Mock AILET 045490007

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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024

MOCK AILET #04
Duration : 90 Minutes Candidate Name :
c o m
_____________
Max. Marks : 150
Centre Name : __________
Batch
Contact No.
:
:
.
_____________
rs
_____________
k e
r an
p
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5. To
No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are 150.
There is a negative marking of 0.25 marks for every incorrect answer.
Candidates have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN (BLUE
OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the TajMahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The candidate has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below :
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
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6. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and no marks
will be awarded for the same.
7. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
8. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided
for.
9. After the test is over, the candidate should keep the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper and can carry it back with
themselves.
10. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
11. Impersonation is an offence and the candidate, apart from disqualification, 0O7Tto face criminal prosecution.
may have
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12. The candidates shall not leave the hall before the Test is over.
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PART 01: ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.1-Q.10): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Questions in probability can be tricky, and we benefit from a clear understanding of how to set up the solution
to a problem (even if we can’t solve it!). Here is an example where intuition may need to be helped along a bit:
“Remove all cards except aces and kings from a deck, so that only eight cards remain, of which four are aces
and four are kings. From this abbreviated deck, deal two cards to a friend. If he looks at his card and announces
(truthfully) that his hand contains an ace, what is the probability that both his cards are aces? If he announces
instead that one of his cards is the ace of spades, what is the probability then that both his cards are aces? Are
these two probabilities the same?” Probability theory provides the tools to organize our thinking about how to
set up calculations like this. It does this by separating out the two important ingredients, namely events (which
are collections of possible outcomes) and probabilities (which are numbers assigned to events). This separation
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into two logically distinct camps is the key which lets us think clearly about such problems. For example, in the
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first case above, we ask “which outcomes make such an event possible?”. Once this has been done we then figure
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out how to assign a probability to the event (for this example it is just a ratio of integers, but often it is more
complicated).
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First case: there are 28 possible ‘hands’ that can be dealt (choose 2 cards out of 8). Out of these 28 hands,
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exactly 6 contain no aces (choose 2 cards out of 4). Hence 28-6=22 contain at least one ace. Our friend tells us
he has an ace; hence he has been dealt one of these 22 hands. Out of these exactly 6 contain two aces (again
choose 2 out of 4). Therefore, he has a probability of 6/22=3/11 of having two aces.
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Second case: one of his cards is the ace of spades. There are 7 possibilities for the other card, out of which 3
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will yield a hand with 2 aces. Thus, the probability is 3/7. Any implicit assumptions?? Yes: we assume all hands
are equally likely.
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Sample space the basic setting for a probability model is the random experiment or random trial.
This is your mental model of what is going on. In our previous example this would be the dealer passing over
two cards to your friend.
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Definition 1 The sample space S is the set of all possible outcomes of the random experiment.
Depending on the random experiment, S may be finite, countably infinite or uncountably infinite. For a random
coin toss, S = {H, T}, so |S| = 2. For our card example, |S| = 28, and consists of all possible unordered pairs of
cards, e.g. (Ace of Hearts, King of Spades) etc. But note that you have some choice here: you could decide to
include the order in which two cards are dealt. Your sample space would then be twice as large, and would
include both (Ace of Hearts, King of Spades) and (King of Spades, Ace of Hearts). Both of these are valid sample
spaces for the experiment. So you get the first hint that there is some artistry in probability theory! namely how
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to choose the ‘best’ sample space.
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. Which of the following best describes the grammatical function of the phrase "out of these" in the passage?
(a) Adverbial phrase (b) Prepositional phrase
(c) Noun phrase (d) Adjective phrase
2. What is the meaning of the word "implicit" as used in the passage?

(a) Clear and obvious (b) Expressed directly9T0Q0L0O7T
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(c) Implied but not directly stated (d) Uncertain ortr-doubtful
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3. Which figure of speech is used in the sentence "Probability theory provides the tools to organize our thinking
about how to set up calculations like this"?
(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Personification (d) Hyperbole
4. What type of adverb is the word "truthfully" in the phrase "he looks at his card and announces (truthfully) that
his hand contains an ace"?
(a) Manner (b) Time (c) Place (d) Degree
5. How many possible hands are there in the first case, where two cards are dealt from the abbreviated deck?
(a) 22 (b) 6 (c) 28 (d) 8
6. In the sentence "Probability theory provides the tools to organize our thinking about how to set up calculations
like this," what does the phrase "set up calculations" mean?
(a) Perform mathematical operations
(c) Solve complex equations
(b) Arrange and plan mathematical problems
(d) Gather data for statistical analysis
c o m
7.
LOGICAL REASONING
rs .
According to the passage, how many possible hands contain at least one ace when two cards are dealt from the
abbreviated deck?
(a) 6 (b) 22 (c) 28 (d) 2
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8.
(a) 6/28 (b) 2/28
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What is the probability of getting one ace and one king when two cards are dealt from the abbreviated deck?
a
(c) 16/28
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(d) 4/28
9.
are there in the sample space?
(a) 14 (b) 28
p
In the given example of the card experiment, if the order of the dealt cards is considered, how many elements
o (c) 56 (d) 112
10.
(b) 2
T
If the experiment involves flipping two coins, what would be the size of the sample space?
(a) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
Directions (Q.11-Q.23): Read the passage given below to answer the questions that follow.
The Power of Inductive Reasoning
The fictional private detective character Sherlock Holmes walks into a dirty, dingy room that is sealed off with
yellow police tape. Inside, a woman is lying dead on the floor. Other British police detectives who had examined
the body before Sherlock Holmes arrived concluded the woman committed suicide based on their deductive
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reasoning. Holmes thinks otherwise. Sherlock Holmes never uses deductive reasoning to assist him in solving a
crime. Instead, he uses inductive reasoning.
So what is the difference? Deductive reasoning starts with a hypothesis that examines facts and then reaches a
logical conclusion. In math terms, think of it this way: A=B, B=C, therefore A=C. For deductive reasoning to
work, the hypothesis must be correct. Inductive reasoning starts with observations that produce generalizations
and theories.
Here is the breakdown:
Deduction: Theory to Hypothesis to Observation to Confirmation
Induction: Observation to Pattern to Hypothesis to Theory 9T0Q0L0O7T tr-5N4R
In 5B
this case, 0E
Sherlock
7F Holmes used inductive reasoning. He observed the scene, noticed certain jewellery on the
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woman’s body had been recently cleaned, except for her wedding ring. That forced him to ask the question,
Why? Why would she clean everything except her wedding ring? Holmes induced that the woman did not
commit suicide. In part, because she was traveling to London for one day, she packed an overnight bag—and
had a secret meeting before returning home. The secret meeting and wedding ring, all allowed Holmes to
continue to probe the none obvious, asking questions along the way but never forming a final opinion. Sherlock
Holmes behaves like an annoying child who continually asks, Why. The “whys” stack upon one another, and
before too long, they allow Holmes to form a pattern to reach a hypothesis and then a final theory.
THE WAPSHAW’S WHARF MYSTERY.

There was a great commotion in Lower Thames Street on the morning of January 12, 1887. When the early
members of the staff arrived at Wapshaw’s Wharf they found that the safe had been broken open, a considerable
sum of money removed, and the offices left in great disorder. The night watchman was nowhere to be found, but
nobody who had been acquainted with him for one moment suspected him to be guilty of the robbery. In this
belief the proprietors were confirmed when, later in the day, they were informed that the poor fellow’s body had
been picked up by the River Police. Certain marks of violence pointed to the fact that he had been brutally
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attacked and thrown into the river. A watch found in his pocket had stopped, and this was a valuable clue to the
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time of the outrage. But a very stupid officer had actually amused himself by turning the hands round and round,
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trying to set the watch going again. After he had been severely reprimanded for this serious indiscretion, he was
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asked whether he could remember the time that was indicated by the watch when found. He replied that he could
not, but he recollected that the hour hand and minute hand were exactly together, one above the other, and the
second hand had just passed the forty-ninth second. More than this he could not remember. What was the exact
https://thedailycoach.substack.com/p/the-power-of-inductive-
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time at which the watchman’s watch stopped? The watch is, of course, assumed to have been an accurate one.
reasoning#:~:text=Sherlock%20Holmes%20never%20uses%20deductive,then%20reaches%20a%20logical%2
0conclusion.
r an ENGLISH LANGUAGE
11.
(a) Present tense
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(b) Past tense
p
Which verb tense is predominantly used in the passage?
(c) Future tense (d) Conditional tense
12.
13.
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What does "commotion" mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Silence (b) Excitement (c) Calmness (d) Peacefulness
In the sentence "Sherlock Holmes behaves like an annoying child who continually asks, 'Why,'" what figure of
speech is being used?
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Hyperbole (d) Personification
14. Rewrite the sentence "He replied that he could not, but he recollected that the hour hand and minute hand were
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exactly together, one above the other, and the second hand had just passed the forty-ninth second" using direct
speech.
(a) "I could not," he replied, "but I recollected that the hour hand and minute hand were exactly together, one
above the other, and the second hand had just passed the forty-ninth second."
(b) "I could not," he replied, "but I recollected that the hour hand and minute hand were exactly together, one
above the other, and the second hand has just passed the forty-ninth second."
(c) "I could not," he replied, "but I recollect that the hour hand and minute hand were exactly together, one above
the other, and the second hand has just passed the forty-ninth second."
(d) "I could not," he replied, "but I recollected that the hour hand and minute hand were exactly together, one
above the other, and the second hand had just passed the forty-ninth second."
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15. Identify the 0E

error
7F in the following sentence: "Holmes induced that the woman did not commit suicide."
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(a) Subject-verb agreement (b) Tense consistency
(c) Incorrect verb form (d) Capitalization error
16. According to the passage, what kind of reasoning does Sherlock Holmes use to solve crimes?
(a) Deductive reasoning (b) Inductive reasoning
(c) Abductive reasoning (d) Analytical reasoning
LOGICAL REASONING
17. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates deductive reasoning?

(a) Observing that all roses in a garden are red and concluding that all flowers in the garden are red.
(b) Noticing that the sun sets in the west every evening and predicting that it will set in the west tomorrow.
(c) Seeing that all mammals have hair and inferring that a particular animal is a mammal because it has hair.
(d) Discovering that all books on the shelf are mysteries and assuming that all books in the library are mysteries.
18. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies inductive reasoning?
c o m
(a) Noticing that every time it rains, the grass becomes wet and concluding that rain causes wet grass.
(b) Recognizing that all cats have fur and inferring that a particular animal is a cat because it has fur.
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(d) Seeing that all birds can fly and assuming that a particular bird can fly as well.
.
(c) Observing that a specific flower is red and concluding that all flowers in the garden are red.
19.
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Which of the following statements accurately compares inductive and deductive reasoning in critical reasoning?
(a) Inductive reasoning is based on specific observations, while deductive reasoning starts with general
principles.
probabilistic predictions.
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(b) Inductive reasoning always leads to certain conclusions, while deductive reasoning involves making
a
(c) Inductive reasoning relies on logical syllogisms, while deductive reasoning relies on pattern recognition.
20.
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(d) Inductive reasoning is used in mathematics, while deductive reasoning is used in scientific experiments.
Which type of reasoning was primarily used by the investigators in "The Wapshaw's Wharf Mystery"?
21.
(a) Inductive reasoning
(c) Abductive reasoning
T (b) Deductive reasoning
(d) Analytical reasoning
What clue helped determine the time at which the watchman's watch stopped in "The Wapshaw's Wharf
Mystery"?
(a) The hour hand and minute hand were together.
(b) The second hand pointed at the forty-ninth second.
(c) The watch had stopped at midnight.
(d) The watch was found in the watchman's
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pocket.
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22. What is the underlying basic assumption made by the investigators in "The Wapshaw's Wharf Mystery"?
(a) The night watchman was not responsible for the robbery.
(b) The safe at Wapshaw's Wharf had been broken open.
(c) The night watchman's body was found in the river.
(d) The night watchman had been attacked and killed.
23. Based on the information provided in "The Wapshaw's Wharf Mystery," what are the potential solutions that can
be inferred from the given details?
(a) The night watchman committed suicide after robbing the safe. 9T0Q0L0O7T
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(b) An unknown intruder broke into Wapshaw's Wharf and robbed the safe.
(c)5BThe night watchman
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(d) The night watchman staged his own death to avoid suspicion in the robbery.
The Basics of ECG
The information contained within a single 12-lead electrocardiogram can be extensive. Learning how to interpret
the subtle differences in characteristic changes that can arise is a specialized skill that can take years to learn.
Fortunately, basic ECG interpretation can be rather straightforward, as long as you know the basics.
An electrocardiogram is a tracing of the electrical activity that is taking place within the heart. Under normal
circumstances, an electrical impulse will travel from the sinoatrial node, spread across the atrium, to the
atrioventricular node and through the ventricular septum of the heart. This electrical impulse causes the four
chambers of the heart to contract and relax in a coordinated fashion. Studying these electrical impulses allows
us to understand how the heart is functioning.
P Wave
The P wave represents the depolarization of the left and right atrium and also corresponds to atrial contraction.
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Strictly speaking, the atria contract a split second after the P wave begins. Because it is so small, atrial
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repolarization is usually not visible on ECG. In most cases, the P wave will be smooth and rounded, no more
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than 2.5 mm tall, and no more than 0.11 seconds in duration. It will be positive in leads I, II, aVF and V1 through
V6.
QRS Complex
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As the name suggests, the QRS complex includes the Q wave, R wave, and S wave. These three waves occur in
rapid succession. The QRS complex represents the electrical impulse as it spreads through the ventricles and
indicates ventricular depolarization. As with the P wave, the QRS complex starts just before ventricular
contraction.
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It is important to recognize that not every QRS complex will contain Q, R, and S waves. The convention is that
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the Q wave is always negative and that the R wave is the first positive wave of the complex. If the QRS complex
after an R wave.
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only includes an upward (positive) deflection, then it is an R wave. The S wave is the first negative deflection
Under normal circumstances, the duration of the QRS complex in an adult patient will be between 0.06 and 0.10
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seconds. The QRS complex is usually positive in leads I, aVL, V5, V6 and II, III, and aVF. The QRS complex
is usually negative in leads aVR, V1, and V2.
The J-point is the point where the QRS complex and the ST segment meet. It can also be thought of as the start
of the ST segment. The J-point (also known as Junction) is important because it can be used to diagnose an ST
segment elevation myocardial infarction. When the J-point is elevated at least 2 mm above baseline, it is
consistent with a STEMI.
T Wave
A T wave follows the QRS complex and indicates ventricular repolarization. Unlike a P wave, a normal T wave
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is slightly asymmetric; the peak of the wave is a little closer to its end than to its beginning. T waves are normally
positive in leads I, II, and V2 through V6 and negative in aVR. A T wave will normally follow the same direction
as the QRS complex that preceded it (positive or negative/up or down). When a T wave occurs in the opposite
direction of the QRS complex, it generally reflects some sort of cardiac pathology.
If a small wave occurs between the T wave and the P wave, it could be a U wave. The biological basis for a U
wave is unknown.
Heart Rate
There are many ways to determine a patient’s heart rate using ECG. One of the quickest ways is called the
sequence method. To use the sequence method, find an R wave that 9T lines up with one of the dark vertical lines
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on the ECG paper. If the next R wave appears on the next darktr-vertical line, it corresponds to heart rate of 300
beats a minute.
0E7F The dark vertical lines correspond to 300, 150, 100, 75, 60, and 50 bpm. For example, if there
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are three large boxes between R waves, the patient’s heart rate is 100 bpm. There are more accurate ways to
determine heart rate from ECG, but in life-saving scenarios, this method provides a quick estimate.
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
24. Identify the grammatical error in the sentence: "The doctors believes that early intervention is crucial for
successful treatment."
(a) Subject-verb agreement error (b) Incorrect use of a preposition
(c) Lack of parallelism (d) Misplacement of adverb
25. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence: "The patient's condition rapidly deteriorated, and he
developed acute respiratory distress."
(a) Exacerbated (b) Ameliorated (c) Aggravated (d) Alleviated
26. Which figure of speech is used in the sentence: "His determination was a flame that fueled his success"?
(a) Simile (b) Metaphor (c) Hyperbole (d) Personification
27. Choose the sentence that represents indirect speech.

(a) "She said, 'I will complete the project by tomorrow.'"
c o m
(b) "She exclaimed, 'I will complete the project by tomorrow!'"
(c) "She mentioned that she would complete the project by the following day."
(d) "She asked, 'Will I complete the project by tomorrow?'"
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28.
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Identify the error in the sentence: "Each of the employees are required to attend the training session."
(a) Subject-verb agreement error (b) Incorrect use of a preposition
29.
(c) Lack of parallelism
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(d) Pronoun-antecedent agreement error
Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization?
30.
(a) P wave (b) QRS complex
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(c) T wave
What does the J-point represent in an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

(d) J-point
31.
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(a) The point where the P wave ends and the QRS complex begins.
(b) The point where the QRS complex ends and the T wave begins.
(c) The point where the P wave and the ST segment meet.
(d) The point where the T wave and the ST segment meet.
Which of the following leads would show a negative QRS complex under normal circumstances?
(a) Lead I (b) Lead II (c) Lead V2 (d) Lead aVR
LOGICAL
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32. What can be inferred from a T wave that occurs in the opposite direction of the preceding QRS complex?
(a) The patient is experiencing a STEMI.
(b) The patient has an elevated J-point.
(c) The patient's ventricular repolarization is abnormal.
(d) The patient's heart rate is elevated.
33. How can the heart rate of a patient be estimated using the sequence method?
(a) Count the number of R waves between two dark vertical lines on the ECG paper.
(b) Measure the duration of the QRS complex. 0O7T
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(c) Calculate the time interval between the P wave and the T wave.
(d)5BDetermine the amplitude of the T wave.
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34. What does the P wave represent in an electrocardiogram?
(a) Atrial depolarization and atrial contraction.
(b) Ventricular depolarization and ventricular contraction.
(c) Ventricular repolarization and ventricular relaxation.
(d) Atrial repolarization and atrial relaxation.
35. The P wave in an electrocardiogram (ECG) is typically no more than 2.5 mm tall and no more than 0.11 seconds
in duration. If an ECG shows a P wave that is 1.8 mm tall, what is its approximate duration in seconds?
(a) 0.06 (b) 0.08 (c) 0.09 (d) 0.10
36. The J-point in an electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to diagnose ST segment elevation myocardial infarction
(STEMI) when it is elevated at least 2 mm above baseline. If the J-point is elevated by 4 mm above baseline in
an ECG, what percentage increase is this compared to the minimum diagnostic criterion?
(a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 100% (d) 200%
c o m
rs .
British and American spies used secret codes and ciphers to disguise their communications. A cipher is when
letters, symbols, or numbers are used in the place of real words. In order to decode a cipher, the recipient of the
letter must have a key to know what the coded letters, symbols, or words really mean.
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Ciphers and secret codes were used to ensure that the contents of a letter could not be understood if
correspondence was captured. In ciphers, letters were used to represent and replace other letters to mask the true
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message of the missive. The letter’s recipient utilized a key--which referenced corresponding pages and letters
a
from a well-known book, such as Entick's Dictionary--to decode the document’s true message. Some spy groups
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even created their own pocket guide to serve as a cipher’s key. Similarly, some letters were written in intricate
Culper Spy Ring.
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secret codes where numbers and special characters replaced letters, a method most notably practiced by the
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The essence of espionage is communication. Spies gather information, or intelligence, pass it to the right people,
and others analyze and communicate the intelligence. A small mistake in how a message is enciphered or the
interpretation of a message can have disastrous results. Successful intelligence officers often have a strong
command of multiple languages, are able to express themselves both clearly and covertly, and understand the
subtext of self expression. Perhaps that is why many have become great novelists! Until fairly recently, the only
way the public learned about the hidden world of espionage was through novels—because real events were
classified.
A CASE OF SPECIAL RULES
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SPY LANGUAGE AND RULES
During a regular drill, following code language was discovered. Answer the questions based on these rules.
Conditions-
(i) if the first letter is a vowel and last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as ©
If the first letter is consonant and last letter is a vowel, both are to coded as 0.
If the first letter as well as last letter are vowels, both are to be coded as the code of the last letter.
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ENGLISH LANGUAGE
37. In the context of the passage, what does the author mean by "subtext of self-expression"?
(a) The hidden meaning behind one's words
(b) The ability to express oneself covertly
(c) The underlying motives of intelligence officers
(d) The command of multiple languages
38. Which of the following best describes the purpose of using ciphers and secret codes in espionage?
(a) To ensure the security of communications
(b) To encode messages in multiple languages
(c) To create a subtext in self-expression
(d) To facilitate analysis and interpretation
39.
o m
Based on the passage, which of the following skills would be considered crucial for successful intelligence
officers?
c
(a) Proficiency in mathematics and coding
(c) Mastery of covert self-expression
(b) Fluency in multiple languages
(d) Extensive knowledge of spy novels
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40.
(a) To protect the identities of intelligence officers
(b) To maintain the public's interest in spy novels
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According to the passage, why were real events in espionage classified until fairly recently?
(c) To ensure the security of communications

(d) To hide the mistakes made in encoding messages
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41.
o p
Which of the following best captures the author's view on the public's access to information about espionage?
(a) The public's knowledge of espionage was limited to classified information.
(b) The public relied on novels for information due to the classification of real events.
42.
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(c) The public had no interest in learning about the hidden world of espionage.
(d) The public had extensive knowledge of covert communication techniques.
According to the passage, why is a small mistake in message encryption or interpretation considered disastrous?
(a) It can lead to the exposure of intelligence officers.
(b) It can result in the capture of sensitive information.
(c) It can cause a breakdown in communication between spies.
(d) It can reveal the true meaning of a coded message.
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LOGICAL REASONING
43. Based on the above given information, let's decode the code and generate questions with answer choices.
Decode the given code:
NFRSCA
(a) 753%20 (b) 053%24 (c) 0232%0 (d) 053%20
44. Which letter in the given code decodes to the symbol "%"?
(a) N (b) F (c) R (d) S
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45. Based on the given information, let's decode the code "ARFTHE" and create questions based on it. Decode the
given code: 0E7F
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ARFTHE
(a) 4358#% (b) %358#% (c) 4358#4 (d) %385#%
46. Which letter in the given code decodes to the symbol "#"?
(a) A (b) R (c) H (d) F
47. Decode the given code:

SNACRE
(a) 047230 (b) 074320 (c) 074230 (d) %7423%
48. Read the following information to answer the question that follows.
P @ Q means P is father of Q
P $ Q means P is husband of Q
P © Q means P is mother of Q
P # Q means P is sister of Q
Which of the following means M is the grandfather of T?
(a) M @ N $ L © C # T
(c) N $ M © H $ K © T
(b) M # N @ H # T $ R
(d) None of these
c o m
rs .
Directions (Q.49-Q.58): Read the information provided in the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Conditional Syllogism
a major premise, a minor premise and a conclusion.

Major premise
k e
The basic form of the conditional syllogism is: If A is true then B is also true. (If A then B). It appears through
The major premise (the first statement) for example:

Ladies prefer Xanthos.
r an
This statement is not challenged and is assumed to be true.
o p
The 'A', the 'if' part of the statement ('adding sugar to coffee' in the example) is also called the antecedent. The
'B', the 'then' part of the statement ('tastes better') is also called the consequent.
Minor premise
T
A minor premise, which may not be spoken, gives further detail about the major premise. For example:
Xanthos smells great.
The minor premise is also assumed to be true. In adverts, it often appears as the secondary line to the main
strapline of the major premise.
Conclusion
The conclusion is a third statement, based on a combination of the major and minor premise.
If you use Xanthos cologne, you will attract women.
In adverts, this may well not be mentioned, but it is most clearly what you are intended to conclude.
Example- Here is the bones of many the proposition of many therapists:
0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
You are sad.
I am qualified to help people who are sad.
I can make you happy.
Thus, when the therapist says 'You are sad', the patient gets the idea that the therapist can make them happy. The
qualifications of the therapist may be framed on the wall or on the brass plate outside. This principle is also used
by many professions, which is why it is ok for hairdresser to criticize your hair (in fact it provides a contrast with
what your hair will soon look like).
Discussion
Conditional syllogisms are seldom completed with all three sentences -- often only the major and minor premises
are needed and sometimes only the major premise is enough. 0O7T
5N4R9T0Q0L
The conclusion of the conditional syllogism is often unspokentr-and it is intended that the listener infers it for
themselves.
5B4G9J0B0G0E
7F
tr-
Advertisers love conditional syllogisms because this gives them a way around laws that prevent advertisements
from telling direct lies. Lies such as 'use cologne, attract women' are also a bit obvious, and people who will
believe the syllogism would not necessarily believe the direct lie of the conclusion.
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
49. Which of the following words is the best synonym for "pervasive"?
(a) Scant (b) Incessant (c) Limited (d) Sparse
50. Which of the following sentences contains a misplaced modifier?

(a) Running down the street, a cat startled me.
(b) I saw a man on the hill with a telescope.
(c) The book was read by Sara before going to bed.
51.
(d) Eating dinner, the doorbell suddenly rang.
c o m
Which of the following can be inferred from the statement: "All politicians are ambitious, and Sarah is a
politician"?
(a) Sarah is the most ambitious politician.
(b) Sarah is the only ambitious politician.
rs .
(c) Sarah's ambition is the reason for her being a politician.
(d) All ambitious individuals are politicians.
k e
52.
conditional syllogisms?
r an
Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following statements is most likely true about
(a) Conditional syllogisms are always completed with all three sentences.
o p
(b) The conclusion of a conditional syllogism is always explicitly stated.
(c) Conditional syllogisms are widely used in advertisements but rarely in therapy.
(d) Conditional syllogisms rely on unspoken inferences to convey a message.
53.
T
Select the option that corrects the underlined portion of the sentence.
"The committee members, along with the chairman, was arguing heatedly during the meeting."
(a) were arguing heatedly during the meeting.
(b) are arguing heatedly during the meeting.
(c) has been arguing heatedly during the meeting.
(d) was arguing heatedly during the meeting.
54. Select the option that provides the closest meaning to the missing word in the sentence
0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
"The company's reputation has been tarnished due to the recent ________ of unethical practices."
(a) disclosure (b) concealment (c) implementation (d) eradication
LOGICAL REASONING
55. Based on the given major premise and minor premise, select the correct conclusion.
Major premise: If it rains, the ground gets wet.
Minor premise: It is raining.
(a) Therefore, the ground is wet. (b) Therefore, it is not raining.
(c) Therefore, the ground is dry. (d) Therefore, it will snow.
9T0Q0L0O7T tr-5N4R
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56. Select the correct form of the conditional syllogism based on the given information.
Major premise: If people exercise regularly, they stay healthy.
Minor premise: John exercises regularly.
(a) Therefore, John will stay healthy. (b) Therefore, John is not healthy.
(c) Therefore, John will not exercise. (d) Therefore, John is unhealthy.
57. Which of the following accurately represents the conditional syllogism based on the given information?
Major premise: If students study diligently, they perform well in exams.
Minor premise: Sarah is a student.
(a) If Sarah studies diligently, she will perform well in exams.
(b) If Sarah performs well in exams, she studies diligently.
(c) If students perform well in exams, they study diligently.
(d) If Sarah performs well in exams, she is a student.
58. Which of the following is an assumption underlying the argument presented in the passage?
c o m
"Studies have shown that regular exercise improves cognitive function. Therefore, engaging in physical activities
such as running or cycling can enhance one's mental abilities."
(a) The studies mentioned in the passage are reliable and valid.
(b) Cognitive function is solely determined by physical activity.
rs .
k e
(c) Running and cycling are the only forms of physical activity that improve cognitive function.
(d) Improving cognitive function is the primary goal of engaging in physical activities.
n
Directions (Q.59-Q.60): There is another category of syllogism -Disjunctive Syllogism. Here are some facts
a
about it. Read them to answer the question that follows.
Disjunctive Syllogism
r
o p
The basic form of the disjunctive syllogism is: Either A is true or B is true. (A exclusive-or B). Thus, if A is true,
B is false, and if B is true, A is false. A and B cannot both by true.
Major premise - The major premise is given in the form of a choice between alternatives, with the assumption
T
that one out of two or more alternative choices is right and that the rest are wrong.
This may appear in a single sentence:
Either Jim, Fred or Billy did it.
Minor premise- The minor premise either selects or rejects alternatives, thus leading to the conclusion.
Jim was in the bar. But Fred had the motive.
Conclusion - The conclusion may be spoken, although often it is not, as it is intended that the target of the major
premise concludes this by his or herself. For example:
Fred killed Julius.
7T
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59. Based on the given major premise and minor premise, select the correct conclusion.
Major premise: Either Alice is at home or she is at work.
Minor premise: Alice is at work.
(a) Therefore, Alice is not at home.
(b) Therefore, Alice is at home.
(c) Therefore, Alice is both at home and at work.
(d) Therefore, Alice's whereabouts are unknown.
60. Select the correct form of the disjunctive syllogism based on the given information.
Major premise: Either it's raining or the sun is shining. 0O7T
Minor premise: It's not raining. tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
(a) Therefore, 0E7Fthe sun is shining.

tr-5B4G9J0B0G
(b) Therefore, it's raining.
(c) Therefore, it's both raining and the sun is shining.
(d) Therefore, the weather is unknown.
It’s a well-known fact that colours have inherent meanings and can provoke emotions. These meanings will
have a direct impact on the way your users perceive your product.
“Colour creates, enhances, changes, reveals and establishes the mood of the painting.” — Kiff Holland
When you’re choosing a colour palette for your app/site, you can’t just be thinking about how things look —
you have to think about how they feel too. The colours you choose can either work for or against the brand
identity you’re trying to create. To get you started, I’ve compiled a quick reference guide that covers the basic
associations with each colour (in the western world).
Red, Orange, Yellow

Red (Passionate, Powerful, Dangerous, Important): Red is an extremely stimulating colour. It gives the
impression of speed and power. It’s known as the colour of energy. It has proven physiological effects of
increasing blood circulation and raising metabolism. That’s why when people see red, they read stronger and
Orange (Playful, Energetic, Attractive, Cheap):
c o m
faster. Using red is a way to grab users’ attention or highlight an individual element that requires attention.
your users. Some researchers find that orange denotes cheapness.
rs .
Orange is a warm and vibrant colour. It has an energetic aura and is able to create a warm welcoming feeling for
Yellow (Cheerful, Friendly, Simulative, Attention-seeking):
k e
Yellow is an extremely versatile colour depending on the which shade you choose. Light yellow is associated
with the sun and hence communicates positivity and warmth. Dark shades of yellow (like gold) give the
Green, Blue, Purple
r an
impression of antiquity and age. These darker shades are often related to the timelessness and wisdom.
p
Green (Natural, Safe, Fresh): Green reflects a sense of environmentalism and closeness to nature. It also signifies
growth, and that’s why it’s often associated with business. Green signifies a sense of right or wrong.
o
T
Blue (Calming, Responsible, Trustworthy, Reliable):
The colour blue is often associated with calm and relaxing emotions. It’s also associated with strength and
reliability, giving a sense of trust and professionalism. Blue emits feelings of inner security. That’s why you may
see banks and technology businesses using the colour. Social media giants such as Facebook, Twitter, and
LinkedIn all utilize the colour blue on their networks.
Purple (Luxurious, Mysterious, Romantic, Spirituality):

Historically linked to royalty, purple insinuates that a product is high-end.
https://medium.springboard.com/a-designers-guide-to-selecting-colors-for-your-product-9944756838d4
0L0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
61. What does the word "antiquity" mean in the passage?

(a) Timelessness (b) Simulative (c) Friendly (d) Attention-seeking
62. What is the overall tone of the passage?

(a) Informative (b) Critical (c) Humorous (d) Sarcastic
63. Which sentence in the passage contains an error? 0O7T

5N4R9T0Q0L
(a) "The colours you choose can either work for or against the tr-
brand identity you’re trying to create."
(b)5B"Red is an extremely stimulating colour."
0E7F
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(c) "Green signifies a sense of right or wrong."
(d) "Blue emits feelings of inner security."
64. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(a) Colours have psychological effects on individuals.
(b) Choosing the right colour palette is crucial for brand identity.
(c) Different colours have specific meanings and associations.
(d) Red and blue are the most effective colours for marketing.
65. What does the word "inherent" mean in the passage?

(a) Essential (b) Temporary (c) Obvious (d) Changing
66. Which social media platforms are mentioned in the passage as utilizing the colour blue?
(a) Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn (b) Instagram, Snapchat, TikTok
(c) Pinterest, YouTube, WhatsApp (d) Reddit, Tumblr, Discord
67. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

LOGICAL REASONING
c o m
(b) The color orange is universally perceived as expensive and luxurious.
(c) Colors can evoke physiological responses and impact cognitive processing.
rs .
(a) Choosing the color green for a brand's logo will guarantee environmental friendliness.
68.
(d) The color purple is commonly associated with speed and power.
k e
If a brand aims to convey a sense of trust and professionalism, which of the following color choices would be
most suitable?
(a) Red (b) Blue
an
(c) Orange
r
(d) Purple
69.
be most appropriate?
(a) Red, Orange, Yellow
o p
If a company wants to create a vibrant and energetic brand identity, which of the following colour palettes would
(b) Green, Blue, Purple
70.
(c) Blue, Yellow, Purple
choice?
(a) Red
T
(b) Green
(d) Red, Green, Blue
If a company wants to evoke a sense of luxury and romance in its brand, which color would be the most suitable
(c) Blue (d) Purple
71. If a website aims to create a welcoming and friendly user experience, which color palette would be most
effective?
(a) Red, Orange, Yellow 7T (b) Green, Blue, Purple
4R9T0Q0L0O
(c) Orange, Yellow, Blue tr-5N (d) Green, Red, Purple
72. If a brand wants to convey a sense of environmentalism and growth, which color choice would be the most
appropriate?
(a) Red (b) Orange (c) Green (d) Blue
Directions (Q.73-Q.84): Read the extract taken from the “Model Building Bye-Laws- 2016” to understand its
various provisions and answer the questions that follow.
1.1 Scope
These regulations shall apply to heritage sites which shall include those buildings,
0O7T artefacts, structures, streets,
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areas and precincts of historic, architectural, aesthetic, cultural or environmental value (hereinafter referred to as
Listed Heritage
0E7F Buildings/Listed Heritage Precincts) and those natural feature areas of environmental
tr-5B4G9J0B0G
significance or of scenic beauty including, but not restricted to, sacred groves, hills, hillocks, water bodies (and
the areas adjoining the same), open areas, wooded areas, points, walks, rides, bridle paths (hereinafter referred
to as ‘listed natural feature areas’) which shall be listed in notification(s) to be issued by the State Government /
identified in Master Plan. The provisions in this chapter are beyond the regulations applicable on the Prohibited
and Regulated areas as defined by Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act
2010, where site specific Heritage Bye-Laws prepared and notified by the Competent Authority (National
Monuments Authority.
1.2 Definitions
A) “Heritage building” means and includes any building of one or more premises or any part thereof and/or
structure and/or artefact which requires conservation and/or preservation for historical and/or architectural and/or
artisanry and/or aesthetic and/or cultural and/or environmental and/or ecological purpose and includes such
portion of land adjoining such building or part thereof as may be required for fencing or covering or in any
manner preserving the historical and/or architectural and/or aesthetic and/or cultural value of such building.
b) “Heritage Precincts” means and includes any space that requires conservation and/or preservation for
m
historical and/or architectural and/or aesthetic and/or cultural and/or environmental and/or ecological purpose.
o
Walls or other boundaries of a particular area or place or building or may enclose such space by an imaginary
line drawn around it.
c
rs .
c) “Conservation” means all the processes of looking after a place so as to retain its historical and/or
architectural and/or aesthetic and/or cultural significance and includes maintenance, preservation, restoration,
reconstruction and adoption or a combination of more than one of these.
deterioration
k e
d) “Preservation” means and includes maintaining the fabric of a place in its existing state and retarding
e) “Restoration” means and includes returning the existing fabric of a place to a known earlier state by removing
n
accretions or by reassembling existing components without introducing new materials.
a
f) “Reconstruction” means and includes returning a place as nearly as possible to a known earlier state and
r
distinguished by the introduction of materials (new or old) into the fabric. This shall not include either recreation
or conjectural reconstruction.
o p
12.2 Responsibility of the owners of heritage buildings
T
It shall be the duty of the owners of heritage buildings and buildings in heritage precincts or in heritage streets
to carry out regular repairs and maintenance of the buildings. The State Government, the Municipal Corporation
or the Local Bodies and Authorities concerned shall not be responsible for such repair and maintenance except
for the buildings owned by the Government, the Municipal Corporation or the other local bodies.
12.3 Restrictions on development / re-development / repairs etc.

No development or redevelopment or engineering operation or additions / alterations, repairs, renovations
including painting of the building, replacement of special features or plastering or demolition of any part thereof
of the said listed buildings or listed precincts
0O7T
or listed natural feature areas shall be allowed except with the prior
5N4R9T0Q0L
permission of Commissioner,tr-Municipal Corporation /Vice Chairman, Development Authority. Before granting
such permission, the agency concerned shall consult the Heritage Conservation Committee to be appointed by
the State Government and shall act in according with the advice of the Heritage Conservation Committee.
https://mohua.gov.in/upload/uploadfiles/files/MBBL.pdf
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
73. What is the meaning of the term "conservation" as used in the passage?
(a) Demolition and removal of a structure
(b) Maintenance and preservation of a place's significance 0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
(c) Introduction of new materials into a place's fabric
(d)5BReturning a place to a known earlier state
4G9J0B0G0E7F
tr-
74. Which title best summarizes the main focus of the passage?
(a) Preservation of Heritage Sites: Regulations and Responsibilities
(b) Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites: Conservation Guidelines
(c) Natural Feature Areas and Listed Heritage Buildings: A Comparative Analysis
(d) Repair and Maintenance of Heritage Precincts: Government's Role
75. What is the overall tone of the passage?

(a) Authoritative and prescriptive (b) Informative and descriptive
(c) Emotional and persuasive (d) Critical and skeptical
76. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT included in the definition of "heritage building"?
(a) Any building of one or more premises (b) Structure
(c) Artifact (d) Portion of land within the building
77. What does the phrase "retarding deterioration" mean in the passage?
(a) Slowing down the process of deterioration
c o m
(b) Completely stopping deterioration
(c) Causing rapid deterioration
(d) Ignoring the process of deterioration
rs .
78. What is the meaning of the term "listed natural feature areas" in the passage?
(a) Areas with natural vegetation
k e
(b) Areas exclusively used for walks and rides
(c) Areas near water bodies
r an
(d) Areas with significant environmental value or scenic beauty
o p LOGICAL REASONING
79.
T
Case 1: Responsibilities of Owners and Repair Restrictions
Situation: Mr. Smith is the owner of a heritage building located in a heritage precinct. He wants to carry out
repairs and alterations to the building.
Decision Making:
Who is responsible for carrying out regular repairs and maintenance of heritage buildings and buildings in
heritage precincts?
(a) State Government
(b) Municipal Corporation
(c) Owners of heritage buildings and buildings
0O7T
in heritage precincts
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
(d) Local Bodies and Authorities concerned
80. What are the restrictions on development, repairs, and alterations of listed heritage buildings, precincts, and
natural feature areas?
(a) Development and repairs are allowed without prior permission.
(b) Engineering operations and demolition are prohibited.
(c) Special features cannot be replaced or repaired.
(d) The Heritage Conservation Committee does not need to be consulted.
0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
0E7F
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81. Case 2: Definitions and Conservation Processes
Situation: The State Government is preparing guidelines for the conservation of heritage buildings and precincts.
Decision Making:
What does the term "preservation" refer to in the context of heritage buildings and precincts?
(a) Maintenance and regular repairs
(b) Returning a place to a known earlier state
(c) Retaining historical and architectural significance
(d) Reassembling existing components
82. Which term best describes the process of returning a place to a known earlier state by removing accretions or
reassembling existing components without introducing new materials?
(a) Conservation (b) Preservation (c) Restoration (d) Reconstruction
83. Case 3: Prior Permission for Development
Decision Making:
c o m
Situation: Mr. Johnson wants to carry out development and alterations to his listed heritage building.
repairs of listed heritage buildings?

(a) Commissioner, Municipal Corporation (b) Vice Chairman, Development Authority
.
According to the passage, who should be consulted before granting permission for development, alterations, or
rs
84.
(c) Heritage Conservation Committee (d) State Government
k e
Which authority has the power to grant permission for development, alterations, or repairs of listed heritage
buildings?
(a) State Government
an
(b) Commissioner, Municipal Corporation
r
(c) Vice Chairman, Development Authority (d) Heritage Conservation Committee
o p
Directions (Q.85-Q.95): Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Theories of truth
T
Theories of truth attempt to give satisfactory answers to the following questions: “What is truth?” and “How to
know the truth?” We want to know whether propositions or beliefs are true or false. To deal with propositional
truth we can take either the definitional route and define “is true” as qualifying the proposition, or the criterial
route and justify the application of “is true” to the proposition.
What is the nature of truth?

This is similar to the question, what is the underlying nature of the property of being gold or the substantive facts
about gold? Or, what does the word “gold” mean in ordinary English? The result of the inquiry is that gold is an
element with atomic number 79. My concept 7T of gold picks out many important and substantive facts about gold,
4R9T0Q0L0O
that it is a malleable yellowtr-5N
metal, for instance. When philosophers ask what truth is, they are interested
sometimes in the concept, sometimes in the underlying nature of its property, and sometimes in both. Unlike the
case of gold, we have no independent, empirical access to the property of truth except via that concept. Thus,
disputes over the property of truth are frequently fought on conceptual ground, over how we might best define
the concept of truth.
According to this latter method, we learn about the property of truth by learning about the concept. On the other
hand, we might hold that as in the case of gold, learning about the concept can tell us much about the property
without necessarily telling us everything about that property. We may know something about the nature of truth
and may be able to define truth, but it is not of much value if we are not able0Oto
7Tprove that something is true. The
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nature and criteria of truth are obviously different.
0E7F
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THE CASE OF ISHIKAVO ISLAND
It is an Island with abstract truth tellers, liars and contrarians. The netizens are divided in the population of truth
tellers who never speak lie, these are popularly known as saints. Then there are flippers and switchers who
change their stand as per their convenience. The last but not the least are the people of third category who always
speak lie. They are born liars. For strangers, it is very complex situation to ascertain the truth when he hears from
people of all the categories. It takes special effort on his part to ascertain the facts.
http://magadhmahilacollege.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/04/3.Theories-of-Truth.pdf
LOGICAL REASONING
85. Situation 1: Truth on Ishikavo Island

Situation: Mr. Johnson arrives on Ishikavo Island and encounters three individuals: a truth teller, a flipper, and
a born liar. He needs to determine who is who based on their statements.
Based on the information provided, could Mr. Johnson identify the truth teller?
(a) The person who consistently tells the truth.
(b) The person who frequently changes their stand.
c o m
(c) The person who always speaks lies.
(d) It cannot be determined based on the given information.
rs .
86.
Person A: "I am a truth teller."
Person B: "I am a flipper."
k e
Situation: Ms. Anderson encounters three individuals on Ishikavo Island who make the following statements:
Person C: "I am a born liar."
an
Based on their statements, which individual can be identified as the flipper?
(a) Person A
r
(b) Person B
(c) Person C
o p
(d) It cannot be determined based on the given information.
87.
T
Situation: Mr. Davis is a stranger on Ishikavo Island, trying to ascertain the truth. He interviews three individuals,
each from a different category: a truth teller, a flipper, and a born liar.
Given the complex situation on Ishikavo Island, what is the best approach for Mr. Davis to ascertain the facts?
(a) Rely on the statements of the truth teller.
(b) Analyze the consistency of statements from all three individuals.
(c) Assume everyone is a born liar.
(d) Seek additional information from other sources.
7T
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88. A, B and C are three people from Ishikavo Island. One of them is a liar who always tells lies, another is a saint
who always tells the truth, and the third is a switcher who sometimes tells the truth and sometimes lies. They
make the following statements:
A: I am the liar. B: A is the liar.
C: I am not the liar.
Who is the liar among A, B and C?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) No one
0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
0E7F
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89. P, Q and R are three more people, one a liar, one a saint, and the third a contrarian who tells a lie if he is the first
to speak or if the preceding speaker told the truth, but otherwise tells the truth. They make the following
statements:
P: Q is the liar.
Q: R is the liar.
R: P is the liar.
Who is the liar among P, Q and R?
(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) Data Insufficient
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
90. Which of the following words best replaces the underlined word in the following sentence?
"The netizens are divided in the population of truth tellers."
91.
(a) Amongst (b) Between (c) Within
Choose the correct form of the verb to complete the sentence.

(d) Alongside
c o m
(a) poses (b) pose (c) posed (d) posing
.
"Ishikavo Island __________ a challenging situation for strangers trying to ascertain the truth."
rs
92.
"It takes special effort on his part to ascertain the facts."
(a) endeavors (b) enables (c) attempts (d) endeavours
e
Which of the following words is the most suitable replacement for the underlined word in the sentence below?
k
93.
an
Identify the correct preposition to complete the sentence.
r
"The concept of truth is frequently fought ______ conceptual ground."
94.
(a) in (b) on
o p
(c) at
Choose the correct form of the verb to complete the sentence.

(d) with
95.
T
"We have no independent, empirical access to the property of truth except _____ that concept."
(a) by (b) for (c) with (d) via
Which of the following adjectives best describes the word "liars" in the sentence below?
"They are born liars."
(a) habitual (b) innate (c) deceitful (d) manipulative
Directions (Q.96-108): CATEGORIES OF ZODIAC SIGNS IN ASTROLOGY

FIRE SIGNS 0O7T
tr-5N4R9T0Q0L
(Aries, Leo, Sagittarius) are warm, enthusiastic and outgoing. They need a lot of fuel and therefore are constantly
on the search for something new to "feed" them. Other signs must often create boundaries in order to prevent the
fire signs from absorbing all the resources and space in the vicinity. One cannot really find fault with this, as the
fire signs are usually quite unaware of the effects of their massive energy. When they reach a clearly defined
edge drawn by another sign, they rarely take offense, and readily move in another direction. The fire signs are
very intuitive and rely heavily on an element of luck which seems to be always with them. Fires often attract
Earths to stabilize and centre them.
WATER SIGNS
(Cancer, Scorpio and Pisces) are fluidly feeling and the range of their9Tdispositions
0O7T moves readily from ice storm
5N4R 0Q0L
to placid river to hot steam. Waters love the comforts of hometr-and family and generally are strongly nurturing
of 5B
anything that
0E7F lives. They have compassionate instincts and are drawn to care for whomever or whatever seems
tr- 4G9J0B0G
weakened, defective or on the losing side. Waters are adept in the world of feeling and rarely are unduly
frightened by any emotion they encounter. Airs (Gemini, Libra and Aquarius) and Waters are often mutually
attracted.
Airs need support when encountering deep feelings and past memories--they are prone to minimize the value of
their emotional experiences. Waters, on the other hand, need help in the realm of logic and reason, so they draw
heavily from the more verbal Airs.
EARTH SIGNS
(Taurus, Virgo and Capricorn) are usually solid and dependable, just as the ground beneath us. They are gifted
at manifestation in the concrete world and take pleasure in finding useful purposes for everything. Earth signs
are natural recyclers--they deplore wasted resources of any kind. The disadvantage of Earth signs is that too
often attention is focused on material production. They can become caught in repetitive ruts, forgetting to use
their imagination. Earths frequently attract fire signs into their lives to provide an element of excitement and
change. But then, of course, the Earths must deal with anxiety over what the more unpredictable fires might do
next. The dance of life continues.
AIR SIGNS
c o m
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(Gemini, Libra and Aquarius) move constantly, like the wind. Even if the body appears to be still, the mind of
an Air Sign is racing from one thing to another. They are generally talkative and tend to be winners in games of
Trivial Pursuit. The Airs are gregarious and work to develop their social skills early in life. It is, however, difficult
k e
for them to make commitments because they know there are so many possibilities they haven't yet explored.
Though Airs have lightening quick mental ability, they struggle in the world of emotions. Ask an Air sign how
he feels about an issue and he will speedily rattle off what he thinks. Airs need help in this area and therefore are
r an
prone to attract Water Signs who more naturally breathe in emotional pools.
ENGLISH LANGAUGE
96.
o p
Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence:
"Fire signs are constantly on the search for something new to ______ them."
97.
(a) satiate
T
(b) devour (c) engulf
Select the option that provides the correct verb form for the blank:
(d) nourish
"Other signs must often create boundaries in order to prevent the fire signs from ______ all the resources and
space in the vicinity."
(a) absorb (b) absorbing (c) being absorbed (d) to absorb
98. Choose the most appropriate word to replace the underlined phrase in the following sentence:
"Waters, on the other hand, need help in0Lthe realm of logic and reason, so they draw heavily from the more verbal
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Airs."
(a) converse airs (b) verbal airs (c) oral airs (d) spoken airs
99. Select the option that provides the correct verb form for the blank:
"The disadvantage of Earth signs is that too often attention is focused on material production. They can become
caught in repetitive ruts, forgetting to use their ______."
(a) imagination (b) imaginative (c) imagined (d) imagining
100. Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence:

"The Airs are gregarious and work to develop their social skills early9Tin0Qlife.
0L0OIt
7T is, however, difficult for them to
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make commitments because they know there are so many possibilities they haven't yet ______."
(a)5Bdiscovered
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(b) explored (c) encountered (d) encountered
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101. Identify the correct preposition to complete the sentence:
"Airs need help _____ the realm of logic and reason."
(a) on (b) with (c) at (d) in
LOGICAL REASONING
102. Fire signs are described as constantly seeking something new to "feed" them. Which of the following is a
potential consequence of this behavior?
(a) Fire signs become overwhelmed by the abundance of resources.
(b) Other signs feel a sense of competition for resources.
(c) Fire signs become more introspective and reserved.
(d) Other signs develop a strong aversion towards fire signs.
103. Why do air signs struggle in the world of emotions, according to the passage?
(a) Air signs are naturally detached and unemotional.
(b) Air signs have difficulty understanding their own emotions.
c o m
(c) Air signs lack empathy towards others' emotions.
(d) Air signs have a tendency to suppress their emotions.
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(a) Taurus (b) Scorpio (c) Gemini (d) Leo
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104. Which sign is likely to be drawn to care for anyone or anything that appears weakened or on the losing side?
k
(a) Earth signs enjoy the unpredictability of fire signs.
r
(b) Fire signs help earth signs become more imaginative. n
105. Why do earth signs frequently attract fire signs into their lives?
a
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(c) Earth signs feel anxious and seek excitement from fire signs.
(d) Fire signs provide stability and centring for earth signs.
(a) Cancer, Scorpio, and Pisces

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106. Which signs are described as being warm, enthusiastic, and outgoing?
(c) Taurus, Virgo, and Capricorn

(b) Gemini, Libra, and Aquarius
(d) Aries, Leo, and Sagittarius
107. Which signs are often mutually attracted to each other, according to the passage?
(a) Fire and water signs (b) Water and air signs
(c) Earth and fire signs (d) Air and earth signs
108. If an individual exhibits strong nurturing behavior and is drawn to care for weakened or losing causes, which
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zodiac sign are they most likely to belong to?
(a) Gemini (b) Sagittarius (c) Taurus (d) Cancer
Directions (Q.109-Q.120): Read the informative and educational article on ‘Fuel Efficiency’ to answer the
questions that follow.
Techniques for Drivers to Conserve Fuel
Drivers can conserve fuel by learning how different driving behaviours affect fuel economy and by adopting
techniques to save fuel and money. The amount of fuel your vehicle consumes depends heavily on how you
drive. See the information below and FuelEconomy.gov for information about driving efficiently.
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Slow Down and Drive Conservatively
Speeding increases
0E7F fuel consumption and decreases fuel economy as a result of tire rolling resistance and air
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resistance. While vehicles reach optimal fuel economy at different speeds, gas mileage usually decreases rapidly
at speeds above 50 miles per hour (mph). For light-duty vehicles, for example, every 5 mph you drive over 50
mph is like paying $0.30 more per gallon of gas (based on the price of gas at $4.32 per gallon). Reducing your
speed by 5 to 10 mph can improve fuel economy by 7%–14%.
Using cruise control on the highway can help drivers maintain a constant speed; vehicles use the most energy
when accelerating. Obeying the speed limit, accelerating and braking gently and gradually, and reading the road
ahead can improve the fuel economy of your vehicle by 15%–30% at highway speeds and 10%–40% in stop-
and-go traffic. Driving more sensibly is also much safer for you and others.
Combine Trips
Combining trips can save you time and money by avoiding unnecessary stopping and starting of your vehicle,
which can be an issue in colder climates where it takes longer for your engine to reach its most fuel-efficient
temperature. Shorter trips can use twice as much fuel as one long, multi-purpose trip that covers the same
distance, when the engine is warm and at its most fuel-efficient temperature. Engine and transmission friction
increases with cold engine oil and other drive-line fluids, making the engine less efficient. Trip planning can
reduce the distance you travel and the amount of time you drive with a cold engine.
Reduce Vehicle Load
c o m
rs .
The additional weight of items left in a vehicle requires more fuel to propel your vehicle. An extra 100 pounds
in your trunk, for example, could reduce your fuel economy by about 1%. Hauling rooftop cargo also increases
drag, which can reduce fuel economy from 2%–8% in city driving, 6%–17% on the highway, and 10%–25% at
109. What does the term "rolling resistance" refer to in the context of fuel economy?
k e
65–75 mph. Offload any unnecessary items to reduce the fuel consumption of your vehicle.
(a) Resistance caused by driving on uneven roads.
a
(b) Resistance caused by air pushing against the vehicle.
r n
(c) Resistance caused by tires rolling on the road surface.
(d) Resistance caused by engine friction.
o
110. Which of the following sentences is in active voice?
p
T
(a) "Cruise control can be used to maintain a constant speed."
(b) "The speed limit should be followed for safety."
(c) "The fuel economy is affected by excessive braking."
(d) "Driving more sensibly improves fuel efficiency."
111. Which word in the passage is an adverb?

(a) Combine (b) Sensibly (c) Propelled (d) Avoiding
112. Which figure of speech is used in the phrase

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"an issue in colder climates"?
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(a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Hyperbole (d) Euphemism
113. Which sentence demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?

(a) "Shorter trips can use twice as much fuel as one long, multi-purpose trip."
(b) "The additional weight of items require more fuel to propel your vehicle."
(c) "Every 5 mph you drive over 50 mph are like paying $0.30 more per gallon."
(d) "Reducing your speed by 5 to 10 mph improve fuel economy by 7%–14%."
114. Which phrasal verb is used to convey the action of unloading unnecessary items from a vehicle?
(a) Put off (b) Take on (c) Offload (d) Bring about
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LOGICAL REASONING
115. If the price of gas increases to $5.00 per gallon, how much more would a driver pay per gallon for every 5-mph
driven over 50 mph, based on the information provided?
(a) $0.10 (b) $0.20 (c) $0.30 (d) $0.40
116. If a driver reduces their speed by 10 mph, what is the potential improvement in fuel economy, as a percentage,
based on the information provided?
(a) 3.5% - 7% (b) 7% - 14% (c) 10% - 20% (d) 14% - 28%
117. By what percentage can adopting fuel-saving techniques improve fuel economy in stop-and-go traffic, according
to the information provided?
(a) 15% - 30% (b) 30% - 45% (c) 40% - 50% (d) 10% - 20%
o m
118. If a driver's vehicle consumes 20 gallons of gas for a 100-mile trip at a constant speed, how many more gallons
c
of gas would be consumed for the same distance if the driver exceeds the speed limit by 10 mph, based on the
information provided?
(a) 2 gallons (b) 3 gallons (c) 6 gallons (d) 5 gallons
rs .
economy, as a percentage, based on the information provided?
(a) 0.5% - 1% (b) 1% - 2% (c) 2% - 3% (d) 3% - 4%
k e
119. If a driver reduces the weight in their trunk by 200 pounds, what is the approximate improvement in fuel
an
120. If the speed limit on a highway is 65-75 mph, how much more fuel would be consumed at the highest speed
r
compared to the lowest speed, based on the information provided?
(a) 5% - 10% (b) 10% - 15%
o p
(c) 15% - 20% (d) 10% - 25%
T
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PART 02 : GENERAL KNOWLED AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
121. Who has recently won Hockey Junior Asia Cup Champions?
(a) Pakistan (b) Bangladesh (c) India (d) Afghanistan
122. Where is The Mekedatu project located?

(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerela (d) Andhra Pradesh
123. Which city has been renamed as Ahilyadevi Nagar?

(a) Aurangabad (b) Ahmedabad (c) Ahmednagar (d) Ahmedgarh
124. Which country emerged as the World’s 2nd largest producer of crude steel?
(a) China (b) India (c) USA (d) Russia
125. When is Blood Donor Day celebrated?

(a) 11 June (b) 12 June (c) 13 June
c o m
(d) 14 June
126. Who is the first Muslim woman federal judge in US history?

(a) Aneesa Khan (b) Saisha Hurun (c) Waheeda Rahamn (d) Nusrat Chowdhary
rs .
127. Who has been selected as new chief of RAW?
(a) Ravi Sinha (b) Surjeet Grewal (c) Manoj Singh
k e (d) SarthaK Bajpayee
an
128. Recently, Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoCI), has recognised 7 Handicrafts products from
______________with Geographical Indication (GI) Tag.
r
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Maharashtra
o p
(c) Rajasthan
129. Which state has launched ‘Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Scheme’?

(d) Madhya Pradesh
(a) Maharashtra
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(b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Jharkhand
130. Who has been recently awarded with Suriname’s highest civilian award?
(a) PM Narendra Modi
(c) President Draupadi Murmu
(b) Nirmala Sithraman
(d) Nitin Gadkari
(d) Odisha
131. When is World Day for International Justice 2023?

(a) 15 July (b) 16 July (c) 17 July (d) 18 July
7T
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132. Authoor betel leaves from _________________receives GI certificate
(a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Kerela (d) Andhra Pradesh
133. The state government of _____________ has taken a significant step towards improving healthcare access for
its citizens by doubling the insurance cover under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY).
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) West Bengal (c) Haryana (d) Gujarat
134. Where is first Sainik School in India to be operated by a cooperative organization inaugurated?
(a) Gujarat (b) Tamil Nadu (c) West Bengal (d) Haryana
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135. Which Space Agency launched ‘Euclid Space Telescope’ to review solar system bodies?
(a)5BNASA
4G9J0B0G0E7F
(b) ISRO (c) ESA (d) JAXA
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136. ___________becomes first country to ban plastic produce bags.
(a) USA (b) China (c) Russia (d) New Zealand
137. Who is appointed as Head of Food and Agriculture Organization?

(a) Qu Dongyu (b) José Graziano da Silva
(c) Jacques Diouf (d) Edouard Saouma
138. Where will 2023 ICC Men’s Cricket World Cup held?
(a) India (b) USA (c) Australia (d) Saudi Arabia
139. Taiwan to Establish Representative Office in ____________ to Boost India- Taiwan Ties.
(a) Bangalore (b) Mumbai (c) Delhi (d) Chennai
was recorded at 207.55 metres, which is the highest ever.

(a) Section 143 CrPC (b) Section 144 CrPC (c) Section 145 CrPC (d) Section 146 CrPC
c m
140. Delhi police has imposed ___________________ in the flood prone areas as the water level in the Yamuna River
o
141. Which is India’s First PSU to Achieve Anti-Bribery Management System Certification?
(a) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
rs .
(b) Power Grid Corporation of India
(c) Indian Oil Corporation Limited
(d) Steel Authority of India
k e
142. SAARC was established in which of the following year?
(a) 1967 (b) 1985 (c) 1997
r an (d) 2001
(a) 1992 (b) 1997
o
143. When was the Kyoto Protocol adopted?
p (c) 2000 (d) 2005
(a) United States

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144. Which of the following countries was the first to grant Universal Adult Franchise to its citizens?
(b) United Kingdom (c) France (d) New Zealand
145. Who among the following Mughal rulers has been called the ‘Prince of Builders’?
(a) Shah Jahan (b) Babur (c) Akbar (d) Jahangir
146. Who found ‘The Gadar Party’ in San Francisco in the USA?
(a) Lala Hardayal (b) Lala Lajpat0LRai
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(c) Ajit Singh (d) Bipin Chandra Paul
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147. In April ________, the first flight from Shimla to Delhi under the UDAN scheme was flagged off PM Modi.
(a) 2013 (b) 2015 (c) 2017 (d) 2019
148. Human Rights Day is observed on ____________.

(a) 10th December (b) 10th January (c) 10th October (d) 10th November
149. Swat valley is located in which of the following regions?

(a) Afghanistan (b) Pakistan (c) Syria (d) Iraq
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150. Burma was separated from India in _________.
(a)5B1935
4G9J0B0G0E7F
(b) 1937 (c) 1939 (d) 1941
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Notes:-
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Notes:-
c o m
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Notes:-
c o m
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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2024

Duration : 90 Minutes Candidate Name :

2. What is the meaning of the word "implicit" as used in the passage?

o (c) 56 (d) 112

THE WAPSHAW’S WHARF MYSTERY.

15. Identify the 0E

17. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates deductive reasoning?

18. Which of the following scenarios best exemplifies inductive reasoning?

27. Choose the sentence that represents indirect speech.

Which wave in an electrocardiogram represents ventricular repolarization?

What does the J-point represent in an electrocardiogram (ECG)?

Culper Spy Ring.

(c) To ensure the security of communications

47. Decode the given code:

a major premise, a minor premise and a conclusion.

The major premise (the first statement) for example:

50. Which of the following sentences contains a misplaced modifier?

(a) Therefore, 0E7Fthe sun is shining.

Red, Orange, Yellow

Orange (Playful, Energetic, Attractive, Cheap):

your users. Some researchers find that orange denotes cheapness.

Yellow (Cheerful, Friendly, Simulative, Attention-seeking):

Green, Blue, Purple

Purple (Luxurious, Mysterious, Romantic, Spirituality):

61. What does the word "antiquity" mean in the passage?

62. What is the overall tone of the passage?

63. Which sentence in the passage contains an error? 0O7T

65. What does the word "inherent" mean in the passage?

67. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(b) Green, Blue, Purple

(c) Blue (d) Purple

12.3 Restrictions on development / re-development / repairs etc.

75. What is the overall tone of the passage?

83. Case 3: Prior Permission for Development

repairs of listed heritage buildings?

What is the nature of truth?

85. Situation 1: Truth on Ishikavo Island

Person C: "I am a born liar."

Choose the correct form of the verb to complete the sentence.

Choose the correct form of the verb to complete the sentence.

Directions (Q.96-108): CATEGORIES OF ZODIAC SIGNS IN ASTROLOGY

100. Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence:

(a) Cancer, Scorpio, and Pisces

(c) Taurus, Virgo, and Capricorn

Reduce Vehicle Load

(a) Resistance caused by driving on uneven roads.

111. Which word in the passage is an adverb?

112. Which figure of speech is used in the phrase

113. Which sentence demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?

122. Where is The Mekedatu project located?

123. Which city has been renamed as Ahilyadevi Nagar?

125. When is Blood Donor Day celebrated?

126. Who is the first Muslim woman federal judge in US history?

k e (d) SarthaK Bajpayee

129. Which state has launched ‘Mukhyamantri Ladli Behna Scheme’?

131. When is World Day for International Justice 2023?

137. Who is appointed as Head of Food and Agriculture Organization?

was recorded at 207.55 metres, which is the highest ever.

(a) 1992 (b) 1997

(a) United States

148. Human Rights Day is observed on ____________.

149. Swat valley is located in which of the following regions?

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