 2 & 3
c) 1 & 3
d) All
e) None
Sol- The first Economic Survey of India was released in 1950-51 as part of the Union Budget.
After 1964, it was split from the Budget and delivered each year during the Budget Session,
prior to the presentation of the budget. It reviews the developments in the Indian economy
over the previous 12 months and presents the economic outlook for the current fiscal year.
Economic survey of India 2021-22 was published in 1 volume and this year it is published in
3 volumes.
Q.52. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to the service sector in
Economic Survey 2022-23?
1. RBI estimated 6.8% of retail inflation for 2022-23

2. Fiscal Deficit is expected to reach 6.4% of GDP in FY23
3. India was the 2nd largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2022
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 2
e) 1 & 3
Explanation- RBI estimated 6.8% of retail inflation for 2022-23.
Fiscal Deficit is expected to reach 6.4% of GDP in FY23.
India was the largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2022.
Q.53. Consider the following statements in regards to the Economic Survey of India:
1. The final version of the Economic Survey is scrutinized by the Finance Secretary
2. The final version of the Economic Survey approved by the Chief Economic Advisor
3. Economic Survey reviews the developments in the economy over the past twelve months
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 2
e) 2 & 3
Explanation- The final version of the Economic Survey is scrutinized by the Finance
Secretary and approved by the Union Finance Minister. Economic Survey reviews the
developments in the economy over the past twelve months.
Q.54. Which of the following has been launched to strengthen the digital infrastructure of the
country by the government of India?
1. Government e Marketplace (GeM)
2. e National Agriculture Market (e-NAM)
3. Unified Mobile Application for New-age Governance (UMANG)
a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1&3
d) All
e) None
Explanation- To strengthen the digital infrastructure of the country, GeM, e-NAM, and
UMANG have transformed the marketplace and have enabled citizens to access services
across sectors.
Q 55. Which of the following Statements regarding Foreign Portfolio Investment is FALSE?
a) FDI) is an investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests located
in another country.
b) FPI refers to investments made in securities and other financial assets issued in another
country.
c) FDI Investors are considered Active Investors.
d) FPI Investors are considered Passive Investors.
e) Nations with a high level of FDI can encounter heightened market volatility and currency
turmoil during times of uncertainty.
Explanation-
FDI an investment made by a firm or individual in one country into business interests
located in another country.
FPI instead refers to investments made in securities and other financial assets issued in
another country.
Both methods of foreign investment are crucial to global trade and development, however
FDI is often considered the preferred mode and is less volatile. FDI investors typically take
controlling positions in domestic firms or joint ventures and are actively involved in their
management.
Q 56. Which of the following Statements is False regarding the Competition Commission of India?
a) CCI is a Constitutional Body created under an Article of the Indian Constitution
b) The Commission consists of one Chairperson and six Members appointed by the Central
Government
c) One of the primary objectives of the Commission is to eliminate practices having adverse effect
on competition
d) It also works as an antitrust watchdog for smaller organizations that are unable to defend
themselves against large corporations
Explanation-
Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a statutory body of the Government of India responsible
for enforcing the Competition Act, 2002, it was duly constituted in March 2009.
Q 57. Recently, the Asian Development Bank (ADB) has sanction $350 million loan to Sri Lanka.
Which of the following Statements regarding the ADB is False?
a) ADB was established in 1966

b) It has a total of 68 Shareholding members and all of them belong to the Asia-Pacific
region
c) India is one of the founding members of the ADB
d) It is headquartered in Manila, Philippines
Explanation-
The Asian Development Bank has 68 shareholding members including 49 from the Asia and Pacific
region. It was established in the year 1966, with head office at Manila (Philippines). This bank was
modelled on the lines of the world bank. Japan holds the largest share in ADB with 15.677%,
followed by U.S.A (15.567%), China (6.473%), and India (5.812%). The aim of the ADB is social
development by reducing poverty in the Asia Pacific with inclusive growth, sustainable growth, and
regional integration.
Q 58. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about sovereign wealth fund?
A. Funds to finance relief work, bailout packages and other emergency activities
B. Funds of the government or the central bank of a country
C. Money is invested to earn profitable returns
D. Funds which are created from the recovery of the black money by the government
a) Only statement A is correct

b) Only statement B is correct
c) Only statement A & B are correct
d) Only statement B & C are correct
e) Only statement B & D are correct
Explanation-
A sovereign wealth fund or Sovereign Investment Funds is the money derived from a country's
reserves, set aside for investment purposes to benefit the country's economy and citizens. The
funding comes from central bank reserves. Investments are made in stocks, bonds, real estate,
precious metals, or in alternative investments such as private equity fund or hedge funds.
Q59. A budgeting method in management accounting that involves preparing the budget from the
scratch with fresh evaluation of each line item is called -
a) Scratch Budgeting
b) Nil Based Budgeting
c) Zero Based Budgeting
d) Yearly Zero Budgeting
e) Zero accounting Budgeting
Explanation-
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a method of budgeting in which all expenses are justified for each
new period. Zero-based budgeting starts from a "zero base," and every function within an
organization is analysed for its needs and costs.
Q60. . Currently, the Reserve Bank acts as banker to all the State Governments in India (including
Union Territory of Puducherry), except which state…?
a) Goa
b) Sikkim
c) Manipur
d) Delhi
e) None of the
Explanation- State Bank of Sikkim (SBS) is a state owned bank HQ at Gangtok, Sikkim. The
Bank operates within the State of Sikkim. In addition to banking services, it handles treasury
functions of State Government of Sikkim.
Q61. Financial instrument that trades on regulated exchange, and whose value is based on value of
another asset are called-
a) Exchange Based Derivatives

b) Exchange Traded Derivatives
c) Exchange Traded Funds
d) Exchange Related Funds
e) Exchange Merchant Securities
Explanation-
Exchange-traded derivative contracts are standardized derivative contracts such as futures and
options contracts that are transacted on an organized futures exchange. They require payment of
an initial deposit or margin settled through a clearing house.
Q 62. Which of the follwing is not a category of NPA?

a) Sub-standard Accounts
b) Doubtful Accounts
c) SMA (Special Mention Accounts)
d) Loss Accounts
e) All of the above are NPAs
Q63. Which of the following is always true for Bonds?
A. Market price of a bond keeps on changing due to various factors

B. Face Value of a Bond is the Issue Price
C. Bonds always pay a fixed coupon rate
a) Only statements A is correct

b) Only statements B is correct
c) Only statements A & B are correct
d) Only statements B & C are correct
e) All are correct
Explanation-
The bonds can be issued at par, discount or premium to face value (FV); therefore FV is not
necessarily the issue price.
Bonds may or may not pay a fixed coupon. Usually the coupon is fixed but in some cases bonds
may also have a floating coupon rate.
Q.64 – Recently, the Government of India, the Government of West Bengal and the World Bank
signed a $105 million project to improve the inland water transport infrastructure in Kolkata. Which
of the following objective doesn’t belong to the World Bank Group?
a) It provides loans, credits, and grants
b) It provides low- or no-interest loans to low-income countries
c) It insures lenders and investors against political risk such as war
d) It settles Trade related disputes between its member countries
e) It settles investment-disputes between investors and countries
Explanation-
The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as the United Nations Monetary and Financial
Conference, was a gathering of delegates from 44 nations that met from July 1 to 22, 1944 in
Bretton Woods, New Hampshire (USA), to agree upon a series of new rules for international
financial and monetary order after the conclusion of World War II. With 189 member countries, the
World Bank Group is a unique global partnership: five institutions working for sustainable solutions
that reduce poverty and build shared prosperity in developing countries. The World Bank Group
consists of five development institutions-
1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) provides loans, credits, and
grants.
2. International Development Association (IDA) provides low- or no-interest loans to low-income
countries.
3. The International Finance Corporation (IFC) provides investment, advice, and asset
management to companies and governments.
4. The Multilateral Guarantee Agency (MIGA) insures lenders and investors against political risk
such as war.
5. The International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) settles investment-
disputes between investors and countries.
Q65. According to Dividend Discount Model, the value of an equity share is equal to?
a) Present value of dividends expected from equity ownership
b) Present value of dividends expected from equity ownership plus the present value of the
expected share price when equity share is sold
c) Present value of dividends and bonus shares expected from equity ownership
d) Present value of dividends, bonus shares and right shares expected from equity ownership
Explanation- A company is assumed to be a going concern, the dividends are expected to be
earned till infinity. A growth in dividend is also assumed by the model. As such the formula for DDM
to calculate the value is:
Equity value = present value of dividends till infinity growing at a constant rate = Dividend expected
at end of year / (discount rate – growth rate)
Q 66. As per the annual report of RBI 2022-23, Which of the following statement is/are correct
regarding the annual change in net FDI flows from 2019 to 2023?
I. Net FDI flows increased by 1.0 US billion Dollars from 2019-20 to 2020-21.
II. Net FDI flows decreased by 5.4 US billion Dollars from 2020-21 to 2021-22.
III. Net FDI flows increased by 5.4 US billion Dollars from 2021-22 to 2022-23.
IV. Net FDI flows decreased by 15 US billion Dollars from 2019-20 to 2022-23.
a) I, II and IV only
b) II and IV only
c) I and III only
d) II, III and IV only
e) All of the above
Explanation- As per RBI’s annual report 2022-23, the net FDI flows in billions of US dollars
each year:
 In 2019-20, the net FDI was $43.0 billion.
 In 2020-21, the net FDI increased to $44.0 billion.
 In 2021-22, the net FDI declined slightly to $38.6 billion.
 In 2022-23, the net FDI further decreased to $28.0 billion.
 there was a slight increase in net FDI from 2019-20 to 2020-21, followed by a decline in
the subsequent years.
Q 67.. Which is/are correct about stress tests of banks?

A. These are carried out to ascertain whether a bank/s is/are adequately capitalized even under
adverse economic scenarios
B. RBI conducts baseline, medium stress and severe stress for banks in India
C. IMF also conducts such stress tests
a) Only A is correct
b) A and B are correct
c) A and C are correct
d) B and C are correct
e) All are correct
Explanation- Such tests are being conducted by the international Monetary Fund (IMF) since the
late 1990s, but have gained prominence following the global financial crisis.
These are meant to be “what if” exercises. The general guideline about construction of scenarios
are that they should be “severe but plausible” and the construction of scenarios have varied based
on the jurisdiction.
Q 68. Which is/are correct about ‘Corporate Governacne’?

A. It refers to the set of systems, principles and processes by which a company is governed.
B. It is based on principles such as conducting the business with all integrity and fairness, being
transparent with regard to all transactions
C. It is also about having ethics and moral in the business conduct not only about following the
laws
a) Only A is correct
b) A and B are correct
c) A and C are correct
d) B and C are correct
e) All are correct
Q 69. What is the total loan outstanding under Kishan Credit Card (KCC) scheme –
a) Rs.5.45 lakh crore
b) Rs.9.37 lakh crore
c) Rs.12.17 lakh crore
d) Rs.19.43 lakh crore
e) Rs.21.35 lakh crore
Explanation-
Q 70. As per RBI’s Annual Report 2022-23, Which country ranked third as a source of FDI during
2022-23?
a) Singapore
b) Mauritius
c) United States (US)
d) United Arab Emirates (UAE)
e) Netherlands
Explanation-
During 2022-23, the top FDI source countries were Singapore, Mauritius, the US, the UAE and the
Netherlands, contributing 76.5 per cent of total FDI equity. The sector-wise composition indicates
that the services sector, including financial services, computer services, communication services
and business services, accounted for a major share of FDI equity in India during this period,
followed by manufacturing, retail and wholesale trade, electricity and other energy, and education,
research and development.
Q 71. In corporate HR, whistle-blowers are?

a) Whistle-blower is who reports any activity that is deemed illegal, unethical, or not correct within
an organization
b) There are policies to protect whistle-blowers from losing their job or getting mistreated
c) Whistle-blowers can be internal and external
d) A whistle-blower can register a complaint with higher authorities which will trigger a criminal
investigation against the company or any individual department
e) All of the above are correct
Q 72. The theory “the motivation of the behaviour selection is determined by the desirability of the
outcome” is proposed by?
a) Frederick Herzberg
b) Abraham Maslow
c) David McClelland
d) Douglas McGregor
e) Victor Vroom
Explanation- Expectancy theory (Victor H. Vroom 1964) of motivation proposes that individuals
will behave in a certain way because they are motivated to select a specific behaviour over others
due to what they expect the result of that selected behaviour will be.
Q 73. According to RBI's Annual Report 2022-23, which of the following statements is incorrect
about "external debt"?
i. During the period between end-December 2022 and end-March 2022, India's external debt
decreased by US$ 6.0 billion, which was a decline of 5.0% of the total.
ii. As a ratio to GDP, the external debt decreased from 20.0% to 19.1%. India's external debt,
when compared to other emerging market peers, remained lower.
iii. The largest component of India's external debt was commercial borrowings, accounting for
35.4% of the total.
a) I only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) II only
e) All of the above
Q 74. A listed company wants to raise money. Which of the following is/are covered under equity
financing?
A. Company issues additional equity shares for FPO
B. Company issues commercial papers
C. Company goes for ‘Rights Issue’
D. Company does private placement of additional shares
a) A and B
b) A, B and C
c) A, C and D
d) B, C and D
e) All of the above
Q.75. According to RBI's Annual Report 2022-23, which of the following statements about priority
sector lending certificates is/are incorrect?
I. In the fiscal year 2022-23, the total trading volume of Priority Sector Lending Certificates
(PSLCs) grew by 12.4% and reached ₹7.13 lakh crore.
II. the total trading volume of Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs) grew by a growth of
7.7% in the previous year.
III. Among the four categories of PSLCs, the highest trading activity was observed in PSLC-small
and marginal farmers.
a) I and II only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I and III only
e) All of the above
Explanation:
In the fiscal year 2022-23, the total trading volume of Priority Sector Lending Certificates
(PSLCs) grew by 7.7% and reached ₹7.13 lakh crore, compared to a growth of 12.4% in the
previous year. Among the four categories of PSLCs, the highest trading activity was
observed in PSLC-small and marginal farmers and PSLC-general, with transaction volumes
of ₹3.21 lakh crore and ₹1.79 lakh crore, respectively.
Q.76. Which city is NOT among the locations where the Pilot Project on QCVM is being rolled out?
a) Ahmedabad
b) Bengaluru
c) Hyderabad
d) Pune
e) Kolkata
Explanation:
The Pilot Project on QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine (QCVM) is being initially rolled
out at 19 locations in 12 cities across the country (viz., Ahmedabad, Baroda, Bengaluru,
Chennai, Hyderabad, Kanpur, Kolkata, Mumbai, New Delhi, Patna, Prayagraj and Kozhikode).
Q.77. Which of the following statement is incorrect about “QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine
(QCVM)”?
a) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the government agency that prints and distributes coins in
India.
b) The RBI has started a new pilot project QCVM to test a new way to get coins.
c) To use a QCVM, you scan a QR code with your phone and pay for the coins using UPI.
d) QCVMs are available in 19 locations in all cities across India.
e) All are correct
Explanation-
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the government agency that prints and distributes coins
in India.
 Currently, people can get coins from bank branches.
 The RBI has started a new pilot project to test a new way to get coins.
 The new system uses QR code-based coin vending machines (QCVMs).
 To use a QCVM, you scan a QR code with your phone and pay for the coins using UPI.
 QCVMs are available in 19 locations in 12 cities across India.
Q.78. Who organizes the electronic banking awareness and training (e-BAAT) programs?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) Indian Banks' Association (IBA)
d) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)
e) State Bank of India (SBI)
Explanation-
He Reserve Bank of India regularly organizes electronic banking awareness and training (e-BAAT)
programs for various groups, including customers, bankers, students, and the general public. In the
year under review, a total of 322 e-BAAT programs were conducted by the regional offices of the
Reserve Bank. These programs aimed to educate participants about the safe usage of electronic
payment systems, the benefits they offer, and the mechanisms available for grievance redressal.
Participants were provided with valuable information and guidance on how to effectively and
securely utilize electronic banking services.
Q.79. What is the maximum amount that can be transferred to UPI Lite On-device Wallet?
a) Rs. 500
b) Rs. 1,000
c) Rs. 2,000
d) Rs. 5,000
e) Rs. 10,000
Explanation-
The Reserve Bank of India has introduced a feature called UPI Lite On-device Wallet, which allows
users to make small value transactions within the UPI (Unified Payments Interface) app. This
feature ensures safe and secure payments for users.
With UPI Lite, users can transfer a maximum of Rs. 2,000 to their UPI Lite wallet. Then, for
transactions up to Rs. 200, the wallet balance will be debited, as long as there is sufficient balance
available. This feature enables users to make near real-time small value payments without the need
to enter their UPI PIN.
Q80. RBI has updated instructions in the Master Direction on Know Your Customer (KYC) related to
wire transfers and also aligned the same with the relevant recommendation of the Financial Action
Task Force (FATF). Where is the Head Quarter of FATF?
a) London
b) New York
c) Geneva
d) Paris
Explanation-
Q 81. A corporate bond issued by an Indian company in overseas market in a currency that is
different from that of issuer, and the investor has option of redeeming the investment on maturity or
converting it into equity anytime during the currency of the bond, is called?
a) Foreign Currency Convertible Bond
b) Foreign Currency Exchangeable Bond
c) Indian Currency Convertible Bond
d) Domestic Currency Convertible Bond
e) Indian Currency Exchangeable Bond
Explanation- In case of FCCB the repayment of the principal is in the currency in which the money
is raised.
Q 82. According to the RBI’s Annual Report, the RBI will restore the held-to-maturity (HTM) limits
for parking government securities and state development loans from 23% to ________?
a) 21%
b) 20.5%
c) 20%
d) 19.5%
e) 19%
Explanation-
Q83. “A special type of job stress - a state of physical, emotional or mental exhaustion combined
with doubts about your competence and the value of your work. It is a gradual process that begins
with chronic stress and evolves over time leading to depression”. This is most suitable for
a) Job pressure
b) Job Displacement
c) Job Loss
d) Job Stress
e) Job burnout
Explanation-
Job burnout is a special type of job stress — a state of physical, emotional or mental exhaustion
combined with doubts about your competence and the value of your work. It is a gradual process
that begins with chronic stress and evolves over time leading to depression.
Job stress can be defined as the harmful physical and emotional responses that occur when the
requirements of the job do not match the capabilities, resources, or needs of the worker
Job loss refers to losing the job or being laid off
Job displacement is defined as involuntary job loss due to economic factors such as economic
downturns or structural change like redundancy due to technology or closing down of a business
unit.
Job pressure is similar to job stress or job anxiety.
Q 84. Which of the following is NOT correct about Held-to-maturity (HTM) securities?
A. HTM are debt security investments which the holder has the intention and ability to hold them
until specific date of maturity
B. Securities under HTM need not be marked to market
C. HTM security is reported at amortized cost on a bank’s balance sheet
a) A only
b) B only
c) C only
d) A and B
e) None
Explanation-
Q.85. With which countries has the Reserve Bank made agreements to accept RuPay cards without
the need for co-branding?
a) Bhutan, Singapore, Nepal, and the UAE
b) Bhutan, Singapore, Thailand, and Australia
c) Pakistan, Bhutan, Nepal, and Sri Lanka
d) USA, Singapore, UAE, and Australia
e) Egypt, Nepal, Malaysia, and the UAE
Explanation- The Reserve Bank of India and the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS)
established a connection between their respective payment systems, namely FPS (Fast Payment
System), UPI (Unified Payments Interface), and PayNow. This linkage, operationalized on February
21, 2023, enables users of these systems to make instant and cost-effective cross-border peer-to-
peer (P2P) payments on a reciprocal basis.
The UPI-PayNow linkage is expected to strengthen trade, travel, and remittance flows between
India and Singapore. Additionally, UPI acceptance through QR codes has been enabled in Bhutan,
Singapore, and the UAE. Indian tourists visiting these countries can use their UPI apps to make
payments at merchant sites.
Q.86. When was 'The RBI Museum' inaugurated?

a) March 11, 2017
b) March 11, 2018
c) March 11, 2019

d) March 11, 2020
e) March 11, 2021
Explanation- The Reserve Bank of India has established a modern and advanced museum called
'The RBI Museum' in Kolkata. It was inaugurated on March 11, 2019. The museum aims to educate
visitors about the concept of money, its role in the economy, and the importance of public
participation in it. It also showcases the evolution of different forms of money over the centuries and
highlights the significance of gold in society.
The museum provides an enjoyable and interactive experience for visitors, making learning about
money engaging and interesting. Since its inception, the museum has welcomed over 17,300
visitors as of the end of March 2023.
Q 87. Excess return on an investment relative to the return on a benchmark index is called as
a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) Gamma
d) Theta
e) Delta
Explanation- Beta measures a stock's volatility in relation to the market. Market has a beta of 1.0.
A stock having beta >1.0 means that swings more than the market.
High-beta stocks are riskier but also suppose to provide higher returns.
Q 88. Which of the following states in India has maximum number of UNESCO World Heritage
Sites?
a) Odisha
b) Karnataka
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Rajasthan
e) Maharashtra
Explanation- As of 2022, there are 40 World Heritage Sites located in India. Out of these, 32 are
cultural, 7 are natural, and one, the Khangchendzonga National Park, is of mixed type. India has
the sixth largest number of sites in the world. The first sites to be listed were the Ajanta Caves,
Ellora Caves, Agra Fort, and Taj Mahal, all of which were inscribed in the 1983 session of the World
Heritage Committee. The most recent site listed was Dholavira, in 2021.
Currently, Maharashtra has total five Unesco World Heritage Sites and this number is highest
among all states and UTs in India. The sites include Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, Elephanta Caves,
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus and the Victorian Gothic and Art Deco buildings of South
Mumbai.
Q89. “P-notes investment hits 4-month high of Rs 95,911 crore in April 2023”. What does P-Notes
stands for?
a) Promissory Notes
b) Participatory Notes
c) Performance Notes
d) Precautionary Notes
e) Pecuniary Notes
Explanation-
Q 90. Which of the following is not a quantitative tool of RBI’s monetary policy?
a) Cash Reserve Ration
b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
c) Open Market Operations
d) Bank Rate Policy
e) All of the above are quantitative tools
Q 91. Currency of Egypt is………..?

a) Egyptian Pound
b) Egyptian Dollar
c) Dirham
d) Dinar
e) Rial
Q 92. Which of the following statements regarding the Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-
SIBs) is not True?
a) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announces the D-SIBs.
b) There are 3 D-SIBs in India currently.
c) D-SIBs are subject to certain Regulatory relaxations from the Central Bank.
d) The indicators that are used for assessment are- size, interconnectedness, substitutability and
complexity.
Explanation- The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has named the top three lenders in India – State
Bank of India (SBI), ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank – as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-
SIBs), or banks that are too big to fail. In other words, these banks are interconnected entities
whose failure could potentially impact the entire financial system and cause instability. As a result,
they are subject to closer supervision and regulation by the RBI.
In addition to the usual capital conservation buffer, D-SIBs in India are required to maintain
additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital. According to the RBI’s latest press release, SBI
must maintain an additional 0.60% CET1 as a percentage of its risk-weighted assets, while ICICI
Bank and HDFC Bank must maintain an additional 0.20% each.
Foreign banks with a branch presence in India that are designated as Global Systemically Important
Banks (G-SIBs) must also maintain additional CET1 capital surcharges in India as required by the
rules for G-SIBs.
Q 93. Which theory assumes that employees are internally motivated, enjoy their job and work to
better themselves.
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory Z
d) ERG Theory
e) Two factor Theory
Explanation-
Theory X and Theory Y are theories of human motivation and management. They were created and
developed by Douglas McGregor in 1957.
Q94. GDP alone cannot symbolize the development of a country. Which of the following statement
supports this?
A. The GDP overlooks the contributions of social capital – all of our formal and informal networks,
institutions and cultures – to supporting human well-being.
B. Many activities in an economy viz., natural capital assets and their services are not evaluated in
monetary terms.
C. Many countries having lower per capital GDP are ranked higher on HDI due to better distribution
of the income and social support.
D. Economic impact of natural calamities is not measured in GDP
a) Only A and B
b) A,B and C
c) A,B and D
d) B,C and D
e) All of the above
24?
a) 1.25 Lakh Crore
b) 1.45 Lakh Crore
c) 1.60 Lakh Crore
d) 1.95 Lakh Crore
e) 1.99 Lakh Crore
Explanation- Ministry of Rural Development - 1.60 Lakh Crore
Q.96. A detailed report on the working of public sector enterprises is given in the document titled
_________ brought out separately by the Department of Public Enterprises.
a) Public Sector Companies Survey
b) Public Enterprises Survey
c) Public Companies Survey
d) Public Sector Enterprises Survey
Explanation-
A detailed report on the working of public sector enterprises is given in the document titled
‘Public Enterprises Survey’ brought out separately by the Department of Public Enterprises.
Q.97. According to the Budget 2023-24, how much amount was allocated to the Atmanirbhar Clean
Plant Program to boost the availability of disease-free, quality planting material for high-value
horticultural crops?
a) 2200 Crore
b) 2550 Crore
c) 2675 Crore
d) 2890 Crore
e) 2990 Crore
Explanation-
Government will launch an Atmanirbhar Clean Plant Program to boost availability of disease-free,
quality planting material for high value horticultural crops at an outlay of Rs.2,200 crore.
Q.98. According to the budget 2023-24, which of the following year will be decided to eliminate
Sickle Cell Anaemia?
a) 2030
b) 2035
c) 2040
d) 2047
e) 2050
Explanation- A Mission to eliminate Sickle Cell Anaemia by 2047 will be launched. It will
entail awareness creation, universal screening of 7 crore people in the age group of 0-40
years in affected tribal areas, and counselling through collaborative efforts of central
ministries and state governments
Q.99. Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission will be launched to improve socio-economic
conditions of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs), how much amount was allocated to
implement the Mission in the next three years?
a) 14,000 crore
b) 14,550 crore
c) 15,000 crore
d) 15,550 crore
e) 16,000 crore
Explanation- To improve socio-economic conditions of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups

(PVTGs), Pradhan Mantri PVTG Development Mission will be launched. An amount of Rs.15,000
crore will be made available to implement the Mission in the next three years under the
Development Action Plan for the Scheduled Tribes.
Q.100. According to the Budget 2023-23, for realizing the vision of “Make AI in India and Make AI
work for India”, how many centres of excellence for AI will be set-up in top educational institutions?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Explanation- For realizing the vision of “Make AI in India and Make AI work for India”, three centres
of excellence for Artificial Intelligence will be set-up in top educational institutions.
Q.101. Accordion to the announcement of Budget 2023-24, which of the following documents will
be used as the common identifier for all digital systems of specified government agencies for the
business establishments?
a) Aadhar
b) MANREGA Card
c) PAN
d) Driving License
e) All of the above
Explanation- For the business establishments required to have a Permanent Account Number
(PAN), the PAN will be used as the common identifier for all digital systems of specified government
agencies.
Q.102. As per the recent budget, the agriculture credit target will be increased to:
a) ₹15 lakh crore.
b) ₹20 lakh crore.
c) ₹25 lakh crore.
d) ₹30 lakh crore.
e) ₹35 lakh crore.
Explanation- The agriculture credit target will be increased to ₹20 lakh crore with a focus on animal
husbandry, dairy, and fisheries.
Q103. What is ‘Shree Anna’?

a) A variety of cotton.
b) A type of fruit.
c) A type of vegetable.
d) A type of grain
Explanation- Shree Anna was called by FM for Millets which is a grain.
Q.104. The highest surcharge rate of 37% on income above 5 crores shall be reduced to ______
% under the new tax regime.
a) 33
b) 31
c) 30
d) 27
e) 25
Explanation- The FM has proposed to reduce the highest surcharge rate on income above 5
crores from 37% to 25%, which will reduce the Maximum Marginal rate of Tax from 42.74% to 39%
of income.
Q.105. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to budget 2023-24?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 3
e) None
Explanation- Per Capita income is 1.97 lakhs and the government to launch Atma Nirbhar clean
plant programme to enhance the yield of horticulture crops, disseminate and adopt climate resilient
varieties and to protect the ecosystem through proactive virus and disease control measures.The
PM-PRANAM scheme to be launched to reduce the dependency of farmers on chemical fertilizers.
Q.106 - Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to budget 2023-24?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 3
e) None
Explanation- Per Capita income is 1.97 lakhs
The government to launch Atma Nirbhar clean plant programme to enhance the yield of horticulture
crops, disseminate and adopt climate resilient varieties and to protect the ecosystem through
proactive virus and disease control measures
The PM-PRANAM scheme to be launched to reduce the dependency of farmers on chemical
fertilizers.
Q.107 - Which of the following is not one of the major economic challenges that posed threat to
global growth, according to the Economic Survey of 2023?
a) Covid-19 pandemic
b) Russia-Ukraine conflict
c) Monetary tightening by some nations
d) Excessive aid to Ukraine
e) All of the above are major challenges of recent years
Explanation- The Covid-19 pandemic notified by the WHO in January 2020 was the first
challenge of the third decade that hit global growth.
Two years later, as the global economy was recovering from the pandemic-induced output
contraction, the Russia-Ukraine conflict broke out in February 2022, triggering a swing in
commodity prices and, thus, accelerating existing inflationary pressures. This posed the second
challenge.
Soon after, the third challenge emerged when nations undertook monetary tightening to rein in
inflation causing growth to weaken. Monetary tightening also drove capital flows to safe-haven US
markets, contributed to rising sovereign bond yields, and depreciation of most currencies against
the US dollar. The consequent increase in borrowing costs also stressed high levels of public and
private debt, threatening the financial system.
Q.108 - Which of the following Schemes of Government contributed towards Inclusive

Growth of India?
I- Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
II- PM-KISAN
III- PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana
a) Only I
b) I & II Only
c) I & III Only
d) III Only
e) I, II, & III
Explanation: Growth is inclusive when it creates jobs. Both official and unofficial sources confirm
that employment levels have risen in the current financial year. The Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) shows that the urban unemployment rate for people aged 15 years and above declined from
9.8 per cent in the quarter ending September 2021 to 7.2 per cent one year later (quarter ending
September 2022).
The scheme implemented by the government under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) has been rapidly creating more assets in respect of
“Works on individual’s land” than in any other category. In addition, schemes like PM-KISAN, which
benefits households covering half the rural population, and PM Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana have
significantly contributed to lessening impoverishment in the country.
Q.109. The Economic Survey 2023 projects a baseline GDP growth of ________ in real terms in
FY24.
a) 6.2%
b) 6.3%
c) 6.5%
d) 6.8%
e) 7%
Explanation:
The Economic Survey projects a baseline GDP growth of 6.5 per cent in real terms in FY24.
The projection is broadly comparable to the estimates provided by multilateral agencies such as the
World Bank, the IMF, and the ADB and by RBI, domestically.
The actual outcome for real GDP growth will probably lie in the range of 6.0 per cent to 6.8 per cent,
depending on the trajectory of economic and political developments globally.
Q.110- The country’s retail inflation had crept above the RBI’s tolerance range in January 2022. It
remained above the target range for ten months before returning to below the upper end of the
target range in November 2022. What is the retail inflation target upper end?
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
Explanation:
The country’s retail inflation had crept above the RBI’s tolerance range in January 2022. It remained
above the target range for ten months before returning to below the upper end of the target range of
6 per cent in November 2022.
Q.111 - The banking system, which had accumulated bad debts during the period of economic
resurgence after the 1991 reforms, was supported through the deregulation of interest rates and the
enactment of the SARFAESI Act in which year?
a) 1992
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 2000
e) 2002
Explanation: The banking system, which had accumulated bad debts during the period of
economic resurgence after the 1991 reforms, was supported through the deregulation of interest
rates and the enactment of the SARFAESI Act 2002.
Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act,
2002
Q.112 - The National Infrastructure Pipeline was launched with 6,835 infrastructure projects with a
projected infrastructure investment of _________.
a) 111 lakh crore
b) ₹121 lakh crore
c) ₹119 lakh crore
d) ₹211 lakh crore
e) ₹181 lakh crore
Explanation:
The NIP was launched with 6,835 infrastructure projects with a projected infrastructure investment
of ₹111 lakh crore. This has expanded to over 9,000 projects across 35 sub-sectors and covers
economic and social infrastructure projects jointly funded by the Central Government, State
Governments, and the private sector.
Q.113- Ayushman Bharat provides health coverage of _____ per beneficiary family per annum to
poor and vulnerable families.
a) 2 lac
b) 2.5 lac
c) 3.5lac
d) 4 lac
e) 5 lac
Explanation: Ayushman Bharat provides health coverage of Rs. 5 lac per beneficiary family per
annum to poor and vulnerable families.
Q.114. - Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana risk coverage of ________for
accidental death and complete disability and _______ for partial disability is given to beneficiaries.
a) ₹2 lakh & ₹1 lakh
b) ₹2 lakh & ₹1.5 lakh
c) ₹2.2 lakh & ₹1.7 lakh
d) ₹3 lakh & ₹1 lakh
e) ₹2 lakh & ₹4 lakh
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
Under the scheme, risk coverage of ₹2 lakh for accidental death and complete disability and ₹1 lakh
for partial disability is given to beneficiaries.
Q.115- PM SVANidhi allows street vendors to avail an initial loan of ___________.

a) Rs. 12,500
b) Rs. 22,500
c) Rs. 10,000
d) Rs. 8,500
Explanation: PM Street Vendor’s Atmanirbhar Nidhi Scheme (PM SVANidhi): This is a Central
Sector Scheme launched on 1 June 2020, to empower street vendors by extending working capital
loans of up to Rs.10,000 with a one-year tenure and free onboarding of beneficiaries on digital
payment platforms. Beneficiaries are also eligible for the second tranche of loan up to `20,000 with
18 months tenure after timely repayment of the first tranche.
Q.116. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched in _______ as a flagship scheme to make
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
households which were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung
cakes, etc.
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
e) None
households which were otherwise using traditional cooking fuels such as firewood, coal, cow-dung
cakes, etc.
Q.118. Which of the following is the major objective of SAUBHAGYA- Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli
Har Ghar Yojana?
a) Install Solar Power Panel on rooftop
b) achieve universal household electrification
c) Capitalise the Distributer Companies
d) Promote Electric Buses
Explanation:
The government launched the Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana – Saubhagya in October
2017 with the objective to achieve universal household electrification by providing electricity
connections to all willing un-electrified households in rural areas and all willing poor households in
urban areas in the country by March 2019.
Q.119. SVAMITVA Scheme is administered by ____________.

a) Ministry of Rural Development
b) Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
c) Ministry of Home Affairs
d) Ministry of Jal Shakti

e) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
Explanation:
SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) is a
Central Sector Scheme launched on 24 April 2020, the National Panchayati Raj Day. The scheme
aims to provide the ‘Record of Rights’ to village household owners possessing houses in inhabited
rural areas.
Q.120. National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) is one of India’s most ambitious step
towards sustainable Development. In which of the following years, it was launched?
a) 2005
b) 2008
c) 2014
d) 2016
Explanation:
In 2008, India launched the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), establishing eight
National Missions, covering several initiatives and a slew of measures in the area of solar, water,
energy efficiency, forests, sustainable habitat, sustainable agriculture, sustaining Himalayan
ecosystem, capacity building and research and development (R&D).
Q.121. National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC) was initiated in 2015-16 to support
adaptation activities in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are vulnerable to the
adverse effects of climate change. What kind of initiative NAFCC is?
a) Central Sector
b) Centrally Sponsored
c) Jointly Implemented by some States
d) World Bank backed
Explanation:
National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change (NAFCC), a central sector scheme, was initiated in
2015-16 to support adaptation activities in the States and Union Territories (UTs) of India that are
vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. NAFCC is implemented in project mode, and to
date, 30 projects have been sanctioned in 27 States and UTs with a total project cost of ₹847.5
crore.
Q.122. Which of the following statements are correct in regards to the Indian Economy in
1. 2rd largest economy in the world in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP)
2. 5th largest in the world in market exchange rates

3. GDP forecast for FY24 to be in the range of 6 - 6.8 %
a) 1 only
b) 1 & 2
c) 2 & 3
d) 1 & 3
e) All
Explanation-
India is the 3rd largest economy in the world in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms and the 5th
largest in market exchange rates and GDP forecast for FY24 to be in the range of 6 - 6.8 %.
Q.123. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to the Economic Survey of
India 2022-2023?
1. It is an annual document
2. It released by the Ministry of Finance
3. It is legally binding to the government
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 3
e) none
Explanation-
The Economic Survey of India is an annual document released by the Ministry of Finance. It is
usually presented in Parliament a day before the Union Budget and it is not binding to the
government.
Q.124. Which of the following statements is/are correct in regards to the Economic Survey of
India?
1. The first Economic Survey of India was released in 1947-48 as part of the Union Budget
2. After 1964, it was split from the Budget and delivered each year during the Budget Session,
prior to the presentation of the budget
3. Economic survey of India 2021-22 was published in 1 volume
a) 1 & 2
b) 2 & 3
c) 1 & 3
d) All
e) None
Explanation-
The first Economic Survey of India was released in 1950-51 as part of the Union Budget. After
1964, it was split from the Budget and delivered each year during the Budget Session, prior to the
presentation of the budget. It reviews the developments in the Indian economy over the previous 12
months and presents the economic outlook for the current fiscal year. Economic survey of India
2021-22 was published in 1 volume and this year it is published in 3 volumes.
Q.125. Which of the following statements is/are not correct in regards to the service sector in
1. RBI estimated 6.8% of retail inflation for 2022-23
2. Fiscal Deficit is expected to reach 6.4% of GDP in FY23
3. India was the 2nd largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2022
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 2
e) 1 & 3
Explanation-
RBI estimated 6.8% of retail inflation for 2022-23.
Fiscal Deficit is expected to reach 6.4% of GDP in FY23.
India was the largest recipient of remittances in the world in 2022.
Q.126- Consider the following statements in regards to the Economic Survey of India:
1. The final version of the Economic Survey is scrutinized by the Finance Secretary
2. The final version of the Economic Survey approved by the Chief Economic Advisor
3. Economic Survey reviews the developments in the economy over the past twelve months
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 & 2
e) 2 & 3
Explanation-
The final version of the Economic Survey is scrutinized by the Finance Secretary and approved by
the Union Finance Minister. Economic Survey reviews the developments in the economy over the
past twelve months.
a) 2014
b) 2015
c) 2016
d) 2017
Q128. In the capital market the trade of stocks and bonds & there safekeeping in dematerialized
form is facilitated by?
a) Depositories
b) Depository participants
c) Stock exchanges
d) SEBI
e) RBI
Explanation- institutions that hold securities in electronic (Dmat) form. Eg NSDL (National
Securities Depositories LTd), CDSL intermediaries between the investors/traders and the
depository. Agents of Depositories.
Q129. The Fisher effect is defined as the relationship between which of the following variables?
a) default risk premium, inflation risk premium, and real rates

b) nominal rates, real rates, and interest rate risk premium
c) interest rate risk premium, real rates, and default risk premium
d) real interest rates, inflation, and nominal rates
e) real rates, interest rate risk premium, and nominal rates
Q130. If Rs. P is invested for T years at 20% interest compounded annually. Interest earned is
10,560. The difference of principal and interest is 56% of principal. Find (T + 3)?
a) 25
b) 16
c) 49
d) 9
e) 64
Explanation-
Q131. Which of the is an example of passive investment instrument?
a) ETFs
b) Mutual funds
c) Stocks
d) Preference shares
e) All of the above
Explanation- is a marketable security that tracks an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket

of assets like an index fund. In the simple terms, ETFs are funds that track indexes such as CNX
Nifty or BSE Sensex, etc. ETFs don't try to outperform their corresponding index, but simply
replicate the performance of the Index. They don't try to beat the market, they try to be the market.
ETFs are passively managed. The purpose of an ETF is to match a particular market index.
Essentially, passive management means the fund manager makes only minor, periodic adjustments
to keep the fund in line with its index. An investor in an ETF do not want fund managers to manage
their money i.e., decide which stocks to buy/sell/ hold). This is quite different from an actively
managed fund, like most mutual funds, where the fund manager ‘actively’ manages the fund and
continually trades assets in an effort to outperform the market.
Q132. When a person exposes misconduct, alleged dishonest or illegal & unethical activity
occurring in an organization, it is called?
a) Insider trading
b) Forward thinking
c) Ring fencing
d) Whistleblowing
e) Vigilante Stocking
Q133. In a certain code language, 'FORCE' is written as '641832' and 'MIST' is written as '1331920'.
How will 'URANUS' be written in that language?
a) 618114618
b) 518113519
c) 518114519
d) 618124618
e) 618114619
Explanation-
Vowels are coded as: A = 1, E = 2, I = 3, O = 4, U = 5.
Consonants are coded as its numerical value.
URANUS = 518114519
Q134. Which of the following Statement(s) about Counter-cyclical lending & Pro-cyclical lending
is/are correct?
i. In business cycle theory and finance, any economic quantity that is positively correlated with the
overall state of the economy is said to be pro-cyclical
ii. Banks keep the lending rates high and increase buffers during an economic prosperity and
therefore, arrest the increase in the credit uptake is an example of countercyclical lending
iii. Quantities that tend to increase when the overall economy is slowing down are classified as
‘countercyclical’
a) Only I
b) I and II
c) II and III
d) I and III
e) I, II, and III
Q135. PPP is a special kind of contract involving two or more public and private sector for long
term. PPP is mostly used to fund?
a) Startups
b) SMEs
c) FPOs
d) Small corporates
e) Large infrastructure projects
Explanation-
A public–private partnership is a long-term arrangement between a government and private sector

institutions. Typically, it involves private capital financing government projects and services up-front,
and then drawing revenues from taxpayers and/or users over the course of the PPP contract.
Q136. UPI is monitored by?
a) RBI
b) IDBRDT
c) NPCI
d) IBA
e) RBI Innovation Hub
Explanation- The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organization for operating
retail payments and settlement systems, is an initiative of the RBI and Indian Banks’
Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, for
creating a robust Payment & Settlement Infrastructure in India.
It was created by RBI for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
Q137. Which of the following is not a hygiene factor as per Herzberg’s two factor theory?
a) Pay
b) Fringe benefits
c) Physical working conditions
d) Recognition
e) Interpersonal Relations
Q138. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I. International Financial Services Centres Authority is a statutory body.

II. In India, the IFSCA is the single body in charge of the creation and regulation of financial goods,
financial services, and financial institutions in an IFSC
III. IFSCA Board has no representation from other regulatory bodies in India.
IV. IFSCA has its headquarter in Mumbai
a) Only I and II
b) Only II and IV
c) Only I and IV
d) I, II and III
e) II, III and IV
Q139. Who among the following can be the beneficiary of PM Kisan Maan Dhan Yojana?
a) Any 46-year-old person

b) A 35 years old person with less than 2 hectares of land
c) A 36 years old person who has invested in NPS.
d) A& B above
Q140 . In the Financial Inclusion Index of RBI, the parameter _______ has the lowest weight of
_______?
a) Access; 20%
b) Usage; 30%
c) Quality; 35%
d) Access; 35%
e) Quality; 20%
Explanation- The FI-Index has been conceptualised as a comprehensive index incorporating

details of banking, investments, insurance, postal as well as the pension sector in consultation with
Government and respective sectoral regulators.
The FI-Index comprises of three broad parameters (weights indicated in brackets) viz.,
 Access (35%),
 Usage (45%), and
 Quality (20%)
Q141. _____________is a window for banks to borrow from the Reserve Bank of India in an
emergency situation when inter-bank liquidity dries up completely?
a) MSF
b) Repo
c) SDF
d) Reverse Repo
Q142. A core investment companies (CIC) is a non-banking financial company (NBFC) that carries
on the business of acquisition of shares and securities. It holds what percentage of its net assets in
the form of investment in equity shares, preference shares, bonds, debentures, debt or loans in
group companies?
a) 90% or more
b) 76% or more
c) 50% or more
d) 33% or more
Q143. A shortfall in a government's income compared with its spending is called?
a) Current Account Deficit

b) Fiscal Deficit
c) Budget Deficit
d) Finance Deficit
Q144. Under Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which goal is related to gender equality?
a) Goal 5
b) Goal 7
c) Goal 11
d) Goal 10
e) Goal 13
Explanation- The SDGs are a set of 17 goals that all the countries which are members of the UN
agreed to work upon for the better future of the country.
Q145. In the event of non-supply of food grains, how the Government compensate the beneficiaries
under the NFSA?
a) Provide double the food grains allotted in the next 15 days
b) Provide 50% more food grains from different Fair Price Shop in the radius of not more than 15
kms
c) Provide the allotted food grains in not less than a week’s time
d) Provide food security allowance to the beneficiary
e) No such provision
Q146. The Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021 by RBI is not applicable to which of the following?
a) Commercial Banks
b) Regional Rural Banks
c) Cooperative banks
d) Housing Finance Companies
e) Deposit taking NBFCs
Q147. Government compiles estimates of rural and urban income, in terms of Per Capita Net Value
Added (NVA), only in the base year of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) series, which is currently
2011-12.
The per capita NVA for rural and urban area was Rs._________ and Rs.________ respectively in
the year 2011-12?
a) Rs.10,925 and Rs.28,435

b) Rs.20,925 and Rs.78,435
c) Rs.50,925 and Rs.128,435
d) Rs.30,925 and Rs.68,435
e) Rs.40,925 and Rs.98,435
Explanation-
Q148. When a country's imports exceed its exports during a given time period, it is called?
a) Revenue deficit
b) Fiscal deficit
c) Income deficit
d) Export deficit
e) Trade deficit
Explanation-
Q149. To provide much-needed boost to the Indian startup ecosystem and enable access to
domestic capital The Fund of Funds for Startups (FFS) Scheme was approved and established in
2016 with a corpus of Rs 10,000 crore, with contribution spread over the 14th and 15th Finance
Commission. Which organization manages FFS?
a) Startup India
b) India Accelerator Fund
c) Venture Capital Fund
d) SIDBI
e) SEBI
Explanation-
Q150. Which of the following Statements regarding the Small Finance Banks is not True?
a) SFBs are governed by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

b) SFBs are the financial institutions which provide financial services to the unserved and
unbanked region of the country.
c) SFBs are required to to maintain a Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(SLR).
d) SFBs are required to extend 50% of its Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) to the sectors
eligible for classification as priority sector lending
e) They cannot be a Business Correspondent (BC) for another bank.
Q151. He is using punishment in order to decrease the probability of repeated inappropriate

behaviour on Muskan’s part.
Muskan works in an MNC and one day she was caught breaking one of the rules of the company.
As a punishment her manager took away one of the privileges given to Muskan. In terms of
reinforcement theory, how is Muskan’s manager responding to the incident?
a) inappropriate behaviour on Muskan’s part.

b) He is using positive reinforcement in order to decrease the probability of repeated inappropriate
behaviour on Muskan’s part.
c) He is using avoidance in order to show Muskan what sort of things to expect whenever he
breaks a rule.
d) He is using negative reinforcement in order to decrease the probability of repeated
e) He is using extinction in order to completely stop Muskan’s inappropriate behaviour so that it will
never happen again.
Q152. Recently it was in the news that the Government will set up 16th Finance Commission in
2023 to suggest Centre-state tax devolution beginning FY27. Which is correct about tax devolution?
a) States who collect more taxes will also get higher share of the taxes
b) States having higher GDP growth will receive larger shares
c) States in need of higher assistance receive a larger share
d) States having higher population will receive a larger share
e) States having higher population below poverty line will receive a larger share.
Q153. Which of the following can issue Green Bonds?
a) Central Government
b) PSUs
c) Multinational Companies (MNCs)
d) Indian corporates
e) Any of the above
Q154. Which of the following Statements about External Commercial Borrowings (ECB) is/are true?
I- ECBs provide opportunity to borrow large volume of funds.
II- The funds are usually available for relatively long term.
III- ECBs are generally in foreign currencies.
a) Only I
b) Only I & II
c) Only I & III
d) Only II & III
e) All of the above
Q155. ______________are a type of unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their
core capital base to meet the Basel-III norms?
a) Green Bonds
b) Tier -1 Bonds
c) Sovereign Bonds
d) Fiscal Bonds
e) Tier 2 Bonds
Q156. The practice of making false or misleading claims about the green credentials of a company
or a project, is called?
a) Window-dressing
b) Cost inflation
c) Inflation accounting
d) Greenwashing
e) Haircut
Q157. In FY23 which country is India’s second biggest trading partner?
a) Russia
b) UAE
c) USA
d) China
Explanation-
Q158. Sheetal invested a certain amount in 5 parts in 5 different schemes J, K , L , M and N. K and
M schemes offers simple interest and remaining 3 offers compound interest. He invested Rs.
15,000 in J scheme at 12% p.a and Rs. 30,000 in L scheme at 10% p.a compounded annually.
After 4 years he received an amount of Rs. 41,000 in K scheme at simple interest. He invested ‘A’
amount in M and ‘B’ in N schemes for 4 and 2 years respectively.
What amount did she receive in L scheme at the end of 3rd year, if the interest is compounded
annually?
a) 29,900
b) 32,330
c) 36,960
d) 39,9930
e) Cannot be calculated
Q159. Match the following:
i) Divestment a) Value of all the finished goods and services
ii) GDP b) General decline in prices
iii) Deflation c) Selling off subsidiary business interests
iv) Fiscal Deficit d) Expenditure over revenue
a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv – d

b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv - d
c) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv - c
d) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv - d
e) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv - d
Q160. From the following which is NOT correct about RBI:
i. RBI regulates currency futures.
ii. RBI is responsible only for supply of currency to the general public.
iii. Coins are minted by RBI as per the expected demand and replacement need of the public.
iv. RBI has been entrusted with the job of regulating commodity futures.
a) i only
b) i & ii only
c) ii, iii & iv only
d) iii & iv only
Q161. From the following which is NOT correct about CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio):
i. The CRR is determined by a percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities
ii. Investments in Cash, Gold and approved Government Securities are counted for CRR
iii. Banks do not get any interests on the balance maintained for CRR purpose
a) i only
b) ii only
c) iii only
d) i & ii only
e) ii & iii only
Q162. SHG-Bank Linkage programme has played critical role in Financial Inclusion. In SHG, shat
does ‘S’ stands for?
a) Sustainable
b) Social
c) Single
d) Self
e) Secondary
Q163. Asian Clearing Union (ACU) is a payment arrangement whereby the participants settle
payments for intra-regional transactions among the participating central banks on a net multilateral
basis. In which year ACU was established?
a) 1975
b) 1982
c) 1991
d) 2008
e) 2014
Explanation- The ACU was established in December 1974 when the countries in the region were
facing settlement difficulties, mainly due to resource constraints.
The ACU started its operations a year later in November 1975.
Q164. Wangala Festival is the most popular festival of -
a) Assam
b) Nagaland
c) Tripura
d) Chhattisgarh
e) Meghalaya
Q165. Gautam Budha Wildlife Sanctuary is in which state?
a) Uttarakhand
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Assam
d) Arunachal Pradesh
e) Jharkhand
Explanation- Gautam Budha Wildlife Sanctuary (also spelled Gautam Buddha) is a wildlife
sanctuary located in Gaya district of Bihar state and Koderma district of Jharkhand.
The refuge was established in 1976, and covers an area of 259 square km. Prior to becoming a
wildlife refuge, the area was a private hunting reserve.
Q166. In a certain code language
"There is substantial potential for” is coded as “wr bv xd tm gt"
"Domestic value addition in is" is coded as “tm yr ds po th"
“Is certain sectors domestic like" is coded as “rf mn zx yr tm”
“Food like processing addition for" is coded as “ol wr pl ds zx"?
Which will be the possible code for "Sectors certain"?
a) mn zx
b) rf zx
c) rf mn
d) rf tm
e) zx tm
Q167. The Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS)[1] is a committee of banking

supervisory authorities that was established by the central bank governors in 1974. Basel is the
name of
a) Managing Director of IMF in 1974

b) President of World Bank in 1974
c) Chairperson of Bank for International Settlements in 1974
d) City in Switzerland
e) Book published by famous economist Milton Friedman
Q168. From the following which is NOT correct about RBI:
i. RBI regulates currency futures.
ii. RBI is responsible only for supply of currency to the general public.
iii. Coins are minted by RBI as per the expected demand and replacement need of the public.
iv. RBI has been entrusted with the job of regulating commodity futures.
a) i only
b) i & ii only
d) iii & iv only
Q169. Which of the following is a Tarun loan under MUDRA scheme?
a) Loan of Rs.2,500
b) Loan of Rs.25,000
c) Loan of Rs.2,50,000
d) Loan of Rs.25,00,000
Explanation-
Loans under MUDRA are –
Shishu ( िशशु ): loans up to ₹50,000
Kishore ( िकशोर): loans above ₹ 50,000 up to ₹5 lakh
Tarun ( त ण): loans above ₹ 5 lakh up to ₹10 lakh
Q170. Match the following:
i) Futures a) issued by financial institutions and banks
ii) Forwards b) private and customizable agreement
iii) Certificate of Deposit c) mostly issued by large corporations
iv) Commercial Paper d) traded on an exchange
a) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv - d

b) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv - a
c) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv - c
d) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv - c
e) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv - a
Q71. From the following which is NOT correct about SLR (Cash Reserve Ratio):
i. The SLR is determined by a percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities
ii. Investments in Cash, Gold and approved Government Securities are counted for SLR
iii. Banks do not get any interests on funds used in SLR
a) i only
b) ii only
c) iii only
d) i & ii only
e) ii & iii only
Q172. FIMMDA stands for ?
a) Finance, Insurance and Money Market Development Association of India

b) Finance, Insurance and Money Market Development Association of India
c) Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India
d) Fixed Income Money Market and Development Association of India
Explanation- Fixed Income Money Market and Derivatives Association of India (FIMMDA) is an
association of Scheduled Commercial Banks, Public Financial Institutions, Primary Dealers and
Insurance Companies in India representing the Market for the Bond, Money and Derivatives
Products. It functions as the principal interface and works closely with the regulators, RBI, SEBI,
Ministry of Finance, IRDA and other important domestic and International associations.
RBI identified FIMMDA as the benchmark administrator for all Indian rupee interest rates. A
new company named as Financial benchmarks India Pvt Ltd is formed in association with two more
banking associations, FEDAI and IBA.
FIMMDA is the Calculation agent for all valuation rates for Government securities under
the administration of FBIL. We also provide daily Corporate Bond matrix for use by the industry.
RBI mandated FIMMDA’s Code of conduct as well it’s Dispute resolution mechanism for trading on
G-Sec Platform. Our handbook of market practices is followed by the industry.
We issued Operational Guidelines on Commercial paper (CP) in October 2017 which is followed by
all stake holders.
Q173. When long-term interest rates are less than short-term interest rates, yield curve becomes?
a) Flat
b) Inverted
c) Positive
d) Fluctuating
Explanation- With an inverted yield curve, the yield decreases the farther away the maturity date
is. Sometimes referred to as a negative yield curve, the inverted curve has proven in the past to be
a reliable indicator of a recession.
Q174. JLG has played important role in microfinance and Financial Inclusion. In JLG, shat does ‘L’
stands for?
a) Loan
b) Long
c) Liquidity
d) Liability
e) Leverage
Q 175. Which of the following is not a Money Market Instrument?
a) Certificate of Deposit (CD)

b) Commercial Paper (CP)
c) Inter Bank Participation Certificates
d) Treasury Bills
Explanation- Term "Money Market" refers to the market for short-term deployment of funds.
Money market instruments have a maturity period of less than one year. The most active part of the
money market is the market for overnight call and term money between banks and institutions and
repo transactions. Following instruments are money market instruments:
 Certificate of Deposit (CD)

 Commercial Paper (CP)
 Inter Bank Participation Certificates
 Inter Bank term Money
 Treasury Bills
 Bill Rediscounting
 Call/ Notice/ Term Money
Q176. In March 2023, Karataka won Santosh Trophy by beating which team?
a) West Bengal
b) Assam
c) Gujrat
d) Maharashtra
Q 177. When RBI starts selling securities under Open Market Operations (OMOs), what will be the
impact on the liquidity in the market ?
a) Liquidity will increase

b) Liquidity will decrease
c) No impact
d) Liquidity will first increase then decrease
e) It depends on the interest rates
Explanation-
Open market operations refer to the selling and purchasing of the treasury bills and government
securities by the central bank of any country in order to regulate money supply in the economy. It is
one of the most important ways of monetary control that is exercised by the central banks.
Q178. Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary is in which state?
a) Uttarakhand
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Assam
d) Arunachal Pradesh
e) Jharkhand
Q179. The rate hike and persistent inflation also led to a lowering of the global growth forecasts for
2022 and 2023 by the IMF in its October 2022 update of the World Economic Outlook. The frailties
of the Chinese economy further contributed to weakening the growth forecasts. Slowing global
growth apart from monetary tightening may also lead to a financial contagion emanating from the
advanced economies where the debt of the non-financial sector has risen the most since the global
financial crisis. – Economic Survey 2023
Which of the following best describes ‘financial contagion’?
a) Market risk spreading from developed countries to other economies

b) Spread of economic crisis from on market
c) Payment defaults due to policy errors

d) Growth forecasts weakening the market performances
e) Over indebtedness of advanced economies creating pressure on global economy
Q180. In the current year, India has also faced the challenge of reining in inflation that the
European strife accentuated. Measures taken by the government and RBI, along with the easing of
global commodity prices, have finally managed to bring retail inflation below the RBI upper
tolerance target in November 2022. – Economic Survey 2023
What is RBI’s ‘upper tolerance target’ for retail inflation?
a) 2%
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 8%
e) Keeps changing as per the MPC decision
Q181. The rate hike by the US Fed drove capital into the US markets causing the US Dollar to
appreciate against most currencies. This led to the widening of the CAD and increased inflationary
pressures in net importing economies. The rate hike and persistent inflation also led to a lowering of
the global growth forecasts for 2022 and 2023 by the IMF in its October 2022 update of the World
Economic Outlook – Economic Survey 2023
In this paragraph CAD stands for?
a) Current Account Deficit

b) Capital Account Deficit
c) Cash Account Deficit
d) Cumulative Account Deficit
e) Capital Accrued Deficit
Q182. From the following which is correct about RBI’s CBDC:
i. It is a digital form of fiat currency
ii. It can never be torn, burned, or physically damaged
iii. The lifeline of a digital form of currency will be indefinite
iv. It will be governed by a central authority, reducing the volatility risk associated with other digital
currencies
a) i only
b) i & ii only
d) iii & iv only
e) All of the above
Q183. Which country introduced the virtual currency as a legal tender and became the first ever
country to do so?
a) Nicaragua
b) Guatemala
c) Dominican Republic
d) El Salvador
e) Venezuela
Q184. World Food Prize 2023 was conferred to?
a) Heidi Kühn
b) Terry Branstad
c) Antony Blinken
d) Mashal Husain
Explanation-
Q185. Which of the following banks were merged with Union Bank of India?
i. Oriental Bank of Commerce

ii. Andhra Bank
iii. Vijaya Bank
iv. Corporation Bank
a) i only
b) i & ii only
c) i & iv only
d) ii & iv only
Q186. Which of the following is not an OPEC member country?
a) Indonesia
b) UAE
c) Venezuela
d) Iraq
Q187. Which of the following is correct about ‘Stand Up India’ Scheme:
i. Launched by Ministry of Finance on 5th April 2016
ii. To Promote entrepreneurship amongst SC/ST and/or women entrepreneurs
iii. Facilitate bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.100 lakh
a) i only
b) i & ii only
c) i & iii only
d) ii & iii only
e) All of the above
Q188. Which of the following is true regarding the Reserve Bank of India's prudential norms for
income recognition, asset classification, and provisioning for banks' advances portfolio?
a) The policy of income recognition should be subjective and based on record of recovery.
b) The classification of assets of banks has to be done on the basis of subjective criteria to ensure
a uniform and consistent application of the norms.
c) The provisioning should be made on the basis of the period for which the asset has
remained non-performing and the availability of security and the realizable value thereof.
d) Banks are not required to fix realistic repayment schedules on the basis of cash flows with
borrowers.
e) The prudential norms are not aimed at improving consistency and transparency in the published
accounts.
Explanation:
The provisioning should be made on the basis of the period for which the asset has remained non-
performing and the availability of security and the realizable value thereof. Options A and B are
incorrect because the policy of income recognition should be objective, and the classification of
assets should be done on the basis of objective criteria. Option D is incorrect because banks are
urged to ensure that realistic repayment schedules may be fixed on the basis of cash flows with
borrowers. Option E is incorrect because the prudential norms are aimed at improving consistency
and transparency in the published accounts.
Q189. What is the maximum period for which an asset can be considered a substandard asset?
a) Less than or equal to 6 months

b) Less than or equal to 12 months
c) Less than or equal to 18 months
d) Less than or equal to 24 months
Explanation:
A substandard asset is one which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
Q190. What is the main characteristic of a doubtful asset?
a) Liquidation in full is highly questionable and improbable

b) Well-defined credit weaknesses that jeopardize the liquidation of the debt
c) Realizability of dues is uncertain
d) Loss has been identified, but the amount has not been written off wholly
Explanation: A loan classified as doubtful has all the weaknesses inherent in assets that were
classified as substandard, with the added characteristic that the weaknesses make collection or
liquidation in full, highly questionable and improbable.
Q191. As per RBI guidelines for ARCs, an asset becomes non-performing when the interest or
principal is overdue for a period of how many days from the date of acquisition or the due date as
per contract between the borrower and the originator, whichever is later?
a) 60 days
b) 90 days
c) 120 days
d) 180 days
e) 240 days
Explanation: As per RBI guidelines for ARCs, An asset becomes an NPA when interest or principal
(or instalment thereof) is overdue for a period of 180 days or more from the date of acquisition or
the due date as per contract between the borrower and the originator, whichever is later.
Q192. The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in which year?
a) 1969
b) 1979
c) 1989
d) 1999
e) 2009
Explanation:
The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in December 1969, in
response to the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group and the Nariman Committee. The
Scheme aims at coordinating the activities of banks and other developmental agencies through
various fora to achieve the objective of enhancing the flow of bank finance to the priority sector and
other sectors and to promote banks' role in the overall development of the rural sector.
Q 193. What does "Infrastructure lending" include as a part of the project finance package as per
RBI guidelines for NBFCs?
a) Credit facility extended by non-banking financial companies only in the form of term loans.
b) Subscription to bonds, debentures, preference shares, and equity shares in a project
company.
c) Short-term funded facilities for exposure in CRE.
d) Credit facilities extended only to companies in non-infrastructure sectors.
e) Subscription to bonds and debentures only.
Explanation: "Infrastructure lending" includes credit facilities extended by non-banking financial

companies to borrowers by way of term loans, project loans, and subscription to bonds, debentures,
preference shares, and equity shares in a project company, as part of the project finance package,
such that the subscription amount is "in the nature of advance" or any other form of long-term
funded facility for exposure in the infrastructure sub-sectors.
Q 194. What is the term used to describe the risk arising from the term structure of instruments in a
bank's banking book that arises from differences in the timing of their rate changes?
a) Term Risk
b) Basis risk
c) Option risk
d) Embedded loss
e) Gap risk
Explanation:
Basis risk describes the impact of relative changes in interest rates for financial instruments that
have similar tenors but are priced using different interest rate indices (bases) (for example, an asset
priced off Libor funded by a liability priced off US Treasuries).
Gap risk is the risk that arises from the difference between the maturities of a bank's assets and
liabilities.
Option risk is the risk that arises from options embedded in financial instruments, where the bank
or its customers can alter the level and timing of their cash flows.
Q195. What is the minimum Net NPA requirement for an Urban Co-operative Bank (UCB) to be
classified as Financially Sound and Well Managed (FSWM)?
a) Not more than 1%

b) Not more than 2%
c) Not more than 3%
d) Not more than 4%
e) Not more than 2.5%
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has prescribed a minimum Net NPA requirement of
not more than 3% for UCBs to be classified as Financially Sound and Well Managed (FSWM).
Q 196. Which of the following options is NOT a characteristic of a callable bond?
a) Lower coupon rate

b) Higher yield to maturity
c) Higher credit rating
d) Can be redeemed by the issuer before maturity
e) Longer Maturity
Explanation: There is no inherent relationship between a bond's credit rating and whether it is
callable or not. The credit rating is based on the issuer's ability to pay interest and repay principal,
and is not directly related to the bond's features or terms.
Q197. Who is responsible for deciding the eligibility for being classified as a FSWM UCB?
a) Reserve Bank of India

b) Government of India
c) UCBs themselves
d) Audit firms
e) RBI and GOI
Explanation: The process of deciding the eligibility for being classified as a FSWM UCB may be
carried out by UCBs themselves as per the revised criteria based on the assessed financials and
findings of RBI inspection report or audited financial statements, whichever is latest.
Q.198. Which of the following banks continue to be identified by Reserve Bank of India as
Domestic-Systemically important Banks
a) SBI, HDFC Bank

b) SBI, ICICI Bank
c) SBI, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank
d) SBI, ICICI Bank, and Punjab National Bank
e) SBI, HDFC Bank, and Punjab National Bank
Explanation: SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be identified as Domestic Systemically
Important Banks (D-SIBs), under the same bucketing structure as in the 2018 list of D-SIBs. The D-
SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs
starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic
Importance Scores (SISs).
Q.199. What is the Additional Common Equity Tier 1 requirement as a percentage of Risk
Weighted Assets (RWAs) for SBI (as it’s a systemically important Bank)?
a) 0.10%
b) 0.20%
c) 0.30%
d) 0.50%
e) 0.60%
Explanation: SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be identified as Domestic Systemically
Important Banks (D-SIBs), under the same bucketing structure as in the 2018 list of D-SIBs. The D-
SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs
starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic
Importance Scores (SISs). Based on the bucket in which a D-SIB is placed, an additional common
equity requirement has to be applied to it.
Q.200. As per the RBI’s framework for small-value offline payment transactions which take place in
digital mode, the upper limit for offline payment transactions was fixed at ____ and the total limit on
a payment instrument is at Rs 2000?
a) Rs 500
b) Rs 300
c) Rs 200
d) Rs 700
e) Rs 800
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released a framework for small-value offline payment
transactions which take place in digital mode.
Offline payments can be performed using any channel or devices like cards, wallets, or mobile
phones, but must be made in proximity or in face-to-face mode. Offline digital payments are those
payments that do not require internet or telecom connectivity. The upper limit for offline payment
transactions was fixed at Rs 200 and the total limit on a payment instrument is Rs 2000. There will
not be a requirement for additional factors of authentication. The alerts via SMS or e-mail will be
received by the customers.
Q.201. As per the latest data of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), India’s foreign currency
reserves are ____as on 31st March 2023.
a) $518.45 billion
b) $538.45 billion
c) $558.45 billion
d) $578.45 billion
Q.202. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released norms for entities that harness data from
credit information companies (CICs) or credit bureaus. As per the norms, a company’s net worth
must be at least ……………….
a) 1 crores
b) 2 crores
c) 5 crores
d) 7 crores
e) 10 crores
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released norms for entities that harness data
from credit information companies (CICs) or credit bureaus in January 2022. It includes eligibility
criteria and other allied norms.
As per the norms, a company’s net worth must be at least Rs 2 crore and it must be owned and
controlled by an Indian resident, then only he/she is applying to become a designated user with a
credit bureau.
Q.203. The Reserve Bank of India has recently established a separate internal department for
fintech i.e. Financial technology. Who is the newly appointed head of said department?
a) Ajay Kumar Chaudhary

b) Shri Suvendu Pati
c) Revathy Iyer
d) Vivek Deep
e) Jayant Kumar Dash
Explanation-
Q.204. Which country will launch a gold-pegged digital currency and legalize them in the country?
a) El Salvador
b) Zimbabwe
c) Central African Republic
d) Paraguay
e) Venezuela
Explanation-
Q.205. The Reserve Bank has recently imposed several restrictions on Indian Mercantile
Cooperative Bank Ltd. Where is this Bank headquartered?
a) Mumbai
b) Delhi
c) Lucknow
d) Surat
e) Kolkatta
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed restrictions on Indian Mercantile
Cooperative Bank Limited. It is based in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Q.206. What is the purpose of a stock buyback?
a) To increase the number of shares outstanding

b) To decrease the number of shares outstanding
c) To increase the dividend yield
d) To decrease the dividend yield
e) To increase profits
Q 207. Which of the following is NOT a pillar of Basel III?
a) Minimum capital requirements

b) Supervisory review process
c) Market discipline
d) Capital conservation buffer
e) All of the above are pillars of Basel III
Explanation: The three pillars of Basel III are
1. minimum capital requirements,
2. supervisory review process, and
3. market discipline.
In addition, Basel III also introduced a capital conservation buffer, which requires banks to hold a
capital buffer in addition to the minimum capital requirement.
Q.208. Which of the following is NOT a pillar of Basel III?
a) Minimum capital requirements

b) Supervisory review process
c) Market discipline
d) Capital conservation buffer
e) All of the above are pillars of Basel III
Explanation: The three pillars of Basel III are
1. minimum capital requirements,
2. supervisory review process, and
3. market discipline.
In addition, Basel III also introduced a capital conservation buffer, which requires banks to hold a
capital buffer in addition to the minimum capital requirement.
Q209. The baseline forecast is for growth to fall from 3.4 percent in 2022 to 2.8 percent in 2023,
before settling at 3.0 percent in 2024. Advanced economies are expected to see an especially
pronounced growth slowdown, from 2.7 percent in 2022 to 1.3 percent in 2023. In a plausible
alternative scenario with further financial sector stress, global growth declines to about 2.5 percent
in 2023 with advanced economy growth falling below 1 percent. Global headline inflation in the
baseline is set to fall from 8.7 percent in 2022 to 7.0 percent in 2023 on the back of lower
commodity prices but underlying (core) inflation is likely to decline more slowly. Inflation’s return to
target is unlikely before 2025 in most cases. – World Economic Outlook April 2023
Which of the following is correct?
a) Core inflation doesn’t consider items having frequent price fluctuations

b) Core inflation considers items having frequent price fluctuations
c) Headline inflation considers items having frequent price fluctuations
d) Headline inflation excludes items having frequent price fluctuations
e) Headline inflation considers only commodities having price volatility
Explanation- Headline inflation refers to the change in value of all goods in the basket.
Core inflation excludes food and fuel items from headline inflation.
Q.210. P invests Rs. x under simple interest at the rate of 10% per annum for y years and receive
the amount as Rs. 9x at the end of y years. If M invests Rs. 2x under simple interest at the rate of
Z% per annum for y years and receive the amount as Rs. 22x at the end of y years. What is the
value of Z?
a) 10%
b) 12.5%
c) 15.5%
d) 18%
e) Cannot be calculated
Q 211. India’s rank has been improved in Global Innovation Index of WIPO to 40 th place in 2022.
What does WIPO stands for?
a) World Innovation Priority Organization

b) World Intellectual Property Organization
c) World Indigenous Priority Organization
d) World Innovation Property Organization
e) World Indexation Priority Organization
Explanation-
Q 212. There are three cars P, Q and R at a same point. Car P travels at a speed of 100 m/min.
After 5 minutes, car Q starts travelling after car P with a speed of 110 m/min. Simultaneously, car R
also starts travelling after car P at 120 m/min. What distance has car R covered (in m) when he
catches car P?
a) 2050 m
b) 2750 m
c) 3000 m
d) 3200 m
e) 3500 m
Q213. Which of the following operations can be used by RBI to manage liquidity in the economy?
a) Long Term repo operation
b) Open Market Operation
c) Long Term Reverse Repo Operation
d) Forex Swaps
e) All of the above
Q 214. Which of the following best suits to the formation of organizational behavior?
a) Ornithology
b) Philosophy
c) Psychology
d) Sociology
e) None of Above
Q215. What is the name of the second stage of the Curt Lewin Model on Organisational Change?
a) Freese
b) Unfreeze
c) Melt
d) Change
e) Refreeze
Q216. Which of the following the name of a bad bank proposed in the budget of 2021-22?
a) NSDL
b) NARCL
c) NABCL
d) CRISIL
e) CSDL
Q217. Which of the following theory suggest making communication based on Hierarchy,
structuring and formalization?
a) Shannon Weaver Model of Communication
b) Barnlund’s Transactional Model of Communication
c) Max Weber - Bureaucratic Theory of Management
d) Schramm’s Interactive Model of Communication
e) None of the abov
Q218. Which of the following statement supports this?

A. The GDP overlooks the contributions of social capital – all of our formal and informal
networks, institutions and cultures – to supporting human well-being.
B. Many activities in an economy viz., natural capital assets and their services are not
evaluated in monetary terms.
C. Many countries having lower per capital GDP are ranked higher on HDI due to better
distribution of the income and social support.
D. Economic impact of natural calamities is not measured in GDP
a) Only A and B
b) A,B and C
c) A,B and D
d) B,C and D
e) All of the above
Q219. According to RBI’s Annual Report 2022-23, What was the gross fiscal deficit as a
percentage of GDP in 2021-22?
a) 6.4%
b) 6.7%
c) 6.43%
d) 6.45%
Explanation: The gross fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP in India decreased from 6.7% in
2021-22 to 6.4% in 2022-23 (RE) based on the first estimates of GDP for that year. However, after
considering the second estimate of GDP for 2022-23, the revised gross fiscal deficit as a
percentage of GDP is 6.45%. This is slightly higher than the earlier projection of 6.43% mentioned
in the Union Budget 2023-24. Overall, it indicates a decline in the fiscal deficit, which is the gap
between the government's expenditure and its revenue, as a proportion of the country's GDP.
Q220. What was the percentage change in rice procurement during the Kharif marketing season of
2022-23 compared to the previous year?
a) 0.5% higher
b) 1.0% lower
c) 2.2% lower
d) 3.5% higher
Explanation:
During the kharif marketing season of 2022-23, the procurement of rice, a major crop, was 492.2
lakh tonnes as of March 31, 2023. This procurement volume is 2.2% lower than last year’s period.
As a result, the buffer stocks of rice, which are maintained to meet any potential supply shortages,
stood at 3.2 times the buffer norm as of March 31, 2023. This indicates that there is a surplus of rice
in the buffer stocks.
Q. 221. What is the Integrated PM-GKAY scheme?
a) A scheme to provide employment opportunities in rural areas
b) A scheme to promote entrepreneurship among women

c) A scheme to provide free foodgrains to beneficiaries under NFSA
d) A scheme to improve healthcare facilities in remote areas
Explanation:
Wheat stocks were 1.1 times the buffer norms as of March 31, 2023, due to a significant decline in
wheat procurement during the rabi marketing season of 2022-23. This decline was primarily caused
by yield loss due to heatwaves during the harvesting months and an increase in wheat exports
following the Russia-Ukraine war. To ensure domestic availability, the Government of India imposed
restrictions on wheat and wheat-based product exports and implemented higher export duties on non-
basmati rice. Additionally, the government conducted e-auctions to sell 3.4 million tonnes of wheat
from the central pool stock in February and March 2023. This was done to curb inflationary pressures
caused by wheat. As a result of declining wheat stocks, the distribution of wheat under the Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) was substituted with rice in the sixth and seventh
phases of the scheme from April to December 2022. However, starting from January 1, 2023, the
distribution of food grains under PM-GKAY was discontinued. Instead, the Integrated PM-GKAY
scheme was announced, which provided rice, wheat, and coarse grains under the National Food
Security Act (NFSA) to approximately 81.35 crore beneficiaries at subsidised prices, free of charge in
2023.
Q222. According to RBI’s Annual Report 2022-23, which of the following statement is/are correct
regarding the “Industrial sector”?
I. During the fiscal year 2022-23, the industrial sector experienced a moderation in growth due
to global uncertainties.
II. The organized manufacturing sector faced challenges as raw material costs increased,
impacting profitability.
III. The automobile sector saw a bounce-back supported by festive season sales.
a. I and II only
b. II only
c. III only
d. II and III only
e. All of the above
Explanation: During the fiscal year 2022-23, the industrial sector experienced a moderation in
growth due to global uncertainties. The organized manufacturing sector faced challenges as raw
material costs increased, impacting profitability. The supply chain bottlenecks following the war in
Ukraine further added to the difficulties. However, the manufacturing sector showed signs of
recovery, with several industry groups recording expansion, particularly in the manufacturing of motor
vehicles, petroleum products, basic metals, chemicals, and machinery. Labour-intensive sectors like
textiles and electronics witnessed contraction. The automobile sector saw a bounce-back supported
by festive season sales. In terms of use-based classification, categories such as primary goods and
infrastructure/construction goods recorded robust growth, while consumer goods, especially
consumer durables, remained sluggish.
Q. 223. The currency paradox refers to:
a) The simultaneous growth of physical currency and digital payments.

b) The decline in physical currency usage due to the rise of digital payments.
c) The preference for digital payments over physical currency.
d) The absence of cash withdrawals during the COVID-19 pandemic.
e) The decline in digital payments during the pandemic.
Explanation: The parallel growth of both physical currency and digital payment methods for
transactions may seem contradictory, which is known as the currency paradox. The COVID-19
pandemic has further highlighted this paradox as cash demand increased despite the growing
popularity of digital payments. In India, while digital payments through the Unified Payments Interface
(UPI) saw significant growth, the amount of currency in circulation (CiC) in relation to the country's
GDP also increased.
This phenomenon is not unique to India and has been observed in other countries since 2007. The
persistent preference for cash can be attributed to factors such as low opportunity costs (interest
rates) associated with holding currency, the need for precautionary savings during uncertain times,
the presence of a large informal economy, and government welfare programs that often involve cash
transfers. Even when digital payment options are promoted, people still tend to withdraw cash after
receiving digital benefits.
Q. 224. What is the purpose of the lightweight and portable payment system introduced by the
Reserve Bank?
a) To handle large volumes of transactions efficiently

b) To ensure the sustained availability of conventional payment systems
c) To operate independently of conventional technologies
d) To facilitate international money transfers
e) To support mobile banking services
Explanation: To ensure the availability of payment systems during extreme situations, the Reserve
Bank has introduced a lightweight and portable payment system. This system is designed to operate
independently of conventional technologies and can be used from anywhere with minimal staff. It
relies on simple hardware and software and is activated only when necessary.
The purpose of this system is to process critical transactions that contribute to the stability of the
economy, such as government and market-related transactions. By implementing this lightweight and
portable payment system, the downtime of the payment and settlement system in the country can be
minimized, ensuring the continuous flow of liquidity in the economy. It enables uninterrupted provision
of essential payment services like bulk payments, interbank payments, and cash distribution to
participant institutions.
Q. 225. When was the CBDC-Wholesale segment of the pilot project operationalized?
a) November 1, 2021
b) November 1, 2022
c) December 1, 2021
d) December 1, 2022
e) October 1, 2022
Explanation: The central bank implemented a pilot project for Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)
by making enhancements to its existing e-Kuber system. The pilot project was divided into two
segments - CBDC-Wholesale and CBDC-Retail. The CBDC-Wholesale segment became operational
on November 1, 2022, while the CBDC-Retail segment started functioning from December 1, 2022.
Q.226. When did the implementation of PRAKALP go live?
a) January 1, 2022
b) June 1, 2022
c) July 1, 2022
d) July 1, 2022
e) August 1, 2022
Explanation: The PRAKALP (Pratyaksh Kar Lekhankan Pranali) system is a new tax collection
system that was implemented on July 1, 2022. The system integrates e-Kuber, TIN 2.0, PFMS, and
agency banks.
e-Kuber is a government-owned platform that provides a single window for all government
transactions. TIN 2.0 is the second generation of the Tax Information Network, which is a secure
network that allows taxpayers to file their taxes online. PFMS is the Public Financial Management
System, which is a system that manages government finances. Agency banks are banks that have
been authorized by the government to collect taxes.
The implementation of PRAKALP has been a phased process. The first phase involved the
integration of e-Kuber with TIN 2.0, PFMS, and 13 agency banks. The second phase, which is
currently underway, involves the onboarding of the remaining agency banks. The third and final
phase will involve the testing of the system and the deployment of the system to all taxpayers.
Q.227. Which organization issued the first green bond?
a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

b) World Bank
c) United Nations (UN)
d) European Central Bank (ECB)
e) International Finance Corporation (IFC)
Explanation: The first green bond was issued by the World Bank in 2008, and since then, the global
market for sustainable finance has experienced significant growth, primarily driven by green bond
issuances. As of September 30, 2022, cumulative green bond issuances surpassed $2.0 trillion,
including sovereign green bonds (SGrBs) issued by 26 countries totalling $230.9 billion. European
nations are the major issuers of SGrBs, with 5-year and 10-year tenors being the preferred durations
for issuance.
Q.228. Which of the following is NOT a category of thematic bonds?
a) Green bonds
b) Social bonds
c) Sustainability bonds
d) Corporate bonds
e) Sustainability-linked bonds
Explanation:
Thematic bonds are a type of fixed-income securities issued in capital markets to raise funds for
specific projects or activities related to a particular theme, such as climate change, education,
housing, ocean and marine conservation, and sustainable development goals. Green bonds are a
type of thematic bond that focuses on financing projects with positive environmental and climate
impacts. Other categories of thematic bonds include social bonds, sustainability bonds, and
sustainability-linked bonds.
Q229. The Reserve Bank of India has approved Rs 87,416 crore of surplus transfer to the
government for 2022-23. What is the contingency risk buffer maintained by RBI?
a) 4%
b) 4.5%
c) 5%
d) 5.5%
e) 6%
Explanation-
Q230. The bank credit to micro and small enterprises under priority sector loans in March 2023 grew
by 14 per cent year-on-year (YoY). What is the criteria for a business to be classified as ‘small
enterprise’
a) Investment not more than Rs. 1 crore or Turnover not more than Rs. 5 crore
b) Investment not more than Rs. 5 crore or Turnover not more than Rs. 10 crore
c) Investment not more than Rs. 10 crore or Turnover not more than Rs. 25 crore
d) Investment not more than Rs. 10 crore or Turnover not more than Rs. 50 crore
e) Investment not more than Rs. 25 crore or Turnover not more than Rs. 50 crore
Q231. Marked price of an article is 1.45 times of cost price. Selling price is Rs.1500.Find the discount
percentage if profit percentage is 25%?
a) 15.79%
b) 10.79%
c) 19.79%
d) 23.79%
e) 13.79%
Q232. Divya buys two article A and B at the same cost price Rs. P. Then, She markup both articles
by 75% above their cost price. Then, she sold article A at Rs.268 discount and article Bat 20%
discount. Then, Which of the following statement(s)is definitely correct:
1) The profit earned by selling article B is greater than that by A.
2) Discount percent given on article A is more than that in B.
3) She earned equal profits by selling both the articles.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Only 3
d) Only 1 and 2
Q233. Which is the first bank to move Mauritius fund to GIFT City in Gandhinagar?
a) SBI
b) Bank of Baroda
c) HDFC Bank
d) Kotak Mahindra Bank
e) ICICI Bank
Q234. Which is correct about Twin Balance sheet problem?
I. It is related to problems in managing fiscal policy and monetary policy at the same time
II. It is related to problems in managing balance of payment in external sector and internal
sector at the same time
III. It is related to problems of the financial health of banks and corporates at the same time
a) I and II only
b) II only
c) III only
d) II and III only
e) All of the above
Q 235. Which of the following is correct about One Person Company (OPC) in India.
A. There is only one person as shareholder of the company
B. These companies get all the benefits of a private company such as access to credits, legal
protection, limited liability etc.
C. The person and his/her company are considered as separate legal entities
a) A & B are correct

b) B & C are correct
c) A & C are correct
d) All A, B and C are correct
e) None is correct
Q 236. The situation in which rate of inflation is decreasing over time while the inflation remaining
positive, is called?
a) Deflation
b) Disinflation
c) Hyper-inflation
d) Hypo-inflation
e) Negative inflation
Q237. According to a United Nations report, global economic growth is projected to be………… in
2023?
a) 2.1%
b) 2.3%
c) 2.5%
d) 2.7%
e) 3.1%
Q 238. Who regulates the InvITs and REITs?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) BSE
d) IRDAI
e) IFSCA
Explanation- Real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment trusts (InvITs) are
innovative vehicles that allow developers to monetise revenue-generating real estate and
infrastructure assets, while enabling investors or unit holders to invest in these assets without actually
owning them. Securities and Exchange Board of India regulates the InvITs and REITs.

300 GA Questions For RBI Phase 1

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300-Important Questions

i. Accepting cultures of another company

a) Annual Financial Statement (AFS)

Q.3. Consider the following document and give the answer:

i. Annual Financial Statement (AFS)

a) I, II and III only

a) Contingency Fund of India

Q.7. Consider the following statement:

i. 157 new nursing college will be established under this.

a) Increased capital investment outlay by 33.4% to 10 lakh crore

a) 50 year Interest Free Loans to States to be spent on Capex within 2023-24

a) 1.25 Lakh Crore

Q12. Which of the following can be termed as Revenue Expenditure?

II. Interest Payments

III. Loan to State Government Options

i. The scheme was introduced in year 2002

i. Repo rate remains unchanged at 6.5%

II. FY24 CPI inflation is expected to be at 5.1%

III. The MPC voted 5 members to 1 to remain focused on withdrawal of accommodation

Q 21. Which if the following is / are benefit/s of foreign trade?

Q.31. What is ‘Shree Anna’?

a) ₹111 lakh crore

Q.43- PM SVANidhi allows street vendors to avail an initial loan of ___________.

1. RBI estimated 6.8% of retail inflation for 2022-23

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) ADB was established in 1966

a) Only statement A is correct

a) Exchange Based Derivatives

Q 62. Which of the follwing is not a category of NPA?

Q63. Which of the following is always true for Bonds?

A. Market price of a bond keeps on changing due to various factors

a) Only statements A is correct

Q 67.. Which is/are correct about stress tests of banks?

C. IMF also conducts such stress tests

Q 68. Which is/are correct about ‘Corporate Governacne’?

Q 71. In corporate HR, whistle-blowers are?

Q.86. When was 'The RBI Museum' inaugurated?

c) March 11, 2019

Q 91. Currency of Egypt is………..?

Explanation- To improve socio-economic conditions of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups

Q103. What is ‘Shree Anna’?

Q.108 - Which of the following Schemes of Government contributed towards Inclusive

Q.115- PM SVANidhi allows street vendors to avail an initial loan of ___________.

Q.119. SVAMITVA Scheme is administered by ____________.

d) Ministry of Jal Shakti

2. 5th largest in the world in market exchange rates

a) default risk premium, inflation risk premium, and real rates

Q131. Which of the is an example of passive investment instrument?

Explanation- is a marketable security that tracks an index, a commodity, bonds, or a basket

Vowels are coded as: A = 1, E = 2, I = 3, O = 4, U = 5.

Consonants are coded as its numerical value.

A public–private partnership is a long-term arrangement between a government and private sector

Q136. UPI is monitored by?

Q138. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

I. International Financial Services Centres Authority is a statutory body.

a) Any 46-year-old person

Explanation- The FI-Index has been conceptualised as a comprehensive index incorporating

Q143. A shortfall in a government's income compared with its spending is called?

a) Current Account Deficit

a) Provide double the food grains allotted in the next 15 days

a) Rs.10,925 and Rs.28,435

a) SFBs are governed by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

Q151. He is using punishment in order to decrease the probability of repeated inappropriate