Clat 1

CLAT – 01
INSTRUCTIONS TO TEST TAKERS
1. Before using the Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet. Check them for any defect like misprint, fudging
of printing, missing pages/Questions/ Ovals etc. and ask for issue of relevant duplicates.
2. No duplicate Questions Booklet, OMR Answer Sheet or Extra Blank Sheets of paper shall be provided except
in a situation under Instruction 1 above.
3. There are FIVE Sections (Section I-V) comprising of 150 Objective Questions in the Question Booklet and
each question carries ONE mark. The answers to these objective questions are to be entered on the
OMR Answer Sheet by fully shading the appropriate ovals with HB Pencil Only. If more than one oval
in shaded in answer to a question, that answer shall be deemed to be wrong.
4. There is +1 for every correct answer and -0.25 for every wrong answer.
5. Specific instructions have been given at the beginning of each section and parts of each section. Read them
carefully before answering.
6. Possession of all kinds of electronic gadgets in the exam hall is strictly prohibited. Possession and / or use of
any unfair means shall disqualify the candidate and decision of the Centre Superintendent in this regard shall
be final.
OMR sheet has been attached in the end

CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
Directions for Questions 1 to 5: Read the passage and answer the questions:
Rising inflation in the United States and around the world is forcing investors to assess the likely effects on
both ―risky‖ assets (generally stocks) and ―safe‖ assets (such as US Treasury bonds). The traditional
investment advice is to allocate wealth according to the 60/40 rule: 60% of one‘s portfolio should be in higher-
return but more volatile stocks, and 40% should be in lower-return, lower-volatility bonds. The rationale is
that stocks and bond prices are usually negatively correlated (when w2 one goes up, the other goes down), so
this mix will balance a portfolio‘s risks and returns.
During a ―risk-on period,‖ when investors are optimistic, stock prices and bond yields will rise and bond prices
will fall, resulting in a market loss for bonds; and during a risk-off period, when investors are pessimistic, prices
and yields will follow an inverse pattern. Similarly, when the economy is booming, stock prices and bond yields
tend to rise while bond prices fall, _______________
But the negative correlation between stock and bond prices presupposes low inflation. When inflation rises,
returns on bonds become negative, because rising yields, led by higher inflation expectations, will reduce their
market price. Consider that any 100-basis-point increase in long-term bond yields leads to a 10% fall in the
market price – a sharp loss. Owing to higher inflation and inflation expectations, bond yields have risen and the
overall return on long bonds reached -5% in 2021.
Over the past three decades, bonds have offered a negative overall yearly return only a few times. The decline
of inflation rates from double-digit levels to very low single digits produced a long bull market in bonds; yields
fell and returns on bonds were highly positive as their price rose. The past 30 years thus have contrasted
sharply with the stagflationary 1970s, when bond yields skyrocketed alongside higher inflation, leading to
massive market losses for bonds.
But inflation is also bad for stocks, because it triggers higher interest rates – both in nominal and real terms.
Thus, as inflation rises, the correlation between stock and bond prices turns from negative to positive. Higher
inflation leads to losses on both stocks and bonds, as happened in the 1970s. By 1982, the S&P 500 price-to-
earnings ratio was eight, whereas today it is above 30.
More recent examples also show that equities are hurt when bond yields rise in response to higher inflation or
the expectation that higher inflation will lead to monetary-policy tightening. Even most of the much-touted
tech and growth stocks aren‘t immune to an increase in long-term interest rates, because these are ―long-
duration‖ assets whose dividends lie further in the future, making them more sensitive to a higher discount
factor (long-term bond yields). In September 2021, when ten-year Treasury yields rose a mere 22 basis points,
stocks fell by 5-7% (and the fall was greater in the tech-heavy Nasdaq than in the S&P 500).
1. From the given options choose an apt title for the passage?
a) Downturn in the stock market due to COVID 19.
b) Understanding the galloping inflation.
c) Effect of inflation on stocks and bonds.
d) The overlapping and intermingling of stocks and bonds.
2. The blank in the 2nd paragraph can be correctly filled by which of these options?
a) Inversely, when there is a slump in the market, the stock and bond prices jump to new highs.
b) On the other hand, the bond prices retain stability when the market becomes unstable.
c) This remains exactly the same in the case of recession.
d) The opposite of this is true in case of a recession.
3. Which of these is true as per the passage?
a) The loss of shares and bonds can largely be attributed to low inflation.
b) The falling returns on shares and bonds can be attributed to rising inflation.
c) Generally, a large part of the earnings that an investor earns comes from low-risk assets.
d) A higher inflation rate typically does not affect shares, but targets return from bonds only.
4. Which of these could possibly be the source of the passage?
a) An editorial from a leading newspaper
b) A journal published in a business-centric magazine
c) An article in the business section of a local newspaper
d) A leading news website of the country
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
5. The 2nd last paragraph serves which of the following purposes?
a) To cite the interconnection between the stocks and the bonds in the falling inflation.
b) To explain the counter scenario where the rising inflation changes the traditional relation between stocks
and bonds.
c) To create a common standpoint of the distinction between stocks and bonds with favorable market
conditions.
d) Both a and b
From around 800 BCE, ancient Greek city-states, most of which were maritime powers, began to look
beyond Greece for land and resources. As a consequence, they founded colonies across the Mediterranean.
Trade was usually the first step in the colonization process and then, after local populations were subdued or
included within the colony, cities were established.
These could have varying degrees of contact with the homeland, but most became fully independent city-
states, sometimes very Greek in character, in other cases culturally closer to the indigenous peoples they
neighboured and included within their citizenry. One of the most important consequences of this process, in
broad terms, was that the movement of goods, people, art, and ideas in this period spread the Greek way of
life far and wide to Spain, France, Italy, the Adriatic, the Black Sea, and North Africa. In total then, the Greeks
established some 500 colonies which involved up to 60,000 Greek citizen colonists, so that by 500 BCE these
new territories would eventually account for 40% of all Greeks in the Hellenic World.
The Greeks were great sea-farers, and travelling across the Mediterranean, they were eager to discover new
lands and new opportunities. Even Greek mythology included such tales of exploration as Jason and his search
for the Golden Fleece and that greatest of hero travellers Odysseus. First, the islands around Greece were
colonized, for example, the first colony in the Adriatic was Corcyra (Corfu), founded by Corinth in 733 BCE
(traditional date), and then prospectors looked further afield. The first colonists in a general sense were
traders and those small groups of individuals who sought to tap into new resources and start a new life away
from the increasingly competitive and overcrowded homeland.
Trade centres and free markets (emporia) were the forerunners of colonies proper. Then, from the mid-8th to
mid-6th centuries BCE, the Greek city-states (poleis) and individual groups started to expand beyond Greece
with more deliberate and longer-term intentions. However, the process of colonization was likely more
gradual and organic than ancient sources would suggest. It is also difficult to determine the exact degree of
colonization and integration with local populations. Some areas of the Mediterranean saw fully-Greek poleis
established, while in other areas there were only trading posts composed of more temporary residents such as
merchants and sailors.
The very term 'colonization' infers the domination of indigenous peoples, a feeling of cultural superiority by the
colonizers, and a specific cultural homeland which controls and drives the whole process. This was not
necessarily the case in the ancient Greek world and, therefore, in this sense, Greek colonization was a very
different process from, for example, the policies of certain European powers in the 19th and 20th centuries
CE. It is perhaps here then, a process better described as 'culture contact'
6. All the following arguments have been inferred in the passage, EXCEPT?
a) The first step towards expansion of territory is to set up a trade network.
b) To attain dominance in the region, mastering through water as a medium of transport was must.
c) The Greek culture and people a lot to offer in terms of goods and culture.
d) The Greeks valued the culture and traditions of the lands they visited.
7. Which of the following best represents the gist if the 1st paragraph of the passage?
a) Greeks joined hands with inhabitants of distant lands as they travelled and exchanged things for trade.
b) Greeks, to increase their area of control, travelled through sea created new colonies.
c) Greeks, to increase their trading arena, fared through sea in search of new lands and made colonies.
d) To increase the trading sphere, Greeks travelled to distant lands on any means available.
8. Which of these would weaken the contention made by the author in the last paragraph?
a) The Greeks knew the wealth can be accumulated by luxury and so export of luxury goods such as fine
Greek pottery, wine, oil, metalwork, and textiles was done exhaustively.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
b) The Greeks understood the potential of workers they found at the colonised places and so, the Greeks,
became the biggest traders of slaves of the era.
c) The Greeks were attracted by the fertile land, natural resources, and good and so they set sail for Italy and
its nearby places.
d) The Greeks were fond of the art styles and so collected all the art that they could from the places they
visited.
9. Which of these could be a paragraph to follow the passage?
a) A paragraph on the trade of luxury goods.
b) A paragraph that explains the agriculture habits of the Greeks.
c) A paragraph that explains the necessity for the Greeks to leave their lands in search for other lands.
d) A paragraph explaining how the Greeks mixed and colonised the areas that they used to capture.
10. Which of these would be an apt title for the passage?
a) Expansion of the Greek culture
b) Trade and Colonization by the Greek
c) Travellers of Greece
d) Greeks: The early tradesmen of the world
At the beginning of our never-ending pandemic, some well-meaning—albeit naïve—heads theorised that the
growing threat of airborne viruses would make us think more deeply about the climate crisis we‘re living
through. Covid would, the idea posited, force us all to consider reducing our own personal consumption, both
for ethical and practical reasons. It will not be a spoiler to say that nearly two years on, that utopian dream has
not come to pass. Instead, the effects lockdowns and the general ennui of recent years have sent consumption
levels higher than ever. The UK‘s top 100 retailers said their online traffic increased on average by 52 percent
during the pandemic, compared to this past summer.
At the same time though, our outgoings have grown too, with figures released last month revealing the cost of
living rose by 5.1 percent in the 12 months to November, with inflation reaching its highest rate in 10 years.
With the projection that nearly 200m people could lose their jobs in 2022, it follows that consumption is
hitting us harder than before. So how are people spending so much? The answer seems to be the ―buy now
pay later‖ option, which has become so ubiquitous with online shopping that it has been dubbed ―Wonga for
millennials.‖ The rise of companies like Clearpay, PayPal, and the big ‗un, Klarna, has revolutionised how we
shop online, making it more accessible and—in the short term at least—a hell of a lot cheaper to buy enough
Urban Outfitters corsets to post an enviable haul on TikTok.
The Swedish fintech company has enjoyed the fruits of that popularity, recording an eye-watering value of
$45.6bn last year, and closing 2021 by launching its own interest free Klarna card (after claiming, handily that it
was credit cards, not buy now pay later services, which posed the real risk to finance and consumption).
It‘s true, of course, that Klarna is not the only buy now pay later company contributing to these issues. It‘s just
the biggest (so far at least; in July this year Apple was reportedly planning its own version). And certainly it is
aware of the reputation of buy now pay later—a Guardian article from 2021 credited the system with
contributing to comfort shopping and creating a new generation of debtors—which no doubt encouraged it to
introduce the Pay Now option in 2021. Klarna‘s co-founder and CEO Sebastian Siemiatkowski has been
outspoken about sustainability, and has announced a ―1 percent pledge,‖ whereby the fintech company has
committed to allocate $10m of its most recent $1bn funding round to climate change initiatives. ―We work
with fast fashion, but we also work with the Allbirds [an eco-friendly shoe range] of this world,‖ Siemiatkowski
said in an interview last year, ahead of Klarna‘s multi-billion dollar valuation. ―We try to promote consumers
taking good decisions.‖ As with all discussions of sustainability in consumption though, it‘s difficult to tell what
is lip service, what is greenwashing and what is real. Certainly, even with Klarna‘s top-level focus on
sustainability, they cannot—and why would they?—truly monitor or control the financial decisions of their
users.
11. What is the main idea of the first two paragraphs of the passage?
a) Due to the rise in the companies that offer buy now pay later, there is a rise in the purchasing power
despite high inflation.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
b) The high inflation rates and the loss of jobs during the pandemic are going to be a big catastrophe for the
major population.
c) The high demand at the time of the lockdown can be majorly credited to platforms such as Tik-Tok.
d) Due to the pandemic, there is a high demand on one side and loss of jobs on the other.
12. With which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) The online distribution has seen a substantial increase in the pandemic.
b) The purchasing power of the people increases if they are given the option of credit.
c) Online platforms have largely assisted to boost the demand in the economy.
d) The problem of falling jobs can be solved with the rising demand.
13. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) The rising demand of the products shall take a leap in the longer run with the current trends.
b) The online platforms where people can show off their purchase tend to make people to purchase more.
c) The rising inflation has raised the purchasing power of the people as a result of which people are able to buy
more.
d) The falling jobs shall not be a big concern for the economy as that can be side-lined with the rising
purchasing power.
14. Which of the following could be a paragraph to follow the passage?
a) A paragraph that explains the buy now-pay later companies‘ business model.
b) A paragraph that explains the situation of loss of jobs due to the pandemic.
c) A paragraph on the working-class citizens of the state.
d) A paragraph that explains the rising inflation in the state.
15. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) The high number of people could lose their current earnings with the ongoing crisis.
b) The lack of satisfaction may lead to acts in which people are even willing to spend more for greater
satisfaction.
c) The loss of jobs has created a sense of hoarding, and people have created a higher demand to accumulate
more than they desire.
d) People are willing to purchase more if they are given the option to buy on credit.
Directions for Questions 16 to 20: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Cement is an important construction ingredient produced in virtually all countries. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a
byproduct of a chemical conversion process used in the production of clinker, a component of cement, in
which limestone (CaCO3) is converted to lime (CaO). CO2 is also emitted during cement production by fossil
fuel combustion and is accounted for elsewhere. However, the CO2 from fossil fuels is accounted for
elsewhere in emission estimates for fossil fuels. The Revised 1996 IPCC Guidelines for National Greenhouse
Gas Inventories (IPCC Guidelines) provide a general approach to estimate CO2 emissions from clinker
production, in which the amount of clinker produced is multiplied by the clinker emission factor.
The IPCC Guidelines recommend two possible methods for calculating the clinker emission factor. The first
method is to use the IPCC default value for the fraction of lime in clinker. The second method is to calculate
the average lime concentration in clinker by collecting data on clinker production and lime fraction by type.
The IPCC Guidelines state that the difference between the default value and a value based on collected data is
expected to be small. If clinker production data are not available, it is recommended that countries back-
calculate clinker production from the cement data while applying a correction factor for clinker
imports/exports. Once an estimate has been derived, emissions can be estimated by means of the clinker
emission factor.
The IPCC recommends using clinker data, rather than cement data, to estimate CO2 emissions because CO2
is emitted during clinker production and not during cement production. If clinker is traded internationally,
using cement production data results in a biased emissions estimate because the cement could potentially be
produced from clinker that was made in another country. Although clinker data are the preferred data source,
cement data may be more readily available in some countries. In this case, the recommended approach is to
estimate the fraction of clinker in the cement and back-calculate clinker production.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
Quality assurance and quality control activities should be implemented at several stages in the emission
estimation process. At the plant level, key activities include internal quality control on production data and
emission factors, as well as documenting data and methods for reviewers. The inventory agency must ensure
the accuracy of plant submissions as well as the compiled inventory. It is also responsible for providing
documentation and sufficient information to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC). One or more types of external review may also be appropriate.
16. Which of the following is the writing style of the author as used in the passage?
a) The author uses persuasive style of writing.
b) The author uses narrative style of writing.
c) The author uses expository style of writing.
d) The author uses descriptive style of writing.
17. Which of the following may be true about the structure of the 3rd paragraph?
a) An accepted method is given which if modified would prove results that are better or similar in nature.
b) An existing method of calculation has been mentioned, the base of which is argued and contended against.
c) A holistic view of the given scenario is presented and an addition to it is suggested.
d) An argument previously suggested is proved wrong and a new remedy has been inferred.
18. What is the primary purpose of the passage?
a) To make the readers understand the difference and flaws in the approaches used to estimate the emission
caused in the process of manufacturing cement.
b) To bring to light the process of manufacturing cement and to assist the authorities in creating a better way
of estimating emissions.
c) To highlight the emission made in the production of manufacturing goods and explain the process of
reducing it.
d) To enlighten the authorities about the misdemeanour taking place in the production of cement and its
industry.
19. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Cement manufacturing companies may distort their ways to hide high emissions of CO2.
b) The best ways to assess the emissions are not always used.
c) High emissions may best be countered, with respect to the environmental hazard, by spreading the
manufacturing of cement in one country and clinker to the other.
d) The authenticity of the clinker data may at times prove to be more worthy than that of the cement data.
20. Which of these may counter the author‘s view as stated in the passage?
a) The best way to counter emission may be through diversification of the production steps into different
countries.
b) Countries with low emissions may serve to be the best places for the production of cement.
c) The emission of CO2 has been of rising concern, especially for the countries and companies that amount to
the high inputs in the emissions.
d) The new proposal by the IPCC has stated addressing the complete emission at a place where the final
processing of the product is done.
Directions for the Questions 21 to 25: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
Three things stand out in the 2022-23 Union budget for anyone interested in the relationship between
economy and ecology. One is the complete absence of the following words in Finance Minister Nirmala
Sitharaman‘s budget speech: Nature, wildlife, environment, ecology, ecosystem, pollution, and conservation
(except uses such as ―business environment‖ and ―growth ecosystem‖). Second, it is a budget with a stated
focus on climate action. Third, there is a massive rise in allocation for infrastructure projects, with huge
environmental implications. Seen together, these highlights demonstrate the deep contradictions in the
government‘s approach to sustainable development.
One can analyse the budget from three standpoints: Direct allocations for the environment sector, allocations
for the environment in non-environment sectors, and allocations for other sectors with environmental
impacts.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
On the first count, there is a slight increase in the budget of the Ministry for Environment, Forests and Climate
Change (MoEFCC) from 2021-22‘s revised estimate of Rs 2,870 crore to Rs 3,030 crore. But this is easily
wiped out by inflation. More importantly, this is a meagre 0.08 per cent of the total budgetary outlay. While
some sectors like forestry and wildlife have seen a healthy rise in allocation, the outlay for others like the
National River Conservation Plan has declined – this, astonishingly, also includes the allocation for tackling air
pollution, widely acknowledged as a national emergency.
On the second count, there is mixed news. There is a welcome stated focus on natural and organic farming,
and on promoting millets. But there are no details on the allocations, including for linkages necessary to make
such farming viable, such as manure and markets. Also, given the major push for food processing in the
budget, without making reservations for community-run businesses, there is a danger of big corporations
capturing the organic space. Completely missing is a focus on rainfed farming that involves 60 per cent of the
farming population and is ecologically more sustainable than artificially irrigated agriculture. The FM announced
the government‘s support to ―chemical-free farming throughout the country,‖ but she has also allocated a
massive chemical fertiliser subsidy of Rs 1,05,222 crore. A chance to begin shifting this subsidy to organics has
been missed.
On the climate front, there are several positive provisions — use of biomass for power stations, boost to
batteries, energy-efficiency measures in large commercial buildings, and sovereign green bonds. However,
these gains will be more than wiped out by the much greater budgetary support to climate-unfriendly
investments like those on mega-infrastructure, air travel, and coal expansion.
Renewable and ―clean‖ energy has received substantially higher allocations. But the focus remains on mega-
parks in solar/wind energy, nuclear power, and large hydro that have serious ecological impacts. These
projects also threaten to grab peoples‘ lands. The additional budget for farm-level solar pumps and rooftop
solar generation is welcome, but it‘s _________ compared to mega-projects. Another chance to shift towards
decentralised renewable energy with less ecological impacts and greater community access has been missed.
21. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) Despite its stated aim, the budget falls short of green ambitions.
b) The budget aims to fulfil all the shortfalls of the environment.
c) The budget, though aims to develop the economy but has a strict focus on the environment protection.
d) The budget maximises the development of environment and the aims of protection of it.
22. What is the purpose of the 1st paragraph?
a) The 1st paragraph enlightens the readers of the present situation of the environment and talks about the
budget.
b) The 1st paragraph brings forth the condition of the environment and asks the reader to act upon it.
c) The 1st paragraph enlightens the readers of the shortfalls of the budget and explains the big promises made
for the same.
d) The 1st paragraph informs the reader of budget and explains the advantages that the new budget brings.
23. Which of the following is an example of irony mentioned in the passage?
a) On the climate front, there are several positive provisions — use of biomass for power stations, boost to
batteries, energy-efficiency measures in large commercial buildings, and sovereign green bonds.
b) The additional budget for farm-level solar pumps and rooftop solar generation is welcome, but it‘s
minuscule compared to mega-projects.
c) Completely missing is a focus on rainfed farming that involves 60 per cent of the farming population and is
ecologically more sustainable than artificially irrigated agriculture.
d) The FM announced the government‘s support to ―chemical-free farming throughout the country,‖ but she
has also allocated a massive chemical fertiliser subsidy of Rs 1,05,222 crore.
24. Which of the following can be stated about the author‘s intentions from the passage?
a) The author supports the actions of the government and is in full compliance of the same.
b) The author supports the budget and praises the government for the same.
c) The author does not support the government, but he is a supporter of the budget.
d) The author does not support the budget and feels that there are many flaws in it.
25. Which of the following would fill in the blank given in the passage?
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
a) Giant
b) Enormous
c) Big
d) Minuscule
Directions for the Question 26 to 30: Read the passage and answer the question based on it.
At some point half a decade ago I did the sensible thing: I packed away into boxes the dust-caked piles of CDs
(largely unplayed for quite a while) that had followed me through various houseshares. In the following years, I
lugged those boxes to another rented home and on into storage as I moved to a different country. But I
couldn‘t truly let the CDs go, even though Spotify had been my main music source for at least 10 years. I no
longer even own a fully functioning CD player.
I sometimes half-joke that CDs are due a revival, largely to justify the above state of affairs. But it doesn‘t seem
to be beyond the realms of possibility, given 20-year nostalgia cycles and rolling waves of revivals for things
from the 1990s and early 2000s; perhaps the CD could now be carried along in the flotsam.
Cassettes and vinyl have been revived to varying degrees. The tape resurgence seems a perennial staple of the
music press, but it remains a going, if minor, concern. The vinyl revival has been much more widespread (and
extensively documented).
When vinyl seemed dead in the water in the 1990s, many ditched extensive collections and let record players
slide into obsolescence. But now interest in vinyl crosses several types: the serious crate-diggers seeking
original pressings and obscure sounds; the audiophiles and gearheads happy to drop cash on Klipsch speakers;
the casual buyer who likes to own a few records; the lifestyle collector tastefully pairing a record with a bottle
of natural wine. All of these have combined to create a robust ongoing market for vinyl, as the increasing
number of independent record shops in many towns and cities will attest to. Demand has even begun to
outstrip supply, while UK sales last year were at the highest level in 30 years. Vinyl sales are now on course to
overtake CD sales according to figures from the Entertainment Retailers Association.
This would suggest the vital signs are not good for CDs, but buried within that report was a sliver of hope for
the unloved disc: the decline in sales has slowed – well, OK, it‘s not much, but it‘s a start. And in the US, CD
sales increased last year for the first time in 17 years, though this was almost entirely due to the Adele album.
Pitchfork has also reported more anecdotal hints to a mild CD revival, while Discogs, the key resale market
for music online, showed big leaps in the number of CDs sold over the past two years, with some younger
fans gravitating to the format as well.
All this, of course, doesn‘t amount to a full-scale comeback of anything; proof of a revival for CDs may come
merely in the shape of comment pieces wondering if CDs are due a revival. And yet I have taken some solace
in the idea of reverting to physical music formats during the Neil Young/Joni Mitchell contretemps with Joe
Rogan and Spotify. Though the former were just two figures in a losing battle with a streaming giant, it hinted
at the unspoken precariousness of streaming music: you may not be a Neil Young fan but what if your
favourite artist gets in a row with Spotify? What if Spotify gets in a fight with a record label? What if Spotify
ever goes down, or goes under? Granted, it now seems to be in the ―too big to fail‖ category, just as the major
labels were, until they weren‘t. (God help us all if Apple Music is the answer.)
The music analyst Ted Gioia recently asked, ―Is old music killing new music?‖ Most of the money made is in
old songs, so all the energy of the music business is being directed there, at the expense of new music, with
various other factors compounding the issue. I‘ll throw another theory into the mix: often when listening to
some new artist I am reminded of an older artist – as is often the nature of music – at which point I‘ll think,
―Why don‘t I just listen to the older band instead?‖ and then find myself swiftly drawn away from the new to
the comforts of the old without difficulty.
In a previous era you probably didn‘t have the privileged, easy access to an artist‘s entire output, but there
might be one cherished record you engaged with deeply. Back when I used to buy CDs there would be a
single-minded focus on each album: it was less easy to click away if you didn‘t like the first two songs. I would
listen repeatedly to something because I‘d spent money on the sucker. In the Spotify age, my easily distracted
brain is unlikely to stick with new music that doesn‘t immediately grab me.
26. Which of the following is not true as per the passage?
a) The revival of the CDs at full scale seems bleak.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
b) The sudden boom in the sale of CDs does not seem like CDs lasting enough.
c) Many things happen to have a time cycle as they come and get outdated with time.
d) The CDs can revive at full scale in the near future as Spotify will go down.
27. Which of these is an inference made in the passage?
a) The author is unwilling to throw away the CDs as he is attached to them and believes that there might be a
chance of revival.
b) The author is unwilling to throw away the CDs as he is looking for a buyer to give him whatever he could
fetch for it.
c) The author is unwilling to throw away the CDs as they carry a lot of value in today‘s world.
d) The author is unwilling to throw away the CDs as Spotify is about to go down and the CDs would be the
only way to listen to music.
28. Which of these explain why the example of vinyl has been mentioned in the 4th paragraph?
a) To explain the high costs that it takes to buy vinyl today.
b) To create an analogy of revival between vinyl and CDs.
c) To make a point of the importance of vinyl.
d) To explain the history of vinyl.
29. Which of these is an idea that can be implied from the passage?
a) Famous and influential artists can make the audience purchase things that may seem outdated.
b) Artists tend to manipulate the audience and make them do things that they do not wish to.
c) The CDs happen to create a better music experience as they use a higher quality of music.
d) The author believes that the dominancy of famous artists should be somehow brought to a halt.
30. What is the meaning of the term ―perennial‖ as used in the passage?
a) Lasting or existing for almost a year.
b) To be present at several places at the same time.
c) Lasting or existing for a long or apparently infinite time.
d) To be active during the day.
Directions for Questions 31 to 35: Read the passage and answer the following questions.
World Human Rights Day: Is an India free of witch-hunts possible. Every year, a 16-day activism campaign is
observed. It marks the International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women and the World Human
Rights Day respectively. One in three women globally are raped, assaulted or subjected to physical and mental
violence every day. The global theme for the campaign this year says, ―Orange the World: End Violence
against Women Now‖. It is time to not just demonstrate solidarity through words, but also acknowledge and
act to end extreme forms of violence against women and girls that exist in our society. The primary causes of
violence against women and girls in India are unequal and unjust socio-economic systems and gender
inequality, along with inadequate healthcare, lack of law enforcement and widespread illiteracy. Women bear
the brunt of exploitation and brutality, particularly those belonging to the Dalit and tribal communities. Cases
of witch-branding have been reported from 12 states in India. About 2,300 murder of so-called ‗witches‘ were
committed country-wide between 1999 and 2013. Odisha reported 99, 83 and 58 cases of witch-branding in
2017, 2016 and 2015 respectively even after enacting its Witch Hunting Act of 2013. A law against witch
hunting has been in force since 2001. However, the state still tops the list of witch-hunting deaths from 2013-
2016. Some 523 women were lynched on the suspicion of practicing witchcraft from 2001-2016 in the state.
But many cases have unfortunately gone unreported and escaped the public glare.
Source: Excerpt from Down to Earth, Written by Debabrat Patra. (Dated 7th Dec. 2021)
Link: (https://www.downtoearth.org.in/blog/governance/world-human-rights-day-is-an-india-free-of-witch-
hunts-possible-80579)
31. World Human Rights Day is observed every Year on which of the following Dates?
a) 4th May
b) 19th July
c) 10th December
d) 12th January
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32. Consider the following statements:
I. These Human rights inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language,
religion, or any other status.
II. These include the right to life and liberty, freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion and
expression, the right to work and education, and many more.
Which of the statements given above is are correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) None of these
33. Consider the following statements related to UDHR:
I. The 30 rights and freedoms include civil and political rights, like the right to life, liberty, free speech and
privacy and economic, social and cultural rights, like the right to social security, health and education, etc.
II. The UDHR is not a treaty, so it does not directly create legal obligations for countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) None of these
34. The Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR) has its headquarters in which of the
following cities?
a) Geneva
b) New York
c) London
d) Paris
35. National Human Rights Commission was established in which of the following Years?
a) 1982
b) 1985
c) 1993
d) 2002
Direction for Questions 36 to 40: Read the passage and answer the following questions.
Geological Survey of India (GSI) recently identified two geological heritage sites in the Indian Himalayan Region
of India. The sites identified are Siwalik Fossil Park, Himachal Pradesh and [1]. With the inclusion of these two
sites, there are [2] Geological Heritage Sites in India. Earlier, the GSI identified certain geological sites across
the Northeast for promotion of geo-tourism.
Geo-heritage refers to the geological features which are inherently or culturally significant offering insight into
earth‘s evolution or history to earth science or that can be utilized for education.
Geological Survey of India (GSI) is the parent body that is making efforts towards the identification and
protection of geo-heritage sites/national geological monuments in the country.
https://telanganatoday.com/explainer-geological-heritage-sites-of-himalayan-region
36. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
a) Lower Permian Marine bed at Manendragarh (Marine Gondwana Fossil Park)
b) Columnar Basaltic Lava of Coconut Island (St. Mary Island)
c) Stromatolite bearing Dolomite / Limestone of Buxa Formation of Buxa Formation, Sikkim
d) Pillow lavas near Mardihalli
a) 29
b) 34
c) 43
d) 60
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38. Geological Survey of India was established in which of the following years?
a) 1871
b) 1991
c) 1851
d) 1921
39. Which of the following is TRUE about the Geological Survey of India?
a) D. H. Williams was the first Geological Surveyor appointed by the East India Company in 1846.
b) John McClelland for the first time used the term Geological Survey of India in his report in 1848.
c) He designated himself as officiating Surveyor, Geological Survey till 1st April 1850.
d) All of these
40. Currently, how many UNESCO designated global Geoparks are there in the world?
a) 169
b) 185
c) 91
d) 181
Directions for Questions 41 to 45: Read the passage and answer the following questions.
A Bill to replace an ordinance amending the NDPS Act, 1985 was introduced in the Lok Sabha, with some MPs
opposing it on technical grounds. The NDPS (Amendment) Bill, 2021 would replace an ordinance promulgated
in September to correct a drafting error in a 2014 amendment to the Act. Before the 2014 amendment, clause
(viii-a) of Section 2 contained sub-clauses (i) to (v), which defined the term ―illicit traffic‖, according to the
statement of objects and reasons by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. ―This clause was re-lettered as
clause (viii-b) by the NDPS (Amendment) Act, 2014, as a new clause (viii-a) in section 2 defining ‗essential
narcotic drugs‘ was inserted. However, inadvertently consequential change was not carried out in Section 27A
of the NDPS Act… In a recent judgment, Hon‘ble High Court of Tripura...has held that ‗until the appropriate
legislative change occurs by amending Section 27A of the NDPS Act appropriately, sub-clauses (i) to (v) of
clause (viii-a) of Section 2 of the NDPS Act shall suffer effect of deletion,‖ the statement read.
Objecting to the Bill coming into effect from May 1, 2014, Revolutionary Socialist Party MP N.K.
Premachandran said the retrospective effect would violate the Constitution and that he ―challenged the
legislative competence of the Bill‖. Biju Janata Dal MP Bhartruhari Mahtab asked the Government to re-draft
the Bill. ―Giving retrospective effect to a penal provision is bad in law and what is bad in law, is no law,‖ he
said.
Source: Excerpt from The Hindu. (Dated 6th Dec. 2021)
Link: (https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/parliament-proceedings-bill-to-correct-drafting-error-in-
ndps-act-introduced-in-lok-sabha/article37864503.ece)
41. NDPS stands for:
a) National Drugs Polluting Substance
b) National Drug Preventing Substance
c) Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
d) Narcotic Drugs and Pollution Controlling Substances
42. Persons found guilty under NDPS Act will be punished with rigorous imprisonment of at least how many
Years?
a) 3 Years
b) 5 Years
c) 7 Years
d) 10 Years
43. The Narcotics Control Bureau was constituted in which of the following Years?
a) 1972
b) 1986
c) 1992
d) 1998
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44. National Drug Abuse Survey is related to which of the following Ministries?
a) Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
c) Ministry of Home Affairs
d) Ministry of Education
I. The Act regulates certain operations - such as manufacture, transport and consumption - related to narcotic
drugs and psychotropic substances.
II. Persons found guilty of this offence will be punished with rigorous imprisonment of at least 10 years -
extendable up to 20 years - and a fine of at least Rs.1 lakh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) None of these
Directions for Questions 46 to 50: Read the passage carefully answer the following questions
On April 2, India and Australia signed an Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA). The landmark
bilateral trade pact is the second trade agreement India has signed this year after inking a similar deal with the
United Arab Emirates in February. The ECTA is expected to increase trade between the two sides to $45-50
billion over [1], from the current estimate of $27 billion, and create over 10 lakh additional job opportunities.
The ECTA is guided by a Preamble and is divided into multiple sections that will govern what is hoped to be
the most expansive bilateral trade since the two countries established diplomatic ties before India attained
independence.
It has a section on goods exports, and lays out clearly ―Rules of Origin‖ that are aimed at creating anti-dumping
measures. There are also sections that are aimed at providing remedies and mechanisms for resolving trade
disputes. The Commerce Ministry underlined that this is the first trade deal signed by India that has a
compulsory review mechanism after [2] of implementation.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/the-india-australia-trade-
agreement/article65290575.ece#:~:text=Under%20this%20agreement%2C%20India%20will,were%20res
tarted%20in%20September%202021.
a) Three years
b) Eight years
c) Five years
d) Ten years
a) 15 years
b) 5 years
c) 7 years
d) 20 years
48. Which of the following is TRUE about the Trade Deal?
a) India is expected to get zero-duty access to Australia for its goods over five years.
b) The negotiations had begun over two decade ago in 2001, but were restarted in September 2021.
c) Under this agreement, India will give 75% of Australia‘s exports zero-duty access to its domestic market.
d) All of these
49. Which of the following is TRUE about India‘s gains in the deal?
a) 4-year visa for 1,800 chefs, yoga teachers every year
b) Post study work visa of 2-4 years for Indian reciprocal basis students on
c) Multiple entry work & holiday visa to 1,000 Indians
d) All of these
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50. As per 2021, Australia is India‘s _______ largest trading partner?
a) 12th
b) 17th
c) 13th
d) 15th
Prime Minister Narendra Modi on Saturday said major global firms are looking at India as a major investment
destination, which is reflected by a robust inflow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) last financial year, and
through Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan‗ (Self- Reliant India initiative) the country is shifting its focus from Make in
India‗ to Make for world‗. He said Independent India should be ―vocal for local and asked citizens to glorify
Indian products to promote Atmanirbhar Bharat‗. Unveiling his vision of a Self-Reliant India, the Prime Minister
said that the government has unveiled over Rs 110 lakh crore National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) to boost
the economy and create jobs. In order to rapidly modernise India, there is a need to give a new direction to
overall infrastructure development, he said, adding that over 7,000 projects under NIP have been already
identified. This will be, in a way, a new revolution in the field of infrastructure. This is the time to end silos in
infrastructure. There is a plan to connect the entire country with multi- model connectivity infrastructure, he
said. NIP will play a crucial role in overcoming the adverse impact of Covid-19 on the economy and catapult
the economy in a higher growth trajectory, he said. The government on December 31 last year unveiled the
NIP with an aim to make India a $5 trillion economy by 2024-25. The focus of the infrastructure pipeline is to
accelerate growth and create employment in both urban and rural areas.
Source: Excerpt from Hindustan Times, written by Rajeev Jayaswal.
Link: (https://www.hindustantimes.com/business-news/new-focus-of-atmanirbhar-bharat-is-make-for-world-
pm-modi-in-independence-day-speech/story-0hbU6CUDDi2RqklUNVZ03O.html)
51. Which of the following is not a goal of the stimulus package announced under the Atmanirbhar India?
a) It will help in alleviating the distress of migrants when they return to their villages.
b) It will help in achieving the goal of a self-sustainable rural economy.
c) It would boost the One Nation One Market objective and help India to become the food factory of the
world.
d) It will help in elevating quality of life in urban areas.
52. The Government announced a stimulus package under the Self Reliant India Scheme for the amount of
_____________.
a) 2 trillion
b) 20 trillion
c) 5 trillion
d) 100 trillion
53. Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline, the Government plans to invest more than Rs. 102 lakh crore on
infrastructure projects by 2024-25, with the Centre, States and the private sector to share the capital
expenditure. What is the ratio of such expenditure by each of the stake holders?
a) 50:25:25
b) 40:40:20
c) 39:39:22
d) 34:33:33
54. Which of the following events can be seen as the stepping stone for the growth of the Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) in India?
a) The launch of Make in India‗ initiative in 2014.
b) The Economic liberalisation in the year 1991.
c) The Amendment in the FDI policy to increase the upper cap from 26% to 49%.
d) All of the above.
55. Which of the following is not related to the ―Vocal for Local‖ initiative of the Indian Government?
a) Rebooting the MSMEs especially the Khadi and village industries.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
b) Generating new opportunities of employment at the local level.
c) Creating new economic hubs through disinvestment and FDIs.
d) Promoting the indigenous manufacture and support through financial aid.
Direction for Questions 56 to 60: Read the passage carefully answer the following questions
Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana on Friday said, with the passage of time, like every other institution of
repute, the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) had also come under deep public scrutiny. Its actions and
inactions had raised questions regarding its credibility, in some cases.
Delivering the 19th D.P. Kohli Memorial Lecture, organised by the CBI, he said there was an immediate need
for the creation of an independent umbrella institution, so as to bring various central agencies like the CBI,
Enforcement Directorate and the Serious Fraud Investigation Office under one roof. ―We have a vested
interest in strengthening democracy, because we essentially believe in democratic way of living. We Indians
love our freedom. When any attempt has been made to snatch our freedom, our alert citizenry did not
hesitate to seize the power back from autocrats. So, it is essential that, all the institutions including the police
and the investigative bodies uphold and strengthen the democratic values,‖ he said.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/chief-justice-of-india-flags-falling-credibility-of-
cbi/article65282123.ece
56. Who among the following is the current Director General of CBI?
a) Rakesh Asthana
b) Rishi Kumar Shukla
c) YC Modi
d) Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
57. Recently, the term of the office of the Director of CBI has been increased from 2 years to which of the
following?
a) 5 years
b) 4 years
c) 6 years
d) 3 years
58. Which of the following is TRUE about the Central Bureau of Investigation?
a) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), functions under Ministry of Home Affairs.
b) The CBI was set up in 1965.
c) The CBI is India‘s representative for correspondence with the INTERPOL.
d) The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Padmanabhaiah Committee
59. Who among the following is NOT a member of the committee which selects the Director General of CBI?
a) Prime Minister
b) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
c) Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by him.
d) Home Minister
60. CBI derives power to investigate from which of the following acts?
a) Special Powers for the Central Agency Act, 1964
b) Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
c) Central Bureau of Investigation Act, 1965
d) None of the above
The central bank doesn‗t disclose its foreign exchange management strategy, but it was evident in the last few
years that the rupee was not allowed to appreciate despite healthy inflows, resulting in a rapid build-up of
foreign exchange. From a low of $275 billion inSeptember of 2013, when rupee came under severe pressure
due to so-called taper tantrums ‗by the US Federal Reserve, India now has record foreign exchange reserves
of [1] billion, as on 21 August — a 95 per cent rise over seven years. Despite the Covid-19 pandemic, the
foreign exchange kitty swelled by $62 billion since March. In this seven-year period, rupee ended the year with
14
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
an appreciation against the dollar only once — in 2017. This year, the rupee is so far down by 2.04 per cent
against the dollar. The latest RBI statement suggested that it is not uncomfortable with the appreciation in
rupee, confirming the speculation among currency analysts that a departure was made in the exchange
management policy. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) said that it will conduct liquidity operations worth Rs
20,000 crore in two tranches through sale and purchase of government securities (G-Secs). The two open
market operations (OMOs) of Rs 10,000 crore each will be conducted on September 10 and 17, the central
bank said in an official release. This is now the second such announcement in as many weeks. Last week, RBI
had announced sale and purchase of G- Secs worth Rs 20,000 crore, in two tranches, slated to be conducted
on August 27 and September 3. In another move, RBI announced the infusion of Rs 1 lakh crore in mid-
September through long-term repo operations (LTROs) at floating rates, or the prevailing repo rate.
Moreover, the central bank also gave an option to lenders who have earlier availed funds through LTROs, to
reverse their transactions before maturity.
Source: Excerpt from the Print.in, written by Manojit Saha.
Link: (https://theprint.in/economy/why-growth-of-indias-forex-reserves-is-set-to-slow-after-new-rbi-
measures/493899/)
61. Which of the following economic policies have been recently used by the RBI to boost the economy during the
current Pandemic situation?
a) FOREX SWAP
b) LTROs (Long Term Repo Operations)
c) OMOs (Open Market Operations)
d) All of these
62. Which of the following will be used as a platform for core banking solutions to implement the LTRO?
a) E-cartel
b) E-kuber
c) E-CBS
d) E-RBICBS
63. Which of the following statements relate to the Long Term Repo Operations as measure to support the
economy in corona pandemic situations?
a) It is a measure that is expected to bring down short-term rates and also boost investment in corporate
bonds.
b) It would encourage banks to undertake maturity transformation smoothly and seamlessly so as to augment
credit flows to productive sectors.
c) It will enhance liquidity in the banking system by Rs 1 trillion.
d) All of these
64. What is the notified amount of sum offered by the RBI under measures of the Foreign Exchange Swap?
a) $ 5 billion
b) $ 16.71 billion
c) $ 16.21 billion
d) $ 5.02 billion
65. Which of the following has been replaced by [1] in the above passage?
a) $ 537
b) $ 498
c) $ 502
d) $ 756
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 talks about the subjection of a woman to cruelty by her husband
and or his relatives. This offence is cognizable, non-bailable, non-compoundable and triable by a Magistrate of
the first class.
Cruelty has been described in this statute to be any wilful conduct that has the capacity to drive the woman to
commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb, the physical or mental health of the woman.
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
This Section also includes harassment of a woman with respect to coercing her or any other person related to
her to give up any property or personal security. Harassment of a woman for her failure to meet that unlawful
demand of giving up property is also cruelty.
As is clear from the substance of this Section, it is often invoked in cases of domestic violence. This was
specified in the case of B.S. Joshi v. the State of Haryana (2003) cautioned against taking a hyper-technical view
of this Section. That being said, the increasing misuse of this Section to settle personal scores also warrants
due attention. Courts must carefully decide whether a case of cruelty is substantial enough and has enough
evidence to necessitate prosecution or not.
Section 304B punishes the cruelty and harassment perpetrated by a husband or his relatives on a woman, the
wife when such cruelty (which can be in connection to dowry) leads to the death of the woman by bodily
injuries, burns (or any other method which deviates from the normal circumstances). Further, the death must
take place within seven years of marriage and the same is called ―dowry death‖.
Oral statements in courts under oath help in the examination of witnesses and the parties involved and
reduction of fabrication of evidence. According to Section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, oral statements
which are a form of oral evidence can be used to prove material facts of a crime (other than the contents of
documents or electronic records). Further, it has also been mandated in the Evidence Act that oral evidence
must be direct (Section 60) with respect to witnesses seeing, hearing or perceiving a crime. For example, with
respect to Section 498A, eyewitnesses that saw the husband assaulting his wife or neighbours hearing a wife
being continuously disparaged by the husband for years can give testimonies which will be considered as oral
evidence.
A very important type of evidence that helps in proving cases of cruelty under Section 498A is medical
evidence. They can be oral or documentary. Thus, medical reports of the wife seeking care from a
professional with respect to injuries sustained either physically or mentally all come under this category. Of
course, such evidence will be indirect and the burden of proof is on the prosecution to successfully establish a
link between such injuries and wilful, cruel conduct of the husband and his relatives.
Electronic records that point to cruelty are admissible in the courts, as given in Section 65B of the Evidence
Act. For example, a video recording of the act of cruelty on a woman by her husband is an electronic form of
direct evidence.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/evidence-required-prove-section-498a-ipc/
66. Kashika and Tilak was a married couple and were having a good life. Kashika was found dead at the residence
of her in-laws in Punjab. The death was found to have occurred under the ordinary circumstances and was the
result of suffocation. Kashika‘s father Raquesh filed a complaint against Kashika‘s husband Tilak. Will Raquesh
succeed?
a) Raquesh will succeed because Kashika was found dead at Tilak‘s home.
b) Raquesh will succeed because Kashika was subjected to cruelty by Tilak.
c) Raquesh will succeed because Kashika died because of suffocation.
d) None of these
67. Girish and Girisha was a married couple. Girisha alleged that her marital relationship was not cordial as both of
them had frequent disagreements. She left her matrimonial home and started residing with her father but later
got to know that her husband has remarried a lady. Girisha filed a complaint against Girish under section 498A.
Will Girisha succeed?
a) Girisha will succeed because she was subjected to cruelty by Girish.
b) Girisha will succeed because she was cheated by Girish.
c) Girisha will succeed because Girish remarried another lady.
d) None of these
68. In the facts of 67 if there were no disagreements between Girish and Girisha but Girish married another lady
during the lifetime of Girisha. When this thing came to the ears of Girisha. Girisha filed a complaint against
Girish under section 498-A. Will Girisha succeed?
a) Girisha will succeed because she was subjected to mental cruelty by Girish.
b) Girisha will succeed because she was cheated by Girish.
c) Girisha will succeed because Girish remarried another lady.
d) None of these
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
69. Which section of the Evidence Act that states that oral evidence must be direct with respect to witnesses
seeing, hearing or perceiving a crime?
a) Section 59
b) Section 60
c) Section 65B
d) None of these
70. Which of the following statements is correct regarding B.S. Joshi v. the State of Haryana?
a) Cruelty has been described in this statute to be any wilful conduct that has the capacity to drive the woman
to commit suicide or to cause grave injury or danger to life, limb, the physical or mental health of the woman.
b) Oral statements in courts under oath help in the examination of witnesses and the parties involved and
reduction of fabrication of evidence.
c) Section 498A, eyewitnesses that saw the husband assaulting his wife or neighbours hearing a wife being
continuously disparaged by the husband for years can give testimonies which will be considered as oral
evidence.
d) The increasing misuse of this Section to settle personal scores also warrants due attention. Courts must
carefully decide whether a case of cruelty is substantial enough and has enough evidence to necessitate
prosecution or not.
71. Sneha‘s father gave dowry to Rajesh at the time of their marriage. Rajesh was not happy with the amount of
dowry given and hence started abusing his wife. Sneha filed a case under Section 498A of IPC against her
husband and his relatives. The present appeal was filed by the relatives seeking for certain directions to
prevent the misuse of Section 498A of IPC. The main contention was that in most of the cases, all family
members are dragged to settle a matrimonial dispute even when they are not party to the case. Will they
succeed?
a) Relatives will not succeed because Sneha was subject to cruelty.
b) Relatives will succeed because only Rajesh and his parents will be liable.
c) Relatives will not succeed because they are liable under section 498A.
d) None of these
I. Non- Bailable offences are considered more serious / heinous in nature.
II. In case of Non-Bailable offences bail cannot be claimed as right and court or the police officer has discretion
to grand bail after considering facts and circumstances of each case.
Choose the correct option:
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Contractual employees refer to such employees who are hired for a specific job or gig. They are not deemed
to be permanent staff or even an addition to the permanent and regular workforce. Maternity benefits are
such benefits that are provided to female employees to protect their rights during pregnancy and post-
childbirth. These benefits are governed by the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961.
Ideally, the act should inculcate women employed on a contractual basis. This scope of the Act becomes clear
when viewed in the context of the clarifications as released by the Ministry of Labour and Employment post
the implementation of the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017.
The problem stems from the fact that Section 2 of the Maternity Benefits Act, which provides the applicability
of the Act, does not explicitly state ―employment on a contractual basis‖. This implies that the majority of the
beneficiaries under this Act cannot avail themselves of the maternity benefits. Yet, there have been judicial
attempts to expand the scope of the Act. This article is an attempt to showcase some of these attempts.
The applicability aspect of this Act is divided into two: based on the nature and size of the establishment and
based on its applicability to a woman claiming the benefits. The following establishments are bound by the
provisions of this Act:
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CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
 Mines;
 factories;
 Plantations;
 Establishments that put on acrobatic and other shows;
 Shops and establishments
 Any business with ten or more employees who have been with the company for at least a year;
 Any other establishment as notified by the Central or State Government.
The Act will not be applicable to factories where other laws providing maternity benefits apply (such as the
Employee State Insurance Act, 1948). As per Section 5(2) of the Act, any woman employee who has been
employed for a continuous period of eighty days or more in the twelve months immediately preceding her
date of delivery shall be entitled to the benefits under the Act.
The Indian legislation introduced the Maternity (Amendment) Bill, 2017, which increased the maternity
benefits for working women from 12 weeks to 26 weeks. This period of 26 weeks is the third highest in the
world. Though the efforts of the Government are much applauded and commendable, a mere 1% of all
working women get to avail of these benefits. The law is limited in its implications and application as it is
applicable to organizations and establishments with 10 employees or more. Such organizations account for a
very miniscule proportion of the total number of working women in India.
An estimated 84% of female employees work in organizations and establishments with fewer than 10
employees. Thus, they do not qualify for the benefits under the Act. On top of this, the Act does not
specifically and explicitly state that the Act will be applicable to employees who are employed on a contractual
basis.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/can-contractual-woman-employee-avail-benefit-maternity-leave-analyzing-
relevant-judicial-precedents/
73. Rajshree was an employee in the Higher Education Department of the Government of Kerala. During the
period of her employment, the petitioner applied for maternity leave. She was granted the same for a period
of 135 days and was required to report back to duty at the expiry of the said period. As per the Kerala Service
Rules and the provisions of the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961, every woman employee who is working in any
establishment shall be entitled to a leave of 180 days. Rajshree filed legal proceedings against the Higher
Education Department of the Government of Kerala and contended that a leave of 180 days should be granted
to her. Will Rajshree succeed?
a) Rajshree will not succeed because she already got a leave of 135 days.
b) Rajshree will not succeed because duration of leave is as per the discretion of the department.
c) Rajshree will succeed because she is entitled to 180 days leave.
d) None of these
74. Vibha was an Assistant Professor at Calicut University and had held that position for a period of 10 years on a
contractual basis. She had recently renewed her contract for a term of one year. During this revised period,
she applied for maternity leave. Vibha was denied such leave on the grounds that the terms of the agreement
with the university were silent on such benefits. Vibha challenged this decision of the Calicut University and
contended that she should be granted maternity leave of 180 days. Will Vibha succeed? Decide.
a) Vibha will succeed because she is entitled to a maternity leave of 180 days.
b) Vibha will not succeed because she is not entitled to a maternity leave of 180 days.
c) Vibha will succeed because maternity leave is her right.
d) Cannot be inferred from the passage.
75. In the facts of 74 if there were only 9 employees in the Calicut University and Vibha was a permanent
employee. Vibha applied for maternity leave but was denied by the University. Vibha challenged this decision
in the court. Will Vibha succeed?
a) Vibha will not succeed because it is on the discretion of the university to grant maternity leave or not.
b) Vibha will succeed because she is entitled to maternity leave.
c) Vibha will succeed because maternity leave is her right.
d) Vibha will not succeed because there are less than 10 employees in Calicut University.
76. Rajeshwari was employed on the basis of a contract with the Directorate of Municipal Administration in
Bengaluru. During the month of June 2021, she was on maternity leave. During this period, she was asked to
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return to work with immediate effect. In August of 2021, her employer terminated her contract and her
employment. Rajeshwari challenged her termination in the court? Will Rajeshwari succeed?
a) Rajeshwari will succeed because she was on maternity leave.
b) Rajeshwari will succeed because once maternity leave granted, it cannot be revoked.
c) Rajeshwari will not succeed because she is a contractual employee.
77. In the facts of 76 if Rajeshwari was a permanent employee and during the month of June 2021, she was on
maternity leave. During this period, she was asked to return to work with immediate effect. In August of 2021,
her employer terminated her contract and her employment. Rajeshwari challenged her termination in the
court? Will Rajeshwari succeed?
a) Rajeshwari will succeed because she was on maternity leave.
b) Rajeshwari will succeed because once maternity leave granted, it cannot be revoked.
c) Rajeshwari will succeed because she is a permanent employee.
78. This period of 26 weeks maternity leave is the ______ highest in the world?
a) Second
b) Third
c) Fourth
d) Fifth
79. As per the passage which of the following statements is incorrect?
a) No woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit unless she has actually worked in an establishment of the
employer from whom she claims maternity benefit, for a period of not less than eighty days in the twelve
months immediately preceding the date of her expected delivery.
b) The Indian legislation introduced the Maternity (Amendment) Bill, 2017, which increased the maternity
benefits for working women from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.
c) The Maternity Benefit Act is applicable to all the organizations including the factories, plantations, mind,
government organizations, legislative organizations, shops or any other organization that is centered by the
central or state government.
d) None of these
The Constitution of India through its directive principles of state policy (DPSP) mentions that ―it is the duty of
the state to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country and
bestow upon the citizens the duty to protect the environment‖.
In reality the implementation of DPSPs immediately after independence was a difficult task for the government
as there were many other problems that were given priority over the environment.
The National Green Tribunal has the power to hear all civil cases relating to environment that are linked to
the implementation of all the laws listed in Schedule I of the Act.
Most importantly, the National Green Tribunal has not been given the powers to hear any cases relating to the
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian Forest Act, 1927 and various laws enacted by States relating to
forests, tree preservation and various other laws.
The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction to decide all the cases which involve substantial questions
regarding the environment and its protection and any legal rights in connection with it.
The tribunal, being a statutory authority, not only exercises original jurisdiction on filing an application but also
has appellate jurisdiction through which it hears appeals as a Court.
The tribunal is not bound by the procedure mentioned under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 and it applies
the principles of natural justice while deciding any matter.
All the principles such as sustainable development, polluter pays and precautionary principles, are considered
by the tribunal before deciding any case.
The National Green Tribunal, by an order can provide the following:
 Compensation and relief to all the people who are the victims of pollution and environmental damage and
it also includes accidents which happen while handling hazardous substances.
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 Restitution of a damaged property
 Restitution of the environment for areas which the tribunal may think fit.
An appeal against any order given by the tribunal can be made before the Supreme Court of India within
ninety days from the date of communication of the order regarding the case.
Functions of the National Green Tribunal Act
 It is a body that has expertise in handling the disputes related to the environment which includes multi-
disciplinary issues as well.
 The jurisdiction of the Tribunal shall provide speedy trials of the environment-related matters and help in
reducing the burden of cases pending in the higher courts.
 The tribunal is mandated to dispose off environment-related issues within 6 months of filing the complaint.
 The National Green Tribunal need not follow all that is given under the Civil Procedure Code but can
regulate the procedure by itself and applies the principle of natural justice in administering justice.
 It is required to apply principles such as sustainable development at the time of awarding compensation or
giving orders.
 It should have in mind the principle that whoever is found polluting will have to pay i.e. the principle of
‗Polluter Pays‘.
 The National Green Tribunal is not bound by the rules mentioned in the Indian Evidence Act.
 All the proceedings before the National Green Tribunal shall be accorded to the proceedings within the
sections of the IPC.
 The tribunal is allowed to be a civil court to settle the matters.
Source: https://blog.ipleaders.in/powers-functions-national-green-tribunal/
80. An organization named SMRF filed a petition along with a social activist in the NGT for the clearance given to a
hydro project worth INR 6,400 crore. The project was close to a wintering site for a bird Black-necked Crane,
which is included under Schedule I species under the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. It also comes under the
‗Threatened Birds of India‘ literature by the appellants in this case. Will SMRF succeed?
a) SMRF will succeed because it will impact the wintering site for Black-necked Crane.
b) SMRF will not succeed because clearance has already been given to the project.
c) SMRF will succeed because it is a serious environment issue.
d) None of these
81. In the facts of 80, if the clearance was given with improper checks and SMRF filed a petition along with a social
activist in the NGT for the clearance given to a hydro project worth INR 6,400 crore, Will SMRF succeed?
Decide
a) SMRF will succeed because it will impact the wintering site for Black-necked Crane.
b) SMRF will succeed because clearance was given without proper checks.
c) SMRF will succeed because it is a serious environment issue.
d) None of these
82. An environmentalist named Shubh filed application in relation to the damage caused to the sinking of a ship
named M. V. Rak which was carrying huge amounts of coal, fuel oil and diesel. As a result of the ship‘s sinking
close to the coast of south Mumbai, a thick film of oil was formed on the surface of the sea and large-scale
damage was caused to mangroves and marine ecosystem. Will Shubh succeed?
a) Shubh will succeed because the ship company is liable for environment degradation in this case.
b) Shubh will not succeed because the ship company is not liable for environment degradation in this case.
c) Shubh will not succeed because NGT will not deal with this matter.
83. A complaint regarding various instances of illegal construction in the Coastal Regulation Zone of Candolim,
Goa was made by a personal of foreign nationality. Her name was Betta Alvarez. Is the complaint
maintainable?
a) The complaint is maintainable because the foreigners are allowed to file petition.
b) The complaint is maintainable because environment is over nationality.
c) The complaint is not maintainable because Betta was a foreigner.
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84. Which article of the Indian Constitution states that Protection and improvement of environment and
safeguarding of forests and wild life The State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to
safeguard the forests and wild life of the country?
a) Article 45A
b) Article 46A
c) Article 47A
d) Article 48A
85. Who is the chairman of National Green Tribunal?
a) Adarsh Kumar Goel
b) Vivek Tripathi
c) Sharad Yadav
d) Mrinal Kishore Jha
86. Who of the following is known as the Green Judge of India?
a) HR Khanna
b) V. Ramaswami
c) Kuldeep Singh
d) VR Krishna Iyer
1. Persons who are hors de combat (outside of combat), and those who are not taking part in hostilities in
situation of armed conflict (e.g., neutral nationals), shall be protected in all circumstances.
2. The wounded and the sick shall be cared for and protected by the party to the conflict which has them in its
power. The emblem of the "Red Cross", or of the "Red Crescent," shall be required to be respected as the sign
of protection.
3. Captured persons must be protected against acts of violence and reprisals. They shall have the right to
correspond with their families and to receive relief.
4. No one shall be subjected to torture or to cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment.
5. Parties to a conflict do not have an unlimited choice of methods and means of warfare.
6. Parties to a conflict shall at all times distinguish between combatants and non-combatants. Attacks shall be
directed solely against legitimate military targets.
Well-known examples of such rules include the prohibition on attacking doctors or ambulances displaying a
red cross. It is also prohibited to fire at a person or vehicle bearing a white flag, since that, being considered
the flag of truce, indicates an intent to surrender or a desire to communicate. In either case, the persons
protected by the Red Cross or the white flag are expected to maintain neutrality, and may not engage in
warlike acts themselves; engaging in war activities under a white flag or a red cross is itself a violation of the
laws of war.
It is a violation of the laws of war to engage in combat without meeting certain requirements, among them the
wearing of a distinctive uniform or other easily identifiable badge, and the carrying of weapons openly.
Impersonating soldiers of the other side by wearing the enemy's uniform is allowed, though fighting in that
uniform is unlawful perfidy, as is the taking of hostages.
[Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/International_humanitarian_law#Basic_rules_of_IHL]
87. After a bloody battle in the Valley X between armed forces of states A and B, many soldiers belonging to both
nations were injured. The medical corps of State B took into its custody all injured soldiers. However, once
they were taken into custody, they were all mistreated and no medical care was provided for them. Such
injured members of the armed forces of State B desire to know if State B has breached the laws of war insofar
as they were mistreated and not cared for.
a) State B has not breached the laws of war because they can treat their own soldiers however they wish
b) State B has breached the laws of war because soldiers under its care were not cared for
c) State B has not breached the laws of war because soldiers of State A were not mistreated
d) Both (a) and (c)
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88. Would the conclusion to the question above change if only soldiers of State A were mistreated and not cared
for? The conclusion on whether State B has violated the laws of war will _______
a) Change from yes to no
b) Change from no to yes
c) Stay no
d) Stay yes
89. Would the conclusion to the question above change if some injured civilians captured from the valley X were
mistreated and not cared for? The conclusion on whether State B has violated the laws of war will _______
c) Stay no
d) Stay yes
90. X was a soldier responsible for launching guided rockets at transport vehicles of the enemy armed forces. He
saw that a vehicle that was usually used for transporting soldiers was painted in white and had a big, red plus-
sign on it. Thinking that the vehicle was actually carrying soldiers of the enemy armed forces, X shot a rocket
at the vehicle, killing all its occupants. Has X violated the laws of war?
a) No, because all is fair in war
b) No, because X sought to achieve a militarily relevant purpose
c) Yes, because the vehicle was in fact carrying medical supplies
d) Yes, because the vehicle was painted in white and red.
91. Would the conclusion in the above question change if the vehicle was in fact transporting enemy soldiers to a
strategically import position? It would _______
c) Stay no
d) Stay yes
Protocol I to the Geneva Conventions, Article 52, provides for the general protection of civilian objects,
hindering attacks to military objectives in a war between two or more belligerents. Article 52 states, "In so far
as objects are concerned, military objectives are limited to those objects which by their nature, location,
purpose or use make an effective contribution to military action and whose total or partial destruction,
capture or neutralization, in the circumstances ruling at the time, offers a definite military advantage."
Any attack must be justified by military necessity: an attack or action must be intended to help in the military
defeat of the enemy, it must be an attack on a military objective, and the harm caused to civilians or civilian
property must be proportional and not "excessive in relation to the concrete and direct military advantage
anticipated".
Some targets are clearly legitimate, including all military personnel directly engaging in hostilities on behalf of a
belligerent party who are not hors de combat (out of combat) or are not members of a neutral country. Some
civilian infrastructure, such as rail tracks, roads, ports, airports, and telecommunications used by the military
for communications or transporting assets, are all considered to be legitimate military targets.
Where it starts to get more nuanced is if the harm to civilians or civilian property is "excessive in relation to
the concrete and direct military advantage anticipated". During World War II, there was a song called a thing-
ummy-bob, which contains the lines "And it's the girl that makes the thing that holds the oil, that oils the ring
that works the thing-ummy-bob, that's going to win the war". Whether such a girl is a legitimate target is an
area that probably has to be decided on a case-by-case basis. However, Protocol I suggests that if it is not
clear, then the parties to the conflict should err on the side of caution, as Article 52 states "In case of doubt
whether an object which is normally dedicated to civilian purposes, such as a place of worship, a house, or
other dwelling or a school, is being used to make an effective contribution to military action, it shall be
presumed not to be so used"
[Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legitimate_military_target]
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92. A hydroelectric power plant in State X provided power to the nearest anti-aircraft installation. It also provided
power to city P, which was the biggest city in State X. State Y‘s air forces bombed the power plant, levelling it.
Such an attack is ___________
a) Not a violation of Article 52 because the hydroelectric power plant is not a military objective
b) A violation of Article 52 because the hydroelectric power plant is a military objective
c) Not a violation of Article 52 because the hydroelectric power plant is a military objective
d) A violation of Article 52 because the hydroelectric power plant is not a military objective
93. Holding the top of a certain hill in State B provided a great advantage to any military force that occupied it. In a
war between states A and B, the armed forces of State A had occupied the top of the hill. In order to make it
difficult for armed forces of State B to recapture the hill, the armed forces of State A destroyed all
infrastructure of a cable-car system used usually for tourism instead of simply deactivating it by cutting off the
electric supply thereto at the top of the hill. This destruction of the cable-car infrastructure is __________
a) A violation of Article 52 because the cable-car is not a military objective
b) A violation of Article 52 because the actions taken are disproportionate
c) Not a violation of Article 52 because the cable-car is a military objective
d) Both (a) and (b)
94. Which of the following is/are a legitimate military objective?
a) A hospital
b) A military hospital
c) Building housing the Ministry of Home Affairs
d) All of the above
95. In a friendly military exercise conducted within the territory of State A between allied states A and B, the
armed forces of State B laid waste to a bridge across a fast-flowing river in order to gain legitimate advantage
in terms of military position. The actions of the armed forces of State B are _______
a) In violation of Article 52
b) Not in violation of Article 52
c) Not covered by Article 52
d) Legitimate
96. Which of the following facts would change the conclusion with respect to violation/ applicability of Article 52 in
the previous question?
a) The bridge was used for transporting goods to villages across it
b) The bridge was used for transporting troops to militarily advantageous positions
c) The bridge could have been deactivated by placing concrete barriers on each side of it
Before getting into the nitty-gritties of the law, it is imperative to understand that the RTI Act was not
conferred upon citizens in 2005. The Supreme Court in a consistent line of cases has held that the right is part
of the Constitution's free-speech guarantee. The freedom of speech and expression includes right to acquire
information and to disseminate it. The RTI Act, thus, is a vehicle to facilitate the implementation of a
fundamental right.
The Act makes it mandatory for public authorities to disclose aspects of their structure and functioning. This
includes disclosures on financial information, powers and duties of its employees, etc. The intent of such suo
motu disclosures is that the public should need minimum recourse through the Act to obtain such information.
Besides suo motu disclosures, citizens can file applications demanding the supply of specific information. This
may include information in the form of documents, files, or electronic records under the control of the Public
Authority.
‗Public Authorities‘ include bodies of self-government established under the Constitution, or under any law or
government notification. The Act has established a three-tier structure for enforcing the right. Public
Authorities designate some of their officers as Public Information Officers. The first request for information
goes to them. These officers required are to provide information to an RTI applicant within 30 days of their
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request. Appeals from their decisions go to an appellate authority. Appeals against the order of the Appellate
Authority go to the State Information Commission or the Central Information Commission. Information
Commissions consists of a Chief Information Commissioner, and up to 10 Information Commissioners. It is
with respect to this that the amendment makes two crucial changes.
Under the original Act, the term of an Information Commissioner was fixed at 5 years. Further, the salary of
the CIC and ICs (at the central level) was to be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election
Commissioner and Election Commissioners, respectively. Similarly, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the state
level) was to be equivalent to the salary paid to the Election Commissioners and the Chief Secretary to the
state government, respectively
The Amendment Bill states that the central government will notify the term of office of Information
Commissioners. Further, the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and
state CIC and ICs will be determined by the central government. The reasoning given for this is bizarre.
The Statement of Objects and Reasons of the Act inter alia states: ―the mandate of Election Commission of
India and central and state Information Commissions are different. Hence, their status and service conditions
need to be rationalised accordingly.‖
Source (edited): https://www.business-standard.com/article/opinion/illusion-of-empowerment-why-we-must-
oppose-any-law-that-makes-rti-illusory119072900319_1.html.
97. Ramesh is a public servant. He sanctioned some amount for construction of school in a village. Under the
erstwhile RTI Act, a RTI application was filed demanding to know how this money was spent. Which authority
would answer this question and what is the timeline of sending across the answer?
a) Central information Commissioner in 14 days
b) District magistrate in 10 days
c) State Information Commissioner in 20 days
d) Public Information Officer in 30 days.
98. Mr. Chauhan is the Central Information Commissioner. He draws a salary of INR 1 Lakh. Under the new
amendment, can the central government reduce his salary?
a) No, his salary cannot be reduced as he is a public servant.
b) Central government cannot reduce his salary, as this would lead to conflict of interest.
c) Yes, his salary can be reduced by a notification issued by the central government.
d) None of the above.
99. The panchayat of Pali village in Rajasthan, received a generous donation from one if its residents who won the
KBC. Can the Panchayat be called upon by way of a RTI to disclose the source and details of the donation?
a) No a Panchayat is not a public authority hence not covered under the RTI Act.
b) No, because donations cannot fall under RTI.
c) Yes, because a panchayat is a body of self-government established under the Constitution.
100. Vidhi files a RTI to obtain information regarding the sources of funding to the PM-CARES fund, established vide
a government notification. Her RTI is dismissed on the ground that PM-CARES is not a public authority. Can
Vidhi file a PIL citing violation of Fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression? Answer, in context
of the passage.
a) PM-CARES IS not a public authority and hence, the dismissal does not warrant filing of a PIL
b) RTI and Fundamental Rights operate in different domains.
c) Fundamental Right to freedom of speech and expression includes within its ambit the right to acquire
information and hence, Vidhi can file a PIL citing violation of Fundamental Rights.
101. Why does the author believe that the RTI Act was not conferred upon the citizens in 2005?
a) RTI Act was passed in 2001 but only came into effect in 2005, hence, the author believes that it was not
conferred upon the citizens in 2005
b) RTI Act truly became powerful after the amendment, hence, the author believes that the RTI Act was not
conferred upon the citizens in 2005
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c) The Supreme Court in a consistent line of cases has held that the right is part of the Constitution's free-
speech guarantee.
The Mohd. Ahmad Khan vs. Shah Bano Begum & Ors. or the Shah Bano maintenance case is seen as one of the
legal milestones in battle for protection of rights of Muslim women. While the Supreme Court upheld the right
to alimony in the case, the judgment set off a political battle as well as a controversy about the extent to which
courts can interfere in Muslim personal law. The case laid the ground for Muslim women‘s fight for equal rights
in matters of marriage and divorce in regular courts.
Shah Bano went to court and filed a claim for maintenance for herself and her five children under Section 123
of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. The section puts a legal obligation on a man to provide for his wife
during the marriage and after divorce too if she isn't able to fend for herself. However, Khan contested the
claim on the grounds that the Muslim Personal Law in India required the husband to only provide maintenance
for the iddat period after divorce.
Iddat is the waiting period a woman must observe after the death of her husband or divorce before she can
marry another man. The length of the iddat period is circumstantial. The period is usually three months after
either of the two instances. In case the woman is pregnant, the period carries on until the childbirth.
Khan's argument was supported by the All India Muslim Personal Law Board which contended that courts
cannot take the liberty of interfering in those matters that are laid out under Muslim Personal Law, adding it
would violate The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937. The board said that according to the
Act, the courts were to give decisions on matters of divorce, maintenance and other family issues based on
Shariat.
Then Chief Justice of India ¥.V. Chandrachud upheld the decision of the High Court that gave orders for
maintenance to Shah Bano under CrPC. For its part, the apex court increased the maintenance sum.
The case was considered a milestone as it was a step ahead of the general practice of deciding cases on the
basis of interpretation of personal law and also dwelt on the need to implement the Uniform Civil Code. It
also took note of different personal laws and the need to recognise and address the issue of gender equality
and perseverance in matters of religious principles.
Justice Y.V. Chandrachud said in his decision: ―Section 125 was enacted in order to provide a quick and
summary remedy to a class of persons who are unable to maintain themselves. What difference would it then
make as to what is the religion professed by the neglected wife, child or parent? Neglect by a person of
sufficient means to maintain these and the inability of these persons to maintain themselves are the objective
criteria which determine the applicability of section 125. The liability imposed by section 125 to maintain close
relatives who are indigent is founded upon the individual's obligation to the society to prevent vagrancy and
destitution. That is the moral edict of the law and morality cannot be clubbed with religion.‖
The following events were unfavourable to a great extent with the then Rajiv Gandhi Congress government,
elected in 1984, passing the Muslim Women (Protection on Divorce Act), 1986. This law overturned the
verdict in the Shah Bano case and said the maintenance period can only be made liable for the iddat period.
The new law said that if a woman wasn't able to provide for herself, the magistrate had the power to direct
the Wakf Board for providing the aggrieved woman means of sustenance and for her dependent children too.
(Source - https://indianexpress.com/article/what-is/what-is-shah-bano-case-4809632/)
102. Why the above judgment is a centre of controversy?
a) Because it encroached the personal law of muslims.
b) Because it recognised rights of muslims.
c) Because the court has no jurisdiction to try the matter.
103. The opposition argued that -
a) The court cannot adjudicate on Muslim personal matters.
b) The Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 is being violated.
c) The court must act in accordance with Crpc.
d) Both a and b
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104. From the excerpt it can be deduced that iddat period in case a women extends to -
a) 3 lunar months
b) Till the child is born
c) Both a and b
d) It is purely circumstantial
105. The above judgment is considered as a milestone because -
a) It promoted equality.
b) It implemented uniform civil code.
c) It applied Muslim personal law beautifully.
d) All of the above
Among literally dozens of new books on Apollo, all timed to coincide with the 50th anniversary of the Moon
landing in July 2019, two books exemplify both old and new tropes. James Donovan‘s Shoot for the Moon has
been touted by none other than Apollo 11 astronaut Michael Collins, who recently remarked, ―This is the best
book on Apollo that I have read.‖ Donovan‘s strength is his breezy and journalistic writing style that weaves
together a vast and complicated set of stories from all levels of Apollo.
If Donovan‘s book is a by-the-numbers retelling that is also a familiar one, Eight Years to the Moon by Nancy
Atkinson takes us into less-familiar aspects of the history, benefiting in many ways from a burst of recent
scholarship. This book functions as a kind of corrective to the ubiquitous heroic narrative of politicians and
astronauts.
The overall beats of Donovan‘s story will be familiar to many. For example, he captures the intimate world of
Wernher von Braun, the visionary German rocket designer who was captured by Americans after World War
II. Von Braun was brought to Texas and eventually to Alabama, where, in the 1960s, he directed the project to
develop the giant Saturn V rocket that sent Apollo to the Moon.
Very succinctly, Donovan describes von Braun as ―a handsome, charming ex-SS officer who had been the chief
architect of an ambitious rocket program that had killed thousands during the war—and who now spread the
gospel of space exploration to Americans in Walt Disney TV specials.‖ What he leaves unsaid is as important:
that more people died building the V2—as slave prisoners in Nazi concentration camps—than the rocket
actually killed. Although Donovan glosses over this, von Braun‘s team‘s culpability for crimes against humanity
is fundamental to any reckoning with the legacy of Apollo.
Donovan‘s narrative is a well-crafted one. It is one of the rarest of Apollo books that manages to weave
together the political, the technical, and the heroic. We get vivid descriptions of managers struggling with
difficult decisions, such as the directive that sent the first Apollo spacecraft around the Moon in late 1968, a
recommendation that was one of the riskiest in the entire program.
In Donovan‘s hands, the actual landing mission, Apollo 11, reads like a thriller. We know the ending, of course,
but the contingencies of the mission—points at which the flight could have failed—are so many, that their
cumulative power communicates how minuscule the margins were. In a million possible scenarios, the Eagle
lunar module lander crashes on the Moon with no way back for the astronauts. They did, of course, come
back, and Donovan‘s narrative wraps up rather abruptly with a few cursory paragraphs about the postflight
visits of the Apollo 11 astronauts to foreign countries. He concludes on a pithy note: ―By the time the crew
returned home, they understood that their lives would never be the same.‖
Source: https://blogs.sciencemag.org/books/2019/07/15/apollo-11-50-year-anniversary/
106. Which one of the statements given in options presents a contrast to the following sentence as mentioned in
paragraph 2:
―If Donovan‘s book is a by-the-numbers retelling that is also a familiar one, Eight Years to the Moon by Nancy
Atkinson takes us into less-familiar aspects of the history, benefiting in many ways from a burst of recent
scholarship.‖
a) Atkinson's book is more likely to surprise the reader.
b) Atkinson's readership consists mostly of scholarship students.
c) Most books have a predicated storyline.
d) Donovan's book uses a linear narrative.
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107. According to the passage, which of the following are the ‗old tropes‘ exemplified in James Donovan‘s Shoot for
the Moon?
I. Involvement of Nazi scientist.
II. Characters with heroic narratives.
III. Familiar characters.
IV. Known timeline.
a) I, II and III
b) II and IV
c) II, III and IV
d) I, II, III and IV
108. Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the third paragraph. You have to
examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
―Wernher von Braun provided the Americans with his knowledge of rocket design, in exchange for his
freedom.‖
a) Definitely true
b) Probably true
c) The data are inadequate
d) Probably false
109. Which of the following is not an assumption that supports the arguments presented in the fourth paragraph?
a) Von Braun was interested in the science behind the rockets, rather than their uses.
b) The high labour costs for the building the V2 rockets alone made it an ambitious project.
c) Donovan skimmed over von Braun to avoid controversy.
d) The success of space exploration depended on the willingness of Americans to accept it.
110. The Author has criticized which one of the following factors of James Donovan‘s Shoot for the Moon?
a) Over dramatization of politics.
b) Both C & D
c) The ending.
d) Von Braun's actions during World War II.
The price of natural gas in Europe has shot up by approximately 600 per cent over the past 12 months. And, in
a reversal of the conventional feedback loop wherein the price of oil would lead to a change in the price of gas,
this time it is the price of gas that has pushed up the prices of oil and coal.
There are many reasons for this price surge, but they distil down to the perennial influencers of the energy
market — the interplay of demand, supply and geopolitics.
On the demand side, the strongest driver has been the global economic recovery. Added to that are the micro
factors of the drop in hydropower in Brazil and China because of drought, the reduction in wind power
because of unfavourable wind conditions in the North Sea and the underperformance of nuclear reactors in
Europe. The severe summer heat in the US, Europe and China has also been a factor.
On the supply side, there have been three economic blockers and one geopolitical bottleneck. The economic
blockers were the cold wave in Texas in February this year, which froze gas wells and throttled the export of
US LNG, the start-up of the maintenance work suspended since 2020 on account of Covid-19 and the
declining production profile of the giant Groningen field in the Netherlands. This field is slated to close down in
two years.
The geopolitical stumbling block in Russia. Historically, Russia has provided approximately 40 per cent of
Europe‘s gas requirements but it always had the capacity to supply more and could have come to Europe‘s
rescue this time. But it decided not to.
The political (populist) response to this latest energy shock would be to give markets free rein. The price
increase would incentivise companies to jack up the production of natural gas, and consumers would switch to
the cheaper alternatives of coal (and even oil) and conserve demand. Such a market-led response would,
however, render hollow the commitments to phase out coal and limit the production of fossil fuel and call into
question the targets for achieving net-zero carbon emissions.
27
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
The sustainable response would be to leverage this price shock to improve energy efficiency, intensify demand
conservation, intervene to prevent the switch to coal and increase investments in battery and storage
technology and transmission infrastructure to scale up solar and wind energy supplies. This would, however,
leave unaddressed the hardships faced by consumers from power cuts and higher fuel costs.
World leaders will assemble in Glasgow next month for COP 26. On paper, at least, they are aligned on the
nature of the climate crisis and the steps that must be taken to address it. The hope is they will convert this
alignment into tangible action. The natural gas crisis has highlighted the bumps on the road to the green
transition. Leaders will have to work together to smoothen these bumps especially those created by our
continued dependence on fossil fuels. Time may need to be set aside to discuss how best governments can
help each other stay on the ―green‖ course and also manage shorter-term political compulsions.
Source: www. indianexpress.com
111. Which of the following statement most accurately states the main point of the passage?
a) The passage talked about the reasons for the price surge.
b) The natural gas crisis has highlighted the bumps on the road to the green transition.
c) The incident will result in incentivise companies to jack up the production of natural gas, and consumers
would switch to the cheaper alternatives of coal (and even oil) and conserve demand
d) The role of world leaders in natural gas price shock crisis.
112. What can be a sustainable response to leverage this price shock?
a) To improve energy efficiency and intensify demand conservation
b) Intervene to prevent the switch to coal and increase investments in battery
c) Storage technology and transmission infrastructure to scale up solar and wind energy supplies
113. What is the possible economic blocker on the supply side of the energy market?
a) The cold wave in Texas in February this year, which froze gas wells and throttled the export of US LNG
b) The micro factors of the drop in hydropower in Brazil and China because of drought
c) The reduction in wind power because of unfavourable wind conditions in the North Sea
d) The underperformance of nuclear reactors in Europe
114. What is not a reason for the natural gas price surge according to the author?
a) The interplay of demand
b) The interplay of supply
c) Economic blockers
d) Geopolitics
115. Why World leaders will assemble in Glasgow next month for COP 26?
a) A regular assembly meet between the leaders.
b) To discuss the strategies to maintain the supply and demand of natural gas.
c) TO discuss how best governments can help each other stay on the ―green‖ course.
d) To discuss the problems and solutions for the natural gas price surge.
Diversity has acquired a new face in companies – some employees are working entirely on-site, others entirely
at home, and still others in hybrid mode, clocking in only select days or hours at the physical office. An air of
provisionality hangs heavy around all of them, fingers crossed that the dip in cases will outlast the festival
season. But either way, as more and more companies complete vaccination drives, white-collar employees are
now asking if this is the beginning of the end of WFH.
What bears reminding is that the experiment that was forced upon us all early last year was one that select
employees and managers had been pushing long before the pandemic. If the former were pursuing a better
work-life balance the latter, cutting costs. The pandemic has allowed both these groups to win over untold
numbers, but not unanimity by any means. Responding to diverse employees‘ preferences will require
companies to assess their job profiles and compensations in complex ways. Employees will also be asked to
show matching flexibility, such as openness to retraining and adjusting to different work modes within a team.
28
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
If the future of work is hybrid, and the many unknowns make for anxiety, the upsides are equally notable. With
a recent survey by a recruitment firm suggesting that the India Inc hiring from locations other than where it
has offices has shot up to 35% from just about 5% pre-pandemic, folks from Tier II and III cities could see an
expansion of good opportunities right where they are. The history of work shows that every age expresses
sorrowful nostalgia for bygone conditions, yet this does not preclude job satisfaction levels from rising. If some
of us are in the office and some at home, we can happily continue hybrid meetings interlaced with, ‗Can you
hear me?‘
Source: www.indiatimes.com
116. What can be the central idea of the author of the passage?
a) Beginning of the end of WFH is here- The Journey
b) Difference between WFH and WFO
c) Positive impacts of WFH and Hybrid mode
d) Problems faced by employers and employees during WFH
117. What is the positive change that people acknowledged during WFH?
a) Rising Job satisfaction levels.
b) Expansion of good opportunities for folks living in tier II, tier III cities.
c) Hiring from locations other than where it has offices, More talent
118. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage?
a) WFH is creating a positive impact in both employers and employees life.
b) There is a chance that WFH will end soon.
c) Benefits of WFO over WFH
d) New hybrid Office culture that is going to be adopted
119. Why the author is saying if this is the beginning of the end of WFH?
a) Ease in government policies
b) Because there are fewer cases of corona now
c) The companies are crossing their fingers that the dip in cases will outlast the festival season and as they are
getting employees vaccinated so that they can start WFO again
d) The things are now out of control, people started using the situation as a benefit to escape from the work.
120. What are the benefits that are acknowledged by both the group‘s employer and employee?
a) Better relations between employer and employees.
b) Pursuing a better work-life balance the latter, cutting costs
c) Better opportunities for employees only
Asteroids are the remnants of our solar system‘s youthful exuberance, the leftover crumbs from when the
planets formed. For much of the space age, asteroids were ignored in favour of the far more glamorous
planets, and the Moon. The asteroids – dark, misshapen rocks, hard to see and hard to find – have long flown
beneath our notice. But that was a mistake. They have a crucial role to play in the future of our species – in
fact, the survival and flourishing of humanity are tied up with asteroids. There are three reasons. They bear
messages from the beginnings of the solar system, before our Earth came into being, and how we got here
matters to where we‘re going. They are also hoards of resources that might lead us to a future without
scarcity. And last – a minor detail – a single asteroid could wipe us off the face of our planet.
Asteroids are the remnants of collisions between some of the first mini-planets that formed in abundance
when the solar system was no older than a few million years. As a result, many asteroids are just piles of
broken rubble held together by their own weak gravity, about a million times more feeble than the gravity we
feel here on Earth. Untangling the eventful history of the solar system is easier with asteroids because they‘re
unsullied envoys from those turbulent early times. Unlike the planets, nothing much has happened to the
asteroids in the past few billion years. And there are millions of them, the vast majority orbiting the Sun
between Mars and Jupiter in a band called the ‗Main Belt‘.
29
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
Perhaps 10,000 asteroids the size of sports stadiums are on orbits that swing close to Earth. As the dinosaurs
would attest, our planet occasionally gets hit. But the results aren‘t always a bad thing: it‘s looking likely that
Earth‘s oceans were filled by water brought by asteroids. Along with water, asteroids might even have brought
the ingredients of life to Earth in the form of so-called ‗prebiotic‘ molecules, including amino acids and as
recently found, components of proteins and sugars. Learning more about asteroids means learning more about
our origins.
If we can make a profit mining the asteroids, then doing bigger things in space will become a lot cheaper.
Capitalism has its faults, but one thing it does well is to make things cheaper.
Source: https://aeon.co/essays/asteroid-mining-could-pay-for-space-exploration-and-adventure
121. What can be the central idea of the author of the passage?
a) Asteroids are the only components of proteins and sugars.
b) Asteroids are the part of Main-Belt which caused the disappearance of dinosaurs.
c) The iron found in asteroids adds up to some 10 million times the iron that we have in proven reserves on
Earth.
d) To explicate the significance of asteroids for survival of mankind.
122. What does the author mean by the following statement?
‗The survival and flourishing of humanity are tied up with asteroids.‘
I. Without asteroids humanity could not have reached the pinnacle of developments.
II. Human beings collectively can be thrived when our learning about asteroids will thrive.
III. The prosperous future of mankind is not attainable without asteroids.
a) I & II
b) Only II
c) I & III
123. Which of the following opinion does the author probably hold regarding ‗ignorance of asteroids in favour of
the more glamorous planets‘?
a) People were not curious enough in discovering the origin of asteroids.
b) People were inclined more towards grotesque planets and paid heed towards asteroids.
c) People were more enchanted by other planets hence missed out on mining more about asteroids.
d) A & C
124. Based on the information in the passage which of the following cannot be inferred?
I. The source of evolution of human beings can be found if the study on asteroids is done properly.
II. Dinosaurs served as a clear evidence of the hits that the Earth got by asteroids.
III. Space stations – particularly commercial space stations – are the key to acquiring asteroid resources.
a) I & II
b) II & III
c) Only III
d) I & III
125. After reading the passage, it can be implied by the second paragraph that:
a) The author is of the opinion that the Earth is way too safer than any other planets.
b) Since the time of the formation of our solar system asteroids are unblemished.
c) Asteroids have stayed almost the same for dog‘s years.
d) B & C
Frances Haugen, an individual who worked at the social-media giant Facebook, recently testified in front of a
Senate, highlighting Facebook‘s ―moral bankruptcy‖ and the firm‘s downplaying of its harmful impact, including
fanning teenage depression and ethnic violence. The public has long suspected Facebook of two-faced toxicity.
What was lacking were the internal communications to prove it. That changed when Ms Haugen released a
trove of corporate documents to the regulators. Facebook‘s own private research, for example, found that its
photo-sharing site, Instagram, worsened teens‘ suicidal thoughts and eating disorders. Yet it still made a point
30
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
of sending young users engaging content that stoked their anxiety—while proceeding to develop a version of
its site for those under the age of 13.
The firm has survived scandals before. The American Congress has repeatedly called in tech bosses for angry
questioning and public shaming without taking direct action afterwards. No laws were changed to rein in the
company‘s misbehaviour. However, this new whistleblowing incident could be a turning point, says one social
media researcher. Social media‘s harmful effects on children and teenagers are a concern that transcends
partisanship and is easier to understand than the earlier cases of sneaky data-gathering, viral misinformation
and other social-networking sins.
If a law is passed, it is likely to focus narrowly on protecting children online, as opposed to broader reforms,
for which there is still no political consensus. For example, the new law can bar the collection of data from
children under the age of 13. Some want to extend protections to teenagers over that age as well. Other
legislative proposals take aim at manipulative marketing and design features that make social media so
addictive for the young.
Ms Haugen‘s most significant impact on big tech may be inspiring others to come forward and blow the
whistle on their employers‘ malfeasance. Executives are going to have to get used to more leaks. If the
threat of public shaming encourages corporate accountable, that is a good thing.
Source: https://www.economist.com/united-states/facebook-flounders-in-the-court-of-public-
opinion/21805344
126. As per the passage, what is Facebook accused of?
a) Bribing the senate members to pass controversial tech laws.
b) Publicly shaming the employees who have criticized Facebook.
c) Minimizing its role played in fanning teenage depression and ethnic violence.
d) Acquiring Instagram and create a social media monopoly in the market.
127. How does the government plan to monitor Facebook‘s activity when it comes to protecting children online?
I. Prohibit data collection from children under the age of 13.
II. Reform manipulative marketing and design features to make social media less addictive.
III. Make overuse of social media a social taboo among teenagers.
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Only III
128. Why, according to the passage, has Facebook survived the earlier scandals?
a) The popularity of Facebook among general public.
b) Due to the influence Facebook has over the American senate.
c) The earlier whistle blowers did not have enough evidence against Facebook.
d) No changes in the legislature were done to curb or check Facebook.
129. Which of the following statement, as per the passage, is false?
a) Frances Haugen was an ex-employee of Facebook.
b) She was able to present incriminating corporate documents to the regulators.
c) According to Facebook, Instagram had no negative impact on teens.
d) Social media‘s harmful effects on teens is a concern which transcends partisanship.
Good health is one of the most fundamental and basic needs of all human beings. That is why a third of the
seventeen Sustainable Development Goals adopted by the world leaders last year aims to ensure good health
for all. Indian constitution also implicitly recognizes good health as one of the fundamental rights guaranteed
under the right to life. In absence of good health, all of man‘s endeavours will be deemed useless. For India to
fulfil its dream of becoming a developed and prosperous nation it must take care of the most important of its
resources i.e. its human capital. India is on the cusp of demographic dividend with the economically productive
(15-59 years of age) and a portion of its population going above the 60% mark. But India can fully utilize this
potential only if it is successful in providing for its population proper education, skills, nutrition, and healthcare.
31
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
Among all these, the importance of healthcare is perhaps the highest as only a healthy person can be
productive enough to fully utilize his skills. Therefore, healthcare is of paramount importance for an individual
to lead a fulfilling life, and also for the whole nation to progress.
India has a disproportionately high share of health problems and diseases like stunting of growth in children,
diabetes, tuberculosis, cancer etc. In the recent round of the National Sample Survey (NSS) it was found that
over 80% of Indians do not have health insurance coverage and that a majority of people in the rural areas
utilize private sector health services. Given the relatively lower levels of per capita income in rural areas of our
country, all these findings certainly raise a question over whether the healthcare system in India is increasingly
getting skewed towards the population that has the means to afford it. Good health is not only a fundamental
right but also a necessity for India in order to augment its human resources capability to emerge as a
developed nation. Presently healthcare in India is lagging on accessibility, affordability as well as quality
especially for the socio-economically marginalized sections of its society. Only with a world-class health setup
that leaves no one behind, can India fulfil its constitutional obligation of ensuring Right to Life in a substantive
manner as well as take a leap towards truly earning its place among the developed nations!
Source - https://www.drishtiias.com/mains/model-essays/the-focus-of-healthcare-is-increasingly-getting-
skewed-towards-the%20-haves-of-our-society
130. Which of the following statements validate the fact that ‗healthcare is of paramount importance‘?
I. Healthcare plays an important role not only in the physical health of people but also the economy as a
whole.
II. A country needs an educated, healthy population as per the sustainable development goals outlined by the
UN.
III. The main role of primary health care is to provide continuous and comprehensive care to the patients.
a) Only I
b) Both I and III
c) Only III
d) Both I and II
131. From the given options select the statement that outlines the relationship between India‘s poor population and
the present healthcare system in the country.
I. The poor population in India has complete access to proper healthcare.
II. The poor population in India has zero access proper healthcare.
III. The poor population in India has moderate access to healthcare of dubious quality.
a) Only I
b) Both I and III
c) Only III
d) Both I and II
132. Which of the following statement is TRUE with reference to the passage?
a) When a country is developing it is hard to provide access to quality healthcare to the entire country.
b) India will see an exponential growth in its population in the future and the healthcare system needs to be
ready to tackle the consequent issues.
c) Healthcare should be made free all over the world.
d) A certain age group is considered to be the most economically productive age group and care should be
taken to maintain their health.
133. Which of the following if true,weakens the authors arguments in the passage?
a) A country need not provide a good infrastructre to the citizens as that won‘t help the country‘s overall
productivity.
b) Country X is placed below India in terms of providing better health care facility, yet it is developed and
more progressive than India.
c) A good healthcare system is important to reduce the burden on families and contribute to national growth.
d) The growth of healthcare should not be encouraged as it is a wastage of government fund which can rather
be used in developing other essential sectors.
32
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
The perception of plastics as ugly, unnatural, inauthentic and disposable is not new. Visible plastic pollution is
an old complaint, too (years ago, plastic bags caught in trees were nicknamed ―witches‘ knickers‖). What is
new is the suspicion that microplastics are causing widespread harm to humans and the environment in an
invisible, insidious manner. ―Blue Planet 2‖, a nature series presented by Sir David Attenborough that aired in
Britain last October and in America in January, made the case beautifully. But the truth is that little is known
about the environmental consequences of plastic—and what is known doesn‘t look hugely alarming.
We can be surest about how much plastic is produced and where it ends up. The cumulative amount of solid
plastic waste produced since the 1950s that has not been burned or recycled at 4.9bn tonnes. It could all have
been dumped in a landfill 70 metres deep and 57 square kilometres.
A bigger environmental worry is that much plastic has ended up in the ocean, where, dispersed by currents,
the stuff becomes virtually irretrievable, especially once it has fragmented into microplastics. Computer
models suggest that seas hold as many as 51trn microplastic particles. Some are the product of larger pieces
breaking apart; others, like microbeads added to toothpaste or face scrubs, were designed to be tiny.
Even if the flow of plastic into the sea, totalling perhaps 10m tonnes a year, was instantly stanched, huge quantities
would remain. And the flow will not stop. Most of the plastic in the ocean comes not from tidy Europe and America,
but from countries in fast-developing East Asia, where waste-collection systems are flawed or non-existent.
On current trends, by 2050 there could be more plastic in the world‘s waters than fish, measured by weight.
Such numbers frighten people and change their behaviour. Nine in ten Europeans worry about plastic‘s impact
on the environment. More than half told pollsters for Eurobarometer in 2017 that they try to forgo plastic
bags when shopping. By comparison, only one-tenth consider fuel-efficiency when buying a new car. Unlike
other kinds of pollution, plastic is an eyesore.
On land, the damage from litter, which exercises many anti-plastic campaigners, is limited. Most refuse does
not spread too far beyond population centres, where (at least in principle) it can be managed. At sea, most
plastics end up in vast rubbish patches fed by ocean circulation patterns, the biggest of which can be found in
the north Pacific.
Mid-ocean gyres are fortunately neither especially rich in fauna nor particularly biodiverse. The effects of
plastics on busier bits of the ocean, such as reefs, have been little studied. One paper, linked plastic litter to
coral disease near Indonesia and Myanmar. But little similar work exists for other sedentary species, let alone
slippery migratory ones.
Source: https://www.economist.com/international/2018/03/03/the-known-unknowns-of-plastic-pollution
134. Which of the following statement (s) is/are NOT TRUE in accordance with the information provided in the
passage?
I. Blue Planet 2 established the idea of plastics being inauthentic and ugly.
II. Europeans are more concerned about the environment than the rest of the world.
III. Microplastics are formed only when large plastic products are broken down by natural means.
a) Only I
b) Only III
c) Both II & III
d) All I, II and III
135. Which of the following statements is true about ―Visible Plastic‖ with reference to the given passage?
a) Pollution from visible plastic has gone significantly.
b) It is hard to keep track of them.
c) They are more likely to be disposed properly than microplastics.
d) Public campaigns dedicated to it should be more aggressive.
Directions for Questions 136 to 140: Only two tribes X and Y live in an island. The population of X is
200% more than that of Y. In the island, the ratio of males to females is 23 : 9 and the population of females in
Y tribe is 40% less than that of males and In tribe X. the ratio of male to female population Is 3 : 1. The total
number of male population in Y tribe is 250.
136. What is the ratio of the total population of the island to the total male population of the X tribe?
a)
33
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
b)
c)
d)
137. What is the percentage males of the X tribe of the total number of male population in the island?
a)
b)
c)
d)
138. In the island, the total female population is how much more or less than that of male population?
a)
b)
c)
d)
139. of the total population of the island is below then find the number of people who are above 18.
a)
b)
c)
d)
140. The total number of male population in X tribe Is how much % more or less than female population of Y
tribe?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Directions for Questions 141 to 145: Elections were held in a village ¡n two rounds. 3 candidates (A, B and
C) were selected for the elections. In first round A got 490 votes which is more than the number of
votes B got in same round. The number of votes C got in 2nd round is more than number of votes A got
in 1st roundand the ratio of number of votes A, B and C got in 2nd round is respectively. Same
number of votes casted in both the rounds.
141. What is the total number of votes casted in both rounds together?
a)
b)
c)
d)
142. Which candidate lost the elections?
a) B
b) C
c) A
d) CND
143. If the total number of votes casted In both round is 60% of the total population of the village then find the
total number of people who did not cast their votes in the election.
a)
b)
c)
d)
144. What is the number of votes A and B got ¡n both the rounds together?
a) 1430
34
CLAT 01 (2022 – 23)
b) 1575
c) 1580
d) 1680
145. The number of votes that wining candidate got is what % of the total number of votes that both of the losing
candidates got together?
a) 82%
b) 84.5%
c) 86%
d) 65.03%
Directions for Question 146 to 150: There are four companies producing shirts and t - shirts.
Ratio of number of shirts produced by B and number of t – shirts produced by D is 3:4. and ratio of number of
shirts produced by D to the number of t - shirts produced by A is 11:3. Number of shirts and t-shirts
produced by D is 440 and 320 Number of shirts produced by C is 180 which is 14.28% less than the number
of t - shirts produced by C. Number of shirts produced by B is 25% more than number of t - shirts produced
by B. Total number of shirts produced by all the companies is 1000.
146. Find the ratio of shirts produced by A with the number of t – shirts produced by B.
a)
b)
c)
d)
147. Number of t - shirts sold by D is how much percent more than the number of shirts sold by C?
a)
b)
c)
d)
148. If number of shirts produced by E is 46 2/3% more than the number of shirts produced by A and number of t
- shirts produced by E is 31.25% less than number of T - shirts produced by D, then find number of T-shirts
are what percent more than number of shirts produced by E?
a)
b)
c)
d)
149. Find the difference between number of shirts sold by C and D and number of t - shirts sold by B and C.
a)
b)
c)
d)
150. Find the average of total number of shirts and T-shirts produced by all the companies.
a)
b)
c)
d)
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