DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C: P–SIA–D–UPGI PRESTORMINGTM TEST BOOKLET

Serial: 848310 CSAT

A
TEST - 10

Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
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APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.
Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

1
 S.(1-2) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and answer
the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
From sore throats to fevers and life-threatening infections, most people have periodically
used antibiotics. Recent reports show that the global COVID-19 pandemic has increased the
use of antibiotics. Some microbes may be naturally resistant to certain antimicrobials. In
other cases, improper use of antimicrobials promotes the modification of microbial genes
(genes are units of DNA), making the microbes resistant to antimicrobials. The man behind
the discovery of antibiotics, Alexander Fleming, gave an anticipatory warning on this topic
in his 1945 Nobel lecture: “Mr. X. has a sore throat. He buys some penicillin and gives
himself, not enough to kill the streptococci (bacteria known to cause sore throats and tonsils)
but enough to educate them to resist penicillin. He then infects his wife. Mrs. X gets
pneumonia and is treated with penicillin. As the streptococci are now resistant to penicillin
the treatment fails. Mrs. X dies. Who is primarily responsible for Mrs. X’s death?”
This situation is termed antimicrobial resistance and the genes that confer resistance are
referred to as antimicrobial resistance genes (ARGs). Globally, health problems due to
antimicrobial resistance have been rising. One of the major reasons is the mobility of ARGs.
The resistance genes can be transferred from one generation of microbes to the next through
reproduction, and can also be transferred by horizontal gene transfer (non-sexual transfer
of genetic material between different microbes).

1. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are not correct according the above passage?
1. Use of antibiotics is the main reason for microbes becoming resistant to antimicrobials.
2. Health problems due to ARGs is on the rise universally.
3. ARGS can be transferred through reproduction
4. Some microbes can be naturally resistant to certain microbials.
Select the correct answer using the code below.
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above

2. The following assumptions have been made from the above passage?
1. Regardless of their origin, ARGs can be transmitted from environmental sources to
the human gut and vice versa.
2. Inhalable ARGs pose an increasingly growing silent health threat.
3. ARGs can travel from animal manure to food crops.
4. Improper use of antimicrobials enable microbes to be resistant to antimicrobials.

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 Which of the above assumptions are valid :
(a) All of the above.
(b) 1 and 3 only.
(c) 2 and 4 only.
(d) None of the above.

S.(3) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Rapid deployment of Renewable Energy and Electrolysers capacities will be required to
achieve economies of scale. Associated infrastructure and regulatory ecosystem will need to
be established for delivery of renewable power, and for storage, transportation and utilization
of Green Hydrogen for various applications. Accelerated technology development to
improve performance, efficiencies, safety and reliability would also be crucial. The global
value chain for Green Hydrogen is in its nascency and international cooperation and
engagements could further bolster the national efforts. There is, therefore, a clear need for
coordinated efforts and diverse policy interventions across all domains.

3. Which of the following statements best reflects the most critical inference of the above
passage?
(a) Since various imperatives are involved in the Green Hydrogen value chain,
centralized coordination and globalized approach would be fruitful.
(b) All domains and aspects of Green Hydrogen right from production to final utilization
should be in the public sector for smooth coordination and effective
international support.
(c) Since various domains are involved Green Hydrogen Mission can be very effective if
steered by the PMO.
(d) As the global value chain for Green Hydrogen is in its nascency,
international cooperation and engagements could further bolster the national efforts.

4. Before five years, Vinoth’s age was three times Raja’s age. If the ratio of Vinoth’s age after 6
years and and Raja’s age after twelve years will be 7 : 4, what will be the difference between
present years of Vinoth and Raja?
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 40

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 SOLUTION : :
Let, Raja's age = x. Then, Vinoth's age be 3x years.
Now, according to the question,
3x + 5+6/x + 5 + 12 = 7/4
3x+11 / x + 17 = 7/4
⇒ 12x + 44 = 7x + 119
= 5x = 75
⇒x= 15
Present age Raja ⇒ x + 5 = 20 and Vinoth ⇒ 3x + 5 = 50
Difference = 50 – 20 = 30

5. There are two tanks A and B. Tank A consists of 180 litres of lemon juice and 36 litres of
water. Some amount of this mixture is taken and poured in tank B. When 6 litres of water is
added to the mixture in tank B, the ratio of the mixture becomes 5 : 2. What is the amount
of mixture taken out from tank A?
(a) 32 litres
(b) 34 litres
(c) 36 litres
(d) 38 litres
SOLUTION : :
Ratio of lemon juice and water = 180 : 36 = 5 : 1
Quantity of Lenom juice and water in tank A = 5x and x
Now, let 6x litres of mixture be taken out from tank A and poured in tank B.
Then, Lemon Juice in tank B = 5x
Water in tank B = x
5𝑥 5
=
𝑥+6 2
⇒ 10x = 5x + 30
= 5x = 30 and x = 6
Hence the mixture that was taken out from tank A = 6x
= 6 x 6 = 36 litres

6. Two bus A and B starts from Chennai and Bangalore at 8.00 am and 9.00 am respectively.
Bus A travels at a speed of 53 kmph to Bangalore and B travels at a speed of 76 kmph to
Chennai. If the distance between Chennai and Bangalore is 569 metres, what time it takes
for both the buses to meet?
(a) 12.00 am
(b) 1.00 pm
(c) 1.00 am
(d) 12.00 pm

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 SOLUTION : :
Total distance = 569 km. The distance covered in (8 am - 9 am)
ie 1 hour by bus A = 53 x 1 = 53 km
Remaining distance = 569-53 = 516 km
Relative speed = 76 + 53 =129 kmph
516
They meet after = 4 hours.
129

Hence, they meet at (9 am + 4 hours) = 1.00 pm

7. Latha saw the clock time on Monday as 7 in the morning. She went on a tour and came back
on the following Friday and saw the clock showing 6.00 am. Her father said that the clock is
losing 15 minutes in 24 hours. What is the correct time?
(a) 6.15 am
(b) 6.30 am
(c) 7.00 am
(d) 7.30 am
SOLUTION :
The from Monday morning to Friday morning there are four 24 hours.
The clock loses 15 minutes for every 24 hours so in four 24 hours it lost 4 x 15 = 60 minutes
(1 hour).
After losing 1 hour the current time is 6.00 am So the actual time must be 7.00 am.

Directions for Questions 8 to 11: Study the following information given below to answer
these questions.
X, Y, Z, P, Q, R, A and B are sitting around a circular table but not necessarily in the same
order. Some of them are facing the centre and remaining are facing outward. X sits third to
the right of B. Two people sit between B and Y. Z sits second to the left of Y. There are three
people between Y and Q. P sits second to the left of R, who is the immediate neighbour of X.
The immediate neighbours of B face the same direction as B. R sits third to the left of X who
faces the centre. The immediate neighbours of X face opposite direction of X.

8. If A changes his position with Y (along with direction), which of the following is true?
(I) A will face inside the table
(II) A is between P and R
(III) A is sitting second to the left of Z
(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III only

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9. Who all are facing inside the table?
(a) APY
(b) PQ
(c) XYB
(d) XY

10. Consider A and R and find out which of the below about them is true.
(I) Both of them are immediate neighbours
(II) Both of them face outside the table
(III) Both of them are opposite to each other
(a) I and II only
(b) I and III only
(c) II and III only
(d) None of the above

11. Who sits immediate left to Q?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) P
(d) R
SOLUTION :

S.(12) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Nationally determined contributions (NDCs) are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and the
achievement of its long-term goals. NDCs embody efforts by each country to reduce national
emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change. The Paris Agreement (Article 4,
paragraph 2) requires each Party to prepare, communicate and maintain successive
nationally determined contributions (NDCs) that it intends to achieve. Parties shall pursue
domestic mitigation measures, with the aim of achieving the objectives of such contributions.

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12. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been drawn:
1. NDCs are mandated goals for nations to achieve.
2. NDCs determine whether the world achieves the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement.
3. NDCs enables the world to reach global peaking of greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions as
soon as possible.
4. NDCs would encourage to undertake rapid reductions in accordance with best available
science, so as to achieve a balance between anthropogenic emissions by sources and
removals by sinks of Green Houses Gases.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid ?
(a) All of the above.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only.
(c) 2 and 4 only.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only.

S.(13) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Ocean carbon dioxide removal, or ocean CDR, uses the ocean’s natural ability to take up
carbon on a large scale and amplifies it. Carbon gets into the ocean from the atmosphere in
two ways. In the first, air dissolves into the ocean surface. Winds and crashing waves mix it
into the upper half-mile or so, and because seawater is slightly alkaline, the carbon dioxide
is absorbed into the ocean. The second involves the biologic pump. The ocean is a living
medium – it has algae and fish and whales, and when that organic material is eaten or dies,
it gets recycled. It rains down through the ocean and makes its way to the ocean twilight
zone, a level around 650 to 3300 feet (roughly 200 to 1,000 meters) deep.

13. Based on the passage above the following assumptions have been made:
1. Oceans can teach and help humanity to find effective ways to address the climate change
challenges.
2. Alkalinity enhancement over selected stretches of ocean can be carried out to validate
increased absorption of Carbon Dioxide.
3. Biodegradable kitchen waste can be dumped after due research in selected stretches of
the ocean to nourish and flourish the biological pump.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

7
 S.(14) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
The first structural factor that limits long-term India-U.S. space cooperation is the mismatch
in the two nations’ interests in outer space. The U.S. has committed to returning to the moon
— and this time to stay there for the long term. Although the U.S. and its partners stress
the importance of maintaining capabilities in low-earth orbit, their ambitions are firmly set
on the moon. In this regard, the Artemis Program, the Artemis Accords, and the Biden
administration’s National Cislunar Science & Technology Strategy constitute the foundation
for American ambitions beyond earth orbits.
Meanwhile, India’s scientific community focuses on building the nation’s capability in and
under earth orbits. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) currently undertakes
fewer than 10 launches each year. The Gaganyaan human spaceflight programme hopes to
sustain India’s human presence in space for the long term. This is not to say that India does
not aim for the moon, Mars or beyond. But India’s top priority is to substantially increase
its satellite and launch capabilities in earth orbits and catch up with other spacefaring
nations such as China.

14. Which of the following statements best reflects the mismatch in India and US interests in
outer space?
(a) India’s scientific community focuses on building the nation’s capability in and under
earth orbits and US and its partners stress the importance of maintaining capabilities in
low-earth orbit.
(b) While US prefers to return to the moon and stay there for the long term, India’s
priority is to increase its satellite capabilities in earth orbits.
(c) Indias priority is to catch up with China in space with the help of US.
(d) Artemis Program sets the ambitions for US while Indian Space Research Organization
for India.

15. Akhila bought some number of apples which had a total cost price of Rs 1200. She got 20%
loss on selling 1/3rd of the apples she had. In what profit percentage did she sell the remaining
apples if the profit percentage for the overall sales is 10%?
(a) 22%
(b) 24%
(c) 25%
(d) 27%
SOLUTION : :
Let C.P. of each apple be ₹100.

8
 Number of apples = 1200/100 = 12
According to the question, S.P. of 12 apples
1200 × 110
= 1320
100
4 apples (i.e.)1/3rd are sold on 20% loss
400×80
Their S.P = = 320
100

Required S.P. of remaining 8 apples = 1320-320 = 1000

Required profit percent
1000−800
=( ) × 100 = 25%
800

16. Sam, Pam and Ram are business partners and the ratio between their investments was
4 : 6 : 5. In the beginning, only Sam started the business and Pam & Ram joined with him
after 4 months. If Sam’s share in annual profit is Rs 250 more than share of Ram, what is
the total profit earned in the business?
(a) Rs 2740
(b) Rs 3270
(c) Rs 3920
(d) Rs 4250
SOLUTION : :
Ratio of the equivalent capitals of Sam, Pam and Ram for 1 month.
= (12 x 4): (8 x 6): (8 x 5)
= 48 : 48 : 40
=6:6:5
Sum of ratios = 6 +6 + 5 = 17
If total annual profit be x, then
Sam's share - Ram's share = 250
6𝑥 5𝑥
− = 250
17 17
𝑥
= 250
17
⇒ x = 17 X 250 = 4250

17. A company is assigned to complete a bridge project which has both men and boys as workers.
In that company 28 men can complete the bridge in 15 days but 15 boys take 24 days to
complete the bridge. What is the respective ratio of the amount of work done by 30 men in
one day and the amount of work done by 18 boys in one day?
(a) 3 : 4
(b) 11 : 8

9
 (c) 10 : 7
(d) 12 : 13
SOLUTION : :
28 men do 1 work in 15 days.
Time taken by 30 men = (15×28)/ 30 = 14 days
15 boys do the work in 24 days.
Time taken by 18 boys = (15×24)/18 = 20 days
Required ratio = 1/14 : 1/20
= 20:14 = 10:7

18. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
BED FHH JKL NNP ?
(a) OQQ
(b) RQT
(c) GKK
(d) PSY
SOLUTION :

Directions for Questions 19 to 20: Study the following information given below to answer
these questions.
(i) There are six members in a family
(ii) A is the sister of B.
(iii) C is the father of A.
(iv) D is the son of B.
(v) E is the maternal grandfather of D.
(vi) C does not have a married daughter.
(vii) There is only one married couple.

19. If F is the sister of D, how is F related to B’s sister?

(a) Sister
(b) Mother
(c) Niece
(d) Daughter in Law

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20. How is B’s wife related to A’s father?
(a) Sister
(b) Mother
(c) Niece
(d) Daughter in Law
SOLUTION :

S.(21) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Deepa Hariharan, a neonatologist, says she has mainly seen dengue cases. “Dengue
symptoms are so obvious that unless it is a mild case, it is not ignored.” The number of
cases has not risen at an alarming rate; but from being a seasonal illness five years ago,
dengue occurs all through the year, she says. Aedes aegypti, the mosquito which causes
dengue, bites primarily during the day. “If there is more awareness in schools for students
to cover up, we could see a dip in cases,” she says.

21. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made.
1. Full sleeved shirts and full length trousers to school will reduce the mosquito bites.
2. No off season for Aedes Aegypti mosquitoes in Chennai.
3. Aedes Aegypti does not bite in night.
4. Dengue symptoms are tough to diagnose.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) None of the above

11
 S.(22) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
The WHO has identified preventing Alzheimer’s disease to be a key element in the strategy
to fight the world’s dementia epidemic. Prevention programmes usually focus on lifestyle
risk factors – such as sedentary behaviour, unhealthy diet, smoking, and excessive alcohol
use – together with mental wellbeing and risk of cardiovascular diseases. Having depression
increases the risk of developing dementia by nearly twofold. The deleterious effects of
depression on memory, sleep, and social functioning are well-established.
Higher educational and occupational attainments have consistently been implicated as
protecting against developing dementia later in life. One recent study reported that those
who attain higher education have a 40% lower risk. The protective effects of education may
be due to the longer period of learning, which in turn stimulates the development of larger
or more complex neural networks.

22. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. Preventive steps for Alzheimer's can also prevent cardiovascular diseases.
2. Illiterates are more likely to suffer from dementia.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid ?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

S.(23) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
If the H5N1 variant of avian flu has evolved to be transmitted between mammals, there is a
rare possibility of another evolutionary jump resulting in human transmission and
outbreaks. The recent findings of transmission of H5N1 between mammals thus raise
concerns on the potential for H5N1 to cause a pandemic in humans if it were to spill over
and become transmissible among humans.

23. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. Since transmission of H5NI between mammals is feasible, it could be
transmissible among humans as well.
2. Avian flu will not impact vegetarians.

12
 Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

24. What will be the capacity of the largest cylinder which can be cut out from a metallic cube of
edge 14 cm ?
(a) 2234 cu.cm
(b) 2352 cu.cm
(c) 2478 cu.cm
(d) 2156 cu.cm
SOLUTION : :
Radius of cylinder 14/2 = 7 cm
Height of cylinder = 14 cm
.. Required volume = πг²h
= (22/7) X 7 X 7 X 14 = 2156 cu.cm.

25. Ramesh divides Rs 16800 into two parts and invested in two simple interest schemes. After
2 years he got a total sum of Rs 19000. If the rate of interest is 6% and 8% pa respectively,
what is the amount he invested in 8% scheme?
(a) 3200
(b) 4600
(c) 5200
(d) 6400
SOLUTION : :
Sum lent at 8% rate of interest = Rs x
S.I. = 19000-16800 = 2200
(16800 − 𝑥) × 6 × 2 𝑥 × 8 × 2
+ = 2200
100 100
⇒ 201600 – 12x+16x = 220000
⇒ 4x = 18400
⇒x=4600
Amount invested on 8% = 4600.

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26. In a survey of 1280 people, 35% don’t like android phone and 45% don’t like apple phone. If
20% people don’t like both phones, what is number of people who like both phones?
(a) 128
(b) 256
(c) 512
(d) 634
SOLUTION : :
n(A)= 35, n(B)= 45, n(A B) = 20

n(A B) = n(A) + n(B) - n(A B)

= 35 + 40 – 20 = 60% (Who do not like at least one of the phones)

Percentage of people who like both phones = 40%
Number of people = (40/100) x 1280 = 512

Directions for Questions 27: Study the following information given below to answer this
questions.
Six books P, Q, R, S, T and U which are having different number of pages is kept on a table.
R is having more pages than P but less pages than T. P is having more pages than both Q
and S. T is not having highest number of pages. The book with third lowest number of pages
is having 90 pages. (Note the page numbers are in whole numbers only)

27. If T is having 50 pages more than P, How much pages does T have?
(a) 120
(b) 130
(c) 140
(d) 170
SOLUTION :

P = 90. So, T = 90 + 50 = 140

Directions for Questions 28: Study the following information given below to answer this
question.
In the following questions three statements are given and these statements are followed by
two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given three statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read the conclusions and

14
 then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements,
disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows

28. Statements:
All couriers are envelopes
No envelope is a prize
Some prizes are boxes
Conclusions:
I. All couriers being boxes is a possibility
II. No courier is a prize.
SOLUTION :

Directions for Questions 29: Study the following information given below to answer this
question.
In a certain code language
‘fun for men only' is written as 'pa he so xu',
'provide wage to men' is written as 'wr dk nj he',
'men like to work' is written as `he ct fx wr',
' work wage in fun' is written as `dk so sv ct' (All codes are two letter codes only).

29. What is the code for ‘men’ and ‘work’?

(a) he and ct
(b) dk and so
(c) wr and ct
(d) pa and he

15
 S.(30) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
The greatest illustration of British imperial irresponsibility was in response to repeated
famines and disease epidemics during the second half of the nineteenth century and the
first half of the twentieth century. A monsoon failure would would lead to drought and
hunger one year and then to severe malaria epidemic the next when the rains reappeared
and a burst of mosquito abundance afflicted a weakened population.
British infrastructure building - dams, irrigation channels, roads- exacerbated India’s
vulnerability to malaria by multiplying the breeding sites of the anopheles mosquitoes in
proximity to human settlements. The British cannot be blamed for monsoon failures, or their
increasing number of breeding sites. Britain’s failure was its response to famine. The British
repeatedly failed to organize food relief and other social services in the face of mass suffering.

30. Which of the statement best reflects the gist of the above passage?
(a) British imperialism was the chief cause of famines in India.
(b) British infrastructure building exacerbated India’s vulnerability to malaria.
(c) British repeatedly failed to organize food and relief and other social services if the face of
mass suffering.
(d) British rule was apathetic to the repeated famines and disease epidemics in India.

S.(31-32) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Sporadically, but surely, palaeontologists report intriguing discoveries from India. In
January, a team discovered 92 dinosaur nesting sites with 256 fossilised eggs of the
titanosaurus — among the largest of its kind, from 100-66 million years ago, when ‘India’
was a continent and yet to merge into the Eurasian land mass. Similarly, the deserts of
Kutch, Gujarat and the Deccan traps in Maharashtra bear witness to the forces that shaped
the diverse geography, and tangentially history, of the most populous country. Unlike the
quest to preserve cultural history and man-made artefacts from archaeology, there has been
limited effort to preserve and communicate at large this natural ‘geo-history’ such as rock
formations, sediment and fossils.
For decades now, researchers have been warning that this neglect is leading to an erasure
of this history from the public mind and a destruction as well as appropriation of this natural
wealth. To that end, the draft Geo-heritage Sites and Geo-relics (Preservation and

16
 Maintenance) Bill, 2022, piloted by the Ministry of Mines, is seen as a step to give the process
of such conservation firmer footing. The Bill’s provisions give the Director General of the
Geological Survey of India (GSI), a subordinate body of the Ministry of Mines, the power to
declare sites as having ‘geo-heritage’ value, take possession of relics (fossils, rocks) that rest
in private hands, prohibit construction 100 metres around such a site, penalise — with fines
of up to ₹5 lakh and possibly imprisonment — vandalism, defacement, and violations of
directives by the Director General of the GSI.

31. Which statement below best reflects the central message of the above passage?
(a) Director General of GSI have the power to declare sites as having ‘geo-heritage’ value.
(b) There has been limited effort by people and government to preserve geo history unlike
cultural and other histories.
(c) The Draft Geo-Heritage Sites and Geo- relics will not be of much use.
(d) The Draft Geo - heritage Sites and Geo-relics is in the right direction
towards preservation of ‘geo - history like preservation of other historical domains.

32. The following assumptions have been drawn from the above passage:
1. Vesting of powers in the GSI alone my impede palaeontological research by Universities
of national importance.
2. This bill may lead to conflict over questions of preservation and livelihood given the
premium for land and India’s economic needs.
3. A more inclusive body, on the lines of a National Geoheritage Authority, that can, more
democratically, decide on declaring sites as being of ‘geohistorical’ importance and how
best to preserve artefacts and finds would be a better alternate than giving the authority
to GSI
Which of the above assumption(s) is/are valid?
(a) All of the above.
(b) 1 and 2 only.
(c) 2 and 3 only.
(d) None of the above.

33. A water truck has some litres of water and it takes two hours to fill a syntax tank. Due to
leakage, it takes 20 minutes more than the exact time to fill the tank. How much time it takes
for the water to drain completely out of the tank?
(a) 8 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 14 hours
(d) 16 hours

17
 SOLUTION : :
20 mins = 1/3 hours more. So 2(1/3) hours = 7/3
Time to drain out = (1/2) – (3/7) = 1/14
So it takes 14 hours to drain out completely

34. What number ‘a’ is subtracted from of 18,30 and 54 so that the remainders after subtraction
continues to be in proportion?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
SOLUTION : :
Given, (30 - a)² = (18 - a) (54 - a)
⇒900 + a² - 60a = 972 – 54a – 18a + a²
⇒900 – 60a = 972 – 72a
⇒ 12a = 72
⇒ a = 72/ 12 = 6

35. A passenger pays Rs 2842 for 256 kilometres journey. For first 6 kilometres the bus fare is
‘N’ rupees and Rs 11 per kilometre thereafter. What is the value of N?
(a) 74
(b) 86
(c) 92
(d) 108
SOLUTION : :
N + (250 x 11) = 2842
N = 2842 – 2750 = 92

Directions for Questions 36: Study the following information given below to answer this
question.
36. How many bricks are touching only three other bricks?

18
 (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) None of the above
SOLUTION :
Brick C is touching 3 bricks

S.(37-38) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Administrators sitting in or appointed from Delhi hardly comprehend what can and cannot
work in such a landscape. Ladakh is already groaning under infrastructure development,
intense armed forces presence, and excessive tourism. Since Ladakh became a UT, there is
even more focus on an exploitative ‘development’ path. There is enormous commercial
interest for mining, tourism, hydropower, and other natural resources. The UT
administration has been inviting investments in the region, and India’s biggest corporations
are showing interest. A new airport is under construction, and road construction, including
into the relatively unexploited Zanskar region, has been ramped up. Ladakh already faces
serious problems of landslides, erosion, solid waste and effluents, disturbance to wildlife,
and cordoning off common lands for development projects. In the name of a ‘carbon-neutral’
Ladakh, mega-solar projects are in the offing; the 2023 Budget has allocated ₹20,000 crore
for solar power evacuation and grid integration from a project of 13GW in the ecologically
fragile Changthang region.

37. Which of the following statements have exacerbated the challenges being faced by the people
in the Union Territory (UT) of Ladakh?
1. The focus on exploitative development.
2. The local population of Ladakh
3. The Administrators of the UT.

19
 4. Excessive Tourism.
5. Ladakh becoming an UT.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) All of the above.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only.
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only.
(d) None of the above

38. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. Once Ladakh becomes a State the challenges being presently faced could be
addressed more effectively.
2. The challenges in Ladakh can be alleviated if it is placed under the Sixth Schedule of
the Constitution.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

39. The product of first three consecutive odd number of a number series is 9177 and the product
of first and third number is 437. What is seven times the second number of the series?
(a) 133
(b) 147
(c) 161
(d) 175
SOLUTION : :
Let the number be (x-2), x, (x+2)
Product of first and third number is 437
= (x-2) (x+2) = 437
x² - 4 = 437
x² = 437 + 4 = 441
⇒x= ± 21
The numbers are 19,21 and 23.
7 times second number = 7 x 21 = 147

40. A box contains 10 black clips and 6 red clips. What is the probability if two clips which are
drawn at random are of the same colour?

20
 (a) 2/5
(b) 1/3
(c) 1/2
(d) 3/5
SOLUTION : :
Total number of clips = 16
Probability that they are same colour is
10𝐶2 6𝐶2
= +
16𝐶2 16𝐶2
10×9 6×5
= +
16×15 16×15
90+30 120 1
= = =
240 240 2

41. Siddhu was given a 2-digit number in which the unit digit is equal to the square of the ten’s
digit. What is 90% of the number if the difference between the number obtained by reversing
the digits and original number is 18?
(a) 9.6
(b) 14.2
(c) 16.8
(d) 21.6
SOLUTION : :
Let the number be 10x + x2,
According to the question,
10x² + x - 10x - x² =18
9(x²-x) = 18
x² - x = 2
x² - x - 2 = 0
x = 2 or x = -1
The number is 24
90% of 24 = 24 X 40/100 = 21.6

Directions for Questions 42-45: Study the following information given below to answer these
questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven travellers who have planned to go on a tour to four different
countries viz Greece, Italy, New Zealand and Maldives on different days from Monday to
Sunday but not necessarily in the same order. One traveller goes to only one country in each
day. There are two travellers who goes to Greece, Italy, Maldives and traveller goes to New
Zealand. A travel on Thursday. There are two persons travelling between A and a person who
goes to Maldives. Three persons are travelling between the person who is travelling to Greece
and the person who goes to New Zealand. One person who is going to Greece is travelling

21
 before the person who is going to New Zealand. The one who is going to New Zealand does
not travel on Saturday. The number of persons who travel between A and one who goes to
New Zealand is same as the number of persons between D and the one who is going to Italy.
The one who is going to Italy travels before D. D does not go to Maldives. F travels immediately
the day in which A travels. D does not travel on the day just after the day in which A is
travelling. The number of people who is travelling between A and E is the same number of
people who travels between A and G. E travels on one of the days before G is travelling. C
travels to Greece and G does not go to Italy.

42. Who all are travelling Maldives?

(a) B and F
(b) B and G
(c) C and D
(d) G and A

43. Who is the only person who travels to New Zealand?

(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F

44. Which of the following combinations of ‘Person – Day’ is true with respect to the given
arrangement?
(a) A - Monday
(b) C – Tuesday
(c) G – Saturday
(d) F – Sunday

45. E and A are travelling to which country?

(a) Greece
(b) Italy
(c) Maldives
(d) New Zealand
SOLUTION :

22
 S.(46) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
How does one coax an aggrieved yet disarmed, heterogeneous and divided populace to wage
an assault on a powerful empire? On 18 Jan 1930 Tagore called at the ashram and asked
Gandhi about his strategy. “I am furiously thinking night and day”. In the middle
of February his famous search ended: the intuition came to him like a flash that the assault
should be over salt. Salt? By taxing the manufacture of and sale of salt, the government
was injuring even starving millions, the sick, the maimed and the utterly helpless.

46. Which of the following statements reflect the gist of the above passage?
(a) Tagore motivated Gandhi to come up with idea to use salt as an assault
weapon against the British Empire.
(b) Gandhi after deep contemplation realized that salt, salt tax being a burden on all
Indians even the sick and poor, could be utilized to counter the might of the British
empire.
(c) Gandhi used the salt march to start the civil disobedience movement.
(d) Gandhi rightly appreciated that he could unite the heterogeneous and divided people
with direct action against the salt tax.

S.(47) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
I heard several speakers…. saying what a dire calamity it would be if India was fired with
the spirit of lawlessness, rebellion, terrorism and so on.… As a schoolboy I had to pass a

23
 paper in history also, and I read that the page of history is soiled red with the blood of those
people who have fought for freedom.
The dagger of the assassin, the poison bowl, the bullet of the rifleman, the spear and all
these weapons and methods of destruction have been up to now and used by what I consider
blind lovers of liberty and freedom and the historian has not condemned (them ) ….
The Congress then comes upon the scene and devises a new method not known to history,
namely, that of civil disobedience … But I am told that no Government in the world
will tolerate … No government may tolerate civil disobedience, but governments have
to succumb even to these forces…..
A nation of 350 million people does not need the dagger of the assassin, it does not need the
poison bowl , it does not need the sword, the spear or the bullet. It simply needs a will of its
own, an ability to say ‘No’ and that nation is today learning to say ‘No’…..
(Gandhi on 1 December 1931 to Britain's Leaders)

47. Which of the following statements best reflects the central message which Gandhi wanted
to covey to the Britain’s leaders ?
(a) No government can stand the power of civil disobedience combined with non violence of
the people.
(b) No government can stand against the will of the people who have decided to stand
up against a government.
(c) A strong will of the people tempered with non violence can never be thwarted by
any government though novel it may be.
(d) Where this a will there is a way.

48. Two train T1 and T2 has a total length of 620 metres. The ratio of speed in which both trains
travel is 2 : 3 and the ratio of time taken for them to cross a lamppost is 5 :7. Which is the
lengthier train and what is the length of it?
(a) T1 420 metres
(b) T2 560 metres
(c) T1 560 metres
(d) T2 420 metres
SOLUTION : :
Ratio of Speed = 2 : 3
Ratio of Time = 5 : 7
Ratio of length = Speed x Time = 2 x 5 : 3 x 7 = 10 : 21
Train T1 length = (10/31) x 620 = 200
Train T2 length = 620 – 200 = 420 metres (lengthier train)

24
49. The marked price of an iPhone charger is Rs 1200 more than its cost price. When a discount
of Rs 300 is given, the profit earned is 25%. What can be the selling price of the charger if it
is to be sold at 40% profit?
(a) 3070
(b) 4020
(c) 5040
(d) 6080
SOLUTION : :
Let CP be x
Then MP = x + 1200
125
Selling price = x + 1200-300 = 𝑥 ×
100

x + 900 = 5x/4
x = Rs 3600
New selling price = 3600 x (140/100) = Rs 5040
50. Sanju was asked to find out a three-digit number with the following conditions given to him.
(i) The tens digit of the number is 3
(ii) Sum of unit digit and 100th digit is 14
(iii) When the digits of unit place and hundred place is interchanged the number thus
formed is 396 more than the original number.
What is the number he got after applying the third condition with the final answer?
(a) 935
(b) 539
(c) 734
(d) 437
SOLUTION : :
Let the units digit be x.
Tens digit = y
Hunderds digit = z
Then, number = 100z + 10y + x
Given that, y = 3 And z + x = 14... (i)
Now,
(100z + 10y + x) - (100x + 10y + z) = 396
99z - 99x = 396
z – x = 4 … (ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
z= 9 and x = 5
Thus, number

25
 = 100 × 5 + 10 x 3 + 9 = 539

51. In the following question given below, an unfolded dice is given and four answer choices are
given in the form of complete dices. You are required to select the correct answer choice(s)
which is/ are formed by folding the unfolded dice.
Unfolded dice :

Answer Choices :

(a) (D)
(b) (C)
(c) (B)
(d) (A)

52. Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

(a) (2)
(b) (3)
(c) (1)
(d) (4)
SOLUTION :
In fig. (X), one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the square only and the
other dot lies in the region common to all the three figures- the circle, the square and the

26
 triangle. In each of the alternatives (1), (2) and (3), there is no region common to the square
and the circle only. Only fig. (4) consists both the types of regions.

S.(53) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
It said that we have delayed action on climate change for so long that removing carbon
dioxide from the atmosphere is now necessary for all pathways to keep global warming under
1.5 degrees Celsius (2.7 F). Beyond that, climate change’s impacts become increasingly
dangerous and unpredictable. Because of its volume and carbon storage potential, the
ocean is really the only arrow in our quiver that has the ability to take up and store carbon
at the scale and urgency required.
The ocean twilight zone sustains biologic activity in the oceans. It is the “soil” of the ocean
where organic carbon and nutrients accumulate and are recycled by microbes. It is also
home to the largest animal migration on the planet. Each day trillions of fish and other
organisms migrate from the depths to the surface to feed on plankton and one another, and
go back down, acting like a large carbon pump that captures carbon from the surface and
shunts it down into the deep oceans where it is stored away from the atmosphere.

53. The following assumptions have been made based on the above passage:
1. The ocean is essential for everything humans depend on – food, water, shelter, crops,
climate stability.
2. The ocean is the lungs of the planet.
3. Research to explore ways to enhance the ocean’s natural ability to take up more carbon
is of paramount importance
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are not valid ?
(a) All of the above.
(b) 1 and 3 only.
(c) 1 and 2 only.
(d) None of the above.

54. Meera saved 20% of her monthly salary. Her medicine expenses are 25% of her total
expenditure and and her other expenditure without medicine is Rs 4200. What is her monthly
salary?
(a) 6500
(b) 7000
(c) 7500
(d) 8000
SOLUTION : :

27
 Total expenditure except medicine = 4200
Total expenditure = 4200(100/75) = 5600
Since Meera saves 20%, her expenditure is 80%
Total income (100%) = 5600(100/80) =7000

55. Monish consumes 6 apples at brunch and 5 apples at evening. How many dozens of apples
he consumed in a leap year?
(a) 324.2
(b) 337.1
(c) 355.5
(d) 561.7
SOLUTION : :
Total apples = 11
Leap year has 366 days
Dozens of apples = (11/12) x 366 = 355.5 dozens
Directions for Questions 56-57: Study the following information given below to answer these
questions.
Aravind takes a two-wheeler moves 8 meters from Point P in the north direction to reach Point
Q. Then he turns and moves for 10 meters in north-west direction. Then he turns and moves
8 meters in south direction. Then he turns right and moves for 3 meters to reach point R,
which is in west direction with respect to Point Q. Then finally, he turns and moves for 10
meters in south-west direction to reach Point S, which is west direction with respect to Point
P.

56. What is the shortest distance between point P and point S?

(a) 12 meters
(b) 15 meters
(c) 17 meters
(d) 20 meters

57. Point S is in which direction from Point R?

(a) North West
(b) North East
(c) South East
(d) South West
SOLUTION :

28
 S.(58-59) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Ubiquitous discrimination strikes a blow at the very core of academic culture where the
teaching community is directed to submit to governing bodies, which in turn are answerable
to an overbearing patron seemingly lacking a broad progressive policy that encourages
debate and disagreement. The conflict apparently is between viewing a university as a seat
of diversity and learning and a seat of conformity and indoctrination.

58. What is the tone of the above passage?

(a) Critical
(b) Persuasive
(c) Offensive
(d) Laudatory

59. Which of the following statements best reflects the gist of the above passage ?
(a) Universities today suffer from regressive directions discouraging debate,
disagreement and diversity.
(b) The conflict in Universities is ideological between progress and maintaining the
status quo.
(c) The conflict today is between viewing a university as a seat of learning and seat of
diversity.
(d) University patrons do not encourage debate and disagreement.

29
 S.(60-61) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
'How far would you cut India off from the Empire?’ he was asked. ‘From the Empire entirely,’
Gandhi answered ‘from the British nation not at all. To Eton students he said: ‘It can be no
pride to you that your nation is ruling over ours. No one chained a slave without chaining
himself’. Courageously but clearly he indicated that it the Round Table Conference (of 1931)
failed the Congress would have to resume disobedience.

60. Which of the following best reflects the meaning of the quote “ No one chained a slave
without chaining himself” from the above passage?
(a) One who enslaves others is not human enough.
(b) One who is chained to someone is also in chains and not free.
(c) Slavery is anathema to human dignity.
(d) He is not completely free who keeps others away from freedom.
61. What is Mahatma Gandhi’s tone in the above passage?
(a) Cautionary
(b) Conciliatory
(c) Courteous
(d) Cunning

Directions for Questions 62 to 65: Study the following information given below to answer
these questions.
Study the bar graph and answer the questions that follows.
The chart gives the details about the sales of two types of shoes by two shops P and Q in five
days

30
62. The total number of shoes sold by P and Q together on Wednesday in what percentage more
than the number of shoes sold by P and Q together on Tuesday?
𝟐
(a) 𝟏𝟔 %
𝟑
1
(b) 14 %
3
1
(c) 13 %
2
1
(d) 11 %
3

SOLUTION : :
Required % more
(48+64)−(60+36)
= (60+36)
x 100
112−96
= x 100
96

= 50/3
2
= 16 %
3

63. If the number of shoes sold on Friday by P is increased to 25% then what will be the average
number of shoes sold on Monday, Wednesday and Friday by P?
(a) 55
(b) 60
(c) 65
(d) 70

31
 SOLUTION : :
Required average
125
56 × ( ) + 46 + 64
100
3
= (70 + 46 + 64)/3 = 60

64. How many shoes are sold by P and Q together on Saturday if the number of shoes sold on
Saturday is 7% more than the number of shoes sold by P and Q on Thursday?
(a) 112
(b) 117
(c) 120
(d) 123
SOLUTION : :
Number of shoes sold on Saturday by P and Q together
= (60 + 52)x 107/100
= 112 x 1.07
= 119.84 = 120(approximately)

65. What is the difference between the number of Shoes sold on Monday and Wednesday by Q to
the total number of shoes sold on Friday by both P and Q together?
(a) 7
(b) 14
(c) 21
(d) 28
SOLUTION : :
Required difference = (56 + 40) – (34 + 48) = 96 – 82 = 14
66. What comes in the place of question mark?

(a) 48 and 6
(b) 56 and 4
(c) 64 and 3
(d) 72 and 2
SOLUTION :

32
 14/7 + 8 = 2 + 8 = 10
64/8 + 9 = 8 + 9 = 17
27/3 + 3 = 9 + 3 = 12

S.(67-68) Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the following passage and
answer the items that follow. Your answer to the items should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
'What cannot two nations do, one a handful, but brave, with a record for bravery perhaps
unequalled, a nation noted for having fought slavery, a nation that has at least claimed times
without number to protect the weak; and another a very ancient nation, counted in millions,
with a glorious and ancient past, representing at the present moment two great cultures,
the Islamic and Hindu cultures. And supposing that God fires both Hindus and
Mussalmans represented here with a proper spirit, so that they close ranks and come to
an honourable understanding'. (Gandhi at the Round Table Conference in London ,1931)

67. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. The Hindus and Muslims of India where not united at the Round Table Conference
in London in 1931.
2. Mahatma Gandhi’s desire sounded in the latter portion was in vain.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Which of the following statements are false based on Mahatma Gandhi’s quote reproduced
in the passage above ?
1. India was an ancient and brave nation.
2. The two nations referred are India and Pakistan.
3. British Empire represented Hindu and Islamic cultures.
4. Mahatma Gandhi hoped Britain and India could achieve a lot working together.
5. India has fought against slavery.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
(a) All of the above.
(b) 1, 3 and 5 only.

33
 (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

S.(69) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
Social media has contributed greatly to mobilising people into action and amplifying voices.
Thanks to social media tools, the demands of protesters are well coordinated and their
chants reverberate across geographies. The visual nature of the medium, which makes the
task of eliciting support and sharing evidence of disasters and injustice, has made the job
of reporting simpler.
However, there are problems too. Uniform narratives such as these can tend to paint
everyone with the same brush. It is also hard sometimes to figure out when respondents are
mixing fact with fiction. For a reporter, the challenge now is to pay attention to the larger
narrative while also looking for individual stories and varied experiences.

69. Based on the above passage above following assumptions have been made:
1. Social media helps increase the reach of voices that would have otherwise muffled.
2. Social media is both a bane and a blessing.
3. Social media makes it difficult to separate the chaff from the wheat.
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are valid ?
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
70. Some people had some snacks in coffee shop and the bill amount was Rs 72. All of them
decided to contribute equally for the bill. If three people did not have any money with them,
each person must contribute Rs 4 more. The number of people initially were?
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 15
SOLUTION : :
72 72
= −4
𝑥 (𝑥 − 3)

34
 72 72 − 4𝑥 + 12
=
𝑥 𝑥−3
72x – 216 = 72x – 4x2 +12x
x2 - 3x- 54 = 0
Solving we get x = 9 or -6 So x = 9

71. Five girls are travelling by a train for an historical tour. After two stations, one of them, named
Shanthi, gets down from the train to have a cup of tea. After five more stations all of them get
down to take a stroll on the platform. Later, after three more stations, another girl, Sudheepa,
gets down to fill up her water bottle. Lastly, after passing seven more stations all of them get
down from the train having completed their journey. How many stations are totally there in
the trip?
(a) 17
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 22
SOLUTION : :
Number of stations including first and last stations = 1 + 2 + 1 + 5 + 1 + 3 + 1 + 7 + 1 = 22

72. Hussain and Naveen are running around a circular track and they take seven minutes and
fourteen minutes to complete one round respectively. They take a simultaneous start from
the starting point. During the first 30 minutes, how many times Hussain crossed Naveen on
the track?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
SOLUTION : :
LCM of 7 and 14 is 14.
In 30 minutes, Hussain will cross Naveen 2 times
73. In following question, choose the correct water-image of the Figure (X) from amongst the four
alternatives (A), (B), (C) and (D) given along with it.
Question Figure :

Answer Figure :

35
 (a) (B)
(b) (A)
(c) (D)
(d) (C)

S.(74) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 1
Amit Jatav, who currently works in a marketing start-up in Mumbai, is a Dalit man from
Rajasthan’s Karauli district. He graduated with a B.Tech degree from IIT Delhi in 2022.
“When I reached IIT, I thought my life was set, but what I faced was something I never
imagined. My confidence dropped, and I faced the same discrimination that Darshan faced;
the only difference was that I didn’t end up taking my life,” he said, adding that daily slurs
like ‘freeloader’ were thrown at him regularly. This, despite the fact that all education at IIT
is subsidised, even for general category students. For Mr. Jatav, who said it was the first
time he had come out of Rajasthan, there was no safe space where his complaints would be
understood or acted upon.

74. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. Casteism is active and alive in higher educational institutions.
2. All students at IITs are ‘freeloaders' as studies are subsidized.
3. Discriminations do lead to suicides.
4. Apart from IQ the need of high EQ to succeed in life
Which of the above assumption(s) is/ are not valid ?
(a) All of the above
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) None of the above

S.(75) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 2
While its decision to reject unilateral western sanctions on Russia and increase trade in fuel
and fertilizers with Moscow can be explained by its desire for independent decision making,
it is becoming increasingly hard for New Delhi to hold that abstaining from voting at the
multilateral stage is a principled stand. It has become very clear that this is indeed a Russian

36
 invasion of its smaller, sovereign neighbour, one that has not been halted despite Russia
gaining its initially announced strategic goals. Prime Minister Modi’s celebrated statement
that “this era is not of war” has not been heeded by President Putin, and it is unclear if
Ukraine sees India as an unbiased mediator. India has proven over decades that it will not
vote under duress, yet the global and regional leadership that New Delhi claims cannot come
from appearing diffident over basic principles of sovereignty and territorial integrity.

75. Which of the following statements best reflects the dilemma being faced by India in the
international arena based on the above passage?
(a) Pressure of remaining friends with both Russia and Ukraine and at the same time
as a world leader standing up for basic principles of international relationships.
(b) Running with the foxes and hunting with the hounds.
(c) Prime Minister Modi’s celebrated statement that “this era is not of war” has not been
heeded by President Putin, and it is unclear if Ukraine sees India as an unbiased
mediator.
(d) India’s decision to reject unilateral western sanctions on Russia and increase trade in
fuel and fertilizers with Moscow is to maintain its desire for independent decision
making,

S.(76) Direction for the following 1 (one) item: Read the following passage and answer the
item that follows. Your answer to the item should be based on the passage only.
PASSAGE 3
India’s 'Over The Top' regulatory model seeks to be an efficacious combination of self-
regulation and legal backing. This is in line with the global trend. The I&B Ministry envisaged
that India’s OTT regulations “would raise India’s stature at an international level and serve
as a model for other nations to emulate.” The above initiatives towards enhancing media
literacy and transparency will help in furthering this objective, realise the efficacy of ‘self-
regulation’ and empower millions of OTT consumers.
76. Based on the above passage the following assumptions have been made:
1. India’s OTT regulatory model is an efficacious combination of self regulation and legal
backing.
2. Indias OTT regulation is against freedom of expression within limits.
3. Indias OTT has empowered millions of OTT consumers.
Which of the above assumption(s) is / are valid:
(a) All of the above

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 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None of the above

77. 600 students from a school planned to build a library and they came forward to contribute
fund for building it. The amount contributed by each boy and girl was equal to their respective
total numbers in their school. The government came forward and promised to give some
additional amount which is equal to the amount contributed by the students. If the ratio of
boys and girls in the school is 7 : 3, what is the fund which is available totally now?
(a) Rs 235100
(b) Rs 345900
(c) Rs 417600
(d) Rs 592400
SOLUTION : :
Total number of students = 600
Boys : Girls = 7 : 3
Boys = 420 and Girls = 180.
According to the data given in the question,
[(420 x 420) + (180 x 180)] x 2 = Rs 417600

78. A parliamentary committee needs to elect president and vice president among the 20
members present in it. How many different outcomes of the election is possible?
(a) 200
(b) 280
(c) 300
(d) 380
SOLUTION : :
Required possibility = 20C1 x 19C1 = 20 x 19 = 380
79. Inside a rectangular piece of land, the single largest circular area is converted into an
agricultural field and half of the area of the field is used for the cultivation of paddy. If the
breadth of the rectangular land is 154 metres, what is the area of the part of the field which
is used for the cultivation of paddy?
(a) 8421 m2
(b) 9317m2
(c) 10523m2

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 (d) 11257m2
SOLUTION : :

Radius of the circular field = 154/2 =77

1
Area of paddy field = 𝜋𝑟 2
2
1 22
= × × 77 × 77
2 7

= 9317m2

80. What comes in the place of question mark?

6, 8, 10, 42, ?, 770
(a) 137
(b) 148
(c) 152
(d) 163
SOLUTION :
6x1+1x2=6+2=8
8 x 2 - 2 x 3 = 16 - 6 = 10
10 x 3 + 3 x 4 = 30 + 12 = 42
42 x 4 - 4 x 5 = 168 - 20 = 148
148 x 5 + 5 x 6 = 740 + 30 = 770

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