18/01/2023 RM-G2

CODE-B

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 3 hrs. 20 min

(for NEET-2023)
Test 8
Topics covered :

Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic induction.

Chemistry : Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers; Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids; Amines (Organic

Compound containing Nitrogen).

Botany : Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production, Microbes in Human Welfare.

Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction.

Instructions :

(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from

Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.

(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.

Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.

(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.

(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.

(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.

(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.

(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material

on the Answer sheet.

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 4. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of and
1. The dimensional formula of magnetic field is shows full scale deflection for a current of
2 4 mA. The value of shunt required to convert it
(1) [MLT A 1] (2) [MT 2 A 1]
into an ammeter of 6 A is nearly
(3) [ML2T 2 A 2] (4) [MLT 2 A 2]
(1) (2)
2. Current i is flowing in a circular wire of radius R.
The magnetic field at the centre is (3) (4)

j
5. A 100 turns closely wound circular coil of radius
20 cm carries a current of 3.19 A. The magnetic
moment of coil is nearly

a
(1) 10 A m2 (2) 20 A m2

r
(3) 30 A m2 (4) 40 A m2
6. In a moving coil galvanometer, with radial

h
magnetic field, a current i produces deflection
(1) (2)
then

tr
(1) (2)
(3) Zero (4)

3. Four current carrying loops, having same (3) (4)

a
magnitude of dipole moment is placed in a 7. The magnetic field associated with a current

i
uniform magnetic field in four different
carrying thin hollow pipe is
orientations a, b, c and d. Arrange them in the
decreasing order of potential energy (1) Only outside
(2) Only inside
(3) Both inside and outside

@
(4) Neither inside nor outside
8. A proton and an particle enters perpendicular
to uniform magnetic field with same kinetic
energy. The ratio of radius of proton to that of
particle is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
9. An electron accelerated through a potential
difference V passes through a transverse
magnetic field and experiences a magnetic force
F. If accelerating potential is increased to 4V. The
(1) a = c > b > d magnetic force experienced by electron in same
(2) b > d > c = a field is
(3) a > b > d > c (1) F (2) 2F
(4) d > b > c > a (3) 4F (4)

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

10. Two long parallel wires A and B carrying equal
current in same direction, the magnetic force
experienced by A is . Now a third wire C,
carrying same current in opposite direction is
placed parallel to A and B at midpoint. Then net
force acting on A is
14. Curie temperature is the temperature above
which
(1) A paramagnetic substance behave like
diamagnetic
(2) A ferromagnetic substance behave like
diamagnetic
(3) A ferromagnetic substance behave like
paramagnetic
(4) A diamagnetic substance behave like
paramagnetic
15. Real dip at a place is 45°. The value of apparent
dip when the dip circle is inclined at 30° with
magnetic meridian is

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)
11. A current carrying coil (with its plane in Y Z
plane) having magnetic moment M placed in 16. A metallic ring is attached with the wall of a room.
uniform magnetic field The torque acting When the north pole of a magnet is brought near
to it, the induce current in the ring will be (as seen
on coil is from the magnet)
(1) First clockwise then anticlockwise
(2) In clockwise direction
(3) In anticlockwise direction
(4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
17. A coil of resistance is placed in a
magnetic field. If the magnetic flux (Wb) linked

(1) 0 (2) with the coil varies with time t(s) as

The current in the coil at t = 1 s will be
(3) (4)
(1) 1 A (2) 0.25 A
12. (3) 0.5 A (4) 2 A
magnetic field is T. If the same magnet is cut into 18. A coil having area 4 m2 is placed in a magnetic
two equal parts perpendicular to length. Then the field which changes from 3 Wb/m2 to 8 Wb/m2 in
time period of each part in same field is an interval of 4 s. The magnitude of average emf
induced in the coil will be
(1) T (2) 2T
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
(3) (4) (3) 3 V (4) 6 V
19. If a closed coil of metal wire is kept stationary in a
13. Susceptibility of diamagnetic substance is constant non-uniform magnetic field, then
(1) < 0 (1) An emf is induced in the coil
(2) 0 (2) A current is induced in the coil
(3) > 1 (3) Both emf and current is induced

(4) 1 (4) Neither emf nor current is induced

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

20. The magnetic flux linked with area vector in a 26. The unit of mutual inductance may be
uniform magnetic field is (1) volt/ampere (2) joule/ampere

(1) (2) (3) volt-sec/ampere (4) volt-ampere/sec

27. When a charge particle is projected with velocity
(3) (4) A2B v in a region of uniform magnetic field then
charge
21. Three inductors each of inductance 6.0 H are
(1) Must move in circular path
connected as shown below. The equivalent
inductance of the circuit between the point A and (2) Must move in straight line path
B is (3) Must move in helical path
(4) May move in straight line path

28. Dimension of is (where E is electric field

(1) 18 H (2) 2 H
and B is magnetic field)
(3) 6 H (4) Zero
(1) [M0 L T] (2) [M0 L T 1]
22. If a current of 5 A reduces to zero in one second
(3) [M L0 T 1] (4) [M0 L 1 T 1]
in a coil, and the resulting emf induced in the coil
is 10 V, then the self-inductance of the coil is 29. Magnitude of magnetic field at point O due to the
given structure is (ABC is circular arc)
(1) 1 H (2) 4 H
(3) 3 H (4) 2 H
23. Energy stored in a pure inductor of inductance L
when a current i flows through it, is

(1) (2) Li2

(3) (4) 2Li2

24. A conducting rod of length l is moving with (1) (2)

velocity v perpendicular to uniform magnetic field
as shown in the figure. The potential difference
(3) (4)
between two ends of the rod will be
30. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1 m
carries a current of 2 A. It is suspended in mid air
by a uniform perpendicular magnetic field B
as shown in the figure. Then value of B is
(take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 2 T (2) 1.5 T

(1) Blv (2) (3) 1 T (4) 0.5 T
(3) 2Blv (4) Zero 31. A ring of radius R and mass m has charge q
uniformly distributed on it. It rotates with angular
25. The self inductance of a long solenoid cannot be
increased by velocity . The ratio of magnetic moment and
angular momentum is
(1) Increasing the current through it
(2) Changing its length (1) (2)
(3) Changing the number of turn in it
(4) Changing the medium with greater (3) (4)
permeability

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

32. Two identical bar magnet of pole strength m and SECTION-B

length L are joined at 60° as shown. The 36. The area enclosed by a hysteresis loop (B H) is
magnitude of magnetic dipole moment of equal to
combination is
(1) Energy loss per cycle per unit volume
(2) Susceptibility
(3) Retentivity
(4) Permeability
37. A sample of diamagnetic substance when placed
near a permanent bar magnet is
(1) Unaffected
(2) Repelled away
(3) Attracted forwards
(4) Attracted or repelled dependent on size of the
(1) (2) sample

(3) (4) mL 38. A magnet of magnetic moment M is cut into two

equal part along its length. The new magnetic
33. Two similar magnets of magnetic moments M1 moment of each part of the magnet is
and M2 are taken and vibrated in a vibration
magnetometer with their (i) unlike poles together (1) M (2)
and then (ii) like poles together. If the ratio of the
time periods is 3 then ratio of M1 and M2
(3) 2M (4)
is
39. At a place the angle of dip is 60°. If the horizontal
component of earth magnetic field is B0, then the
(1) (2) total field intensity of the earth at that place will
be

(3) 2 (4) (1) B0 (2)

34. A bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment 4 Am2

has poles separated by 0.2 m. The magnitude of (3) 2B0 (4)
pole strength of bar magnet is
(1) 10 A m 40. Flux (in weber) in a closed loop varies with time
t (in s) according to the equation = 3t 2 2t + 4.
(2) 40 A m
The magnitude of emf induced in the coil at
(3) 20 A m t = 2 s will be
(4) 30 A m (1) 6 V (2) 12 V
35. Select the correct statement (where symbol have (3) 0.8 V (4) 10 V
their usual meanings)
41. At magnetic equator (symbols have their usual
(1) meanings)
(1)
(2) may be non-zero for open surface
(2) B = 0
(3) (3) BV = 0
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) BH = BV

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
42. Two solenoids of equal radii have their length in 47. The magnetic susceptibility for paramagnetic
ratio 3 : 2 and their self inductance in ratio 2 : 3, materials depends on temperature as
the ratio of number of turns of the solenoids will
(1) T0
be
(2) T2
(1) 2 : 3
(3) T 1
(2)
(4) T3
(3) 4 : 9
48.
(4) 1 : 1
oppose (choose most appropriate answer)
43. Formation of domains is a characteristics
(1) Magnetic field
property of
(1) Paramagnetic materials (2) Magnetic flux

(2) Ferromagnetic materials (3) Change in magnetic flux

(3) Diamagnetic (4) Existing current

(4) All of these 49. L B0
44. Choose the correct option for given two which is directed perpendicular to its plane with
statements. velocity v, as shown. The magnitude of emf
Statement-A : Inductor is called electrical inertia. induced between points A and C is

Statement-B : Maximum mutual inductance of

two coils is equal to the geometric mean of their
self inductances.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect (1)

(4) A is incorrect but B is correct (2)

45. Choose the correct option for given two
(3)
statements

Statement-A : is zero for any closed (4)

loop. 50. Two long current carrying wires are kept parallel
Statement-B : Magnetic monopoles do not exist. to each other as shown. If current in one of the
wire is decreased, the magnetic field at midpoint
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
P of two wires will
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect but B is correct
46. A bar magnet freely suspended about its centre
will point in the direction of
(1) Increase
(1) Horizontal magnetic field
(2) Decrease
(2) Vertical magnetic field
(3) Net magnetic field (3) Remain same

(4) May point in any direction (4) May increase or decrease

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

54.

51. A(Major), product A is

Product B in above reaction is

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

52. Arrange the following alcohols in increasing order

of their reactivity with Lucas reagent 55. Major product formed in the given reaction is

(I) 1-Butanol (CH3)3C Cl + CH3ONa (Major product)

(II) 2-Butanol (1) (CH3)3C OH (2)

(III) 2-Methyl-2-propanol
(1) (I) < (II) < (III) (2) (III) < (II) < (I)
(3) (4) CH3 O CH3
(3) (II) < (III) < (I) (4) (III) < (I) < (II)
53. Which of the following is correct order of acidic
strength? 56. product, product is

(1) (1)
(2) CH3 CH2 CH2 OH

(3)

(2) (4) CH3CH2CHO

57. Dibenzyl cadmium reacts with acetyl chloride to
produce

(1)
(3)

(2)

(3)
(4)

(4)

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

58. 64. Consider the following reaction

Here A and B respectively are

(1)

Major product B in above reaction is

(2)

(1) (2)
(3)

(4) (3) (4)

59.
reagent?
(1) C2H5NH2 (2) (CH3)3N 65. Which compound does not react with
(3) (C2H5)2NH (4) C6H5NH2 2,4- dinitrophenylhydrazine?
(1) CH3CHO (2) C2H5OH
(3) C6H5COCH3 (4) CH3COCH3
60. 66. Which of the following would undergo Hoffmann
bromamide reaction to give primary amine?
Appropriate reagent for this conversion will be (1) CH3COCl (2) CH3COOCH3
(1) H2/Ni (2) NaBH4 (3) CH3NO2 (4) CH3CONH2

(3) NH2NH2 /KOH (4) Zn/Hg + HCl 67. Product, product is

61. The compound which is most reactive towards
nucleophilic addition reaction is
(1) CH3CHO (2) (CH3)2CO
(1) (2)
(3) (C2H5)2CO (4) HCHO
62. Correct order of basicity in aqueous medium is
(1) Benzenamine > Phenylmethanamine > N-
(3) (4)
Methylaniline
(2) N-Methylaniline > Phenylmethanamine >
Benzenamine
(3) Phenylmethanamine > N-Methylaniline > 68.
Benzenamine
(4) Phenylmethanamine > Benzenamine > N- The product is
Methylaniline
63. Reaction of Aniline with chloroform in alcoholic
(1) (2)
KOH gives
(1) C6H5CN
(2) C6H5 NO2
(3) C6H5NC
(3) (4)
(4) C6H5 ONO
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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

69. Which of the following compounds will give white

(1)
precipitate with bromine water?

(2)
(1) (CH3)3C OH (2)
(3)

(3) (4) (4)

70. The arylamine which undergoes diazotization

most readily is
75. In the given set of reactions

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

D is

71. Rosenmund reduction of benzoyl chloride into (1) CH3 CH2 NH2 (2) CH3 NH2
benzaldehyde is done by using of (3) C6H5 NH2 (4) (C2H5)2NH
(1) DIBAL H / H2O (2) LiAlH4 76. When vapours of a primary alcohol are passed
(3) H2 / Pd BaSO4 (4) CrO2Cl2 / H2O over heated copper at 573 K, the product formed
72. Predict the major product X in the given reaction. is
(1) A ketone (2) An aldehyde
(3) An alkene (4) A carboxylic acid
77. When benzoic anhydride is hydrolysed with water
(1) CH3 CH2 I (2) (CH3)3C I give
(3) (CH3)3C OH (4) (1) Benzaldehyde
(2) Benzoic acid
73. Correct order of increasing boiling point of given (3) Phenyl benzoate
compounds is
(4) Benzophenone
Methoxyethane (I), Propanal (II), Acetone (III)
and Propan-1-ol (IV) 78. Which of the following alcohols can be most
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) IV < III < II < I easily dehydrated?

(3) II < III < IV < I (4) II < I < III < IV (1)
74. Consider the following reaction
(2)

(3)

Major product B is (4)

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

79. Anisole with HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 gives a 84. The oxidation of ethyl alcohol with alkaline
major product, which is KMnO4 followed by hydrolysis is
(1) Acetic acid

(1) (2) (2) Ethane

(3) Acetaldehyde
(4) Acetone
85. Ethyl alcohol gives ethyl chloride on treatment
(3) (4) with
(1) KCl
80. The electrophile involved in Reimer-Tiemann
reaction is (2) Cl2

(1) (2) :CCl2 (3) NaCl

(4) SOCl2
(3) (4)
SECTION-B
81. In the following reaction
86. The correct order of boiling point of isomeric 1°,
2°, 3° alcohol is
The major product A is
(1) 1° > 2° > 3° (2) 2° > 1° > 3°
(3) 2° > 3° > 1° (4) 3° > 2° > 1°
(1)
87.

(2) Identify R and A.

(1) and HCHO

(3)
(2) and 2 2

(4) (3) and HCOOH

82. Which of the following cannot be obtained as
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct

(1) CH4 (2) C2H4 88. Ethyl alcohol is soluble in water due to
(3) C2H6 (4) C2H2 (1) Acidic nature
83. An alkene gives two moles of HCHO, one mole of
(2) Basic nature
CO2 and one mole of CH3COCHO on ozonolysis.
What is its structure? (3) Formation of hydrogen bond
(4) Dissociation of water

(1) 89. Which of the following is not true with heated

(2) CH2=C=CH CH2 CH3 copper at 300°C?
(3) (1) Secondary alcohol Ketone
(2) Tertiary alcohol Olefin

(3) Phenol Benzyl alcohol

(4) (4) Primary alcohol Aldehyde

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

93. Most basic compound among the following is

90.

(1) (2)
The product(s) in the above reaction is

(1)

(3) (4)

(2)
94. Consider the following reaction

(3)

Major product B is

(4)
(1) (2)

91. The strongest acid among the following is

(3) (4)
(1) (2)

95. The compound which cannot be synthesised by

Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is

(3) (4) (1)

92. Consider the following reaction

(2)

Product p is

(1)
(3)
(2)

(3)
(4)
(4)

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023

96. Consider the following reaction 99. Consider the following reaction

Product B is

(1)

(2) Major product P is

(1)
(3)

(2)
(4)

97. Consider the following reaction (3)

(4)

Major product B is
100. In the given reaction scheme major product (C) is

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

98. Major product (P) of the given reaction is (1)

P (Major)

(2)

(1)

(2) (3)

(3)

(4)

(4)

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

BOTANY

SECTION-A 108. Identify the wrong match.

101. Choose the wrongly matched pair. (1) Pusa snowball K-1 Resistant to black rot
(1) Sonalika Biofortified wheat (2) Sonora 64 Mexican wheat

(2) Jaya Semi-dwarf rice variety (3) Himgiri Resistant to white rust
only
(3) Saccharum barberi Had poor sugar
(4) Pusa sem 2 Resistant to aphids
content
109. Consider the following statements (A C) and
(4) norin -10 Dwarfing gene of
select the correct option stating which ones are
wheat true (T) and which ones are false (F).
102. All of the given plants are varieties either A. Milk is more nutritious than curd.
resistant to some viral or bacterial pathogens,
B. Acetobacter aceti is a source of acetic acid.
except
C. Yeast is commercially used in production of
(1) Pusa Sawani (2) Pusa Sadabahar lipases and pectinases.
(3) Parbhani Kranti (4) Pusa Komal A B C
103. Maize varieties with low nitrogen, sugar and high (1) F T T
aspartic acid show resistance against. (2) T F F
(1) Jassid (2) Aphids (3) F T F
(3) Stem borers (4) Beetles (4) F F F
104. Wheat variety Atlas 66 has high 110. Out of the given alcoholic beverages which
contains maximum concentration of alcohol?
(1) Protein content (2) Fat content
(1) Whisky (2) Wine
(3) Vitamin content (4) Oil content
(3) Gin (4) Vodka
105. Single cell protein is obtained from
111. Large holed swiss cheese is ripened with the
(a) Yeast (b) Mushroom help of a
(c) Cyanobacteria (d) Viruses (1) Fungus (2) Virus
(e) Mycoplasma (3) Protist (4) Bacterium
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (d) 112. , a beetle with red and black markings, is
(3) (a), (d) and (e) (4) (b), (d) and (e) useful in controlling .

106. IARI, New Delhi has developed many vitamin A Select the correct option to complete the above
rich vegetables such as statement.
(a) Carrot (b) Pea (1) A Ladybird, B aphids
(c) Pumpkin (d) Spinach (2) A Ladybird, B mosquitoes

(1) (a), (b) and (c) (3) A Dragonfly, B aphids

(4) A Dragonfly, B mosquitoes
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
113. The greater the BOD of waste water,
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(1) Lesser the amount of organic matter
(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) More is its polluting potential
107. Solid stem in wheat lead to non preference by the
(3) More the number of anaerobic bacteria are
(1) Stem saw fly (2) Aphid required to reduce BOD
(3) Jassid (4) Fruit borer (4) More it is suitable for drinking

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
114. Which of the given statements is/are true w.r.t. 119. Match the column I with column II w.r.t. bioactive
antibiotics? molecules and their applications and select the
correct option.
a. The first antibiotic streptomycin was
Column I Column II
discovered by Alexander Fleming.
a. Cyclosporin A (i) Degrade starch
b. Antibiotics have greatly improved our
b. Statins (ii) Blood cholesterol
capacity to treat deadly diseases.
lowering agent
c. Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the
c. Streptokinase (iii) Immunosuppressive
Nobel prize in 1945 for discovery of antibiotic. agent
(1) a only (2) b and c only d. Amylase (iv) Clot buster
(3) a and c only (4) All a, b and c (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
115. How many among the following is/are main (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
source of biofertilisers? 120. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. microbes and
their commercial products.
Bacteria, fungi, cyanobacteria, viruses
(1) Aspergillus niger Gluconic acid
(1) 1 (2) 2 (2) Lactobacillus Lactic acid

(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) Penicillium Citric acid

116. Identify the parts labelled A, B and C.
A B
(4) Clostridium butylicum Butyric acid
121. In biogas, the maximum amount is of
(1) CH4 (2) CO2
(3) H2S (4) H2
122. Ganga action plan (1985) and Yamuna Action
plan was initiated by
(1) The Ministry of Environment and Forest
(2) The Ministry of Agriculture and Co-operation
(3) The Ministry of Rural Development
(4) The Ministry of Health and Medicine
C 123. Baculoviruses

(1) Gas H2S Sludge (1) Are species non-specific

(2) Are broad spectrum insecticides
(2) Gas O2 Digester
(3) Have no negative impacts on plants
(3) Gas holder H2S Sludge (4) Are parasites on fungi
(4) Gas H2 Digester 124. The entire collection of diverse alleles for all
genes, of a given crop is called
117. Statins are competitive inhibitor of
(1) Selection of parents
(1) HMG CoA reductase (2) Amylase
(2) Germplasm collection
(3) Streptokinase (4) Pectinase
(3) Cross hybridisation
118. Which of the following is a traditional drink of (4) Commercialisation of new cultivars
some parts of South India and is made by
125. Agriculture accounts for approximately _____ per
fermenting sap from palm?
(1) Tempeh (2) Sofu (1) 33 (2) 62
(3) Tofu (4) Toddy (3) 45 (4) 94

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

126. Select the incorrectly matched pair 134. 2, 4-D is

(1) Lerma Rojo-64 Mexican wheat (1) A cytokinin
(2) Pusa Lerma Improved wheat variety (2) Used for surface sterilisation
(3) Dee-geo-woo-gen Gene for dwarfing in (3) A growth regulator required in tissue culture
rice medium
(4) Kalyan sona Semi-dwarf variety of (4) Responsible for shoot regeneration from
millets callus
127. Saccharum officinarum
135. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Is normally grown in North India correct option
(2) Has low sugar content Column I Column II
(3) Does not grow well at low temperature (Resistant Variety) (Crop)
(4) Has thin stem a. Himgiri (i) Cowpea
128. Which of the following is not a lysine-rich variety b. Pusa Swarnim (ii) Wheat
of maize?
c. Pusa Komal (iii) Brassica
(1) Protina (2) Shakti
d. Pusa Sadabahar (iv) Chilli
(3) Ratna (4) Rattan
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
129. How many of the following is/are calcium and iron
enriched crops developed by IARI New Delhi? (3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
SECTION-B
Carrot, Bathua, Spinach, Garden peas
136. The capacity to generate whole plant from any
(1) One (2) Two cell/explant is called
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Somatic hybridisation
130. All of the following plant diseases are caused by (2) Green revolution
fungi, except
(3) Totipotency
(1) Brown rust of wheat
(4) Somaclonal variation
(2) Black rot of crucifers
137. When a protoplast of tomato is fused with that of
(3) Red rot of sugarcane
potato, it forms
(4) Late blight of potato
(1) An intraspecific somatic hybrid
131. A mustard variety resistant to aphids is
(2) A crop used as green manure
(1) Pusa Shubhra (2) Pusa Sawani
(3) A crop used for production of alcohol
(3) Pusa A-4 (4) Pusa Gaurav
(4) An intergeneric somatic hybrid
132. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in mung bean
was developed by 138. Development of pathogen (virus) free plants is
(1) Mutation breeding possible through

(2) Plant tissue culture (1) Haploid culture (2) Embryo culture

(3) Conventional breeding (3) Meristem culture (4) Pollen grain culture
(4) Genetic engineering 139. To produce somatic hybrids, which of the
following steps is not required?
133. A prokaryotic micro-organism used as biocontrol
agent is (1) Isolation of single cells from plants
(1) Yeast (2) Treatment of plant cells with DNase and
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis lipases
(3) Dragonflies (3) Isolation of naked protoplasts
(4) Ladybird (4) Fusion of protoplasts

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
140. Trichoderma 146. Breeding of crops for higher levels of vitamins
(1) Is used to ferment a traditional drink of some and minerals or proteins and healthier fats is
parts of South India. called
(2) Is a bacterial species
(1) Biofortification
(3) Is a biocontrol agent
(2) Plant tissue culture
(4) Can produce an alcoholic compound from
fruit juice (3) Genetic engineering
141. Roquefort cheese is ripened with the help of (4) Conventional breeding
(1) Yeast (2) Lactobacillus
147. How many of the following is/are vitamin C
(3) Penicillium (4) Propionibacterium
enriched crops developed by Indian Agricultural
142. Which of the following alcoholic beverages are
Research Institute (IARI)?
produced by distillation of fermented broth?
(a) Wine (b) Whisky Bathua, Bitter gourd, Tomato, Mustard, Broad
(c) Brandy (d) Rum bean
(e) Beer
(1) Only (a) and (e) (2) Only (a) and (d) (1) One (2) Three
(3) Only (b), (c) and (d) (4) Only (c), (d) and (e) (3) Two (4) Four
143. The most crucial step for the success of breeding 148. All of the following diseases can be treated using
program is antibiotics, except
(1) Germplasm collection
(1) Leprosy (2) Plague
(2) Cross hybridisation
(3) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (3) Common cold (4) Diphtheria
(4) Commercialisation of new cultivars 149. Hidden hunger is not associated with deficiency
144. Select the incorrectly matched pair of
(1) Pusa A-4 Resistant to fruit borer (1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates
(2) Taichung native-1 Rice variety of Taiwan
(3) Vitamins (4) Micronutrients
(3) IR-8 Variety of rice
(4) Sharbati Sonora Mexican rice 150. In Parbhani Kranti, resistance to yellow mosaic
virus was developed through
145. Find out the biochemical feature providing
resistance against bollworms in cotton. (1) Mutation breeding
(1) Absence of nectar (2) Micropropagation
(2) Hairy leaves
(3) Conventional breeding
(3) Solid stem
(4) High aspartic acid content (4) Somatic hybridisation

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A Column-I Column-II

151. the testis and a. Butterfly (i) 2 weeks
opens into epididymis located along the posterior
b. Parrot (ii) 140 years
c. Tortoise (iii) 100 to 150 years
correct option.
d. Crow (iv) 15 years
(1) Rete testis (2) Vasa efferentia
Choose the correct match.
(3) Vas deferens (4) Ejaculatory duct
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
152. Match column-I with column-II w.r.t. approximate
life spans of some organisms. (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

153. The spermatids are transformed into 160. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm cannot
spermatozoa by the process called (1) Swim
(1) Spermiation (2) Embryogenesis (2) Be transported from penile urethra
(3) Multiplication (4) Spermiogenesis (3) Penetrate the ovum
154. Which of the following animals reproduces by (4) Enter beyond cervix
exogenous budding? 161. In uterus, the middle thick layer of smooth
(1) Hydra (2) Taenia muscles is not responsible for contraction
during/when
(3) Planaria (4) Nereis
(1) Parturition
155. Part of fallopian tube which is closest to the ovary
(2) Placenta is expelled out
and has fimbriae is
(3) Micturition
(1) Infundibulum (2) Isthmus
(4) Abortion
(3) Ampulla (4) Cervix
162. The human embryo with 16 celled stage is
156. Which of the following structure is considered as
(1) Equal to zygote in size
vital link that ensures continuity of species
between organism of one generation and the (2) Equal to blastocyst in size at the time of
next? implantation

(1) Zygote (2) Chromosome (3) Larger in size than ovum

(4) Larger in size than gastrula
(3) Male gamete (4) Female gamete
163. used for
157. Zygote is conducted from fallopian tube into
uterus through the ______ in human females. (1) First menstruation

Fill in the blank with correct option. (2) Cessation of menstruation

(3) Irregular menstruation
(1) Ciliary movement of sperms
(4) Regular heavy menstruation
(2) Ciliary movement of epithelium
164. Which of the following cells provide nutrition to
(3) Fallopian tube fimbriae
sperms?
(4) Pseudopodial movement
(1) Germinal cells (2) Mast cells
158. Delivery of the foetus from uterus to outside of (3) Sertoli cells (4) Oocytes
the body is called
165. Choose the odd one w.r.t. male accessory sex
(1) Parturition which takes place under positive glands.
feedback of oxytocin
(1)
(2) Fertilization by syngamy (2) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles
(3) Embryogenesis by multiplicative growth (3) Bulbourethral glands and prostate gland
(4) Parturition which takes place under negative (4) Testis and gubernaculum
feedback of oxytocin
166. Select the incorrect statement.
159. During oogenesis in humans, one primary oocyte (1) Menstrual flow occurs due to decline in level
after first meiotic division produces of oxytocin
(1) Secondary oocyte + first polar body (2) LH-surge in a menstrual cycle normally
(2) First polar body + ootid occurs on 14th day in a 28/29 days cycle

(3) Secondary oocyte + 3rd polar body (3) Ovary is the secretory source of relaxin

(4) Secondary oocyte + second polar body (4) Progesterone is called pregnancy hormone

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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
167. Seminal plasma is rich in a monosaccharide 173. Select the correct flow order of milk secreted by
called mammary lobes.
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose (1) Mammary tubule Mammary alveoli
Mammary duct Mammary ampulla
(3) Ribose (4) Deoxyribose
Lactiferous duct
168. Choose the correct option indicating true or false (2) Mammary alveoli Mammary tubule
statements w.r.t. major features of embryonic Mammary duct Mammary ampulla
development at various months of pregnancy. Lactiferous duct
a. The first sign of growing foetus in humans is (3) Mammary alveoli Mammary tubule
to listening heart sounds by stethoscope. Mammary ampulla Mammary duct
b. By the end of 2nd month of pregnancy, foetus Lactiferous duct
develops limbs and digits. (4) Mammary ampulla Mammary alveoli
Mammary tubule Mammary duct
c. Placenta is well formed only after the end of
Lactiferous duct
second trimester.
174. Source of progesterone is
d. First movement of foetus and appearance of
scalp hair are usually observed during fifth (1) Corpus luteum (2) Corpus albicans
month of pregnancy. (3) Primary follicle (4) Secondary follicle
a b c d 175. Choose the option which correctly identifies
A and B in the below given figure.
(1) T T F T
(2) T T T T
(3) F F T T
(4) T T T F
169. Which of the following induces foetal ejection
reflex?
(1) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(2) Increasing pressure of amniotic fluid
(3) Release of hCG from pituitary
(4) Differentiation of mammary glands
170. The milk produced during the initial few days of A B
lactation is called (1) Corona radiata Zona pellucida
(1) Lactalbumin (2) Colostrum (2) Zona pellucida Perivitelline space
(3) Relaxin (4) Lactogen (3) Zona pellucida Corona radiata
171. Hormone not released by placenta is (4) Perivitelline space Zona pellucida
(1) hCG (2) hPL 176. Which form continues to divide and eventually
(3) ADH (4) Progestogens transforms into blastocyst?
(1) Morula (2) Ovum
172. Choose the incorrect match.
(3) Gastrula (4) Trophoblast
(1) Site of fertilisation Fallopian tube
177. All copulations do not lead to fertilisation and
(2) Temporary Corpus luteum pregnancy because gametes must reach the site
endocrine structure of fertilisation simultaneously. This site of
fertilisation is
(3) Implantation Occurs in ovary (1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus
(4) Acellular layer Zona pellucida (3) Infundibulum (4) Uterus

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Regular Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B)

178. Read the following statements. 182. Placenta connects developing foetus and
Statement-A : Sex of the baby is determined by maternal body to facilitate
the father and not by the mother. (1) Storage of fats

Statement-B : After fusion of the male and (2) Conduction of impulse

female gametes, the zygote would carry either (3) Supply of nutrients to embryo
XX or XY depending on whether sperm carrying (4) Transport of digestive enzymes
X or Y fertilised the ovum.
183. Placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and
Select the correct option. produces several hormones. Which hormone
(1) Statement A is correct but statement B is performs functions like gonadotrophins?
incorrect (1) hPL (2) hCG
(2) Statement B is correct but statement A is (3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen
incorrect 184. During embryonic development, which of the
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct following organ is formed first after one month
of pregnancy?
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(1) Heart (2) Brain
179. Cleavage starts as the zygote moves through the
of the towards the and (3) Liver (4) Limbs
185. The milk produced during the initial few days of
produces .
lactation, contains
Choose the option which correctly fills the (1) Haemoglobin (2) Immunoglobulins
blanks labelled as A, B, C and D. (3) Glucose (4) Sucrose
A B C D SECTION-B

(1) Uterine Uterus Vagina Morula 186. Read the statements A and B w.r.t. capacitation
cavity and choose the correct option.
Statement-A : Capacitation refers to changes in
(2) Isthmus Oviduct Uterus Blastomeres
the sperm before fertilization.
(3) Uterine Vagina Uterus Morula Statement-B : Capacitation occurs in female
cavity reproductive tract.
(4) Ampulla Fallopian tube Infundibulum Blastomeres (1) A is incorrect, B is correct

180. Stem cells which have the potency to give rise to (2) A is correct, B is incorrect
all tissues and organs are present in (3) A and B are correct

(1) Trophoblast (2) Polar body (4) A and B are incorrect

(3) Inner cell mass (4) Outer cell mass 187. An optimum temperature of the testes necessary
for spermatogenesis is maintained within extra
181. At the time of implantation, stage of rapidly
abdominal scrotum in humans which is
dividing embryo becomes embedded in the
(1) 2 to 2.5°C lower than the normal internal
body temperature
the correct option.
(2) 1 to 2°C higher than the normal internal body
X Y
temperature
(1) Morula Endometrial
(3) 2 to 2.5°C higher than the internal body
(2) Blastomere Myometrial temperature
(3) Blastocyst Endometrial (4) Equal to the normal internal body
temperature
(4) Morula Myometrial
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Fortnightly Test-8 (RMG2_Code-B) Regular Medical-2023
188. How many highly coiled sperm producing tubules have normal shape, size and motility for normal
are found in the human male reproductive fertility.
system? Select the option which fills the blanks X and Y
(1) 250 - 500 (2) 500 - 1500 correctly.
(3) 250 - 750 (4) 500 - 2000 X Y
189. Testicular hormone secreting cells present in the (1) 100 - 300 billion 60
outside region (interstitial spaces) of seminiferous (2) 200 - 300 million 24
tubules are called (3) 200 - 300 million 40
(1) Immunologically competent cells (4) 60,000 - 80,000 60
(2) Sertoli cells 195. Identify the main hormone which attains first
(3) Male germ cells peak level in the luteal phase of menstrual cycle.
(4) Leydig cells (1) LH (2) FSH
190. If chromosome number in meiocyte of dog is 78, (3) Estrogen (4) Progesterone
than the chromosome number in gamete of cat is 196. Which of the following hormones is produced by
(1) 39 (2) 23 normal as well as in pregnant women?

(3) 19 (4) 21 (1) hCG (2) hPL

191. Match column I and column II w.r.t. the wall of (3) Relaxin (4) Estrogen
the womb. 197. Foetal ejection reflex triggers the release of
hormone responsible for stronger uterine
Column I Column II
contractions. Choose the correct option which
a. Myometrium (i) Middle layer of represents this hormone and the structure
smooth muscle releasing this hormone during parturition.
b. Endometrium (ii) External thin layer (1) Oxytocin, maternal pituitary

c. Perimetrium (iii) Inner glandular layer

(2) Relaxin, maternal pituitary
(3) Oxytocin, adenohypophysis
Choose the correct option.
(4) Relaxin, hypothalamus
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
198. Choose the correct option to complete the
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) analogy.
192. Which of the following pair of cells during the Male copulatory organ : Penis :: Female
process of spermatogenesis are diploid? copulatory organ : _____
(1) Primary spermatocytes and spermatogonia (1) Uterus (2) Vagina
(2) Primary spermatocytes and secondary (3) Oviduct (4) Ovary
spermatocytes 199. In diploid organisms, the gamete mother cells
(3) Spermatozoa and spermatogonia which undergo meiosis are called
(4) Spermatogonia and spermatids (1) Secondary spermatocytes
193. Which part of vulva is considered homologous to (2) Ova
the male penis? (3) Meiocytes
(1) Clitoris (2) Labia majora (4) Spermatozoa
(3) Labia minora (4) Mons pubis 200. Choose the odd one w.r.t. parthenogenesis.
194. The human male ejaculates about sperms (1) Rotifers (2) Honeybees
during coitus, out of which per cent must (3) Turkey (4) Earthworm

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