G 9 A-Level Snes Practice MCQ Chemistry (Higher 2) Vitis a%ara. ¥akaka Wa 1000* Typical MCQs and Suggested Solutions Organised by Topics CS Toh Edition 2.0A-Level Practice MCQ — Chemistry — Edition 2.0.2 eBook edition: First published in 2013 Print edition: ISBN 978-981-08-0313-1 First published in 2008 Reprinted in 2009, 2010, 2012 Published by Step-by-Step International Pte. Ltd. My Mail Box 889128, Singapore 919128 Copyright © 2008-2013 Step-by-Step International Pte. Ltd. All rights reserved. No part ofthis book shall be reproduced, stored in a database or retrieval system, or transmitted in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the Publisher. [No patent liability is assumed with respect to the use of the information contained herein. Every reasonable effort has been made to contact the holders of copyright material, but if any have been inadvertently overlooked, the Publisher will be pleased to make the necessary arrangements at the first opportunity, Conditions of Sale This publication and the materials included therein are provided on an “as is", “as available” basis without warranty of any kind, either expressed or implied While all reasonable care have been taken in the preparation of this publication, tothe fullest extent permitted by law, the Publisher does not warrant and hereby disclaims any warranty as to its accuracy, correctness, reliability, timeliness, non-infringement, tile, merchantability or fitness for any particular purpose. Its availability or updates are also not guaranteed. ‘The Publisher, the editors of, the contributors to this publication and anyone else involved in creating, producing or delivering this publication, shall not be liable for any damages or losses, including any general, special, incidental or consequential damages or losses, arising out of your use or inability to use this publication, even if the relevant parties, have been advised of the possibility of such damages or losses. For the avoidance of doubt, the sale of this publication exelude providing it in any other form or media, electronic or otherwise. Important! By purchasing this publication, you are deemed to have agreed to these conditions. For information on distributors, please visit Please send feedback to: http://www. post-1 com/step-by-ste step-by-step@post-I.com Bim Pos p-by-step TERS my te bystep@rs& Contents Section 1 1.1 Atoms, Molecules & Stoichiometry 12. Atomic Structure 1.3. Chemical Bonding 14. States of Matter Section 2 2.1 Chemical Energetics. 2.2 Electrochemistry. 2.3 Equilibria. 24 Reaction Kinetics Section 3 3.1 Chemical Periodicity 3.2 Group IL. 33 Group VIL 3.4. Introduction to Transition Elements. Section 4 4.1 Organic Chemistry: Introductory Topics 4.2. Hydrocarbons 43 Halogen Derivatives. 44 Hydroxy Compounds Section 5 Ss 5.1 Carbonyl Compounds 52 5.28 5.2 Carboxylic Acids and Derivatives SH 5.35 53 Nitrogen Compounds 5-20 5.42 Please check for updates to this book at http://www. post-1.com/step-by-step ur books are intended to help our readers learn and apply the relevant knowledge. An Ancient Chinese Proverb: Give a mana fish, and you feed him for a day. Teach a man to fish, and you feed him for a lifetime. aie: BRAVA, SAB Hi HEA DL, PE ZH We believe our books will also help our readers leam to fish for knowledge, tere MQ Chemistyii Preface This book contains 1000" typical multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for readers to practise with, and suggested solutions to illustrate how the answers are obtained. All suggested solutions show the essential steps to apply the relevant theories, intended to help our readers learn and apply the relevant knowledge. The questions and suggested solutions are organised by topics to facilitate referring to them as the topics are being discussed, Related topics are further grouped into sections to facilitate cross referencing, In each section, the questions come first followed by the solutions. It is aimed at facilitating the readers attempting the questions first and referring to the suggested solutions thereafter. ‘* Each Section starts with an introduction comprising the relevant summaries of the the topics. This is to facilitate keeping the reader focused on what need to be studied. Following the introduction page are question pages containing serially numbered questions Each question is separated from the next by a horizontal line labus describing The 1" page numbers (under Q) in the Content page are the starting pages of the questions on the topic. A keyword of the topic, followed by a letter Q, and the page number is shown at the outer-top comer of each question page to facilitate finding them quickly, ‘The introduction and question pages are also marked with a black tag at the right edge ‘© The solution pages are formatted in two columns with each solution following the serial number. ‘The 2™ page numbers (under $) in the Content page are the starting pages of the solutions to questions on the topic. ‘The keyword of the topic and the page number is shown at the outer-top comer of each solution page to facilitate finding them quickly. © We recommend that readers review the relevant updates at our website before using this book. ‘The updates contain late-breaking information that became available after the book was printed. cee Types of Questions Questions with Possible Answers labelled A,B,C, D ‘These questions are from Section A of the MCQ Paper. For each question there are four possible answers, A, B, C, and D. Choose the one you consider to be correct Questions with Possible Answers labelled 1,2,3 ‘These questions are from Section B of the MCQ Paper. For each of the questions, one or more of the three numbered statements 1 to 3 may be correct. Decide whether each of the statements is or is not correct (you may find it helpful to put a tick against the statements which you consider correct). ‘The responses A to D should be selected on the basis of A B c D 1,2and3 | and 2and 3 Lonly are only are | only are is correet correct correct correct No other combination of statements is used as a correct response Aten MEQ. ChesiaryLl Section 1 Atoms, Molecules & Stoichiometry 12, 1-33 1. Relative masses of atoms and molecules. II The mole, the Avogadro constant. IIL. Calculation of empirical and molecular formulae IV, Reacting masses and volumes (of solutions and gases). Atomic Structure 110, 139 1, The nucleus of the atom; neutrons and protons, isotopes, proton and nucleon numbers. IL. Electrons, electronic energy levels, ionisation energies, atomic orbitals, extranuclear structure Chemical Bonding 1-17, 145 1. Ionic (electrovalent) bonding II Covalent bonding and co-ordinate (dative covalent) bonding i, The shapes of simple molecules ii, Bond energies, bond lengths and bond polarities. IIL. Intermolecular forces, including hydrogen bonding IV. Metallic bonding V. Bonding and physical properties. States of Matter 125, 151 1. The gaseous state i, Ideal gas behaviour and deviations from it, ii, _p¥"= nRT and its use in determining a value for M,. II. The solid state Lattice structures and spacing & Dekel MEQ Chemisty1 AM&SQ Atoms, Molecules & Stoichiometry [The Mole Concept ] 1. Which idea underlying Dalton’s atomic theory (published in 1803) is known to be correct? Atoms are indivisible. Atoms are very small Atoms of an element are identical. Atoms of one element always differ in mass from those of another element vaw> 2. Which of the following is a correct statement about the term relative atomic mass? A. Itisa ratio of masses. B _Itisthe same as the mass of 1 mol of atoms. C It is measured in grams, D _Itisrelated to the number of atoms in a molecule, 3. Lod Rayleigh made ‘atmospheric nitrogen’ (in 1892) by removing oxygen from the atmosphere. The density of this nitrogen was found to be 1.2572 g dm * whereas that of chemically pure nitrogen is 1.2505 g dm”, [All measurements taken at s.tp.] Which gas could be present in ‘atmospheric nitrogen’ to cause this discrepancy” A. argon B helium methane D_ neon 4, Boron (4, 10.8) occurs naturally as two isotopes, 9B and 3B What is the percentage of '!B atoms in a sample of naturally-occurring boron? A 08% B 80% Cc 20% D 80% 5. The table gives the relative isotopic masses and elive lictopic massa] 90 abundance percentage abundances of the isotopes found in a a aa sample of neon 3 toe What is the relative atomic mass of neon (to two oy 882 decimal places)? A 20.16 B 2017 c 2018 D 2020 6. From the given mass spectrum of a sample of naturally- 37 ‘occurring copper, what is the relative atomic mass of a6 copper? BS pet 4: A 633 B 635 ae v Cc 636 D 640 . Tae ESAT mie 7. Which one of the following is always true for one mole of a metal? A. Itis liberated by 1 mol of electrons. B_Ithas the same mass as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms. C It contains the same number of atoms as 7 mol of °C. D It contains the same number of atoms as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms, Aten MEQ. Chesiary& AM&SQ 13 8. In which of the following are there one mole of the stated particles? A. electrons in 1 g of hydrogen gas B chlorine molecules in 35.5 g of chlorine gas, C__ oxygen atoms in 22.4 dm’ of oxygen gas at s.tp. D hydrogen ions in 1 dm’ of 1 moldm™ aqueous sulfuric acid 9. In which of the following are there two moles of solute particles? A 1.0dm* of 0.50 mol dm Na,SO,(aq) B_ 1.0dm' of 0.20 mol dm* AL(SO,)3(aq) C 4.0.dm* of 0.25 mol dm* CH;CO,Na(aq) D 8.0dm' of 0.125 mol dm* CH,CO;H(aq) 10. Hydrogen sulfide reacts with sulfur dioxide to give sulfur as one of the products, H,S(aq) = S(5) + 2H*(aq) + 2e7 SO,(aq) + 4H"(aq) +4e° = S(s) + 24,00) In this reaction, how many moles of hydrogen sulfide are needed to produce 1 mol of sulfur? A imol B 3mol © 4mol D 2mol 11, When a uranium nitrate salt, UO;(NO,)s, is heated, it decomposes quantitatively to give U;0s, NO and O; only. How many moles of O; are obtained from 1 mol of the salt? At Bos c 2 D2 12. Car'air bags’ contain sodium azide, NaNs. These ‘air bags' inflate rapidly on collision due to the production of nitrogen, which is formed according to the following equations. 2NaN3 > 2Na + 3N2 10Na + 2KNO, > K,0 + 5Na,0 +N; ‘What is the amount of nitrogen gas produced from one mole of sodium azide, NaN,? A 15mol B 16mol C 3.2mol D 40mol 13. In the textile industry, excess chlorine (from the bleaching processes) is removed by adding sodium thiosulfate which reduces the chlorine to chloride ions. S,0,7 + 4Ch + SH,0 > 2HSO/ + 8H +8CI~ How many moles of electrons are supplied by 1 mol of thiosulfate in the above reaction? Al B2 ca4 Ds 14, How many atoms of carbon are there in 9 g of glucose, CeH120.? A 30x10" B 18x10" © 30x10" D 18x10" 15. How many molecules are there in 500m’ of oxygen under room conditions? A 125x107 Be 134x10" © 30x10" D 3.0x10% tere MQ Chemisty14_AM&SQ 16, With advanced technology, it is possible to detect very small amounts of amino acids, down to 5x 10™ mol, How many molecules of an amino acid (M, = 200) would this represent? A 1S B 200 Cc 300 D 60.000 17. Chlorine is a pungent gas which causes severe irritation to the eyes and respiratory system. The maximum safe tolerance level of chlorine gas in air is 0.005 mg dm”. How many chlorine molecules are there in 1 dm’ of air at this tolerance level? 0.005_ 0.005 6 x 10? a gore BOP x 6x 10 0.005. 1 0.005 x 6x10 D x71 6x10" 1000 “71 1000 18, Inaneon advertising tube, how many electrons have to be removed to ionise 1.0 x 10 mol of Ne atoms to Ne* ions? 6.021033 6% 602x102 TORIOSE B 10x 10% «6.02 x 10° 1.0106 x 6,02x103 1.0%10-6 x6,02x10 c 20.2 » 965x104 19, Which of the following are correct statements about a 12.0 g sample of °C? 1 The number of atoms is 6.02 x 10" 2 The number of atoms is the same as the number of atoms in 4.0 g of ‘He 3 The number of atoms is the same as the number of atoms in 2.0 g of "Hl, 20. An adult human, in general, has a daily diet of 1.80 kg of carbohydrate (empirical formula CHO) If all the carbohydrate eaten is digested and oxidised, what is the mass of carbon dioxide produced by a person each day? A 0.267 kg B 0.800kg Cc 132kg D 264k 21. Bones are made up of a complex mixture of calcium salts, protein and other material. When a bone is strongly heated in air, calcium oxide is the only residue obtained Given that 14.0 g of calcium oxide were obtained from a 50.0 g sample of bone, what is the percentage by mass of calcium in the bone? A 10.0% B 140% Cc 200% D 23.3% 22. Use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question. ‘A mixture of NH,C/O, and powdered aluminium ean be used as fuel in the booster rocket of a space shuttle. A reaction likely to take place in the booster rocket is, 3Al + 3NH,CIO, > ALO, + AICh + 3NO + 6H,O If a typical launch uses 700 tonnes of NH,C/O,, what is the mass of aluminium reacted? A 54 tonnes B 77 tonnes C 161 tonnes D 483 tonnes Aten MEQ. Chesiary 8AM&SQ_ 15 23. Bromine can be extracted from the Dead Sea and transported as a 50% solution (by mass) of caleium. i bromide, ‘What is the mass of bromine, in tonnes, contained in 100 tonnes of solution? [4y: Ca= 40; Br = 80] 50%160 p 50x80 cc 50x160 100x200 120) 200 Dp 50 24. Group I and Group II ionic hydrides react with water as follows: H(s) + H0() > OH(aq) + Hag). Which ionic hydride would give the greatest mass of Ho(g) when a 1 g sample (of each hydride) is treated separately with an excess of water? A CaHy B Li C MgH, D Nall 25. In polluted air, the white paint pigment in older oil paintings turns black due to the formation of lead(I) sulfide, PbS. A solution of hydrogen peroxide, H,0>, can be used to restore the white colour PbS(s) + 4H0x(aq) —> PbSO,s) + 4H,0() black pigment white pigment ‘What is the mass of hydrogen peroxide required to react with 0.120 g of lead(II) sulfide? IM, PbS = 239; Hy 34] A 007g B 0.030g C 0.068g D 0478g 26. Nervous disorders due to mercury poisoning occur when mercury forms a 1:1 complex with lipoyl groups, which are vital for glucose metabolism. For a human containing 3.0 kg of body fluid, what is the mass of mercury (4, 200) required to complex all the lipoyl groups? [Average concentration of lipoyl groups in body fluid = 1.0 x 10 mol kg} A 15x10°%g B 30x10%g C 60x 10%¢ D 60x10%g 27. N,Oz, a poisonous gas, can be disposed of safely by reaction with sodium hydroxide. N,O, + 2NaOH + NaNO; + NaNO; + H;0 ‘What volume of 0.5 mol dm* NaOH(aq) is required to dispose of 0.02 mol of N,O,? A 8om* B 125em* C 400m? D 80cm’ 28, Car ‘air bags’ contain sodium azide, NaN, which decomposes into its elements when heated to 300°C. ‘What is the volume of gas (at r.tp.) produced by the decomposition of one mole of sodium azide? A 24dm* B 36dm* C 48dm* D 72dm* 29. Use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question. Airbags fitted in most modem cars are inflated by the nitrogen gas liberated when sodium azide, NaN, decomposes. 2NaN; > 3N; + 2Na What volume of N; (at rt.p.) would be produced by a typical driver's airbag containing 50 g of NaN? A 9.2dm? B 13.9dm* © 27.7 dm’ D 72.0dm* & tere MQ Chemisty16 AM&SO 30, When methane, CH,, was bumed in an incorrectly adjusted burner, it was converted into a mixture of carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide in the ratio 99:1, together with water vapour. ‘What is the volume of oxygen consumed when y dm’ of methane is bumed? A Qy-2%) dm? BB (2y-0.01y)dm’ © (y— 294) dm* D (y-0.01y) dm? 31, What volume of 0.10 mol dm’ aqueous silver nitrate is required to react with 20 em’ of 0.20 mol dm? barium chloride? A 10cm’ B 20cm’ © 40cm* D 80cm’ 32. The diagram shows an ion-exchange column used to determine the hardness present in a water sample due to dissolved calcium ions, When a 50 em? water sample containing calcium sulfate was passed YF tanple through the ion-exchange resin, the calcium ions in the sample were i quantitatively exchanged by hydrogen ions. Given that the sample collected in the flask required 25 cm’ of 1.0 x 107 ‘ion-exchange ‘mol dm’? potassium hydroxide for complete neutralisation, what was the ca concentration of the calcium sulfate in the original sample? A 2.5x 10° mol dm* B 10x 10* moldm® © 20x10? mol dm? D 40x 107 mol dm 33. Acidified, aqueous potassium manganate(VII) oxidises ethanedioate ions, C20,°, to CO: 2MnO, (aq) + 5C,0,* (aq) + 16H"(aq) > 2Mn™"(aq) + 10C0.(g) + 8H00) ‘What volume of 0.020 mol dm’* potassium manganate(VII) is required to oxidise completely 1.0 x 10° mol of the salt KHC20,H2C204? A 20cm? B 40cm* C 50cm? D 125m? 34, Given the following half-equations: MnO," + 8H* + Se" > Mn®* + 4H,0 Fe* > Fe* +e ©0727 > 2C0,(g) + 26° What volume of 0.01 mol dm™ potassium manganate( VII), KMnO,, is required to oxidise 15 cm’ of an acidified solution of 0.01 mol dm” FeC,0,? A 6cm* B 9cm* © 1Sscm* D 25cm’ 35, Ina pathology laboratory, an urine sample containing 0.120 g of urea, NH;CONHL (M,= 60), was treated with an excess of nitrous acid, HNO2, The following reaction occurred: NH,CONH; + 2HNO, -> CO, + 2N, + 3H,0 ‘What was the final volume measured (at rtp.) after passing the gas produced through aqueous potassium hydroxide? [Molar volume of gas at rtp. = 24 000 em* mol" ] A 9.6cm* B 144cm* C 48.0cm* D 96.0cm’ Aten MEQ. Chesiary 8AM&SQ_ 1-7 [Formulae } i 36. In an experiment, 0.352 g of carbon dioxide and 0.072 g of water were obtained from the complete combustion of a hydrocarbon. ‘CH=CH; “OO ‘What is the formula of this hydrocarbon? 37. The complete combustion (in excess oxy gen) of 20 em’ of a gaseous hydrocarbon X produced 60 em* ‘of carbon dioxide and 40 cm’ of water vapour. [All volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure.] ‘What is the formula of hydrocarbon X? A CHy B CGH Cc GHs D Cis A CH=CH, B CH;=CH-CH=CH, 38. When 10 cm’ of a gaseous hydrocarbon X were burned in 70 cm’ of oxygen (an excess), the final gaseous mixture contained 30 cm’ of carbon dioxide and 20 cm’ of unreacted oxygen. [AI gaseous volumes measured under identical conditions. } What is the formula of hydrocarbon X? A CH¢ Bi C3He Cc C3Hs D C.Hio 39. When 0.10 mol of an oxide of nitrogen, N,O,, is heated with an excess of hydrogen (in the presence of a catalyst), 7.20 g of water is produced Hyg) NO, Sapat SNE + yHLO Given that the ammonia produced is neutralised by 200 cm’ of 1.0 mol dm™* HC/, what is the formula of this oxide of nitrogen? A NO B NO Cc No, D N,0, 40. Given that 1 mol of an organic compound requires 3 mol of oxygen gas for complete oxidation, what is the formula of the organic compound? A CH,;CHO B CHC )H C CH,CH; D CHCO;H 41. A white ionic solid X is formed when the salt (C3H),N* CI" is treated with hydrogen chloride, ‘When X is dissolved in water, a 20 cm* sample of the solution is neutralised by 24 cm’ of 0.1 mol dm NaOH, Another 20 cm’ sample of the solution required 48 cm’ of 0.1 mol dm AgNO; to completely precipitate the chloride as AgCl. From these data, which of the following could be the formula of the anion in X? A HCI B HCI c HCL D HCl & tere MQ Chemisty18 AM&SQ [Stoichiometry ] 42. MgyP; (a component in self-igniting flares) reacts with water to give diphosphane, P3H,, which is spontaneously flammable in air. Which equation showing the formation of diphosphane is balanced? A. Mg,P, + 6H,0 > 3Mg(OH)s + PsHy B_ Mg,P, + 6H,0 — 3Mg(OH). + P3Hy + Hy D 2Mg;P. + 12H,O + 6Mg(OH) + 3PsH, C- 2MgsP2 + 1210 > 6Mg(OH), + P2Hy + 2PHs 43. Given that air contains one-fifth oxygen by volume, what is the minimum volume of air required for the complete combustion of 10 cm of a hydrocarbon, CsH,? [AII gas volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure] A 40cm’ B 50cm C 200cm* D 250cm* 44, Complete combustion of a 0.112 dm’ sample of a gaseous organic compound X (measured at s.t.p.) produced 0.88 g of carbon dioxide. What is the number of carbon atoms in one molecule of X ? Al B2 C3 D4 45, When a mixture of 10 cm’ of oxygen and 50 cm’ of hydrogen is sparked continuously, what is the maximum theoretical decrease in volume? [All gas volumes measured at s.tp.] A 10cm’ B 15cm’ © 20cm* D 30cm 46. The diagram shows a tube filled with 50 cm* of methane and 150 cm? of oxygen at room temperature over a vessel containing KOH(ag). The following reaction was caused to take plac CH, +20; + CO; +2H0 io At what level would the liquid be when the tube is cooled to the original temperature? 150}-+—-B 47. When an excess of aqueous potassium iodide is gradually added to aqueous mercury(I!) chloride, the following reactions occur HgCi,(aq) + 2KI(aq) > Hel,(s) + 2KCiaq) Hels) + 2KIt@q) > K:Hela(aq) How does the mass m of the precipitate varies with the volume I” of aqueous potassium iodide added? A B c D 8 Aten MEQ. ChesiaryAM&SQ_ 19 48. Carbon disulfide, CS; (a volatile flammable liquid used in the manufacture of cellophane) is oxidised i ‘on combustion as follows: CS2(g) + 301g) —> CO.(g) + 2S0.(g) A 20cm’ sample of carbon disulfide vapour is ignited with 100 cm’ of oxygen. The final volume of gas aller burning is passed into an excess of aqueous alkali. What percentage of this final volume dissolved in the alkali? [All volumes measured at the same temperature and pressure, conditions under which CS; is a gas] A 20% B 40% C 60% D 80% 49. Excess aluminium is burnt in the gaseous product formed in the thermal decomposition of 1 mol of potassium chlorate(V), KCIOs ‘What is the amount (in moles) of aluminium oxide produced? A 10 BOIS Cc 20 D 30 50. Which of the following are correct statements about the complete combustion of an alkene, C,Hzy. in oxygen? 1 The volume of oxygen required is directly proportional to the number of carbon atoms present in the molecule. 2 The volume of gas produced at 25 °C is the same as for the complete combustion of an alkane with the same number of carbon atoms per molecule. 3 At120°C, the volume of steam produced is always twice the volume of carbon dioxide 51. Books printed on acidic paper will eventually become brittle and disintegrate. It was found that these books can be preserved by treating them with diethylzine vapour, Zn(C2Hs)2, which reacts both with acid residues and also with small amounts of water retained in paper. Diethylzine reacts with an acid to give ethane: Zn(CsH.)s + 2HY — Zn +2CsHy ‘What are the likely products formed from the reaction of diethylzine with water? A. ZnH; + CH B ZnH;+C,H,OH © Zn(OH), + CH, D Zn(OH); + CH,OH 52, Before a refrigerator is discarded, any chlorofluoroalkanes (CFCs) used as refrigerant (e.g. CCLF:) should be recovered and destroyed. This can be done by passing CC/F: through a packed bed of sodium ethanedioate at 270°C, which efficiently converts the CFC into solid and gaseous products, CCHFs(g) + 2NagCs0,(8) —> 2NaCi(s) + 2NaF(s) +X(s) + yCOs(@) ‘What is the product and the number y in the above reaction? 7 5 A 2 B 4 e 2c 2 D 2c 4 & tere MQ Chemisty1:10 _Atomie Structure Atomic Structure [Atomic Structure ] 1, What is the particle 9X emitted in the radioactive decay of an isotope of lead to an isotope of bismuth? A. electron B ion neutron D proton 2. Studies by some Russian chemists showed that a new element of proton number 114 could be. produced by bombarding atoms of plutonium, Pu, with atoms of an isotope of a Group II element, X 2fPu + X > Bnew clement] + 3 neutrons (jn) Which of the following could be X? A Mg B Ca c sr D Ba 3. Which of the following gives the correct composition Sey | clectons | _mileons A oO 2 B oO 4 Cc 2 2 Lp] 2 4 4, Which particle has more electrons than protons and more protons than neutrons? [H= }H;D= 7H; 0= 0] AD B D,0* c oD D OH 5. Which particle contains 1 proton, | neutron and 2 electrons? [D represents deuterium *H.] AD BOD cH D He 6. Archaeologists used “C, a radioactive isotope, in carbon dating. Which particle has the same number of neutrons and the same number of electrons as an atom of “C7 A Nt B %* c D *S) 7. Which species shows the greatest deflection in an electric field? A fe BIH C sHe™ DF 8. Which of the following are correct statements about atomic particles? 1 The nucleon number of an element is the number of neutrons in one atom of the element 2 The proton number of an element is the number of protons in one atom of the element. 3 The size of the charge on an electron is the same as that on a proton 9, Which property is the same for the isotopes of a particular element? 1 atomic number 2. electronic configuration 3° nuclear charge Aten MEQ. Chesiary& Atomic Structure Q 10. Use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question. In research on atomic nuclei, scientists compared the stability of isotopes with the same neutron : proton ratio. Which isotope has the same neutron : proton ratio as '°B? A ™P B *S Cc Ar D “K 11, Cobalt-60 ( $Co ) is used to destroy cancer cells in the human body. Which of the following are correct statements about an atom of cobalt-60? 1 It contains 33 neutrons. 2 Itsnucteus has a relative charge of 27+. 3 Ithasa different number of neutrons from the atoms of other isotopes of cobalt 12. %AT/ (a radioactive isotope of thallium) is used to assess damage in heart muscles after a heart attack Which of the following is a correct statement about °Q\T/? A. This isotope has a nucleon number of 120. B__ The number of electrons in one atom of this isotope is 81 C The number of neutrons in one atom of this isotope is 201 D 21 is an isotope of 247 13. Which of the following are correct statements about the two isotopes }3P and 328? 1 The phosphorus atom has more neutrons than the sulfur atom, 2 Ifaneutron is added to the nucleus of }2P , #25 is produced, 3° Both contain 32 electrons. 14, Use of the Data Booklet is relevant to this question. The germanium isotope, “Ge, is medically useful because it undergoes a natural radioactive process to give a gallium isotope, “Ga, which can be used to detect tumours. This transformation of germanium takes place when an electron enters the nucleus, changing a proton into a neutron. Which of the following is a correct statement about the composition of an atom of the “Ga isotope? A. Ithas 37 neutrons, B Its proton number is 32. C thas a total of 32 electrons D__Ithas 4 electrons in its outer shell. 15. For an electron with the principal quantum number n = 2, which kind of orbital must it occupy? A. aspherically shaped orbital B cither an s or p orbital C the orbital closest to the nucleus D__adumb-bell shaped orbital 16. How many electron pairs with principal quantum number n= 3 can an atom accommodate? AB B 6 co D 14 tere MQ Chemisty1-12 Atomic Structure Q 17, Which diagram correctly describes the shapes and relative energies of 2s and 2p orbitals in nitrogen? ale] COo@O ° 2s energy 2p t *| 2) co |to c 2p x= | 2s energy 2p L> | I 2s Co els 18. Which of the following are correet statements about the s, p and d orbitals of prineipal quantum numbers 1, 2 and 3? 1 Each s orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons. 2A series of transition elements arises from the filling of d orbitals 3 A porbital has a higher energy than the s orbital of the same principal quantum number. 19, The energy levels of various electronic sub-shells of an atom of the first row transition elements (Period 4 in the Periodic Table) are shown in the given diagram, Which of the following correctly identifies sub-shells x and y? A x=3dy d 4s, y B r=4s,y D x=4p, 20. Which diagram represents the arrangement of electrons in the ground state of a nitrogen atom? Is 2s 2p Is 2s 2p 4 1 1111/1 B {tL wv 4 c | ‘AL {1 {1 D [tL 4b. 1{1/|1 21. Which of the following shows the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium in increasing energy order? A 3s3p 3d 4s B 3s3p4s3d C 3s4s3p3d D 4s3s3p3d 22. What is the configuration of the three electrons of highest energy for the ground state of a Group III element? A 1s'2s' 2p" B 2s! 2p" Cc 3p D 4s°4p' 23. Which electronic configuration is that of an atom of an element isoelectronic with H:S? A. 1s?2s'2p%3s* B 1s'2s'2p°3s°3p? C_Is*2s*2p%3s°3p' DD 1s*2s*2p*3s°3p* 8 Atel MEQ. ChesiaryAtomic Structure Q_1-13 24. Gallium nitride (an ionic compound containing Ga™* ions) could revolutionise electric light bulb i design because only a small filament is needed to give a bright light. Whaat is the arrangement of electrons in the nitrogen ion of gallium nitride, GaN? A 1s*2s° B_ 1s'2s’2p* C 1s*2s*2p* D 1s? 2s*2p* 25, What is the electronic configuration of an element that forms a simple ion with a charge of -37 A. 1828? 2p°3s?3pt B 18°28? 2p°3s 3p? CIs" 2s” 2p*3s* 3p°3d' 4s” D 1s? 2s" 2p* 3s" 3p°3d° 4s" 26. What is the electronic configuration of an ion X**, which contains 44 protons? [The symbol [Ar] represents Is* 2s° 2p 3s° 3p*] A [Ar] 3d’? 4s’ 4p’ 4d° B_ [Ar] 3d° 4s’ 4p° 4d? © [Ar] 3d 4s* 4p® 4a D [Ar] 3d! 4s? 4p* 4a 27. A metallic element X has only one oxidation state in all of its salts, most of which are white What is the electronic structure of X ? A Is?2s?2p> B_ 1s'2s*2p*3s* D_ 1s? 2s" 2p* 3s" 3p°3d° 4s” 28. Which clement has no paired p electrons in its ground state atom? element proton (atomic) number ‘A carbon 6 B_ oxygen 8 © neon 10 D_ magnesium 12 29. For an element to have four unpaired electrons in the ground state, what could be its proton number? A 14 B 16 c 2 D 26 30. Which one of the following would have a half-illed set of p orbitals when it loses an electron? AC BN cN D ot 31. Which of the following particles has the same electronic structure as the chloride ion, CI"? AF B Ne Cc Nat D Ca”* 32. Which element in the Periodic Table has the electron configuration 1s” 2s" 2p* 3s” 3p*3d° 4: A aGroup II element B a Group III element C _aGroup V element D__atransition metal & deter McQ Chemistry1:14 Atomic Structure Q 33, Semiconductors are now widely used in electronic devices, An element is a semiconductor if one of its electronic levels is fully occupied (such as an s level), but a level immediately above it is of only slightly higher energy (such as a p level) and is empty or only partially filled n this basis, which of the following elements could be semiconductors? 1 Ga 2 yGe 3 Sb 34, Which of the following species could have the electronic configuration shown in the diagram? a fu Cy) fy fen 1 Cl*ion 2 Satom 3 Ar™ion 35. Gaseous particles X and Y have proton numbers m and (n+1) respectively. X has a charge of +1 and Y is isoelectronic with (has the same number of electrons as) X Which of the following statements correctly describe X and ¥? 1 Xhas a larger radius than Y. 2 X requires more energy than ¥ when another electron is removed from each particle. 3 X releases more energy than ¥ when an electron is added to each particle. [onisation Energies | 36, Which equation gives the definition of the first ionisation energy of bromine? A Brg) > Brig)-e B Brg) > Br(g) te © EBr(g) > Brie)- D 4Br{g) > Brig)+e 37. The second ionisation energy of calcium is 1150 kI mol”! Which equation correctly represents this information? A Calg) > Ca®(g) +26; AH *=+1150kI mot" B Cag) > Cag) +e; AN =41150kI mot? C Ca‘(g) > Ca%(g) +e; AH*=-1150kJ mol! D Cas) + Ca™(ag)+2e; AH *=+1150 kJ mol! 38, Which electronic configuration represents that of an element with the highest first ionisation energy? A 1s?2s? 2p? B_ 1s'2s* 2p! 18°28 2p*3s! D__1s*2s* 2p 3s? 3p* 39. Which element has the largest second ionisation energy? AO BF Cc Ne D Na 40, From which one of the following particles is it most difficult to remove an electron? A Clg) B Cag) Cc Nave) D Arg) Atel MEQ. Chesiary 8& Atomic Structure Q 41. The electronic configuration of gallium is [Ar] 34'° 4s° 4p!, rp where [Ar] represents 1s” 2s” 2p* 3s 3p*. Az [3d | 4p | as B | 3d | 4s | 4s To form the Ga“* ion, in which order are the electrons lost? C | 4s | 4s | 4p | 3 D | 4p | 4s | 4s | 3d 42, Radon (Rn), francium (Fr) and radium (Ra) are Teast ‘most three consecutive elements in the Periodic endothermic endothermic Table. A Fr Ra Rn B Fr Rn Ra Which sequence correctly shows the order of c Ra Fr Rn their first ionisation energies? D Rn Ra Fr 43, The diagram shows the first ionisation energy of the first five elements in Group II and Group IV. Which of the following help to explain the shapes shown? 1 Group IV elements have a higher nuclear charge than the corresponding Group II elements. first 2 Group IV elements have macromolecular tonsaton structures and the ionisation energies are higher a SS Group IV because several bonds have to be broken. Group I 3° Apelectron ina given shell is farther away from the nucleus than an s electron in the same shell ed 44, Which of the following explains why the first ionisation energy of Ne is higher than that of F? A. Fluorine is more electronegative than neon. B_ Neon has a complete octet, but fluorine does not. C The atomic radius of fluorine is less than that of neon. D_ The nuclear charge in neon is greater than that in fluorine 43. Use of the Data Booklet is relevant 10 this question 5 The graph of the logarithm, Ig, of the successive 4 ionisation energies for the outermost seventeen 3 electrons in an atom of an element X is as shown. ‘ae ‘What could X be? 1 ‘A. argon B calcium o pe € chlorine D_ potassium number of electrons removed 46, The diagram shows the first ionisation energy c of some elements in the Periodic Table first ionisation nergy Which one of the elements A, B, C or D is an / absrary unis alkali metal? B A D atomic number deter McQ Chemistry116 Atomic Structure 47. Which graph correctly shows the first four ionisation energies of a Group III element? A B ic D IE. IE. Le. IE. it 2nd 34d 4th Wit dnd Sea 4th et and 34d th Lit and Sed ath 48. An element X has the following successive ionisation energies, in kJ mol” 870 (1), 1800, 3000, 3600, 5800, 7000, 13200 Which one of the following is element X? A xAs Bgl C gle D lt 49. A sequence of elements of increasing proton (atomic) number has the following first ionisation energies, in kJ mol 548, 620, 660, 660, 680 In which part of the Periodic Table is this sequence of elements likely to be found? A Group! B_ Group VII C from Lito N inclusive D__from Sr to Mo inclusive 50. Which of the following explains why, in general, first ionisation energies decrease down a group of the Periodic Table? 1 The nuclear charge is increasing 2 The electron to be ionised becomes progressively further from the nucleus 3 There are progressively more electrons between the nucleus and the electron to be ionised. 51. Which statement explains why the first ionisation energy of sulfur is lower than that of phosphorus? Sulfur is more electronegative than phosphorus, Sulfur forms anions more readily. The electron to be lost is paired with another electron, ‘The sulfur atom is larger than the phosphorus atom. came 52. From the reaction of oxygen with platinum(V1) fluoride, PtP (equation 1), it was suggested that xenon should react similarly (equation 11). Hence, the first noble gas compound was produced. 02+ PtFs —> O:° PRS - <1 Xe+Pths —> Xe" Pte - 2) has the greatest YX -¥ angle? A BF; B CH, Cc 10 D NH; 19. Alliin is the compound responsible for the characteristic smell of garlic, When garlic is cut, an enzyme releases alliin because alliin has the right shape to fit the enzyme molecule ‘What are the values (to the nearest 10 degrees) of the bond angles x, y and z in the molecule of alliin? x y z aa Hy ye aah | B | 120° 120° 10° sGre-cns Sou te—H c] isoe | 90 90° iH Cott p | isoe | no: | 10 alliin & Dekel MEQ Chemisey1-20 Chemical Bonding Q 20. What are the values of angle X and angle ¥ in a molecule of MTBE (a constituent of petrol)? angle | angle F anglex, GB x ‘90 105° YW B} 90° 180° ca,-Le oa, c |] 109 105° REE | D_|_ 109° 1302 cH, ‘gle 21. What is the O-S-O bond angle in SO,” ion, which may be represented as [° ve | 29 I ° A 90° exactly B_ about 107° C about 117.5° D 120° exactly 22. Which sequences of molecules show an increasing trend in the bond angle within the molecule? 1 H,0 NH; CH, 2 H,O SF, BF; 3 CH, CO, SF, 23, How does the bond angle in water change when the ion H50" is formed? ‘A. decreases to approximately 90° B decreases to approximately 109° C increases slightly D__ increases to approximately 120° 24, In which reactions is the bond angle in the product greater than that in the reactant? 1 H,0() + H%(aq) > H,0*(aq) 2 Colle) + Hole) > CoH(g) 3 COx(g) + OH(aq) > HCOs (aq) 25, The behaviour of similar molecules (e.g. thermal stability) can be compared by using the concepts of bond energy, bond length and bond polarity For example, it could be said re 7 "Compared with the HCI molecule, the bond .....X. - of the HI molecule is ns pa eres Coa 2] length greater Which pairs of words could be used to correctly ; he complete the above sentence? ed ee eee 2 26, Carbon, silicon and germanium are Group IV Pay a Sie Ge elements and they all exist in a diamond structure. The given table shows the bond bond length ¥X/nm | 0.154 | 0.234 [ 0.244 lengths in these structures. Which of the following explain why the bond length increases down the group? 1 Orbital overlap decreases down the group. 2 Atomic radius increases down the group. 3 Nuclear charge increases down the group. Atel MEQ. Chesiary 8Chemical Bonding Q_1-21 27. The bond lengths and bond angles in the molecules of methane, ammonia and water are given below. i methane ammonia water £. 0,109 nm Are? 101 nm 0.096 nm 109.5° 107° 104.5% Which of the following cause this variation in the bond angles shown? 1 increasing repulsion between hydrogen atoms as the bond length decreases 2. the number of non-bonding electron pairs in the molecule 3 anon-bonding electron pair having a greater repulsive force than a bonding electron pair 28. Which of the following would result in an ionic compound showing more covalent character? 1 the radius of the cation is large rather than small 2 the radius of the anion is large rather than small, 3. the charge on the cation is large rather than small. 29, The wave energy produced in microwave ovens is absorbed by certain polar molecules. Which of the following could be used to absorb microwave energy? 1 C.HOH 2 Nach 3 SiO; 30. Which pair of molecules have a greater permanent dipole in molecule I than in molecule IT? I 1 I r qt ees gt A cea, je, B CH,CH.CI CHsCHCh CH; CH; CT CHs cr c cl c cl c D cf cr a a 31. A charged rod is brought near a liquid flowing from a burette Which liquid would be deflected as shown in the diagram? A. bromine B cyclohexane CC hexachloroethane D_ tichloromethane & deter McQ Chemistry1-22 Chemical Bonding Q 32. ‘A slow stream of water flowing from a burette can be deflected by a negatively charged rod because water is a polar molecule. faa Which of the following explains why a water molecule is polar? ‘A Molecules are bonded together by hydrogen bonds, ‘The oxygen and hydrogen atoms have different electronegativities. ‘The oxygen atom has two lone pairs of electrons. Water is able to dissociate into ions. burette negatively charged rod 5 sae ‘The boiling points of pentane and 2,2-dimethylpropane are 36°C and 9 °C respectively Which of the following account for this difference in boiling points? 1 The molecule of 2,2-dimethylpropane is more compact than that of pentane. 2 The covalent bonds in pentane are stronger than those in 2,2-dimethylpropane. 3 There is more effective hydrogen bonding in pentane than in 2,2-dimethylpropane. Silicon tetrachloride (SiC/,) is a liquid with a low boiling point. It reacts readily with water to give silicon({V) oxide and hydrogen chloride ‘What types of bonding are present in SiC/,(1)? 1 co-ordinate bonding 2 covalent bonding 3° van der Waals' forces 35, ‘Which of the following is present as intermolecular forces in liquid tetrachloromethane, CC/,? ‘A. covalent bonding B__ induced dipole ~ induced dipole attractions C hydrogen bonding D__ permanent dipole ~ permanent dipole attractions 36. As the number of carbon atoms in the homologous series of alkane molecules inereases, which one of the following properties of alkanes would show a decrease in its numerical value? A. density B enthalpy change of vaporisation number of isomers D__ vapour pressure 37, Which isomer of the hydrocarbon CH is likely to have the highest boiling point? A. (CH);CCH;CH3 B_ (CH,),CHCH(CH,): CHsCH;CH(CH;)CH;CHs D CH;CH,CH.CH;CH2CH, 38. ‘The surface of Triton, a moon of the planet Neptune, was found to contain condensed methane which flows rapidly. Which of the following explains the flow within the condensed methane? A Condensed methane has a metallic structure. B Methane molecules contain strong C-H bonds. C Methane molecules have tetrahedral structure. D_ The intermolecular forces between methane molecules are weak. Atel MEQ. Chesiary 8Chemical Bonding Q_1-23 39. Why is the boiling point of methane (M, 16) higher than that of neon (4, 20)? i A molecule of methane has a greater mass than a molecule of neon. > Molecules of methane have stronger intermolecular forces than those of neon. Molecules of methane form hydrogen bonds, but those of neon do not. The molecule of methane is polar, but that of neon is not. wae 40. Why is the boiling point of butanone (79.6 °C) higher than that of pentane (36.1 °C)? A. The relative molecular mass of butanone is higher than that of pentane molecule B_ The butanone molecule has a larger surface area than the pentane molecule. C_ There are hydrogen bonds between butanone molecules, but not between pentane molecules D There are dipole-dipole forces between butanone molecules, but only van der Waals’ forces between pentane molecules 41. After an oil spillage at sea, a layer of liquid hydrocarbon floats on the surface of the water. Which of the following explain why liquid hydrocarbons both float on, and are less dense than, water? 1 There are only van der Waals’ interactions between hydrocarbon molecules, 2 Hydrogen bonding between the molecules in liquid water causes them to pack close together. 3. Hydrocarbon molecules are not solvated by water. 42, Why is the boiling point of iodine monochloride, ICI, nearly 40°C higher than that of bromine, although the two substances have almost the same relative molecular mass? A. IClisan unsymmetrical molecule. B_ 1C/has a giant covalent structure. C_ ICIisa polar molecule. D_ The L-CI bond is stronger than the Br-Br bond. 43, Which process involves the breaking of hydrogen bonds? A HQ) > H.(g) B_ NH,() > NH,(g) C 2HI(g) > H.(g) + 1(g) D CHi(g) > C(g) + 4H(e) 44, Why is ethanol much more soluble in water than is ethyl ethanoate? A A hydrogen bond forms between the hydrogen of the -OH group in ethanol and the hydrogen of a water molecule. B A hydrogen bond forms between the hydrogen of the -OH group in ethanol and the oxygen of a water molecule. C Ethanol is a polar molecule, but ethyl ethanoate is non-polar. D__Ethanol is able to dissociate into hydrogen ions and ethoxide ions, but ethyl ethanoate is not able to dissociate 45. Which compound is least soluble in water? A CHCHOH)CH; BB CcHsCO.Na © CoHNH, D_ CH,CH(NH,)CO.H & deter McQ Chemistry1-24 Chemical Bonding Q 46. ‘The boiling point of the hydrogen halides varies as shown Which of the following explains the higher boiling point of bp hydrogen fluoride? A. There is hydrogen bonding between HF molecules, B_ The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides. C The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group, D__ The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF molecules TF WC) HBr HIT 47. When two liquids are mixed, heat may be given out if intermolecular bonds formed are stronger than those broken, even if no chemical reaction has taken place. By mixing which pair of liquids would heat be evolved? A) CHCl, and (CH;),CO B CHI; and CsHiy © CCl and (CH;),CO D CCl and CH;CH,OH 48, Which of the following would give the best indication of the relative strengths of the intermolecular hydrogen bonds in liquid hydrogen halides? A bond dissociation energies B enthalpy changes of solution enthalpy changes of formation D_ enthalpy changes of vaporisation 49, Which molecule will not form a hydrogen bond with another of its own molecules? A CH;CHO B CH;NH: C CH,OH D NH; 50. In which of the following is hydrogen bonding present within the species itself? A themoleculeH,O —B_ the ion HF C the ion OH D_ theion NH,” 51, Inwhich of the following are there hydrogen bonds? 1 NH,CK(s) 2 NH,() 3 ~HNO,(I) 52, Which properties of ammonia can be explained in terms of hydrogen bonding? 1 Itis very soluble in water 2 Itisabase. 3 The liquid form contains the ions NH,” and NH. 53. Which of the following can be explained by intermolecular hydrogen-bonding? A_ The boiling points of the alkanes increase with increasing relative molecular mass. B_ CH,OCH; (Af, = 46) has a higher boiling point than CHyCHCH (M, = 44). © Hydrogen chloride forms an acidic solution when dissolved in water. D_ Ice has a lower density than water at 0°C. 8 Atel MEQ. Chesiary& States of Matter States of Matter Q [The Gaseous State ] 1. What are the assumptions made about an ideal gas in the kinetic theory? 1 There are no forces of attraction between molecules, 2 The molecules are in a state of continual, random motion, 3 The size of the molecules is negligible 2. What are the possible reasons why a real gas deviates from ideal behaviour? 1 The molecules in a real gas have different speeds. 2 The molecules in a real gas have a definite size. 3 The molecules in a real gas are subjected to intermolecular forces. 3. Under what conditions would a real gas behave most like an ideal gas? ‘A. high pressure and low temperature B__low pressure and high temperature Clow pressure and low temperature D standard temperature and pressure 4, What is the most significant factor in explaining the non-ideal behaviour of the gases present in the reaction chamber in the Haber process? A. strong bonds between the atoms in nitrogen molecules B the presence of a catalyst the high temperature of 450°C D the high pressure of 150 atm 5. Which gas shows the most deviation from ideal gas behaviour? A HCI B He Cc CH, DN; 6. Which of the following deductions can be made from the Gas Laws as summarised in the ideal gas equation pI"= nRT (where each symbol has its usual meaning)? 1 One mole of any ideal gas occupies the same volume under the same conditions of temperature and pressure 2 The density of an ideal gas at constant pressure is inversely proportional to the temperature. 3 The volume of a given mass of an ideal gas is doubled if its temperature is raised from 25°C to 50°C at constant pressure. 7. When a sample of a gas is compressed (at constant temperature) from 15 atm to 60 atm, its volume changes from 76.0 em’ to 20.5 cm’. Which of the following statements explain this behaviour? 1 The gas behaves non-ideally 2 The gas dimerises 3 Gas is adsorbed on to the vessel walls. 8. Which expressions correctly represent the behaviour of an ideal gas? [ p = pressure, Vy, = molar gas volume, M = molar mass, ¢ = concentration, d= density and 7'= temperature] 1 ply eT 2 pM « dT 3 pod deter McQ Chemistry1.26 _ States of Matter’ 9. Which equations are applicable to an ideal gas? [p= pressure, I”= volume, m= mass, M = molar mass, p = density, ¢ = concentration, R = gas constant and 7 Rr. Mw 2 pl'= MRT 3 10. A fixed mass of an ideal gas (at constant temperature) occupies a vessel of volume I’ at a pressure p. Which graph correctly shows the relationship between the product pI” and p? 4. A B ic) D ? 11. Which graph shows the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure? a oA B 4 ¢ 4 D of - Oy of - ot ~ temperature/°C temperature°C temperature!°C {emperature!°C 12. Which graph correctly describes the behaviour of a fixed mass of an ideal gas? [T'is measured in K.] A B c D 4 : , constant 7 constant I constant 7 constant 13. A graph of pI” against p is plotted for an ideal gas and a ideal yas non-ideal gas. [ p = pressure and ’= volume of gas.] pl a Which gas would show the greatest deviation from non-sdeal gay ideality? 0 5 A’ ammonia B ethene C methane D nitrogen 14, For one mole of an ideal gas at a given pressure, which processes will increase the number of molecules with energy greater than a particular value? 1 increasing the temperature 2 introducing more of the same gas into the same volume at the same temperature 3 compressing the gas at constant temperature Atel MEQ. ChesiaryStates of Matter Q__1-27 15. In which of the following would the highest pressure be exerted? i A 1 molofN, atO0°C in 11.2 dm* B 1 molofN, at 27°C in 22.4 dm’ C1 mol of H,0 at 27°C in 1 dm* D 1 mol of C,H at its normal boiling point 16. Deuterium, 3H, is an isotope of hydrogen Given that a 2 g sample of hydrogen at temperature T and volume I exerts a pressure p, which of the following would also exert a pressure p at the same temperature 7”? A. 2 gof deuterium of volume I” B 4g of deuterium of volume © C_amixture of 1 g of hydrogen and 2 g of deuterium of total volume J” D_ amixture of 2 g of hydrogen and 1 g of deuterium of total volume 21° 17. Hydrogen gas is liberated when granulated zinc reacts with dilute sulfuric acid. When a sample of zine reacts with an excess of acid, how does the volume of the hydrogen liberated depend on temperature and pressure? ‘A It increases with increase in temperature and is independent of pressure. B__It increases with decrease in temperature and is independent of pressure. C__Itincreases with increase in temperature and increases with increase in pressure. D__Itincreases with increase in temperature and decreases with increase in pressure. 18. A 1 dm’ flask containing helium at 2 kPa pressure is connected (at constant temperature) to a 2 dm* flask containing neon at 1 kPa pressure. ‘What is the final pressure after connection? A lL kPa B 1} kPa © 123 kPa D 2kPa 19, 1 em? of ice is heated to 323 °C (596 K) at a pressure of one atmosphere (101 kPa). Given that the density of ice is 1.00 gem’, what is the volume of steam produced? [1 mole of a gas occupies 24.0 dm’ at 25°C (298K) and one atmosphere.] A 0.267 dm* B 133dm* © 267dm* D 48.0dm* 20. Ina syringe experiment, the volume occupied by 0.10 g of a gas is found to be 83.1 em’ (measured at 1.0 x 10° Pa and 27°C) What is the relative molecular mass of this gas? A 0:10%8.3127 Bo —0:10x8.31x27 1.0% 105 x83.1 1.0105 «83.1 10° 0.10x8.31%300 pp —0.10x8.31x300 1,0x105 x83.1 1.0% 105 x83.1x10-6 & tere McQ Chemisty1-28 States of Matter Q 21, ‘The diagram applies to oxygen at temperature 7, number of molecules having a particular Which diagram is likely to apply to oxygen at a peed higher temperature 73? 0 Nrapeed of molecules A B c D 22. Given that the dotted curve represents the Boltzmann distribution of molecular speeds of a gas at 200K, which graph correctly represents the corresponding distribution for the same gas at 500 K? A c fiaction of | fraction of molecules |. molecules fraction of molecules speed speed speed 23. The diagram shows the Boltzmann distribution of molecular speeds of a gas, with point X representing the most probable speed. rune In which direction would X move if the gas is cooled? speed 24, The diagram shows the Boltzmann distribution of molecular energies of a gas at a given temperature Which of the following correctly describe what happens as temperature increases? proportion of 1 The maximum of the curve is displaced to the right. molecules 2 The proportion of molecules with energies above any given value increases. maergy 3 The proportion of molecules with any given energy increases. 25. To calculate the relative molecular mass, M,, of a Mos ressure | temperature compound, measured values of the pressure, volume and a mS temperature of a known mass of the gaseous compound A | high high are substituted into the equation pI"= nT. B | high Tew What conditions of pressure and temperature would give c | tow high the most accurate value of M,? Dd] tow low 8 tate CQ Cheminey[The Soli 26. State] Part of the lattice structures of solids X and Y are shown in the given diagrams {In X, o and e are particles of different elements.] What types of bonding are present in X and Y? x Y A | covalent metallic B ionic covalent c ionic metallic D_| covalent ionic 21. ‘Which solid has a simple molecular lattice? A’ magnesium oxide B_ sodium C silicon('V) oxide D sulfur 28. Which solid is made up of atoms or molecules held together only by van der Waals’ forces? A CO; B Cu © 1,0 D MgO 29. ‘Which of the following solids has a macromolecular structure? A aluminium chloride B ice magnesium oxide —-D_silicon(1V) oxide 30. ‘Which of the following are examples of solids with giant lattices? 1 iodine 2 sodium 3° sodium iodide 31 Which of the following features are characteristic of the structure of metallic copper? 1 ionic bonds 2. lattice of ions 3° delocalised electrons 32. Which of the following correctly describes the structure of sodium chloride? 1 The Na* and C/~ ions are both arranged in a face-centred cubic lattice. 2 The distance between the nuclei of adjacent ions is the sum of the two ionic radii. 3 Each Na* ion is surrounded by six C/” ions 33 Which of the following explain why simple ionic crystals have good cleavage planes? 1 The particles in the crystals are arranged in a regular lattice. 2 The particles in the crystals are held by electrostatic forces. 3° The particles in the crystals are separated by large distances. 34, ‘Which of the following contain delocalised electrons? 1 cyclohexene 2 graphite 3 sodium & Dekel MEQ Chemisty130 _ States of Matter: 35. Solid iodine readily forms iodine vapour when heated. What can be deduced about the nature of the particles in these two physical states of iodine? solid vapour A ionic atomic Bionic molecular C — molecular atomic D molecular molecular 36. Dry ice or solid carbon dioxide, CO,(s), is used as a refrigerating agent because it readily changes directly from the solid into the vapour state at a low temperature. From this observation, what could be the main intermolecular bonding in CO,(s)? ‘A. covalent bonding B__ hydrogen bonding ionic bonding D van der Waals” forces 37. A solid melts sharply just above 100°C and does not conduct electricity even when molten. It dissolves in hydrocarbon solvents. What is the most likely structure of this solid? A. anatomic crystal B anionic crystal C a giant molecular erystal D__amolecular erystal 38, Magnesium oxide has a very high melting point and, is used to line industrial furnaces. For magnesium oxide to melt, which type of bond needs to be broken? A co-ordinate B_ covalent C ionic D_ metallic 39, Which of the following is a correct statement about the properties associated with ionic and covalent bonds? A. A covalent compound cannot be an electrolyte. B Any covalent compound that contains both oxygen and hydrogen in its molecule forms hydrogen bonds. C Ionic bonds and covalent bonds cannot both occur in the same compound. D__ Ionic compounds differ from metals in that ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in the solid state, 40. Which set of properties applies to a non-ionic compound with a giant lattice? physical state at electrical conductivity of room temperature the molten compound ‘melting point 1°C A liquid does not conduct -114 B liquid does not conduct melts over a temperature range c solid conducts well 808 D solid does not conduct 1610 Aes MEQ Chesiary& States of Matter Q 41, Which of the following solids shows more than one type of chemical bonding? A brass B_ copper € diamond D ive 42, What is the reason for copper conducting electricity when a potential difference is applied? A B c D Bonding electrons in the crystal lattice move. Copper(ll) ions move to the cathode. The atoms of copper become ionised. The crystal lattice breaks down. 43. The structures of an element X, its principal oxide and its principal chloride are as shown. lement 0 = oxygen element © = chlorine ‘Which element could X be? A carbon B lead C phosphorus D silicon 44, New paints (based on small flakes of silica, SiO.) are being developed for cars to give an effect similar to mother-of-pearl. The structure of SiO, shows the following characteristics, # each silicon atom is bonded to x oxygen atoms, 2 ; ; © each oxygen atom is bonded to y silicon atoms, £ A 2 1 covalent * cach bond is a z type bond. B 2 1 ionic Which combination correctly represents x, y and z c| 4 2 covalent in the above statement? >| 4 5 = 45, Which of the following are correct statements about the lattice structures of graphite and diamond? 1 2 3 The shortest carbon-carbon bond occurs in diamond. The C-C-C bond angle between nearest neighbours is smaller in diamond than in graphite. All bonds in diamond are of the same strength but those in graphite are not 46. Which structural feature is present in both diamond and graphite? A B c D a carbon-carbon bond length equal to that in ethane covalent bonds between carbon atoms delocalised electrons each carbon atom bonded to four others tere McQ Chemisty1.32__ States of Matter: 47. What is the best explanation for graphite being used as a lubricant but not diamond? A. Graphite has delocalised electrons. B_ Graphite has a hexagonal arrangement of atoms in the layers C Graphite has covalent bonds between atoms in the layers D_ Graphite has van der Waals’ forces between the layers of atoms. 48. The structure of boron nitride is similar to that of graphite (as shown in the diagram). = 5 What properties would boron nitride have? + boron 1 Itisa lubricant SSS eel 2 Itis transparent when pure 3 Itis very hard. SSS 49. Boron (element above aluminium in Group III of the Periodic Table) is non-metallic. It combines with nitrogen to form boron nitride which has a graphite structure. ‘What conclusions can be drawn from this information? 1 The empirical formula of boron nitride is BN. 2 The boron and nitrogen atoms are likely to be arranged altemately in a hexagonal pattern. 3 Boron nitride has a layer structure with van der Waals’ forces between the layers. 50, The structure of silicon carbide is similar to that of diamond. What are the advantages of using a silicon carbide ceramic compared with steel? 1 Silicon carbide has a higher melting point. 2 Silicon carbide is more resistant to oxidation, 3 Silicon carbide is less likely to deform under compression 51. Carborundum (silicon carbide), used to sharpen knives, is a shiny, hard material. It has a very high melting point and is chemically inert. What type of structure explains these properties of carborundum? A agiant structure with covalent bonds between silicon and carbon atoms B a giant structure containing metallic bonding C a giant layer structure with covalent bonds between atoms and van der Waals’ forces between the layers D__asimple molecular structure with covalent bonds between the atoms of silicon and carbon 52. Itis not possible to recycle the lead in which one of the following uses of lead? A. car batteries B church roofs C_ petroleum additives D solder Aes MEQ Chesiary& Atoms, Molecules & Stoic! B_ Atoms are very small. John Dalton, in his Atomic Theory, suggested that all matter was composed of small particles which he called ‘atoms’. (ans) 2 A. Itisa ratio of masses. Relative atomic mass, 4,. is the ratio of the mass of one atom of the element to =f the of an atom of °C isotope, expressed on etupsee 3. ‘A. argon Since density of ‘atmospheric Ns’ is higher than that of chemically pure N2, the gas that causes this discrepancy would, therefore, be one of higher mass than N;, [M;: Na = 28; Ar= 39.9; He = 4; CH,= 16; Ne=20.0] (ans) 4. D 80% Let the percentage of $B be x; percentage of "9B is (100-.). A, of B= 11x ~10x-+ 1000 = 1080 x =80% (ans) > 5 Cc 20.18 (ensossyi2n02~E285) 9.18 (ans) 6. Cc 636 A= DHE) 3.6 (ans) 1, D It contains the same number of atoms as 1 mol of hydrogen atoms. One mole of any substance contains the same number (Avogadro's constant, 6.02 x 10°) of particles (atoms, molecules, ions). (ans) tere McQ Chemisty AMA&S 1-33 metry 8 A electrons in | g of hydrogen gas In A: H, 2H" +26" mol of InB: molof Cl, Inc InD. mol of 0 mol of H C 4.0 dm’ of 0.25 mol dm* CH,CO,Na(aq) CH;CO.Na > Na’ + CH,COS mol of solute particles = 2x mol of CHsCO.Na =2x0.25 x40 =2.0 mol (ans) [mol of solute particles in A, Band D are 1.5, 1.0 and 1.0 respectively.] 10. B 2 mol Overall equation of reaction is 2H,S(aq) + SO.(aq) > 38(s) + 2H;0() 1 mol of $ is produced by 2mol of H2S. (ans) ul c 3U04(NO;): > U303 + 6NOs + 205 . mol of Os = 3 x mol of UONO;)s B 16mol 2NaN; —> 2Na + 3N3 10Na + 2KNO, - K,0 + 5Na,0 +N; From eqn I, | mol of NaN; gives 4mol of Nz and 1 mol of Na. From eqn II, 1 mol of Na gives 4 mol of N: mol of Nz produced by 1 mol of NaNy =2+1=16 (ans)134A M&S 2B. D8 The half-equations are 4Cl, + 8" > 8CI S,0;> + SH,0 + 2HSO, + 8H? +8e" 8 mol of €” are supplied per mol of $0;>. (ans) etre 4. B 18x10" -M, of glucose = 6(12) + 12(1) + 6(16) = 180 mol of C = 6 x mol of glucose = 6 x ;3; = 0.30 30x 6x10" 8x 10" (ans) oteinse 15, no, of C atoms = nL= A 1.25x 10” Atrtp., vol of | mol of gas = 24 dm* mol of O = +2; = 0.0208 mol no, of Oz molecules = nL = 0.0208 x 6,02 x 10 = 1.25% 10" (ans) epi sip 16. Cc 300 x 10 x 6.02 x 107 =301 = 300 (ans) tenis 17. no. of molecule = ni a x a x 6x 10 mass of C/; in 1dm* = 0,005 mg = 0.005x10" g m__ 0.005%10" 1 M, 2055)" no, of C/; molecules 1dm’ = nl, = 0.005210 6, 493 2355) = 9.005, 1 5610" (ans) 1000 “71 sept sig 18, B 10x 10%x 6.02 x 10” Ne(g) > Ne*(g) +e~ mol of e° = mol of Ne= 1.0 x 10° mol no. of e&° =nL= 1.0 x 10% x 6.02 x 10° (ans) tr 1 ‘The number of atoms is 6.02 x 10" ‘The number of atoms is the same as the number of atoms in 4.0 g of “He. 9. v1 v2 1 mol 6.02 x 10° (Avogadro's const.) mol and so, contains the same 1 mol) of °C. mol of H molecules =2 mol of H atoms 2 x 6.02 x 10°) H atoms (ans) ooenee 20. D 264kg 12.0 gof °C no, of atoms 4.0 g of “He number of atoms as in 12.0 g 2.0 gof 'H, CH,O + 0, > CO, +H. mol of CH;0 = Gf = age 7 “Gp = 60 mass of CO; = mM, = [60 x (12 + 2x16))] 8 (60 x 44)g=2.64kg (ans) smenae 21 C 200% Ca+ 40; CaO M, 40.1 56.1 Mass of Ca= (21x14.0) = 10.0 328x100) = 20.0% (ans) omeiae 22. % by mass of Ca C 161 tonnes 3Al + 3NH,CIO, > AIO; + AICI + 3NO + 6H,0 M, of NHCIOQ, = 14.0 + 4(1.0) + 35.5 + 4(16.0) =1175 From the equation, (3x117.5) tonnes of NH,C/O, react with (3«27.0) tonnes of A/ powder. with 700 tonnes of NH,CIO,, 300-x (3x 27.0) sans mass of A/ reacted = = 161 tonnes (ans) tre 8 Aes MEQ Chesiary& 23. 50160 © 500 ‘Mass of CaBr, in 100 tonnes of solution = (x 100) tonnes ‘M, of CaBrs = 40 + 2(80) = 200 mass of bromine = (282 x $8 100) (2B x 50) tonnes (ans) 24, B LH IG) + H,00) > OF(aq) + Hg) mass of H,(g) = mM, = n x 2(1) = 2m g mol of H(g), n = mol of (3) ©. sample that contains the greatest no. of moles of H” would give the greatest mass of Hy(g). In A, mol of HS) In D, mol of Hs) = mol of NaH 1 =4.=0.0417 (ans) 25, C 0.0688 mol of H:0; = 4 x mol of PbS = 4x M,= (4 x 22 x 34) g = 0.068 g (ans) 26. D 60x10%g mass of | Mole ratio Hg: lipoyl group = 1: 1 mol of Hg = mol of lipoyl group =(.0x 1.0 x 10%) mol 3.0x 10% mol nA, = (3.0 x 10° x 200) g 60x 10%g (ans) mass of Hg tere McQ Chemisty AM&S 1-35 27. D 80cm’ N,O, + 2NaOH ~ NaNO; + NaNO, + H,0 mol of NaOH = 2 x mol of NOx 2x 0.02 = 0.04 mol ~ vol of NaOH = 2% x 10° 80cm’ (ans) 28 B 36dm’ 2NaN4(s) > 2Na(s) + 3NA(g) mol of N,(g) = 4x mol of NaN = (3 1) mot Since volume of | mol of gas at r-t.p. = 24 dm’, vol. of N; = (4 x 24)dm' = 36 dm? (ans) 29. © 27.7 dm* 2NaN; > 3N2 + 2Na mol of Na(g) = 3x mol of NaNs = (3x8) mol = 1.154 mol Since volume of | mol of gas at r-t.p. = 24 dm’, vol. of Nj = (1.154x 24) = 27.7 dm? (ans) 30. A Qy-23) dm? CH, + 20; + CO; + 2H,0 y 2(0.99y) 0.99y CH, +30, + CO + 2H,0 y 4@0y) ay . vol of O; used = [2(0.99y) + $(0.01y)] dm* = Qy-0.02y +238 y) dm* =(2y— 2%) dm? (ans) 31. D 80cm’ 2AgNOs + BaCl; + 2AgC/ + Ba(NOs)s mol of AgNO; = 2 x (mol of BaC/;) = 2 = 3 = 2x 0.20 x 22 =8.0 x 10 = (2030 x 1000) em? 80cm? (ans) vol of AgNO;136 A,M&S 32 A 2.5% 10° moldm® H*+ OH >H,0 mol of H*= mol of OH” = 1.0x 107 x 25, Too =2.5 x 10“ mol [H*] = (92 x 2.5 x 104) mol dmv Since 1Ca”* = 2H" (charge balance) [Ca*] = 4 fH] = 4x (2x 25x 10%) 5x 10° mol dm [CaSO,] = [Ca] = 2.5 x 10° mol dm? (ans) sept seg 33, B 40cm’ 2MnO,(aq) + 5C;0,7 (aq) + 16H"(aq) ~> 2Mn™ (aq) + 10CO.(g) + 8H,0(01) mol of KMnO, = 3x mol of Cy 3x 21.0% 10% vol of KMnO, = x 1000) em* = 40cm? (ans) 0x 104 36. CH=CH, “Oo mol of C = mol of CO, 03s 0.0080 mol mol of H = 2 x mol of H,0 = 2 x 222 0080 mol = mole ratio CH= 1:1 Molecular formula of A, B, C and D are CoH, C\Hg, CyHg and CH,p respectively Hence, the hydrocarbon is CyHg (C). (ans) ere 37, 34. B 9cm* MnO, + 8H* + Se” > Mn** + 4H,0 Fe* + C0, + Fe* + 2CO; + 367 3MnO," + SFe”* + 5C,0, + 24H" > 3Mn™* + SFe** + 10CO; + 12H,0 mol of KMnO, = 3 x mol of FeC,0, = $x 001 x3 =9.0% 10° vol of KMnO, (28% x 1000) em* =9em* (ans) ormins 35. D = 96.0cm’ NH;CONH; + 2HNO, -> CO; +2N; +3H;0 oe = MB =2.0% 10° mol Since CO> is absorbed by KOH(aq), the final volume of gas is due to N;, mol of N: mol of urea x mol of urea = 220 x 10 =4.0 x 10° mol (4.0 x 10° x 24000) cm? 96.0 cm* (ans) atte :. vol of Ny A CH, GH, + (e+ $)02 > xCO, + $H,0 ae 60cm? 40cm? = Ivol 3vol 2vol > I mel 3 mol 2mol x33; $22 ory=4 So, formula is CsH,. (ans) 38. C Css CH, + (e+ $)02 > xCO, + $ 10cm? (70-20)em* 30 cm* = 50m? = lvl Svol 3 val = Imol 5 mol 3 mol xo3, 0 xt es or3+2=5 > y=8 Hence, the hydrocarbon is CsHs. (ans) omenoe 39, D N,0, NH; + HC/ > NH,C/ mol of NH = mol of HC/= 1.0 x 2 mol of HO = = 120 = 3 =42 =0.40 mol Thus, 0.10 mol of oxide gives 0.20 mol of NHs and 0.40 mol of H.0. ie. 1 mol of oxide gives 2 mol of NH, and Amol of H,0 => x=2and y=4 Formula of the oxide is NjO,. (ans) ett 0.20 Aes MEQ Chesiary 840, B_ CH,CH,OH All organic compounds yield CO; and H;0 on complete oxidation (combustion). In A, CH,CHO + $0, > 2CO, + 2H,0 In B, CH,CH,OH + 30, + 2CO, + 3H,0 In€, CH,CH; + 20, > 2CO, +3H,O In, CHCO,H + 20; + 2CO, + 2H,0 Hence, option B. (ans) al A HCIS H+ OH > H0 mol of H* = mol of OH"= 0.1 x = 24x 10? mol Ag*(aq) + Ci“(aq) > AgCi(s) mol of C/” = mol of Ag’ = 0.1 x $$; =4.8x 10° mol Since the same volume (20 cm’) of sample is used in each case, mole ratio H*: CI" = 2.4 x 10° :4.8x 107 = 1:2 (ans) 42 B_ Mg;P:+6H:0 > 3Mg(OH); + Ps. + Hy formula of anion in X is HCIy. This equation has the same number of atoms of each element on either side of the equation and. so, is balanced. (ans) 43. C 200cm* CsHy + 402 > 3CO, + 240 10cm 40cm’ From the equation, 40 cm’ of O, is required to react with 10 em? of C3H. Since air contains one-fifth O, by volume, min, vol. of air required = (5 x 40) =200cm’ (ans) & tere McQ Chemisty AM&S 1-37 44, D4 Atstp. | mol of gas occupies 22.4 dm’, oss = 088 Teas “ae 2.0x10-2 5.0x102 ™ =4 mol of COs Since all organic compound produces CO, and ‘water on complete combustion, 2.0 107 = 1 mol of X produces ol :, mol of C in 1 mol of organic epd = mol of CO, no. of C in | molecule of X=4 (ans) 45. D 30cm’ 0, + 2H, 100m? 50cm? > 2H,0 (Op is the limiting reagent. ‘maximum theoretical decrease in volume = vol of 0; + vol of H reacted = [10 +2(10)] cm’= 30cm’ (ans) NM 46. D 100;-#—-C 150}--B CH, +20; > CO, + 2H,0 50 150m? (excess) vol of O, reacted = (2 x 50) cm* = 100 em* Since CO, produced is absorbed by aq, KOH, vol of gas left in tube = vol of O» left unreacted = (150 - 100) = 50 em? liquid level is at 50 em? mark. (ans)138 A, M&S 41, on , When KI (aq) is gradually added to HgCh(aq), Hgl.(s) is precipitated and thus, m increases. When excess KI(aq) is added, the precipitate dissolves to give the complex, KsHgl,(aq) and so, m decreases, (ans) ominsie 48, C 60% CS.(g) + 30.(8) —> CO,(g) + 280.(g) 20cm? 3x20 om? 20cm? 220 em? = 60 em? = 40 em? (100 ~ 60) = 40 em’ (40 +20 +40) cm* = 100 cm? Both CO2 and SO; (acidic gases) are absorbed by aqueous alkali % dissolved in alkal vol. of unreacted O: Final volume of gas (222 x 100) % = 60% (ans) 49, A 10 KCIO; > KCI+ 3 2Al+ 402 ALOs Hence, 1.0 mol of A/;0; is produced. (ans) anette 50, ¥ 1 The volume of oxygen required is directly proportional to the number of carbon atoms present in the molecule ¥2_ The volume of gas produced at 25 °C is the same as for the complete combustion of an alkane with the same number of carbon atoms per molecule. CHa, + C2) 0; > nCO, + nHO CyHan + C34)0, > nCO, + (nt1)HZO Hence, volume of O; required for the complete combustion of an alkene, C,Hz,, is directly proportional to number of C atoms, n. The same volume of CO, is produced from the complete combustion of an alkene, CHa, OF an alkane, CyHaqv1- (ams) omens SL C Zn(OH), + C2Hs ‘Taking X = OH, the reaction becomes ‘Zn(CsH3): + 2H-OH > Zn(OH); + 2CsH Hence, when diethylzinc reacts with water, the products are Zn(OH); and CsH,. (ans) ere 52, x B ic} als Balancing the equation: LHS: 5C; 2Cl, 2F; 4Na; 80 RHS: ?C; 2Cl, 2F; 4Na; 2y0 $=4 and Y=C (ans) ori 8 Aes MEQ Chesiary& Atomic Structure A. electron 9X represents a particle with mass number zero and proton number —1, Henee, the particle is an electron. (ans) B Ca In the equation, ‘E(mass number),4s = L(mass number)aas LUproton number),.4s = E{proton number)ruis mass no. of X = (289 + 3(1))~ 244 = 48 proton no, of X = (114 + 3(0)) ~ 94 = 20 Hence, Pu reacts with 4$X, which is Ca (proton no. 20). (ans) 3 ‘electrons Atomic Structure _1-39 6. B Xo neutrons, n_| # electrons, & uC (14—6)=8n 6c" UN* | d4-7)-70 G-1)- 6 «o* | (6-8)-8n (8—2)- 66° GF* | a7-9-8 | @-D-8e BSi_ | @8-14)=14n Me Hence, '§0** (B) has the same number of neutrons and electrons as “C._ (ans) 7. A te Since magnitude of deflection o S22, Qe , being the lightest (relative mass is <2 nucleons, shows the greatest deflection in an electric B a 4 field. (ans) In {He** , no. of electrons = 2-2=0 8 no. of nucleons=no.ofp+no. ofm=4 (ans) |“ > the proton number of an element is the Senea number of protons in one atom of the 4. element. D OH- V3 The size of the charge on an electron is the same as that on a proton. For any element 3X, mass no. =no, of p+no. of. ‘* Nucleon number is the number of protons and atomic no. = no. of p=no. of e- neutrons in one atom of the element. to ofe | no ofp [no ofa] | * Proton number is the number of protons in one De 2 i 7 atom of the element Do" | _10 in iu © Aproton has a relative charge of +1 while an ‘OD~ 10 9 9 electron has a relative charge of -1. (ans) OH” 10. 9 8g —$—— tins OH has more electrons (e°) than protons (p) | 9. and more protons than neutrons (n). (ans) ¥ 1 atomic number ommetsan ¥ 2 electronic configuration ; V3 nuclear charge BD Isotopes are atoms of the same element that = have the same atomic number but different no.ofe” | no.ofp | no. ofn mass numbers. Since the number of protons is 2 1 - the same, they would also have the same e 2 number of electrons (hence, same electronic u — = 4 0 configuration) and same nuclear charge. (ans) 7 2 © sep bye D_ has | proton (p), | neutron (n) and 2 electrons (€). (ans) tere McQ Chemisty1-40 Atomic Structure 10 B *S PS Ar PK Tlaia Bs | 3216 | Ws | ao-19 =17 | =16 | =22 | =21 wo ofp 15_| 16 [18 [19 np ratio Ts | at [22:18 [2119 °S has the same neutron : proton ratio as 'B. (ans) mpi sig It contains 33 neutrons. Its nucleus has a relative charge of 27+. Ithas a different number of neutrons from the atoms of other isotopes of cobalt SSA5 For a given nuclide, 4X , A= no, of protons and neutrons Z=no. of protons (= no. of electrons) Hence, $Co contains 27 protons (hence, relative charge of nucleus = 27+) and (60 - 27) or 33 neutrons. By definition, isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons. (ans) cts 12, B The number of electrons in one atom of this isotope is 81 For any element ¢X, a= mass no b= atomic no. =no, of p+no. of no, of p=no, of 7 noofe | no. ofp | no.ofn tt 201-81 QTd 81 81 ial -. nucleon no, = mass no, = 201 °21X is not an isotope of °\T/ since they do not have the same atomic numbers. (ans) esis 1B. V1 The phosphorus atom has more neutrons than the sulfur atom, RPP has 15 €°, 15 p and (32-15) = 17 n; 3S has 16 €°, 16 p and (32-16) = 16 n. Thus, }2P has more neutrons than 728. (ans) 14, A. Ithas 37 neutrons, Ga has proton number 31; ic. 31 protons, 31 electrons and (68 - 31) = 37 neutrons. configuration: 1s* 2s* 2p® 33° 3p® 34" 4s 4p!; i.e. only 3 electrons in its outer shell. (ans) septs 15. B cither an s or p orbital ‘The second quantum shell (n = 2) contains only the 2s and 2p orbitals. (ans) coin 16. co ‘The n quantum shell can accommodate a ‘maximum of 2n” electrons (= n* e" pairs). (ans) erie 17. e | OQ A energy 2s Oo t 2s orbitals is spherical in shape while the 2p orbitals are dumb-bell-shaped. 2s orbitals are of lower energy than 2p orbitals. (ans) 18. ¥ 1 Each s orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons, / 2 A series of transition elements arises from the filling of d orbitals. v3 Aporbital has a higher energy than the s orbital of the same principal quantum number © Each orbital (s, p or d) can accommodate a ‘maximum of two electrons with opposite spins © Transition elements are d-block elements, which arises from the filling of d orbitals. © Within the same principal quantum number, the energy of the orbitals increases in the order s Brig) +e 1" LE. is the energy required to remove one electron from each atom in a mole of gaseous ‘atoms producing 1 mol of gaseous cations. (ans) 37, 38. B Ca%(g) > Ca(g) +e) AH >= +1150 kJ mol” 2™ LE. is the energy required (endothermic) to remove one electron from each ion in a mole of gaseous Ca* jon producing 1 mol of gaseous Ca" ion, (ans) A 1s°2s* 2p? A has the highest 1" LE. because more energy is required to remove an electron from the 2p orbital, which is closer to the nucleus, Bhas a lower 1" LE. than A due to inter- electron repulsion arising from two electrons ‘occupying the same (2p) orbital. (ans) ee 39. D Na Electronic configurations: x0" (Te) 18°28? 2p° oF (Se) Is? 28° 2p* wNe* (9e°) 1s? 2s? 2p* uNa* (10e")_ 1s* 2s* 2p® ‘Na has the largest 2" [.E. because it involves removing an electron from the next inner shell (2p €)) which is closer to the nucleus (attracted more strongly by the positive nucleus) and so, requires more energy to remove it. (ams) ce 40. C Nave) Electronic configurations CI (18) Is" 2s? 2p°3s* Ca* (19) 1s* 2s" 2p°3s*3p* 4s" Na* (10e-) 1s? 2s? 2p Ar (18e) 1s" 2s? 2p*3s?3p® Itis most difficult to remove an electron from ‘Na"(g) because the 2p electron is closer to the nucleus and so, are attracted more strongly by the positive nucleus. (ans) comes 41 FF D | 4p [4s [4s il 3d Electron furthest away from the nucleus is removed first (less strongly held). Hence, in Ga, electrons are lost from the 4p, followed by the 4s and then the 3d orbitals. (ans) cere Atel MEQ - Chesiary 8& 42. Teast most endothermic endothermic A Fr, Ra Rn ‘* Rnis anoble gas and so has the most endothermic first ionisation energy since the removal of an electron involves the destruction of a very stable noble gas configuration and this requires a large amount of energy. + Frand Ra belong to the same period with Ra being smaller in size. So, more energy is required to remove an electron from Re since the electrons are held more strongly by the nucleus. -. Frhas the least endothermic first ionisation energy. (ans) 4B ¥ 1 Group IV elements have a higher nuclear charge than the corresponding Group II elements ‘Across the period, LE. increases due to increasing nuclear charge and decreasing atomic size, Hence, Group IV elements have higher 1" LE, than Group II elements within the same period. (ans) 44, D_ The nuclear charge in neon is greater than that in fluorine. Ne 1s°2s?2p*; GF 1s? 2s*2p* ‘Ne and F are both Period 2 elements. Across the Period, ionisation energy increases due to increasing nuclear charge and decreasing atomic radii. Hence, the first LE. of Ne is higher than that of F. (ans) 45. D_ potassium The graph shows that element X has 1 valence electron (in the outermost shell), followed by 8 electrons in the next inner shell and another 8 electrons in the next shell closer to the nucleus, Hence, X is potassium (2.8.8.1), Electronic configuration of other elements: Ar (2.8.8); Ca (2.8.8.2); and C/(2.8.7) (ans) tere McQ Chemistry Atomic Structure 46, first ionisation nergy / arbitrary units A ‘aomic number Dis an alkali metal (Group 1) - as shown by the lowest 1 LE. value followed from a very high one (Cis a noble gas). (ans) ——— ete 41. B IE st 2nd 3rd 4th A Group III element has 3 valence electrons — hence, the steady increase in first three LE. values. The 4th electron is removed from the next inner shell ~ shown by the sharp increase (ans) between the 3rd and 4th LE. values. 48, C ofe 870 1800 3000 3600 5800 7990 13200 We oS A 930 1200 600 2200 1200 6200 ‘There is a ‘big’ jump in LE. between the 6" and 7" LE. values, showing that the 7* electron is removed from the next inner shell, Hence, X has 6 valence electrons and is a Group VI element, *. Xis Te (ans) 49, D from Sr to Mo inclusive The 1" LE. given are very similar in value, showing that the elements concerned are of similar atomic size; ic. transition elements from Sr to Mo inclusive. (ans)1-44 Atomic Structure 50. Notes: V2 The electron to be ionised becomes progressively further from the nucleus. V3 There are progressively more electrons between the nucleus and the electron to be ionised Down the group, the atoms get larger in size (more shells of electrons) and the electron to be ionised becomes progressively further from the nucleus and are better shielded by the inner shells of electrons — it becomes less strongly altracted by the nucleus and less energy is required to remove it. (ans) eine 51 C The electron to be lost is paired with another electron. P Is? 2s?2p*3s°3p,! 3p,'3p. S 1s? 2s? 2p*3s?3p,? 3p,' 3p. S has a lower I" LE. because less energy is required to remove an electron from paired 3p electrons in § since repulsion is experienced between the paired electrons. (ans) otis 32 D 0; and Xe have similar first ionisation energies, In the reactions, O, and Xe are ionised to give Oy" and Xe" respectively. Hence, O2 and Xe should have similar Ist LE. (ans) Atel MEQ - Chesney& Chemical Bonding A OXY X has 2 valence electrons, which is readily lost to formX** ion. Y has 6 valence electrons (two electrons short of an octet) and so, takes in two more (from X) to form Y* ion, Hence, the compound formed is XY. (ans) 2. B OXY LX has 6 valence electrons (2 electrons short of an octet), while Y" has 4 valence electrons (4 electrons short of an octet), Hence to achieve stable octet, 2 atoms of Y combines with 1 atom of ¥, forming the compound X3Y. (ans) hydrogen and sodium in sodium hydride Na has 1 valence electron which is readily lost to form Na” ion, while H takes in 1 electron to complete its duplet, forming H” ion. Henk ionic bonding occurs between Na* and Hin NaH. (ans) The anion in BaO, is 02". Each O atom has 6 valence electrons and they are bonded together by covalent bond. To complete the octet, each atom carries an electron transferred from the Baatom, (ans) oN. a, i B forms covalent bonds with F. In BF;, there are only 6 electrons around B. So, B can accept 2 more electrons (to complete the octet) and hence, forms dative bond with CH,OH. (ans) tere McQ Chemistry Chemical Bonding 6. D NCh Since each covalent bond contains 2 bonding electrons, there are 12 bonding electrons in C:H,, 8 in CO,, 4 in HS and 6 in NCh, g a” CN (ans) Li,0 is ionic. Li (1s* 2s') loses its valence electron to form Li’ ion, which does not have eight electrons in its outer shell. (ans) the copper ion in CuO the methyl free radical a molecule of NO In CuO, Cu has configuration [Ar] 34? and 50, has a single unpaired electron ‘A methyl free radical which is formed from the homolytic fission of C-H bond has a single unpaired electron HMcH, 5 Ht+CHS! InNO, there are 7 electrons around the central N atom, = N 9. V 1 co-ordinate (dative covalent) bonding, NH; and BF, are covalent. } molecules. B in BF; is 2 \G 74 electrons short of an octet pe \ and so, accepts the lone F Ht pair of electrons from NH; forming a dative bond with it. (ans) tte 10. Sn 7\ cf or Sn has 4 valence electrons. Each C/ atom has 7 valence electrons and needs one more electron to form a stable octet. Hence, in SnC/>, there are (442) = 6 €° or 3 electron pairs around Sn; i.e. two bond pairs and one lone pair. (ans)