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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024

MOCK CLAT 26
ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (a) Option A perfectly summarizes the main idea of the
passage as it describes the various challenges faced
by orange growers in producing high-quality fruit.
Option B, even though superficially seems correct,
is not an correct answer because the passage doesn’t
discuss man-made forces as such. The passage is
primarily focused on the harms on oranges rather
than how it is a viable source of income for many,
so we can safely eliminate C. Option D is too
contemplative of an answer and is incorrect because
the passage doesn’t discuss nature and its rhythms
and the effects of not respecting the same
2. (c) In the given sentence, ‘wet’ and ‘tropical’ are both
adjectives that modify and describe the noun
‘zones’. Whereas, the word ‘thrive’ is a verb and is
exercised by the noun ‘Orange Trees’. On the basis
of the same, C is our correct answer choice and A,
B and D stand eliminated.
3. (c) Option C can be inferred from examples of Elsinoë
fawcettii, Phytophthora, and Xanthomonas citri, and
their effects on the appearance and edibility of the
fruit in the passage and thus is the correct answer
choice. Option A is clearly incorrect because the 4th
para elaborates on how hurricanes can damage
orange trees. Option B is too extreme and is
incorrect as the passage mentions the effects of wet,
tropical zones on the thriving of orange trees but
doesn't suggest that they can only produce edible
fruit in such regions. Option D is incorrect as there
is no mention of the colour brown being associated
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with hurricane-force winds and thus it cannot be
inferred.
4. (a) In the context of the passage, the word ‘scion’
preceding the phrase ‘from any plant’ refers to a
small twig or stem that is being used to produce a
new tree and option A is the correct answer. Scion
is not an orange tree or a type of tropical fruit.
Neither is it a tool for pruning trees. We can
eliminate all B,C and D.
5. (d) The sentence is not a metaphor because there’s no
direct comparison between two dissimilar things,
thus we can eliminate A. It is not personification
either because no human qualities have been added
to an inanimate object, so the answer isn’t B either.
C cannot be the correct answer because phrases such
as ‘like’, ‘as’ haven’t been used to compare between
two things. The correct answer to the question is
Imagery i.e option D because it uses vivid
description to present the canker blisters of
Xanthomonas citri.
6. (d) Option D is the correct answer because it depicts the
impoverished life of Tolkien along with his
remarkable language skills (polyglot denotes one
who knows many languages). It also depicts about
his existence in rural setting and subsequent life in
urbanity like Birmingham.
Option A is negated because there is nothing
mysterious about the life of Tolkien despite him
being a genius which is another synonym for
virtuoso.
Option B is incorrect because urban is not a valid
English word despite denoting a rural and urban
existence.
Page 1 of 16
 Option C is incorrect because the passage is not
depicting his movement from rural to urban but
somewhere in the midstream of these places. It
states: Tolkien’s life was split between these two.
7. (b) Option B is the correct answer because the first
paragraph states how the west midlands where
Tolkien spent his childhood were a complex of rural
and urban extremes. He experienced the railway
after moving to a new house while his language
skills were already being developed.
Option A is incorrect because there is no mention of
the house setting of Tolkien with agriculture etc.
Option C is incorrect because it has been mentioned
in the passage that he was sent to King Edward’s
School which was in the city of Birmingham with its
dark industrial setting.
Option D is incorrect because the passage states that
the house backed onto a railway line—young
Ronald’s developing linguistic imagination was
engaged by the sight of coal trucks. His linguistic
skill was already being developed along with
insights from the railway scenery.
8. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the word is
used along with a city name indicating that it might
be an extension of this city or some of its
characteristics i.e. urban landscape etc. Also the
word is made up of ‘co-‘ meaning ‘together’ and
‘Urbis’ meaning ‘city’ or ‘town'.
Option A is incorrect because the city’s name is
mentioned in vicinity of the word meaning that it is
in consonance with the City but not the city itself.
Option B is incorrect because it is insufficiently
describing the meaning of the term which means a
continuation of many urban areas.
Option C is incorrect because a hub indicates center
or pivot of anything while the term denotes an
extension of the city urban area.
9. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage
states that By this time Tolkien was already
showing remarkable linguistic gifts. He had been
stated to learn many languages which originated
from varied places. This option will be agreeable to
the author.
Option A is incorrect because his mother passed
away due to diabetic complications during pre-
insulin days as stated in the passage. It means this
statement is not likely.
Option B is incorrect because the passage states that
after the passing of their mother, the two boys were
left destitute meaning impoverished and without
resources.
Option D is incorrect because he was temporarily
housed with an unsympathetic aunt.
10. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the passage
states that He had mastered the Latin and Greek
which was the staple fare of an arts education at
that time. This means that the teaching of languages
was part of the art education which resulted in him
coming in near contact of many languages.
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Option A is incorrect because Tolkien has been
stated to be particularly gifted in linguistic ability
negating the need of a teacher.
Option B is incorrect because there is nothing in the
passage to point to a comparison between the two as
Tolkien learnt both with much ease.
Option D is incorrect because there is no mention of
his ancestry in the given passage.
11. (b) Option B is the correct answer because the passage
depicts how the author is stating that the city has
been constant in his life since birth and certain
aspects of the city are in togetherness with his life as
well.
Option A is incorrect because there is only one
statement in which the author states that he
sometimes feels unlucky to have been born into this
city but generally he likes to feel lucky and accept
his fate of being connected to this city.
Option C is incorrect because he does not express
regret of not being an immigrant but only depicts
instances in which he was advised to visit other
places and travel further.
Option D is incorrect because the author does not
have many complaints about things as depicted in
the statement from the passage: Mostly I am
disinclined to complain: I’ve accepted the city
into which I was born in the same way I’ve
accepted my body.
12. (c) Option C is the correct answer because the author is
self-reflecting on being associated with the City for
a long time making statements about its many
aspects.
Option A is incorrect because it denotes a much
romanticized notion of achieving something which
has been thought of by the author. Here, it is not the
case because the author has mixed memories of the
city.
Option B is negated because despite him mentioning
his address building, there is nothing in the passage
to ascertain his name.
Option D is incorrect because the passage is
comparing author and the city; his association with
it for quite a long duration but it is not telling
anecdotes or experiences of himself from the city.
13. (a) Option A is the correct answer because the statement
is talking in opposites and comparison. Option B is
incorrect because the word is not correct as per
proper English. Option C is incorrect because it is
not fitting correctly in the context of the statement
where a comparison is being drawn. Option D is
incorrect because it is not fitting in the sentence as
per proper grammar of the sentence.
14. (d) Option D is the correct answer because the passage
is talking about the author’s thoughts on being
associated with the city where he is sharing his
mixed feelings connected with the city.
Option A is incorrect because there is no
information being shared by the author in the
passage. Information generally denotes something
Page 2 of 16
 which state evidence, data or facts about a certain
topic.
Option B is incorrect because there is no concept,
scenery or any other thing which is being described
in the passage.
Option C is incorrect because objectiveness denotes
that there is no or little influence of emotions or
feelings of the person concerned in the passage.
Here, the author is mainly talking about his thoughts
and feelings.
15. (d) Option D is the correct answer because
impoverishment means something which is poverty
stricken and destitute. The author is stating how the
city has become impoverished while also stating
later that he is fortunate to have been born in a rich
household.
Option A is incorrect because it denotes vivacity and
is generally used for a living person.
Option B is negated because it is also referring to a
personality which is not suiting the context of the
passage for a city.
Option C is incorrect because it is not suiting the
context of the passage since it is denoting strength
of something while impoverishment is indicative of
lack of resources which leads to poor nature or
poverty.
16. (d) Referring to “Instead, they will plateau somewhere
between coma and waking life..” we can eliminate
both B and C, and in fact we can derive our answer
that is D i.e disordered consciousness, because that
is the place of plateau and where Meg had to rest. A
is irrelevant and far fetched and is not our answer to
this pretty-much direct question.
17. (b) D can be eliminated outright because it is usually a
feeling of wonder and surprise. Option C,
Conundrum is more of a riddle and fails to capture
the seriousness of the situation. A and B are very
close options with almost similar meanings but B
answers the situation more appropriately.
Predicament is best used to denote a situation that is
difficult to get out of, which is somewhat correct.
Whereas, dilemma is best used to denote a situation
where one has to make a difficult decision between
two alternatives precisely the case here and the
better alternative to be the correct answer.
18. (a) The passage is written in a gloomy, sad and
sombre/serious tone. Mirthful means
merry/cheerful- thus option B is incorrect.
Pejorative tone is usually seen in a derogatory piece
of writing, so C can be eliminated. Commiseration
tone reflects in a piece of writing that conveys
feeling of consolation and sympathy but that is not
the case with our passage- in fact it’s the author who
might be needing sympathy. D too can be
eliminated.
19. (b) Sallow basically means yellowish/pale and on that
note, option B is our answer. Now, anything other
than yellowish here as seen in option A, C & D
won’t be the correct answer choice.
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20. (c) Meg’s response to the sponge on a stick wasn’t an
intentional action, in fact it was a reflex action and
thus A can be eliminated. B cannot be the correct
because Meg’s family didn’t have to choose whether
or not to pursue aggressive medical interventions-
they had to decide whether to insist on treatment or
let her die naturally. D isn’t the answer either
because the passage clearly says, “Having, at that
point, worked with survivors of brain injury for six
years…” C is the correct answer choice, the author
started getting optimistic about Meg’s reaction to
the nurse action of putting sponge, that can clearly
be understood by referring to the last paragraph
where the nurse can be seen clarifying Meg’s
situation.
21. (a) Option A perfectly accurately captures the central
theme of the passage, i.e communication and
defence mechanisms of plants, and whether or not
they can experience pain or other sensations. Option
B is not the most appropriate title because the
passage covers more than just the defence
mechanisms and focuses on the larger theme of plant
communication as well. Option C, even though, is
relevant but is not the most appropriate title because
that happens to be only a part of the whole passage.
Option D is too specific and does not fully capture
the broader themes of the passage and thus is not our
answer.
22. (a) Option A is the correct answer. The question uses
rather specific wording: ‘significance of the GBS
anecdote to the composition of the passage’. The
central idea of the passage is that ‘plants might be
sentient’. Two important arguments used to this end
are: ‘The capacity of the plants to communicate
through sound’ (discussed before the GBS anecdote)
and ‘Plants feeling pain’ (initiated by means of the
GBS incident).
Option B might look like an answer but is more a
culmination of the anecdote’ itself and ‘not the
significance of the anecdote to the structure of the
passage’. Option C isn’t correct because it’s not
about the connection and is more about how plants
may feel pain that humans aren’t aware of. Option
D is incorrect because it is too far-fetched.
23. (a) Option B isn’t correct as the passage does not
present an argument or take a definitive stance on
the topic, rather it leaves things over to the readers
to form their own opinion. Option C is incorrect as
the tone of the passage is not aggressive or
confrontational.
Option A and D are close but D is incorrect because
while the passage raises thought-provoking
questions and ideas, it does not do so in a direct
manner. The tone is more reflective, exploratory and
contemplative than incisive.
24. (b) From the information presented, we can conclude
neither of A and D, thus they can be eliminated.
Option C is not fully supported by the information
presented in the passage, as the scientific
Page 3 of 16
 community is divided on the issue of whether plants
have emotions and can feel pain and that in fact
happens to be only a part of the passage. Option B is
the most apt conclusion as the passage discusses the
complex ethical considerations surrounding plant
consumption; thus it is the correct answer choice.
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
25. (b) Kumar Mangalam Birla, an Indian industrialist and
the chairman of the Aditya Birla Group, was
awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2023. The Padma
Bhushan is the third-highest civilian award in the
Republic of India, after the Bharat Ratna and the
Padma Vibhushan.
26. (d) Balkrishna Doshi, Dilip Mahalanabis, and
Mulayam Singh Yadav were all awarded the Padma
Vibhushan posthumously in 2023. The Padma
Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in
the Republic of India. It is awarded for exceptional
and distinguished service, without distinction of
race, occupation, position, or sex.
27. (d) Jodhaiyabai Baiga, Usha Barle, and Premjit Baria
were all awarded the Padma Shri in the field of Art
in 2023. The Padma Shri is the fourth highest
civilian award in the Republic of India, awarded by
the Government of India, and recognizes
contributions in various fields, including the arts.
28. (d) Is the correct answer.
29. (d) Persons selected for the Padma Awards are
subjected to verification by investigating agencies of
the Government. However, government servants
working with PSUs are not eligible for Padma
Awards.
30. (b) The award does not amount to a title and cannot be
used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name.
31. (b) The Bill introduces an additional "deal value"
criterion for assessing whether a transaction (merger
and amalgamation) requires approval from the CCI.
A transaction will now require approval of the CCI
if the deal value exceeds Rs. 2,000,00,00,000.
32. (c) The Bill now codifies 'material influence' as a
standard for control. Material influence is the
presence of factors that enable an entity to influence
the affairs and management of another enterprise.
33. (a) The company facing an investigation before the CCI
relating to abuse of dominant position and anti-
competitive agreements (except cartels) can now
apply to the CCI to settle their case or offer
commitments in respect of the alleged
contravention.
34. (b) The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023,
introduces a new provision regarding appeals. The
appellate tribunal will not entertain an appeal from
any company unless the company deposits 25
percent of the amount of penalty imposed by CCI.
This additional requirement is expected to prompt
companies to scrutinize their decision to appeal and
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ensure that only serious and meritorious appeals are
filed.
35. (b) The Competition (Amendment) Bill, 2023, reduces
the overall time limit for the assessment of
combinations (mergers and acquisitions) to a period
of 150 days from the previous limit of 210 days. This
is intended to expedite the process of merger and
acquisition approvals by the CCI.
36. (b) Government has named Ravneet Kaur as the
Chairperson of antitrust body, Competition
Commission of India (CCI) for a period of five
years.
37. (a) The Shatrunjaya Hills Temple, located in Palitana,
Gujarat, was allegedly vandalized, leading to
protests by the Jain community. This temple is a
prominent pilgrimage site for Shwetambara Jains
and is believed to have been built over 900 years
ago.
38. (b) Parasnath Hill is a highly significant site for the
Jain community because it is believed that 20 of the
24 Tirthankaras (enlightened beings) attained
moksha (salvation) at Sikharji. This belief makes
Parasnath Hill one of the most sacred sites in
Jainism.
39. (c) Adinath, the founder of Jainism, is believed to have
meditated beneath a tree at the summit of
Shatrunjaya Hills. This event is significant in the
history of Jainism and contributes to the religious
importance of Shatrunjaya Hills for the Jain
community.
40. (a) The Santhal tribe, one of the largest Scheduled
Tribe communities in India, has staked a claim on
ParasnathHill and warned of a revolt if their
demands are not met. This claim is based on their
belief that Parasnath Hill is a sacred site for their
community and should be protected from
commercialization and desecration.
41. (c) Tirthankar means the founder of the Tirth (a
Sanskrit word that means ‘crossing place or ford
or bridge’), meaning He helps people cross over the
sea of innumerable births and deaths. He is also
called ‘Jin’, meaning the Victorious One, who has
conquered His inner enemies namely anger, pride,
attachment and greed.
42. (c) The mission aims to develop a green hydrogen
production capacity of at least 5 MMT (Million
Metric Tonne) per annum by 2030.
43. (d) The mission outcomes projected by 2030 include an
associated renewable energy capacity addition of
about 125 GW in the country.
44. (c) The mission outcomes projected by 2030 include a
cumulative reduction in fossil fuel imports by over
Rs. One lakh crore.
45. (a) Green Hydrogen Consumption Obligation
(GHCO) mechanism to boost demand for green
hydrogen in certain industries, such as petroleum
refineries or fertiliser manufacturing.
Page 4 of 16
46. (a) Depending on the nature of the method of its
extraction, hydrogen is categorised into three
categories, namely, Grey, Blue and Green.
Grey Hydrogen: It is produced via coal or lignite
gasification (black or brown), or via a process called
steam methane reformation (SMR) of natural gas or
methane (grey). These tend to be mostly carbon-
intensive processes.
Blue Hydrogen: It is produced via natural gas or coal
gasification combined with carbon capture storage
(CCS) or carbon capture use (CCU) technologies to
reduce carbon emissions.
Green Hydrogen: It is produced using electrolysis of
water with electricity generated by renewable
energy. The carbon intensity ultimately depends on
the carbon neutrality of the source of electricity (i.e.,
the more renewable energy there is in the electricity
fuel mix, the "greener" the hydrogen produced).
47. (a) Green hydrogen is produced from water electrolysis
powered by renewable energy. In order to produce
green hydrogen in large quantities, a substantial
amount of renewable energy is required, which
might be challenging to generate consistently given
the current infrastructure and technology. Hence, it
may seem difficult to replace grey hydrogen, which
is produced from fossil fuels and is currently more
common, with green hydrogen.
48. (c) The Madras High Court made observations about
the FRP for sugarcane, stating that it is not a fair
market price at all.
49. (a) The payment of FRP across the country is governed
by the Sugarcane Control order, 1966 issued under
the Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 which
mandates payment within 14 days of the date of
delivery of the cane.
50. (d) The factors considered for announcing FRP include
cost of production of sugarcane, return tothe
growers from alternative crops and the general trend
of prices of agricultural commodities, availability of
sugar to consumers at a fair price, price at which
sugar produced from sugarcane is sold by sugar
producers, recovery of sugar from sugarcane, the
realization made from the sale of by-products viz.
molasses, bagasse and press mud or their imputed
value, and reasonable margins for the growers of
sugarcane on account of risk and profits.
51. (c) In the Indian Constitution, the distribution of
legislative powers between the central government
(Union) and the state governments is outlined in the
Seventh Schedule. The Seventh Schedule contains
three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the
Concurrent List.
The Union List includes subjects on which only the
central government has the power to make laws. The
State List includes subjects on which only the state
governments have the power to make laws. The
Concurrent List includes subjects on which both the
central and state governments have the power to
make laws.
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Agriculture falls under Entry 14 of the State List,
which gives the state governments exclusive
authority to legislate and make policies related to
agriculture, including agricultural education and
research, protection against pests and diseases, and
the preservation, protection, and improvement of
stock and prevention of animal diseases.
However, agriculture is also mentioned in Entry 33
of the Concurrent List. This means that both the
central and state governments have the power to
make laws on matters related to trade and commerce
in agricultural produce, including the powers to
regulate inter-state trade and commerce in such
produce.
Therefore, while the state governments have
primary authority over agriculture, the central
government can also legislate on certain aspects
related to agriculture, specifically regarding trade
and commerce in agricultural produce.
52. (d) Lack of labor for cutting sugarcane and
transportation challenges: The labor required for
cutting sugarcane comes at a high cost.
Additionally, if the cutting season is dry without
rains, it gravely affects the total weight of the cane.
On the other hand, if it rains, there will be slush on
the path, making it difficult for lorries/trucks to
reach the fields. Farmers have to spend a significant
amount to transport the sugarcane from their fields
to the main road by employing labor. Therefore, this
option correctly identifies the challenges related to
labor availability and transportation.
The threat of fire accidents and damage caused by
animals: The fire accidents in sugarcane fields are
caused not only by negligent smokers but also by
mischief-mongers. Additionally, the crops are
susceptible to damage by wild boars and other
animals. Hence, this option accurately identifies the
difficulties faced by farmers due to fire accidents
and animal damage.
High costs associated with seedlings, manure, and
fertilizers: Farmers need to purchase seedlings at
high costs. Before planting, they must also apply
manure and fertilizers, which are sold at high prices.
This option correctly identifies the financial burden
faced by farmers due to the expenses related to
seedlings, manure, and fertilizers.
53. (a) The FRP is determined on the recommendation of
the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(CACP) and announced by the Cabinet Committee
on Economic Affairs (CCEA).
54. (a) Narendra Singh Tomar is current Minister of
Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare.
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
55. (c) Option A – Having common intention to commit a
criminal act is not enough to prove that every
member is liable. It must be proved that every
person acted in furtherance of the of the common
Page 5 of 16
 intention subsequently. Romil, Roma, Shivangi and
Sharda had common intention to commit a criminal
act but did not act in furtherance of the same.
Option B – Commission of a criminal act is not
enough to determine liability. For joint liability of
the accused u/s 34 it must be proved that every
person acted in furtherance of the of the common
intention subsequently. Here Romil, Roma,
Shivangi and Sharda had common intention to
commit a criminal act but did not act in furtherance
of the same. It was Shivani alone who hit Roshini
with her car.
Option C – An act in "Furtherance" of "common
intention" must be performed in order to commit a
"criminal act" to establish joint culpability. Romil,
Roma, Shivangi, and Sharda shared a common
desire to conduct a criminal crime but did not act on
it.
Option D– They did not act in furtherance of
common intention and therefore, the act of Romil,
Roma, Shivangi and Sharda did not encompass the
sequence leading to the death of the individual in
question. Further, the requirement of all involved
parties to participate in the unlawful act was not
fulfilled.
56. (b) Option A – All of them acted in furtherance of
common intention and the entire action on their part
led to the murder of Roshni. Option A is not talking
about the same, hence it is not correct.
Option B – Having common intention to commit a
criminal act is not enough to prove that every
member is liable. It must be proved that every
person acted in furtherance of the common
intention subsequently. Here all the friends had
common intention to commit a criminal act and
acted in furtherance of the same to accomplish the
intended result, hence all of them are liable. Option
C –. Roma, Shivangi, Romil, Shivani and Sharda not
only had common intention to commit a criminal act
but also acted in furtherance of the same. However,
Shivani carried out the act all the parties were
involved in the commission of the offence.
Option D – Similar Intention cannot be equated with
common intention as provided in the passage and
therefore, Option D is incorrect.
57. (a) Option A – Common intention was missing
between Shweta and five friends including Shivani
since there was no prior meeting of mind for
commission of the offence and they just had similar
intention. The five friends shared common intention
as the five friends were present at the place of
accident when Shivani hit Roshni therefore, they all
acted in furtherance of common intention and will
be held liable for Roshni’s murder.
Option B – Common intention was absent since
there was no prior meeting of mind for commission
of the offence. The passage states that in case of
similar intention there is no joint liability.
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Option C –The five friends shared common
intention while they shared similar intention with
Shweta. The question asks for the joint liability for
the criminal act, however the option states for
similar intention. Option D – Common intention was
absent between Shweta and Shivani since there was
no prior meeting of minds for commission of the
offence. The five friends shared common intention
while they shared similar intention with Shweta.
Shivani, Romil, Roma, Shivangi and Sharda had
common intention to commit a criminal and they
were present at the place of accident which shows
they acted in furtherance of common intention.
Furthermore, the passage states that joint liability
does not exist in case of similar intention.
58. (c) Option A –the requirement of prior meeting of mind
was fulfilled. However, the essential requirement of
commission of an “offence” is not fulfilled. The act
of inciting for an argument is not an offence. Hence,
an essential ingredient of the definition of joint
liability is absent. All five friends are not jointly
liable of commission of an offence since they did not
commit an offence jointly.
Option B is not correct but option C. The language
used is suggestive. However, option C states that no
liability arises as there was no criminal act/offence
committed in furtherance of common intention. The
act of inciting for an argument is not an offence.
Hence, an essential ingredient of the definition of
joint liability is absent. All five friends are not
jointly liable of commission of an offence since they
did not commit an offence jointly.
Option D – Their subsequent common intention will
be taken into account since their common intention
of hitting Roshni was never fulfilled. Therefore, the
reasoning that is provided in the option is fallacious.
59. (d) The correct answer is option (d). The agreement
seeks to compromise serious criminal charges. Thus,
the agreement defeats the ends of justice thereby
making options (a) and (c) incorrect. Option (b) is
also ruled out since the alleged offence is serious in
nature.
60. (b) The last few sentences of the passage say that if
matrimonial matters, including dowry, are
addressed amicably between the spouses, the HC
might quash the proceeding if satisfied. The correct
answer is option (b). The proceedings can be
quashed using the agreement because the dispute is
concerned with dowry harassment, and the parties
have settled all disputes between them amicably.
Thus, option (c) is ruled out. Option (a) is incorrect
because it presents additional information i.e.,
mentioning of dowry prohibition act that is neither
mentioned in passage nor in facts. Hence, the
agreement can be used to quash criminal
proceedings. Option (d) is consequently incorrect.
61. (b) The correct answer is option (b). In respect of
serious offences like rape, the settlement between
offender and the victim has no legal validity at all.
Page 6 of 16
 Hence, option (a) is incorrect because the ends of
justice would be defeated if such a compromise is
allowed. Option (c) is incorrect because rape is a
serious offence and hence, any compromise in this
regard cannot have any legal sanction. , Option (d)
is incorrect because rape does not bear an
overwhelming civil flavour.
62. (b) The correct answer is option (b). This is essentially
a matrimonial dispute concerned with divorce and
bears a civil flavour. Hence, it can be compromised.
Option (d) is incorrect because it is totally out of
context. There is no information to infer that it is a
serious offence under the IPC. Options (a) and (c)
are incorrect because they import additional
knowledge about the status of adultery, which is not
relevant within the context of the given passage.
63. (b) The correct answer is B because, according to the
passage, the Supreme Court deemed the
appointment of an Election Commissioner for a term
less than six years as a clear violation of the law.
Specifically, it discusses the case of Arun Goel,
whose appointment took only 24 hours and had a
term slightly over five years, contradicting Section
4(1) of the Election Commission Act, which
mandates minimum six-year tenure. Thus, the
Supreme Court's ruling supports the conclusion that
Arun Goel's appointment was in breach of the Act.
Option A is unsupported, as the passage does not
call for abolishing the government's control over
appointments. Option C is also incorrect, as the
passage highlights the significance of independence
and non-partisanship over academic qualifications.
Lastly, Option D lacks explicit evidence of Arun
Goel's retirement date preceding his appointment as
an Election Commissioner.
64. (b) The correct answer is B because, according to the
passage, Section 4(1) of the Election Commission
(Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners
and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991 requires
Chief Election Commissioners and Election
Commissioners to serve for a period of six years
individually. As a result, Y is eligible to file such a
petition. A is not the correct answer because such a
mandate is not mentioned in the passage. C is
incorrect because the passage makes no reference of
the retirement age. Option D is accordingly ruled
out.
65. (c) The correct answer is C because, as Section 4(1) of
the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of
Election Commissioners and Transaction of
Business) Act, 1991 mandates that Chief Election
Commissioners and Election Commissioners serve
six-year term each. W's appointment was not in
accordance with the Act, which requires six years of
tenure for both the election commissioner and the
chief election commissioner. For the same reason, A
is not the correct answer. B is not the correct answer
because chief election commissioner's death is out
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of the context of the passage. Same logic also helps
us in eliminating option D.
66. (d) The correct answer is D because, according to the
passage, Section 4(1) of the Election Commission
(Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners
and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991 requires
Chief Election Commissioners and Election
Commissioners to serve for a period of six years
separately. Because this Section or this Act in the
passage does not explain the method for
reappointment or promotion, it is difficult to decide
whether X's claim can be upheld or not. As a result,
we rule out options A and C. B is the wrong answer
since it is illogical and vague. .
67. (a) The correct answer is A because according to the
passage, intellectual excellence, which civil servants
might possess, cannot be substituted for values such
as independence and freedom from political bias.
Q's appointment cannot be considered fair because
it was made according to his uncle's political
affiliation. As a result, options B and D are ruled out.
Option C is incorrect because it lacks legal
justification.
68. (c) C is the correct answer because the passage explains
that trespass against movable property like goods is
the taking, wrongfully or forcefully, interfering with
the goods of another. The passage also states that it
is considered intentional even if the wrongdoer did
not know that the property belonged to another.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A refers
to trespass against a person, while option B
describes a specific type of trespass against a person
involving the usage of force causing damage and
impairment. Option D is a general description of
trespass.
69. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the
passage, trespassing requires intention as a
necessary element. The genuine and hidden intent to
harass someone establishes unreasonable behaviour.
We rule out option D because this isn't the situation
here. A is not the right answer as it is devoid of any
legal reasoning. . B is not the right answer because
it is inconsistent with the question.
70. (d) The correct answer is D because, according to the
passage, a trespasser violates another's right and
alters it with the intent to cause wrongful loss or
wrongful gain. We reject option B because there is
no ill will to cause any kind of loss whatsoever.. Due
to the ineffectiveness of these defences, options A
and C are ruled out.
71. (a) The correct answer is A as per the passage; trespass
can be imposed if the interference is with a third
person's body and private property. It is important to
remember that intent is a necessary component of
trespass. Unreasonable behaviour is triggered by a
malafide and ulterior motive to harass another. B is
not the correct answer because, according to the
passage, it is considered intentional even if the
wrongdoer was unaware that the property belonged
Page 7 of 16
 to another. C is not the correct answer because harm
is not mandatory. D is not the correct answer
because A is more accurate within the premise of the
passage.
72. (c) The correct answer is C because, according to the
passage, trespassing against movable property, such
as goods, is the unlawful or coercive interference
with another person's property maliciously. We rule
out options B and D because the prerequisites are
missing. As A lacks legal justification, it is not the
right answer.
73. (c) C is the correct answer as a woman can claim
judicial separation on the grounds of rape, sodomy
etc. as mentioned in the passage. Option A can be
made out from the passage as true as judicial
separation frees the partners from the obligation to
live together, Option B and D are explicitly
mentioned in the passage as “that it is upon the
discretion of the court whether to grant judicial
separation or divorce straightway depending upon
the facts and circumstances of each case” and “As
per Section 13 of The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 if
a couple is not able to reconcile their differences
within the period of one year from the date on which
the decree of judicial separation is granted and are
not able to cohabit again, they can obtain a divorce
on this ground itself.”
74. (b) B is the correct answer as the couple’s conjugal
duties towards each other come to an end and there
is a temporary suspension of the marriage. A is
incorrect because as the passage mentions that a
judicial separation allows the court to make orders
relating to the parties' finances and any children. C
is incorrect because as soon as a couple enters a
judicial separation, they no longer have marital
obligations towards each other, and the marriage is
temporarily suspended. D is incorrect because the
passage clearly mentions that if the parties can
reconcile their differences during the period of one
year of judicial separation and want to cohabit again,
they can get their decree of judicial separation
annulled anytime by the court.
75. (d) D is the correct answer because under Section 10 of
The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 a case for judicial
separation can be claimed on the ground of venereal
diseases that is communicable and HIV/AIDS being
a venereal disease, the wife’s claim can be
considered. A is not the correct answer because the
grounds for divorce and judicial separation are the
same. C is wrong because in the case of venereal
disease, the couple can ask for a judicial separation.
76. (c) C is the correct answer as conversion of religion and
adultery is a valid ground for judicial separation
under Section 10.Option A is incorrect because at
the time of conversion, he followed Hinduism and
conversion of religion is a valid ground for judicial
separation. Option B is wrong because before
conversion, he followed Hinduism and polygamy is
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prohibited in their religion which makes it a valid
ground for judicial separation.
77. (d) Option D is the correct answer because as per the
passage, Uniform Civil Code in Article 44 is part of
the Directive Principles of State Policy which are
not enforceable by the Court and are mere directions
to the State. This answers the question in a better
manner since it asks for her success in Court for
enforcement which cannot be done. Option A is
incorrect because uniform civil code is not
enforceable since it is part of the directive principles
of state policy. Option B is incorrect because the
obligation is on the state to secure for its citizens but
the enforceability is to be done by Courts only. The
questions wants to know about the enforceability
which is better answered by option D. Option C is
incorrect because there is no mention of
fundamental right to equality in the passage.
78. (c) Option C is the correct answer because as per the
passage, secularism implies that any trace of religion
be removed from family or personal laws. It does not
mean that all religions be allowed to have their own
personal laws be followed. Option A is incorrect
because the passage states that: “the AIMPLB is
primarily a Sunni Muslim body and does not
represent Shias, Bohras or Ahmadiyya Muslims.”
Option B is incorrect because the passage states that
“Regressive traditions, like polygamy, sati, child
marriage, dowry and female infanticide stopped
having legal or moral sanction in India.” It is
preceded by mentioning of the ancient law of the
majority community. Option D is incorrect because
the passage states that: “while it is not the State’s job
to regulate personal decisions and individual liberty,
the State can do what it deems fit in the interests of
public order, morality and health.”
79. (d) Option D is the correct answer because as per the
passage, Article 44 states about Uniform Civil Code
is a directive for the State which is not enforceable
in a Court of law.. It has been proposed to be
introduced in India and a secular India means that
all traces of religion are removed from family or
personal law. Minority community is resisting such
changes and a uniform code.
Option A is incorrect because it mentions the
uniform code to be mandatory which is not true in
the context of the passage. The Code is merely
directional or directive in nature, not mandatory.
Option B is incorrect because the passage does not
advocate for minority rights or interests but makes
the point that all the communities should be open for
reform in the interest of secularism.
Option C is incorrect because it does not mention
Uniform Civil Code which is the central aspect of
the passage for which all communities are discussed.
80. (b) Option B is the correct answer because as per the
passage, personal freedoms could be curbed by the
State on the ground of public order, morality and
health. The Board is not a State, and it has no legal
Page 8 of 16
 authority in the light of the passage to act as State
which can curb these freedoms.
Option A is incorrect because such a restriction or
regulation can only be put by the State only. The
board is not a state..
Option C is incorrect because the passage mentions
that the Board is not representative of the wider
minority community.
Option D is incorrect because uniform civil code has
not been enacted till now.
81. (c) The correct answer is C because the passage clearly
states that Article 142 provides a unique power to
the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice”
between the parties, where, at times, the law or
statute may not provide a remedy. The passage also
mentions that the Court's powers under Article
142(1) cannot contravene the provisions of Article
32 (right to constitutional remedies) and cannot even
be inconsistent with the substantive provisions of
the relevant statutory laws. Therefore, option C is
the correct answer, while options A, B, and D are
incorrect as they do not reflect the purpose of Article
142(1) as discussed in the passage.
82. (b) The correct answer is B since the passage states that
the Supreme Court may grant a divorce directly
when a marriage has irretrievably broken down
under Article 142 of the Constitution. Options A and
D are thus ruled out. C is not the correct answer
because using the phrase "all cases" makes the
choice extreme.
83. (c) The correct answer is C because, in accordance with
the passage, Article 142 grants the Supreme Court
the exclusive authority to resolve disputes between
parties in cases where the law or a statute may not
otherwise do so. Option A is ruled out because the
Supreme Court has been given this authority by the
constitution. B is not the right answer because the
parties' consent is irrelevant. D is incorrect because
option C already explains the reasoning, which rules
it out.
84. (d) The correct answer is D because, according to the
passage, Article 142 gives the Supreme Court the
exclusive authority to resolve disputes between
parties in cases where the law or a statute may not
otherwise do so. Options A and C are ruled out
because the remedy was already available at the
district court. Since arbitration is not covered in the
passage, option B is incorrect.
SECTION - D : LOGICAL REASONING
85. (d) The correct answer is D. The passage does not
support the idea that governors should have more
authority in the legislative process. Instead, it
emphasizes the importance of respecting the popular
will reflected in sovereign legislatures and reminds
governors of the limits of their powers (last
paragraph). A) This idea is supported in the first
paragraph, where the Supreme Court's clarification
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of Article 200 is discussed. B) The second and third
paragraphs provide examples of governors
withholding assent and causing difficulties in
governance. C) The last paragraph emphasizes the
importance of respecting the popular will and the
role of the constitutional courts.
86. (c) The correct answer is C. The passage does not
support the inference that governors can sit in
judgment over elected legislatures based on the
Supreme Court's interpretation of Article 200. In
fact, the last paragraph states the opposite: "It also
means that it is not open to appointee governors to
sit in judgment over the wisdom of the elected
legislatures; it is the job of the people or for the
constitutional courts." A) This inference is
supported by the first paragraph, which states that
the Supreme Court has brought clarity to Article
200. B) The second paragraph discusses the three
choices available to governors under the
Constitution. D) The fourth paragraph specifically
mentions the Telangana governor's actions as the
focus of the Supreme Court case.
87. (a) The correct answer is A. The author's argument is
that governors should not withhold their assent for
an indefinite period, and they should respect the
popular will reflected in sovereign legislatures.
Presenting evidence that such actions by governors
negatively affect state governance would strengthen
the author's argument. This can be inferred from the
third paragraph, which highlights the difficulties
caused by governors withholding assent. B) This
option would not strengthen the author's argument,
as it provides instances where withholding assent
may have been beneficial. C) This option does not
directly support the author's argument about the
negative consequences of withholding assent for
indefinite periods. D) This option contradicts the
author's argument, as it suggests that the Supreme
Court has previously supported governors
withholding assent indefinitely.
88. (c) The correct answer is C. The external statement
presents evidence that states where governors
withhold assent for long periods experience slower
economic growth and increased bureaucratic
inefficiencies. This supports the author's argument
that governors should not withhold their assent for
indefinite periods and should respect the popular
will, as mentioned in the third paragraph. A) The
external statement does not weaken the author's
argument, as it provides evidence supporting the
negative consequences of withholding assent. B)
The external statement does not contradict the
author's claim about the Supreme Court's
interpretation of Article
200. D) The external statement does not undermine
the importance of respecting the popular will; rather,
it supports the author's argument by providing
evidence of the negative consequences of
withholding assent.
Page 9 of 16
89. (a) The correct answer is A. The passage emphasizes
that, based on the Supreme Court's interpretation of
Article 200, governors should return bills as soon as
possible, respecting the popular will reflected in
sovereign legislatures (first and last paragraphs).
This interpretation limits the power of governors to
withhold assent indefinitely and highlights the
importance of respecting the decisions of elected
legislatures. B) The passage argues against
withholding assent indefinitely (third paragraph). C)
The passage does not suggest that governors should
always refer bills to the President (second
paragraph). D) The passage does not support the
idea that governors should give assent based on the
alignment of the ruling party with the central
government.
90. (c) The correct answer is C. The author's argument
throughout the passage assumes that governors
respecting the popular will and returning bills as
soon as possible is necessary for effective state
governance. This assumption is reflected in the third
paragraph, which discusses the difficulties caused
by governors withholding assent, and in the last
paragraph, which emphasizes the importance of
respecting the popular will reflected in sovereign
legislatures. A) The passage does not assume that all
governors who withhold assent have political
motivations, although it provides examples of such
behavior. B) The passage does not claim that the
Supreme Court's interpretation will immediately
resolve all issues but rather brings clarity to Article
200. D) The passage does not make any assumptions
about the central government's influence on state
governors.
91. (c) The correct answer is C. The author's main
conclusion is that the government's efforts, while
well-intentioned, are not enough to address the
deeply ingrained preference for boys in society. To
achieve a more egalitarian society, further efforts to
change societal attitudes, promote education, and
raise awareness of the benefits of having children
irrespective of their gender are needed. This
conclusion is supported by the passage's emphasis
on the need for a transformation in individuals'
attitudes, education for girls, and the importance of
equal rights for both genders. A: This option is
incorrect because the passage highlights the decline
in the sex ratio at birth and calls for further efforts to
change societal attitudes and promote education for
girls. B: This option is incorrect because the passage
emphasizes the importance of changing societal
attitudes in achieving an egalitarian society. D: This
option is incorrect because, although the passage
mentions the lack of suitable partners as a
consequence of the skewed gender ratio, the author's
main conclusion focuses on the need for changing
societal attitudes, promoting education, and raising
awareness of the benefits of having children
irrespective of their gender.
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92. (b) The correct answer is B. The author's argument
focuses on the need to change societal attitudes,
promote education, and raise awareness of the
benefits of having children irrespective of their
gender to achieve a more egalitarian society. Option
B directly addresses these concerns by emphasizing
the potential of women in traditionally male-
dominated roles, the importance of education and
financial independence for daughters, and the
benefits of having children of either gender. A: This
option is incorrect because the passage mentions
that raids are "clearly not enough of a deterrent" and
emphasizes the need for changing societal attitudes
and promoting education. C: This option is incorrect
because, while financial incentives may help
address the issue of gender preference, the passage
emphasizes the need for changing societal attitudes
and promoting education as the keys to achieving an
egalitarian society. D: This option is incorrect
because, although the passage acknowledges the
harm caused by clandestine tests and abortions, the
author's main argument focuses on the need for
changing societal attitudes, promoting education,
and raising awareness of the benefits of having
children irrespective of their gender.
93. (c) The correct answer is C. The passage emphasizes
the need to change societal attitudes, promote
education, and raise awareness of the benefits of
having children irrespective of their gender in order
to achieve a more egalitarian society and address the
skewed gender ratio. Option C directly addresses
these concerns and aligns with the author's main
argument. A: This option is incorrect because,
although the passage acknowledges the importance
of enforcing laws like the PC-PNDT Act, it
emphasizes that changing societal attitudes and
promoting education are the keys to achieving an
egalitarian society. B: This option is incorrect
because, while education for girls is an important
aspect, the passage highlights the need for a
comprehensive approach that includes changing
societal attitudes and raising awareness of the
benefits of having children of either gender. D: This
option is incorrect because, while financial
incentives may help to address gender preferences,
the passage emphasizes the need for changing
societal attitudes, promoting education, and raising
awareness of the benefits of having children
irrespective of their gender. The author does not
explicitly talks of higher education.
94. (b) The correct answer is B. According to the passage,
the most effective strategy to address the skewed
gender ratio and promote gender equality involves a
comprehensive approach that includes changing
societal attitudes, promoting education for girls,
ensuring equal rights for both genders, and raising
awareness of the benefits of having children
irrespective of their gender. Option B reflects this
comprehensive approach, aligning with the author's
Page 10 of 16
 main argument. A: This option is incorrect because
the passage mentions that raids are "clearly not
enough of a deterrent" and emphasizes the need for
a comprehensive approach that includes changing
societal attitudes and promoting education. C: This
option is incorrect because, while financial
incentives may help to address gender preferences,
the passage emphasizes the need for a
comprehensive approach that includes changing
societal attitudes, promoting education, and raising
awareness of the benefits of having children
irrespective of their gender. D: This option is
incorrect because, although the passage
acknowledges the harm caused by clandestine tests
and abortions, the author's main argument focuses
on the need for a comprehensive approach to address
the skewed gender ratio and promote gender
equality.
95. (c) The correct answer is C. If financial incentives were
proven to be more effective in addressing gender
preferences than education and societal attitude
changes, it would weaken the author's argument that
promoting education, financial independence, and
equal rights is the key to achieving a more
egalitarian society. Option C presents this scenario.
A: This option is incorrect because it actually
supports the author's argument that promoting
education for girls is essential in addressing the
preference for boys and achieving an egalitarian
society. B: This option is incorrect because it does
not contradict the author's argument that education
and financial independence are essential factors in
achieving an egalitarian society. D: This option is
incorrect because it does not directly challenge the
author's argument that promoting education,
financial independence, and equal rights is the key
to achieving a more egalitarian society.
96. (c) The correct answer is C. The author argues that a
comprehensive approach, which includes changing
societal attitudes, promoting education, and raising
awareness of the benefits of having children
irrespective of their gender, is crucial for achieving
an egalitarian society and addressing the skewed
gender ratio. Option C directly reflects this
perspective. A: This option is incorrect because,
while the author acknowledges the importance of
addressing the skewed SRB, the focus of the passage
is on a comprehensive approach for achieving an
egalitarian society. B: This option is incorrect
because the author emphasizes that "much more
needs to be done" beyond the current efforts to
achieve a more egalitarian society and address the
preference for boys. D: This option is incorrect
because, although the author acknowledges the
importance of the PC- PNDT Act, the main focus is
on the need for a comprehensive approach to
achieve an egalitarian society.
97. (b) The correct answer is B. The passage primarily
focuses on the political fallout from the recent
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incident of a Chinese spy balloon, which was shot
down by the U.S. military after it was allowed to
wander over U.S. military sites for days. The writer
expresses concern about the lack of transparency
and the Biden Administration's decision to classify
details that might educate the public. The correct
answer is supported by the following Passage: "The
White House seems to have underestimated the
bipartisan political anger at allowing a Chinese spy
craft to wander over U.S. military sites for days
before it was shot down." Options A, C and D are
factors leading to the main point, but do not
constitute as the main idea because of narrow
approach.
98. (a) The correct answer is A. The passage states that the
object was roughly the size of a car and was shot
down by an F-22 fighter jet. The correct answer is
not supported by any information in the passage and
is therefore not able to be inferred. The following
passage supports answers B, C, and D: "The
Administration on Friday wasn’t saying what the
downed object is, where it may have come from, or
what it was doing. The Administration said it
became aware of the flying mystery on Thursday
night, and U.S. pilots sent to take a look concluded
it wasn’t manned. An F-22 fighter jet took down the
object, which is roughly the size of a car, and it fell
onto frozen water in U.S. territorial waters. The
Pentagon says the object posed a potential threat to
commercial air traffic."
99. (d) The correct answer is D. The author argues that the
Biden Administration is taking no chances after the
backlash from the incident involving the Chinese
spy balloon, which was in U.S. airspace for several
days before it was shot down. If the spy balloon was
not in U.S. airspace for several days before it was
shot down, it would weaken the author's argument
that the Biden Administration is taking no chances
and was responding to the political anger
surrounding the incident.
100. (a) The correct answer is A. The author criticizes the
Biden administration for underestimating the
perceived threat and political repercussions of the
previous Chinese spy balloon incident. The author
doesn't appear to be convinced that the recent
response to the unidentified object over Alaska
reflects an overall improvement in the
administration's approach. B. This is not correct as
the author explicitly mentions this as a possible
explanation given by the administration, but does
not necessarily endorse or reject it ("A Biden excuse
for waiting to take down the balloon was to let the
Pentagon track it and gather intelligence."). This is
mentioned in the fifth paragraph. C. This is not
correct because the author expressly argues for more
transparency in the final paragraph ("...Americans
are right to want to know more about these back-to-
back visitors to U.S. airspace").
101. (c) The correct answer is C. According to the passage,
Page 11 of 16
 "The White House seems to have underestimated the
bipartisan political anger at allowing a Chinese spy
craft to wander over U.S. military sites for days
before it was shot down." (paragraph 6) This shows
that the author believes the main reason behind the
sudden sense of urgency in the Biden
Administration's decision to shoot down the object
was due to the anger over the Chinese spy balloon
incident. The author also mentions that "a resolution
condemning China for violating U.S. sovereignty
sailed through the House 419-0" (paragraph 6),
further supporting the idea that political pressure
was a significant factor in the decision.
Therefore, the correct answer is C) The bipartisan
political anger at allowing a Chinese spy craft to
wander over U.S. military sites. Options A, B and D
are the reasonings provided by the Pentagon, but not
taken seriously by the author. Refer to the lines,
‘The Pentagon says the object posed a potential
threat to commercial air traffic flying at about
40,000 feet, unlike last week’s spy balloon at
roughly 60,000 feet. But that alone can’t explain the
sudden sense of urgency.’ And, ‘A Pentagon official
said in a hearing on Capitol Hill this week that
another reason not to pop the balloon while it was
over Alaska was to avoid a recovery in potentially
deep waters or areas with ice cover.’
102. (b) The correct answer is B. The author mentions the
"resolution condemning China for violating U.S.
sovereignty [that] sailed through the House 419-0"
(paragraph 6) as evidence for his claim that the
Biden Administration's sudden sense of urgency in
shooting down the object over Alaska was due to the
bipartisan political anger over the Chinese spy
balloon incident. This shows that the author is using
the resolution as a piece of evidence to support his
argument. Therefore, the correct answer is B) A
resolution condemning China. The rest are not the
answers concerning the pertinent question stem.
103. (b) The correct answer is B. The entire passage is
centered around the struggles faced by the MSME
sector in India and the need for government
intervention to help revive it. The author states that
the MSME sector accounts for a significant portion
of the economy and employment and is currently
facing many challenges such as demonetization,
GST, lack of collateral, loan requirements, and
infrastructure. The author emphasizes the
importance of reviving the MSME sector and
providing it with support from the government. This
is the main idea of the passage, which is option B.
Option A is contrary to the gist of the passage.
Options C and D are subsets to the main idea.
104. (b) The correct answer is B. The statement "The MSME
sector accounts for 30% of the economy and 40% of
employment" is mentioned at the beginning of the
passage and it sets the stage for the author's
argument. The author uses this statement to drive
home the point that the MSME sector is incredibly
Shop No. 162, Near Miraj Cinemas, New Civic Centre, Bhilai Chhattisgarh, Pincode: 490006| https://www.toprankers.com
important to the Indian economy and to the
livelihoods of millions of people. By emphasizing
the sheer scale of the MSME sector's impact, the
author makes it clear that this is a sector that
deserves attention and support. So, option B is the
correct answer as it highlights the crucial role the
MSME sector plays in the Indian economy. Option
A contradicts the author’s argument. Option C is
incorrect, for the statement is not an isolated
reference, but is a data that is the base for further
arguments. Option D is incorrect, for it does not
contradict the author's claims about the challenges
facing the MSME sector; rather, it builds the
arguments.
105. (d) The correct answer is D. The passage talks about the
various challenges that the MSME sector in India is
facing. It mentions demonetization and the GST
regime as two of the biggest challenges (paragraph
2). The lack of basic infrastructure such as
electricity, roads, and water supply is also noted as
a challenge (paragraph 3). So, option D is the correct
answer as it addresses the given reasons in the
passage.
106. (c) The correct answer is C) The MSME sector accounts
for 40% of employment in the Indian economy. This
statement can be found in the first paragraph of the
passage, "The MSME (Micro, Small, and Medium
Enterprises) sector which accounts for 30% of the
economy and 40% of employment is going through
the worst period in several years." A) The
demonetization being the most prominent reason for
the slowdown in the MSME sector is a claim made
by the author and is open to interpretation. B) The
reasons are not very difficult to see and the
government must address them as soon as possible
so that the MSME sector could once again become
a driving force of the Indian economy is also a claim
made by the author. C) The MSME sector
accounting for 40% of employment in the Indian
economy is a fact stated by the author. D) The Govt
must come up with an effective mechanism to help
the sector is also a claim stated by the author in the
second paragraph.
107. (c) The correct answer is C. (C) MSMEs are in a tough
spot, and the government must take immediate
action to help them is the answer that must
necessarily be true based on the author's arguments.
The author says "And this should be the primary
cause of concern for the Finance Minister"
(Paragraph 1) and "The Govt must come up with an
effective mechanism to help the sector" (Paragraph
4), which clearly shows that the author thinks the
MSMEs are in a tough spot and the government
needs to take immediate action. According to the
passage, "The MSME (Micro, Small, and Medium
Enterprises) sector which accounts for 30% of the
economy and 40% of employment is going through
the worst period in several years" (Paragraph 1) and
"A whopping 10,655 micro, small, and medium
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 enterprises closed down in the financial year 2022-
23 according to the govt data" (Paragraph 2). These
statements further strengthen the argument that the
author thinks the MSME sector is in a tough spot and
the government must take immediate action. Option
A (second part of the sentence “don't need
government assistance”) is contrary to the author’s
claims made in the passage. Option B is partially
true, but the fact that the government is already
taking steps finds no support in the passage. Option
D is untrue because the author does not support such
a claim in the passage.
108. (b) The correct answer is B. Option (b) is the only
option that could reasonably be deducted from the
given statement. Option (a), (c) and (d) are all
opinions already given in the passage and the
question is asking about the inference of the given
line from the passage.

SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Hint (Q.109-Q.113):
Society Male Children Female Children Total Children Total Population
A 90 135 225 750
B 185 65 250 800
C 200 125 325 1000
D 148 222 370 925
E 180 114 294 525
Total 803 661 1464 4000

109. (c) Total population of society E = 525 117. (d) Total number of females = 99 + 1430 + 198 + 165 =
135 1,892.
110. (c) Required ratio = = 3:4
180
114 5 118. (d) Required ratio = 462: 2145 = 14: 65
111. (b) Required percentage = × 100 = 21 % Hint (Q.119-Q.120): Ratio of Boys to Girls = 7: 3
525 7
112. (d) Total number of female children = Boys = 350
135+65+125+222+114 = 661 Girls = 150
800 19
113. (a) Required percentage = × 100 = 31 %.
2550 51
Hint (Q.114-Q.118) Number of persons who
5500×18
manage their business =
100
= 55 x 18 = 990
90
Males = 990 × = 99 × 9 = 891
100
Females = 990-891 = 99
Number of people who serve in organizations = Boys = 350
550×65
∴ x + 126 + 154 = 350
100
= 55 × 65 = 3575 ∴ x = 350 – 280 = 70
3575×60
Males = = 357.5 × 6 = 2,145
100
Females = 3575 - 2145 = 1,430
5500×12
Number of the unemployed = = 55 x 12 =
100
660
660×70
Males = = 66 x 7 = 462.
100
Females = 660 - 462 = 198
5500×5
Children = = 55 × 5 = 275 Girls = 150
100
Males children =
275×40
= 27.5 × 4 = 110 y + 72 + 42 = 150
100 or, y = 150 – 114 = 36
Females children = 275-110 = 165
275×100
114. (a) Required percentage = = 28. 36
900 119. (c) Reqd % = × 100 = 24%
150
115. (b) Required difference = 165 - 110 = 55. 36
120. (d) Reqd % = × 100 = 24%
116. (a) Total number of adult males = 891 + 2145 + 462 = 150
3498. Difference = 196 - 108 = 88

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Notes

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Notes

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Notes

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