CHAPTER 2.

MORE APPLICATIONS OF ODEs

2.1. THE HARMONIC OSCILLATOR

Consider the pendulum shown.

The small object, mass m,
at the end of the pendulum,
is moving on a circle of radius
L, so the component of its velocity

tangential to the circle is L_

Hence its tangential acceleration is
L and so by F = M a we have
* *

mL = mg sin :

An obvious solution is  = 0. This is called an EQUILIBRIUM solution, meaning that 

is a CONSTANT function. This means that if you set  = 0 initially, then  will remain
at 0 and the pendulum will not move | which of course we know is correct. There is
ANOTHER equilibrium solution,  = . Again, IN THEORY, if you set the pendulum
EXACTLY at  = , then it will remain in that position forever. IN REALITY, of course,
it won't! Because the slightest pu of air will knock it over! So this equilibrium is very
dierent from the one at  = 0. This is a very important distinction!
Equilibrium is said to be STABLE if a SMALL push away from equilibrium REMAINS
small. If the small push tends to grow large, then the equilibrium is UNSTABLE. Obviously
1
this is important for engineers! Especially you want vibrations of structures, engines, etc
to remain small.
Let's look at  = . By Taylor's theorem, near  = , we have
1
f () = f () + f 0 ()( ) + f 00 ()( )2 + :::
2
Now sin() = 0, sin0() = cos() = 1, sin00() = sin() = 0 etc so

sin() = 0 ( ) 0 + 16 ( )3 etc

For small deviations away from ,   is small, ( )3 is much smaller, etc, so we can
approximate
sin()  ( )

so our equation is approximately

ML = mg sin  = mg( ):

Let  =  , so  = , and now

g
 = :
L

The general solution is

p p
 = Ae ( g=L)t + Be ( g=L)t

p p
so  =  +  = Ae ( g=L)t + Be ( g=L)t + :
As you know, the exponential function grows very quickly; so even if  is close to  initially,
it won't stay near to it very long! Very soon,  will arrive either at  = 0 or 2, far away
2
from  = . The equilibrium is UNSTABLE! How long does it take for things to get out
p p
of control? That is determined by g=L or rather L=g, which has units of TIME. Note
that it takes longer to fall over if L is large.

EXAMPLE:
An eccentric professor likes to balance pendula near their unstable equilibrium point.
In a given performance, the pendulum is initially slightly away from that point, and is
initially at rest. The prof's skill is such that he can stop the pendulum from falling
provided that the angular deviation from the vertical angle does not double. If the shortest
pendulum for which he can perform this trick is 9.8 centimetres long, estimate the speed
of his re exes.
Solution: The problem is saying that the angle  [the deviation from the vertical] is
initially very small, and its initial rate of change is zero. So (0) =  [some very small
number] and _ (0) = 0. Dierentiating our solution for (t) above and substituting we get
A + B =  and A - B = 0, so in fact A = B = /2 and so
p
 =  cosh(( g=L)t) =  cosh(10t)

since from the given data g/L = 100/sec . Now our objective is to calculate how long
2

it takes for  to double, so we need to nd t such that 2 =  cosh(10t). Clearly t =

cosh (2)/10  0.132 sec.
1

SUMMARY : The equation  = + Lg  is a symptom of INSTABILITY. The system is at

p
equilibrium, but it will run away uncontrollably on a time scale xed by L=g.
3
Now what about  = 0? Here of course we use Taylor's theorem around zero,
1
f () = f (0) + f 0 (0) + f 00 (0) + :::2
2
sin() = 0 +  0 16  + ::: 3

so sin()   and we have approximately

mL = mg or
g
 =  = !2 
L
with ! = g=L. That minus sign is crucial!
2

General solution is C cos(! t) + D sin(! t) where C and D are arbitrary constants.

Now using trigonometric identities you can show that ANY expression of the form C cos(x)+
D sin(x) can be written as

p
C cos(x) + D sin(x) = C 2 + D2 cos(x )

where tan( ) = D=C . [You can see this easily by taking the scalar product of the vectors
   
C and cos(x) .]
D sin(x)
So now we can write our general solution as

 = A cos(!t )

[
Check : this does satisfy  = !2  and it does contain TWO arbitrary constants, A and
]. In this case,  is never larger than A, never smaller than A, so IF  WAS SMALL
INITIALLY, it REMAINS SMALL! [We call A the AMPLITUDE.] So the equilibrium in
4
this case is STABLE. This is called SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION. Clearly  repeats
its values every time !t increases by 2 [since cos is periodic with period 2]. Now

!t ! !t + 2

means
t!t+
2
!
p
So 
2
! = 2 L=g is the time taken for  to return to its initial value, the PERIOD. Again
it takes a long time if L is large. The number ! is called the ANGULAR FREQUENCY.

SUMMARY : The equation  = !2  is a symptom of STABILITY. The system oscil-

p
lates, with a constant amplitude, around equilibrium on a time scale xed by L=g. The
angular frequency is !.

EXAMPLE: MODELLING A SATELLITE

Suppose you want to put a telecommunications satellite into orbit around the Earth.
You want to set up a model of the way the satellite *rotates*, so that you can be sure that
it always points in the right direction. These are very complex objects, but even a simple
mathematical model of them gives a surprise.
Objects rotating in three dimensions can behave in surprising ways. In three dimen-
sions, an object can of course rotate around three dierent axes. The rates of rotation are
described by quantities called angular velocities, ! , ! , ! . The shape of the object is
1 2 3

described by three numbers called the principal moments of inertia, I ; I ; I . They tell
1 2 3

5
you how far, on average, the mass in the object is away from that axis. For example, if
axis 1 is along the length of a long thin object like a chopstick, then (since all of the mass
is close to axis 1) I will be very small. We consider an object such that I
1 1 > I2 > I3 ; your
phone is a good example, and so is a book. For rigid objects, these numbers are constants.
It turns out that the time evolution of ! , ! , ! for an isolated object (like something
1 2 3

in outer space for instance) is governed by three equations called Euler's equations:
d!1
I1
dt
= (I 2 I3 ) !2 !3

d!2
I2
dt
= (I 3 I1 ) !3 !1
d!
I3 3
dt
= (I 1 I2 ) !1 !2

Now suppose we have an object rotating around the axis with largest moment of inertia,
that is, axis 1. Then perturb it very slightly, so that ! and ! are not zero, but they are
2 3

very small. We take it that their product is so small that we can neglect it. Then the rst
equation tells us that, to a good approximation, ! is still constant. Now dierentiating
1

the second equation you get

d2 !2 d!3
I2
dt2
= (I 3 I1 ) !;
dt 1

and substituting the third equation into this one you nd

d2 !2
I2 I3
dt2
= (I 3 I1 )(I1 I2 ) !12 !2 = K 2 !2 ;

where K = (I
2
1 I3 )(I1 I2 ) !12 is a positive number because I is the largest moment
1

of inertia. So clearly the situation is stable, because of that minus sign. If you set your
6
satellite rotating around this axis, it will tend to continue to rotate around that axis and
all is well. (Actually, it may not be, because satellites aren't exactly rigid. But that needs
a much more complicated model.)
You will nd that you reach the same conclusion if the object was originally spinning
around the axis with the *smallest* moment of inertia, axis 3.
But if you set it rotating around axis 2, and then perturb, you nd that ! is approx-
2

imately constant, but the equation you get [check it] for ! is 3

d2 !3
I1 I3
dt2
= (I 1 I2 )(I2 I3 ) !22 !3 ;

and now the right side is a *positive* multiple of ! . (You get exactly the same equation
3

for ! .) We know what that means! The initially small rotations in the 3 and 1 directions
1

grow uncontrollably, and so rotation about this axis is *unstable*.

It's clearly very important to understand this when you set up a model of a very
expensive satellite that you put into orbit around the Earth. If you are not careful (that
is, if you set it rotating around the wrong axis), the satellite will tumble around, or end
up rotating around an axis dierent from the one you wanted, and then it will be useless
because (for telecommunications) you need the transmitter to point always in a chosen
direction. This disastrous mistake actually happened in the early days of communications
satellites! (More complicated models of satellites have to take into account the exible
antennae they usually have, and so on.....)

2.2. DAMPED, FORCED OSCILLATORS .

7
When an object moves fairly slowly through air, the RESISTANCE DUE TO FRICTION
is approximately proportional to its speed, and of course in the OPPOSITE DIRECTION.
So in the case of the pendulum, where the speed of the object is L_, the DAMPING
FORCE is
SL_

where S is some positive constant. We now have

mL = mg sin  SL_

 mg SL_
if  is close to zero. Thus
mg
m + S _ +  = 0;
L
and this is the equation of DAMPED HARMONIC MOTION. We can also attach a motor
to the pendulum, that is, an external force F (t) which may depend on time. Then
mL = mg sin  SL_ + F (t)

and if  remains small, we get

m + S _ +
mg 1
 = F (t);
L L
the equation of FORCED damped harmonic motion.
Let's look at the unforced but damped case rst. The ODE will always have the form
mx + bx_ + kx = 0:

With the usual trick, x = et, we get

m2 + b + k = 0:
8
Quadratic in , so 3 cases: both roots real, both complex, both equal.

[a] BOTH REAL : OVERDAMPING

Example, x + 3x_ + 2x = 0
2 + 3  + 2 = 0 !  = 1; 2;
general solution B e t + B e t. The motion very rapidly dies away to zero. Obviously
1 2
2

we have too much friction.

[b] BOTH COMPLEX: UNDERDAMPING

Example, x + 4x_ + 13x = 0
2 + 4 + 13 = 0 !  = 2  3i
general solution B e t cos(3t) + B e t sin(3t), which can be written as
1
2
2
2

x = Ae 2t cos(3t ):

The graph is obtained by \multiplying together\ the graphs of e 2t and A cos(3t ):

This is like a simple harmonic oscillator such that the amplitude is a function of time.
9
In general if we have an equation for an unforced, damped harmonic oscillator, such that
mx + bx_ + kx = 0;

m2 + b + k = 0;
then if the solutions for  are COMPLEX, we say that the system is UNDERDAMPED.
We get
x(t) = Ae 2m cos(t )
bt

p
where  = 2
1
m 4mk b2 . You can think of this as \SHM with frequency  and amplitude
Ae 2m ."
bt

Here  is often called the QUASI-FREQUENCY and 

2
 is the QUASI-PERIOD. Notice
that in this problem, UNLIKE in true SHM, there are actually TWO independent time
scales: 2 
 has units of time but so does 2m
b . This second time scale tells you how quickly
the amplitude dies out. [They are INDEPENDENT because given m and b you can work
out 2m
b but not 
2
 [since you have not been given k.]
2.3. FORCED OSCILLATIONS

Suppose you have a mass m which can move in a horizontal line. It is attached to the end
of a spring which exerts a force
Fspring = kx

where x is the extension of the spring and k is a constant (called the spring constant). This
is Hooke's Law. Now we attach an external MOTOR to the mass m. This motor exerts a
force F cos(t), where F is the amplitude of the external force and  is the frequency. If
0 0

F0 = 0 we just have, from Newton,

mx = kx;
10
 p
so we get x = !2 x; ! = k=m: Here ! is the frequency that the system has if we leave
it alone that is, it is the NATURAL frequency. It has NOTHING TO DO with  of course
we can choose  to suit ourselves.
If F 6= 0, then we have
0

mx + kx = F0 cos t:

Let z be a complex function satisfying

mz + kz = F0 eit :

Clearly the real part, Re z, satises the above equation, so we can solve for z and them
take the real part. We try
z = C eit

and get
mC (i)2 eit + C k eit = F0 eit

) C = k Fm
0
2
= !F2 0=m2
So Re z = !F20 =m
2 cos(t)

and the general solution is

F0 =m
x = A cos(!t ) + cos(t):
! 2 2

Note that
F0 =m
x_ = A! sin(!t ) sin(t):
! 2 2
11
The arbitrary constants A and  are xed by giving x(0) and x_ (0) as usual. For example,
suppose x(0) = x_ (0) = 0, then
0 = A cos() + !F =m 2
0
2

0 = A! sin():
Assuming F 0 =6 0, we cannot have A = 0; )  = 0. So A = F0 =m
! 2 2 ;

F0 =m
x= [cos(t) cos(!t)] :
! 2 2
Using the trigonometric identity
A+B
   
A B
cos A cos B = 2sin 2 sin 2
we nd
x=
2F =m
sin

 !
  
+!
 

2 t sin 2 t
0
 ! 2 2

Now remember that  is under our control, ! is not. Suppose we adjust  to be very close
to !, but not equal to it. Then we can think of this solution in the following way:

x=
2
F =m
sin

 !
  
+!
 

2 t  sin 2 t
0
 ! 2 2

The reason for splitting it like this is that  ! will be very SMALL, so LOW-FREQUENCY,
2

while  ! is much larger, high frequency. So if we write

+
2

+!
  
x = A(t)sin t
2
then we have a sine function with an amplitude which is a (MUCH LOWER-FREQUENCY)
sine function!
12
We say that the system has a BEAT, and  ! is called the BEAT FREQUENCY.
2

Notice that the amplitude function

A(t) =
2 F =m
sin

 !
 

2 t
0
 !
2 2

 
has a maximum value  F2 0=m
2
!2  which becomes very large when  is very close to ! .


What happens if we let  ! !? We have

 
2F =m sin  ! t
A(t) =   ! 0 2
+!
F
! m!  2t = 2Fm!t
0 0

by L'Hopital's rule. So in this limit

F0 t
x=
2m! sin(!t)
and we see that the oscillations
go completely out of control.
This situation is called
RESONANCE. We see that IF A
SYSTEM IS FORCED IN A WAY
13
THAT AGREES WITH ITS OWN
NATURAL FREQUENCY, IT CAN OSCILLATE UNCONTROLLABLY.
This can be very dangerous! In reality resonance does not get completely out of control,
because we cannot really ignore friction [or RESISTANCE in the case of an electrical
circuit]. So we should really solve
mx + bx_ + kx = F0 cos t

mz + bz_ + kz = F0 eit
Set z = ceit and take the real part at the end.

! c = k mF02 + ib = (Fk0 [k mm ib] 2

2 )2 + b2 2

(Using the identity A 1

+iB = A iB
A iB )(A iB )
( +
= AA2 iB
B2
+
.)
So we need the real part of this complex number times eit = cos(t) + i sin(t). Now in
general we have
(C + iD)(E + iF ) = CE DF + i[CF + DE ]

Similarly here
F0 [k m2 ib]
(k m2)2 + b22  [cos(t) + i sin(t)]
has real part
F0 (k m2 )cos(t) + F0 b sin(t)
x(t) = :
(k m2)2 + b2 2
To this we should add the general solution of mx + bx + kx = 0. But we know already
what that looks like whether overdamped or underdamped, the solution rapidly (expo-
nentially) TENDS TO ZERO. We call that part of the solution the TRANSIENT. So after
the transient dies o, we are left with this expression.
14
We saw earlier that ANY expression of the form C cos(x) + D sin(x) can be written as
p
C cos(x) + D sin(x) = C 2 + D2 cos(x )

where tan( ) = D=C .

So here we have
x(t) = qm
cos(t )
F0
1

(!  ) + mb22 
2 2 2 2

So the system eventually settles down into a steady oscillation, BUT AT FREQUENCY
, NOT !! Also, the AMPLITUDE of this oscillation is a FUNCTION OF ,
F0 =m
A(  ) = q
(! 2 2 )2 + mb22 2

The graph of this is called the AMPLITUDE RESPONSE CURVE. Depending on the
values of the parameters, this curve might have a SHARP MAXIMUM, meaning that the
system will suddenly respond strongly if  is chosen to be the value that gives that max-
imum. This is something to be avoided in some cases [things might break] but welcomed
in others [you want your mobile phone to ignore all frequencies but one].

2.4. CONSERVATION .
15
Newton's 2nd law involves TIME derivatives, but sometimes it can be expressed in terms
of SPATIAL derivatives, by means of the following trick:
d

1 x_  = x_ dx_ = dx dx_ = x (chain rule):
2
dx 2 dx dt dx

For SHM we have

mx = kx

so
d 1 2
m ( x_ ) = kx:
dx 2
But now we can integrate both sides:
1 mx_ = 1 kx + E
2 2
2 2
where E is a constant of integration. So we have
1 1
E = mx_ 2 + kx2 :
2 2
As you know, 1
2
mx_ 2 is called the KINETIC ENERGY of the oscillator, and 12 kx2 is called
the POTENTIAL ENERGY. We call E the TOTAL ENERGY. The fact that E is CON-
STANT is called the conservation of energy.
Actually, this idea of turning time derivatives into space derivatives can be very useful
when studying certain kinds of non-linear second-order dierential equations. For example,
consider the following problem:

 + sin() = 0; (0) = 1; _(0) = 1:

16
This is in fact the pendulum problem (with g=L = 1), but without assuming that  is
small. So we can't solve it exactly. But we can still answer questions like: what is the
maximum value of ? We can do this by using the above method to turn our equation into

(_) =2
2
cos() = C;

where C is a constant equal, by the initial conditions, to (1=2) cos(1):

At the maximum point we have _ = 0; so we have

(max) = arccos(cos(1) (1=2))  1:53:

There is a good way of thinking about what we are doing here. Look at the equation
for _ and use it to think of _ as a function of . If you graph that function, you will see
that the graph is a closed curve. You can imagine that as time goes by, the point (, _)
moves around and around that closed curve. This means that the solution, whatever it is,
must be a periodic function of time; and that makes sense, since the physical system is a
pendulum. This method is called the Phase Plane method. [You might nd it entertaining
to get a computer to graph y = cos(x) 0:9, then y = cos(x)+0:9, then y = cos(x)+1,
2 2 2

then y = cos(x) + 1:1, graphing all four on the same page.]

2

This trick is useful for many other non-linear second-order equations too. For example,
you can do similar things with the problem

y + tan(y) = 0; y(0) = 0; y_ (0) = 3:

(Graphs of y(t) and of the phase plane for this equation can easily be drawn using Graph-
matica.)
17
 Another example where the phase plane method is useful:

y + (1=2)cos(y) = 0; y(0) = 0; y_ (0) = 1:

Try solving this using Graphmatica [or MAPLE]. What you get is something silly! [You
can guess that it is silly because the graph has features at t  30 and elsewhere at similarly
large numbers, and there is nothing in the problem corresponding to such large numbers.]
What is really happening?
The phase plane equation is

(y_ ) +
2
sin(y) = 1;

and the system moves from the point (0,1), in the (y, y_ ) phase plane, towards the point
(/2, 0). But it never actually gets there! Because if you separate the variables you get
Z =2 dy
t= p
0 1 sin(y)

and you can show that this is innite. So the correct graph is not the one produced by
the computer, but rather one in which y asymptotically approaches /2 | nothing funny
happens near t = 30. So the phase plane method helps you to spot this error by the
computer.
Proof that it's innite:
p
1 = 1 + sin(y)  sec(y)
cos(y)
p
1 sin(y)
and the integral of sec(y) is ln(jsec(y)+ tan(y)j) which tends to innity as y tends to /2.
18
 However, I don't want to leave you with the impression that computers are completely
useless. Sometimes all of our methods break down [though of course there are more power-
ful methods around than the ones discussed here.....] and then a computer is very handy.
Consider for example the KAPITZA PENDULUM: it's just an upside-down pendulum
attached to a point which is not xed in space; instead it is driven [externally] up and
down, at some frequency . It turns out that the equation of motion of such a thing has
the form
 (g=L)sin() = (A=L) 2
sin( t)sin();

where A is a constant that tells you the strength of the motor. This equation is beyond
all our methods [convince yourself!], but a computer can handle it: try plotting it (using
good old Graphmatica) with g=L = 1; A=L = 0:2; = 8; with (0) = 0:1 [or 0.01] and
_(0) = 0: You will recover the amazing fact that this thing is stable when placed pointing
UPWARD!
Here's another interesting example: consider a pendulum as at the beginning of the
chapter, and let L = 1; g = 4 , which means [check it!] that the natural period is 1. Now
2

allow L to become a periodic function of time. This is exactly what happens when you
are sitting on a swing and swing your legs back and forth: you are changing the position
of your centre of mass [only a little] and thereby, in eect, changing the length of the
pendulum.
If we take L(t) = 1 + a cos(t), which means that the length is changing with fre-
quency , with amplitude a, then it turns out [using some fancy physics] that the equation
19
governing the pendulum is

2a sin(t) _ + 4 2

1 + a cos(t) 1 + a cos(t) sin() = 0:

Again I'm afraid this is beyond our powers. But the computer comes to the rescue.
Consider rst the case a = 0: it's just an ordinary pendulum. Suppose that (0) = 0
and _(0) = 0:1. The amplitude in this case [check it, noting that the angular frequency
of the pendulum is 2] will be 0:1=(2)  0:016, that is, it will be very small so you
won't get much fun out of that swing. However, let's consider a = 0:1; this means that the
length of the pendulum is varying by 10% up and down. For most input frequencies , this
doesn't do much, the amplitude of  is still small. But for certain particular frequencies, for
example if we choose  to be around TWICE the natural frequency (that is, take  = 4),
then something spectacular happens: the amplitude increases until it reaches around 1.5,
which is nearly 100 times larger than it was previously! (Check it using Graphmatica.)
NOW we can have some fun! It is even possible [if the arms of the swing are rigid] to go
right over the top. This phenomenon is called PARAMETRIC RESONANCE and it has
many applications [not just to swings.....]

2.5. EULER's EQUATION .

20
A BEAM is a long, thin object used in buildings etc, which bends when subjected to loads.
Suppose you have a beam which is only supported at one end, which we take to be the
origin (x, y) = (0, 0); this is called a CANTILEVER We assume that there is a LOAD
on the beam | this might just be the weight of the beam itself, but it could be things we
put on top of the beam, or it could be other forces pushing upward. Then of course the
beam must bend. We want to know the shape of the beam; that is, we want to nd y [the
distance through which the beam bends down] as a function of x [the horizontal position].

We measure the load as FORCE PER UNIT LENGTH, w(x). Note the units of w(x):
newtons per metre. Our convention is that w(x) is positive in the UPWARD direction.
Now of course the amount of bending of the beam depends on several things. It will
of course depend on the load, but it will also depend on what the beam is made of | you
would expect aluminium to bend dierently from steel, even if the load is the same. This
stiness is measured by a constant E called YOUNG'S MODULUS, which has units of
pressure [force per unit area, newtons per square metre]. It could be a function of x.
The amount of bending also depends on the SHAPE of the cross-section of the beam,
measured by a constant I is called the SECOND MOMENT OF AREA of the beam. This
has units of [length] .
4

21
It turns out that the de ection of the beam, y = y(x), is governed by the FOURTH-ORDER
ODE, EULER'S EQUATION,
d2 h d2 y i
EI 2 = w(x)
dx2 dx
[Please check that the left side has the right units, newtons per metre!] Let's suppose that
E and I are both constant, and that w(x) is only due to the weight of the beam itself; we
assume
w(x) = constant = . (Remember that w is positive in the UPWARD direction.)
QUESTION : What is
, the maximum de ection, in terms of L, the horizontal length
of the beam?
Answer :
d4 y w 
dx4
= EI = EI
!
d3 y x
dx3
= EI
+A
by integration. Now for physics reasons dx
d3 y = 0 when evaluated at x = L [basically
3

because there is no force there]. Thus

d3 y L
0= dx 3
( L) =
EI
+ A:
Hence we have
A = L
EI :

So

d3 y x L
dx3
= + !
EI EI
d2 y x2 Lx
dx2
= 2EI + EI + B;
22
where we have integrated again. But dx
d2 y = 0 when evaluated at x = L [basically because
2

there is no \twisting" at the end]. So

dy
(L) = 2L L
2 2 2
0 = dx 2
+
EI EI
+B
) B = L2 L2 = L2
EI EI
2 EI 2

d2 y x2 Lx L2
) dx 2
= 2EI + EI 2EI
dy
= 6xEI + Lx L2 x
3 2
) dx 2EI 2EI + C:
But if the beam is horizontal where it is supported, dx
dy (0) = 0 so

0= 0+0 0+C
! C=0
x4 Lx3 L2 x2
!y= 24EI + 6EI 4EI + D;
where we have integrated yet again! Finally the point of support is the origin, so y(0) = 0,
so
D=0

Thus
y=
L4

1 x + 1 x
4 3 1 x  2

2EI 12 L 3 L 2 L
So now nally we can work out the maximum de ection of the beam: you can easily show
that this maximum occurs at the end [x = L] in agreement with common sense, so all we
have to do is to substitute x = L into y and get

= y ( L) = L4

1 +1 1
2EI 12 3 2
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and so we obtain the famous CANTILEVER DEFLECTION FORMULA

= 8L
4
:
EI

The negative answer of course re ects the fact that the cantilever always bends
DOWNWARDS. Check that the answer MAKES SENSE: the de ection is larger for larger
loads , of course that makes sense. The de ection is smaller if EI is large, that is, if the
beam is very sti: that too makes sense. Finally, the de ection is greater if the beam is
very long [large L], which also makes sense. [Are you in the habit of checking that your
answers MAKE SENSE??]
There is still a surprise here though: notice that if you make your cantilever twice as
long, the downwards de ection does not double it increases by a factor of SIXTEEN!
So watch out if you want to build balconies etc. [The power of 4 here is a relic of the fact
that we solved a FOURTH-order ODE.]

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