Ophthalmology MCQs [set-1]

1. Distichiasis is:
A. Misdirected eyelashes
B. Accessory row of eyelashes
C. Downward drooping of upper lid
D. Outward protrusion of lower lid
Answer: B

2. Band shaped keratopathy is commonly caused by deposition of:

A. Magnesium salt
B. Calcium salt
C. Ferrous salt
o m
D. Copper salt . c
Answer: B
te
aulcer, the drug always indicated is:
M
3. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal
q
A. Corticosteroids
c
B. Cycloplegics
C. Antibiotics
M
D. Antifungals
Answer: B

4. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:

A. Adherent Leucoma
B. Dense leucoma
C. Ciliary staphyloma
D. Iris bombe
Answer: A

5. Corneal sensations are diminished in:

A. Herpes simplex
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fungal infections
 D. Marginal keratitis
Answer: A

6. The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:

A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Royal blue
Answer: C

7. Phlycten is due to:

A. Endogenous allergy
B. Exogenous allergy
C. Degeneration
D. None of the above
Answer: A

8. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot weather in

young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and lacrimation with large flat
topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in the palpebral conjunctiva is:
A. Trachoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
Answer: D

9. Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal epithelium?

A. Strept pyogenes
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: D

10. A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh, developed
defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is:
A. Posterior subcapsular cataract
B. Retinopathy of prematurity

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 C. Optic neuritis
D. Vitreous hemorrhage
Answer: A

11. A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to complain of
lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the lower palpebral
conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The most probable diagnosis
is:
A. Trachoma
B. Staphylococal conjunctivitis
C. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
Answer: C

12. Patching of the eye is contraindicated in:

A. Corneal abrasion
B. Bacterial corneal ulcer
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. After glaucoma surgery
Answer: C

13. Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are mucoid
nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and mucous white ropy
mucopurulent conjunctival discharge. He most probably suffers from:
A. Trachoma
B. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
C. Bulbar spring catarrh
D. Purulent conjunctivitis
Answer: C

14. In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is usually:

A. Copious purulent discharge
B. Copious muco-purulent discharge
C. Excessive watery lacrimation
D. Mucoid ropy white discharge
Answer: C

15. Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:

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 A. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
B. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
C. Active trachoma
D. Spring catarrh
Answer: C

16. A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and conjunctiva redness at
the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is expected to show:
A. Slaphylococcus aureus.
B. Streptococcus viridans.
C. Streptococcus pneumonae
D. Morax- Axenfeld diplobacilli
Answer: D

17. Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of:

A. Active trachoma
B. Bulbar spring catarrh
C. Corneal phlycten
D. Vitamin A deficiency
Answer: B

18. A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can be due to:
A. Bulbar spring catarrh.
B. Episcleritis.
C. Vascular pterygium.
D. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.
Answer: A

19. In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is:

A. Arlt's line
B. Herbert's pits
C. Post-trachomatous concretions.
D. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
Answer: D

20. A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two years, is
complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation of both eyes. On

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examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with negative fluorescein test. The expected
diagnosis can be:
A. Acute anterior uveitis.
B. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
C. Bacterial corneal ulcer.
D. Acute congestive glaucoma
Answer: B

21. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:

A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Neuropathic keratopathy
D. Lagophthalmos
Answer: C

22. Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of viral corneal ulcer for fear of:
A. Secondary glaucoma
B. Cortical cataract.
C. Corneal perforation
D. Secondary viral infection.
Answer: C

23. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is

A. Ciliary injection
B. Blepharospasm
C. Miosis
D. Positive fluorescein test.
Answer: D

24. The effective treatment of dendritic ulcer of the cornea is:

A. Surface anesthesia
B. Local corticosteroids
C. Systemic corticosteroids
D. Acyclovir ointment
Answer: D

25. Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by:

A. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber

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 B. No tendency to recurrence
C. Corneal hyposthesia
D. Tendency to perforate
Answer: C

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-2]

26. Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium:

A. Neisseria gonorrhea.
B. Staphylococcal epidermidis
C. Moraxella lacunata.
D. Staphylococcal aureus
Answer: A

27. Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by:

A. Hard contact Lens,
B. Rigid gas permeable (RGP) contact lens
C. Spectacles.
o m
D. Keratoplasty. . c
Answer: C
t e
a are:
M
28. Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis
q
c
A. Moraxella Axenfeld bacilli
B. Pneumococci
C. Gonococci
M
D. Adenovirus
Answer: A

29. Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of

A. Meibomian gland
B. Zies’s gland
C. Sweat gland
D. Wolfring’s gland
Answer: A

30. Deep leucoma is best treated by:

A. Tattooing
B. Lamellar keratoplasty
C. Keratectomy
 D. Penetrating keratoplasty
Answer: D

31. Blood vessels in a trachomatous pannus lie:

A. Beneath the Descemet's membrane.
B. In the substantia propria.
C. Between Bowman's membrane & substantia propria.
D. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium.
Answer: D

32. In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are:

A. Macrophage
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Epitheloid cells
Answer: B

33. Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to paralysis of:

A. Riolan's muscle
B. Horner's muscle
C. Muller's muscle
D. The levator palpebral muscle
Answer: C

34. Severe congenital ptosis with no levator function can be treated by:
A. Levator resection from skin side
B. Levator resection from conjunctival side
C. Fascia lata sling operation
D. Fasanella servat operation
Answer: C

35. The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

A. Moraxella
B. Gonococcus
C. Pneumococcus
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: C

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36. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always indicated is:
A. Corticosteroid
B. Atropine
C. Antibiotics
D. Antifungal
Answer: B

37. Fleischer ring is found in:

A. Keratoconus
B. Chalcosis
C. Argyrosis
D. Buphthalmos
Answer: A

38. Intercalary staphyloma is a type of:

A. Equatorial staphyloma
B. Posterior staphyloma
C. Scleral staphyloma
D. Anterior staphyloma
Answer: C

39. Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:

A. Trochlear nerve
B. Optic nerve
C. Trigeminal nerve
D. Oculomotor nerve
Answer: C

40. Ciliary injection is not seen in:

A. Herpetic keratitis
B. Bacterial ulcer
C. Chronic iridocyclitis
D. Catarrhal conjunctivitis
Answer: D

41. Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by:

A. Epithelial layer

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 B. Substantia propria
C. Descemet's membrane
D. Endothelium
Answer: B

42. A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with a leaf 5
days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2 days. What would be
the most likely pathology?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Conjunctivitis
C. Fungal corneal ulcer
D. Corneal laceration
Answer: C

43. Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:

A. Facial palsy
B. Peripheral neuritis
C. Oculomotor palsy
D. Sympathetic palsy
Answer: C

44. Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:

A. Glaucoma
B. Retinal detachment
C. Iridocyclitis
D. High myopia
Answer: D

45. In DCR, the opening is made at:

A. Superior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Inferior meatus
D. none
Answer: B

46. Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:

A. Dry eye

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 B. Infective keratitis
C. Watering eyes
D. Horner’s syndrome
Answer: A

47. 3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes regurgitation
of mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment?
A. Dacryocystorhinostomy
B. Probing
C. Probing with syringing
D. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
Answer: D

48. Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis

A. Thyroid orbitopathy
B. Metastasis
C. Lymphoma
D. Meningioma
Answer: A

49. Evisceration is:

A. Excision of the entire eyeball
B. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
C. Photocoagulation of the retina
D. Removal of orbit contents
Answer: B

50. Lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except;

A. 7th cranial nerve paralysis
B. 5th cranial nerve paralysis
C. Thyrotoxic exophthalmos
D. Symblepharon
Answer: B

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-3]

51. The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from

panophthalmitis is:
A. Vision
B. Pain
C. Redness
D. Swelling
Answer: A

52. The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:

A. Thyroid eye disease
B. Lacrimal gland tumour
o m
C. Orbital cellulitis
. c
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis te
Answer: A a
q M
c
53. Proptosis is present in the following condition except:
A. Horner's syndrome
B. Orbital cellulitis
M
C. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
D. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
Answer: A

54. All of the following are part of uvea except:

A. Pars plicata
B. Pars plana
C. Choroid
D. Schwalbe’s line
Answer: D

55. One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes:

A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
 C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer: D

56. In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:

A. Of normal size
B. Constricted
C. Dilated
D. none
Answer: B

57. Koeppe’s nodules are found in:

A. Cornea
B. Sclera
C. Iris
D. Conjunctiva
Answer: C

58. Aqueous humour is formed by:

A. Epithelium of ciliary body
B. Posterior surface of iris
C. Lens
D. Pars plana
Answer: A

59. The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:

A. Keratic precipitates
B. Hypopyon
C. Posterior synechiae
D. Aqueous flare
Answer: D

60. Which laser is used for capsulotomy?

A. Diode laser
B. Carbon dioxide laser
C. Excimer laser
D. ND: YAG laser
Answer: D

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61. Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of the following except:
A. Anterior chamber intraocular lens
B. Posterior chamber intraocular lens
C. Contact tens
D. Glasses
Answer: D

62. Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:

A. Fistulizing operation
B. Cataract extraction
C. Cyclo-destructive procedure
D. Miotics and Beta blockers
Answer: B

63. Lens induced glaucoma is least likely to occur in:

A. Intumescent cataract.
B. Anterior lens dislocation,
C. Posterior subcapsular cataract
D. Posterior lens dislocation
Answer: C

64. Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:

A. Phacoemulsification plus intraocular lens implantation
B. Intracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
C. Extracapsular cataract extraction plus intraocular lens implantation
D. Small incision cataract extraction
Answer: A

65. Best site where intraocular lens is fitted:

A. Capsular ligament
B. Endosulcus
C. Ciliary supported
D. Capsular bag
Answer: D

66. After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient complained of

ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye looked red with ciliary

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injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex. The first suspicion must be:
A. Secondary glaucoma.
B. Anterior uveitis.
C. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
D. Acute conjunctivitis
Answer: C

67. All the following associated open angle glaucoma include all the following
except:
A. Roenne’s nasal step
B. Enlarged blind spot
C. Generalized depression of isopters
D. Loss of central fields
Answer: D

68. The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma is:
A. Surgical peripheral iridectomy
B. Yag laser iridotomy
C. Trabeculotomy
D. Trabeculectomy
Answer: B

69. Topical atropine is contraindicated in:

A. Retinoscopy in children
B. Iridocyclitis
C. Corneal ulcer
D. Primary angle closure glaucoma
Answer: D

70. Neovascular glaucoma follows:

A. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
B. Acute congestive glaucoma
C. Staphylococcal infection
D. Hypertension
Answer: A

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71. A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia and
watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and clear but large
cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Congenital dacryocystitis
B. Interstitial keratitis
C. Keratoconus
D. Buphthalmos
Answer: D

72. You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the following
would be an important point in diagnosing the case?
A. Shallow anterior chamber
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Narrow angle
D. visual acuity and refractive error
Answer: B

73. Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:

A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
Answer: A

74. In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:

A. Outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
B. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
C. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
D. Retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
Answer: B

75. 100 days glaucoma is seen in:

A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Branch Retinal Artery Occlusion
C. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer: C

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-4]

76. A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic murmur and
ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear AC, the likely diagnosis is:
A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion
B. Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
C. Diabetes Mellitus
D. Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion
Answer: A

77. Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in:

A. Papilloedema
B. Retinoblastoma
o m
C. Papillitis
. c
D. Retinitis te
Answer: B a
q M
c
78. Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:
A. Macular oedema
B. Microaneurysm
M
C. Retinal hemorrhage
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: A

79. Commotio retinae is seen in:

A. Concussion injury
B. Papilloedema
C. Central retinal vein thrombosis
D. Central retinal artery thrombosis
Answer: A

80. Night blindness is caused by:

A. Central retinal vein occlusion
B. Dystrophies of retinal rods
 C. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: B

81. In Central retinal artery occlusion, a cherry red spot is due to:
A. Hemorrhage at macula
B. Increased choroidal perfusion
C. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
D. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids
Answer: D

82. The most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults is:

A. Retinoblastoma
B. Choroidal melanoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
D. Iris nevus
Answer: B

83. A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae volitanes. On
examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of fundus could be seen. He
might have:
A. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Vitreous hemorrhage
D. Central retinal vein occlusion
Answer: C

84. Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery results in one
of the following field defects:
A. Lower nasal sector field defect
B. Upper nasal sector field defect
C. Upper temporal field defect
D. Lower temporal sector field defect
Answer: C

85. Primary optic atrophy results from:

A. Retinal disease

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 B. Chronic glaucoma
C. Papilledema
D. Neurological disease
Answer: D

86. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:

A. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
B. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
C. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
D. Normal visual acuity
Answer: B

87. The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:
A. Secondary optic atrophy
B. Consecutive optic atrophy
C. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
D. Primary optic atrophy
Answer: A

88. A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes. Twelve hours
ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On examination, visual acuity
was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left eye. Fundus examination showed
blurred edges of the left optic disc. The most probable diagnosis is:
A. Raised intra cranial pressure
B. Raised ocular tension
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Optic neuritis
Answer: D

89. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:

A. Ptosis
B. Diplopia
C. Miosis
D. Outwards eye deviation
Answer: C

90. Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:

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 A. Optic tract
B. Optic nerve
C. Optic chiasma
D. Retina
Answer: A

91. Which is not found in papilloedema?

A. Blurred vision
B. Blurred margins of disc
C. Cupping of disc
D. Retinal edema
Answer: C

92. Optic disc diameter is:

A. 1 mm
B. 1.5 mm
C. 2 mm
D. 3 mm
Answer: B

93. Optic nerve function is best studied by:

A. Direct Ophthalmoscope
B. Retinoscope
C. Perimetry
D. Gonioscopy
Answer: C

94. Optic nerve axon emerges from:

A. Ganglion cells
B. Rods and cones
C. Amacrine cells
D. Inner nuclear layer
Answer: A

95. Papilloedema has all the following characteristics except:

A. Marked loss of vision
B. Blurring of disc margins

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 C. Hyperemia of disc
D. Field defect
Answer: A

96. Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:

A. Optic chiasma
B. Retina
C. optic tract
D. Optic nerve
Answer: C

97. Mydriasis is present in all the following except:

A. Third nerve lesion
B. Pontine haemorrhage
C. Datura poisoning
D. Fourth stage of anesthesia
Answer: B

98. D-shaped pupil occurs in:

A. Iridocyclitis
B. Iridodenesis
C. Cyclodialsis
D. Iridodialysis
Answer: D

99. In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in the
primary position is:
A. Inward
B. Outward
C. Outward and up
D. Outward and down
Answer: D

100. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:

A. Superior rectus
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Inferior oblique
D. Superior oblique

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Answer: B

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-5]

101. The action of superior rectus is:

A. Elevation, intorsion, abduction
B. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
C. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
D. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.
Answer: B

102. The action of inferior oblique is:

A. Depression, extorsion, abduction
B. Depression, extorsion, adduction
C. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
o m
D. Elevation, extorsion, abduction . c
Answer: D
te
adoes not arise from the apex of the orbit is:
M
103. The only extraocular muscle which
q
A. Superior rectus
c
B. Superior oblique
C. Inferior oblique
M
D. Inferior rectus
Answer: C

104. In concomitant squint:

A. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
B. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
C. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
D. None of the above
Answer: C

105. In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary deviation
in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle:
A. Increases
B. Decreases
 C. Remains the same
D. none
Answer: A

106. In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is:

A. Simultaneous macular vision
B. Fusion
C. Stereopsis
D. none
Answer: B

107. The best treatment for amblyopia is:

A. Orthoptic exercises
B. Occlusion
C. Surgery
D. Best treat after age 10 years
Answer: B

108. All the following are true about retina, except:

A. Composed of 10 separable layers
B. There is a loose attachment between neurosensory and Retinal pigment epithelium
C. The Fovea is not supplied by the central retinal artery
D. Soft exudates are swollen axons of ganglion cells
Answer: A

109. Cause of blindness in HIV (Human immunodeficiency virus) patient; one is

true:
A. Cotton wool spots
B. HIV microangiopathy
C. Cytomegalovirus retinitis
D. Kaposi sarcoma
Answer: C

110. Pseudophakia is the loss of:

A. Accommodation
B. Conversion
C. Saccadic eye movements

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 D. Contrast sensitivity
Answer: A

111. All are used for treatment of myopia, except:

A. Convex lenses
B. Concave lenses
C. Lens refractive surgery
D. LASIK
Answer: A

112. One of the following is indicative of past optic neuritis in multiple sclerosis
patients:
A. Mild Relative afferent pupillary defect
B. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Nystagmus
D. Diplopia
Answer: A

113. Emmetropia is:

A. Parallel rays of light brought on retina
B. Visual acuity of 6/6
C. Parallel rays of light brought before retina
D. (A) & (B)
Answer: A

114. One of the following does not cause exophthalmos:

A. Orbital varix
B. Optic nerve tumor
C. Blow out fracture
D. Orbital cellulitis
Answer: C

115. One of the following is not a cause of entropion:

A. Facial nerve palsy
B. Congenital
C. Cicatricial pemphigoid
D. Conjunctival scaring
Answer: A

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116. Which one is responsible for strongest refraction in the eye:
A. Tear film
B. Cornea
C. Lens
D. Vitreous
Answer: B

117. Chronic blepharitis is associated with all, except:

A. Ectropion
B. Eyelid margin ulceration
C. Red eye
D. Obstruction of meibomian glands
Answer: B

118. Carotid–cavernous sinus fistula causes all the following, except:

A. Bruit over globe
B. Pulsatile tinnitus
C. Proptosis
D. Scleral veins congestion
Answer: B

119. All the following are risk factors for bacterial keratitis, except:
A. Chalazion
B. Contact lenses
C. Trauma
D. Dry eye
Answer: A

120. About trichiasis; all the following are true, except:

A. Signs of dry eye
B. Iris atrophy
C. Corneal opacity
D. Backward misdirection of eye lashes
Answer: B

121. All the following are true about herpetic infection, except:
A. A Dendritic ulcer is characteristic

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 B. Primary infection is asymptomatic
C. Caused by Herpes simplex virus type 2
D. Steroids may be used for treatment
Answer: D

122. All the following are used in treatment of open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Steroids
B. Parasympathomimetics
C. Betablockers
D. Alpha agonists
Answer: A

123. All the following are true about open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Commonly causes headache
B. Optic disc cupping
C. Peripheral visual loss
D. Medical treatment is the first line of treatment
Answer: A

124. All the following are signs of keratoconus, except:

A. Thickening of central cornea
B. Corneal thinning, especially in the inferior cornea
C. Munson sign
D. Prominent corneal nerves
Answer: A

125. All the following are used for the treatment of keratoconus, except:
A. LASIK
B. Intracorneal rings
C. Contact lenses
D. Keratoplasty
Answer: A

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-6]

126. what type of surgery is performed for a patient with large angle right
esotropia:
A. Right recession
B. Right resection
C. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on right eye
D. Lateral rectus resection & medial rectus recession on left eye
Answer: C

127. All the following are true about branch vein occlusion, except:
A. Improves with time and minimal visual loss
B. Surgery is indicated if the macula is not involved
o m
C. Steroids and anti-VGEF are rarely used
. c
D. There are two types; ischemic & non ischemic te
Answer: B a
q M
c
128. In diabetic macular edema, one is true:
M
A. Pan retinal photocoagulation is the first line of management
B. Anti-VGEF is the first line of treatment
C. All treatment modules have poor visual acuity
D. Treatment protocol depends on presenting vision
Answer: D

129. All the following are true regarding retinal detachment, except:
A. Uveitis cause exudative type
B. DM cause tractional type
C. Posterior vitreous detachment causes rhegmatogenous type
D. Surgery indicated for all types
Answer: D

130. One of the following regarding age-related macular degeneration is correct:

A. The dry type does not convert to the wet type
B. Anti-VEGF is the drug of choice
 C. There is reduction in central vision
D. Fluorescein angiography and optical coherence tomography can be used for diagnosis
Answer: B

131. All the following are true regarding retinitis pigmentosa, except:
A. Day light vision spared all over life
B. Complains of loss of night vision
C. Autosomal Dominant type is the mildest form
D. Loss of peripheral vision
Answer: A

132. All the following are related to angle closure glaucoma, except:
A. Common in high myopes
B. Painful red eye
C. Acute presentation
D. Treatment for both eyes
Answer: A

133. Most common nerve affected by blow-out fracture:

A. Infra-orbital nerve.
B. Supratrochlear nerve.
C. Optic nerve.
D. Nasocilliary nerve.
Answer: A

134. About choroidal melanoma, one of the following is true:

A. If there is no visual potential for the eye, enucleation is recommended
B. Can be preceded by choroidal nevus
C. Lymphatic spread is common
D. Brachytherapy can be used for tumors of any size
Answer: A

135. All the following are caused by blunt trauma, except:

A. Uveitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Cataract
D. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
Answer: D

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136. About chemical injury of the eye, all the following are true, except:
A. Alkali is neutralized with weak acid
B. Alkali most severe
C. Limbal ischemia means poor prognosis
D. Do not use Vit. C in non-alkali burns
Answer: A

137. All the following are side effects of acetazolamide, except:

A. Bronchial asthma
B. Renal stones
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Steven Johnson syndrome
Answer: A

138. One of the following does not cause leukocoria:

A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Cataract
C. Retinoblastoma
D. Old total retinal detachment
Answer: A

139. Which of the following is an indication for oral steroids in thyroid eye disease?
A. Corneal exposure
B. Periorbital edema
C. Chemosis
D. Dry eyes
Answer: A

140. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by a problem in the:

A. Optic chiasm
B. Optic radiation
C. Thalamus
D. Optical cortex
Answer: A

141. Which of the following is present only in acute phase of thyroid eye disease?
A. Lid retraction

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 B. Lid lag
C. Diplopia
D. Chemosis
Answer: D

142. Which of the following is not part of the thyroid eye disease?
A. Optic disc swelling
B. Choroidal neovascular membrane
C. Restrictive myopathy
D. Ophthalmoplegia
Answer: B

143. Which cataract does improve near vision?

A. Cortical
B. Sutural
C. Nuclear
D. Morgagnian
Answer: C

144. In which cataract does vision improve with changing glasses or wearing
glasses?
A. Christmas tree
B. Nuclear
C. Hypermature
D. Lamellar
Answer: B

145. Which cataract is associated with intraocular inflammation?

A. Nuclear
B. Posterior subcapsular
C. Hypermature
D. Cortical
Answer: B

146. Which of the following Least systemic diseases to cause least peripheral
ulcerative keratitis:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosus

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 B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Weigner granulomatosis
D. Sarcoidosis
Answer: D

147. Regarding the optic nerve, which of the following is false?

A. The intracanalicular segment is the longest
B. The intraocular segment is the shortest
C. It has a central cavity called the cup
D. It represents the blind spot
Answer: A

148. Which is most common type of cataract due to chronic use of steroids:
A. Posterior subcapsular
B. Nuclear
C. Anterior subcortical
D. Christmas tree
Answer: A

149. Ethambutol (used to treat tuberculosis) causes:

A. Optic neuropathy
B. Cataract
C. Glaucoma
D. Keratopathy
Answer: A

150. The left eye is looking straight on primary position, while the right eye is
looking upward, which of the following is true?
A. Left hypertropia
B. Left hypotropia
C. Right hypertropia
D. Left hypermetropia
Answer: C

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-7]

151. Left esotropia surgical correction includes:

A. Right medial rectus recession and left lateral rectus recession
B. Left lateral rectus recession only
C. Left lateral rectus recession and medial rectus recession
D. None of the listed
Answer: D

152. The yoke muscle of right superior oblique is:

A. Left inferior rectus
B. Left lateral rectus
C. Left superior rectus
o m
D. Left superior oblique . c
Answer: A
te
a are true, except:
q M
153. All the following regarding fungal keratitis

c
A. Can be cause by eye trauma to plant

M
B. Amphotericin B are used in the treatment
C. Caused by fusarium
D. Surgery is contraindicated in active infection
Answer: D

154. All the following are true regarding acute closed angle glaucoma, except:
A. Corneal edema
B. Fix dilated pupil
C. Optic disc cupping
D. Severe headache
Answer: C

155. Regarding optic neuritis in adults, all the following are true, except:
A. More in white
B. Usually, bilateral
C. Central scotoma
 D. Loss of color vision
Answer: B

156. Ultrasound is used in dense cataract patient to show:

A. Optic atrophy
B. Macula edema
C. Macula hole
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: D

157. The most common ophthalmologic complication in multiple sclerosis is:

A. Optic neuritis
B. Intranuclear ophthalmoplegia
C. Diplopia
D. Nystagmus
Answer: A

158. Patient with benign intracranial hypertension, one of the following is true:
A. Lumbar puncture is diagnostic and therapeutic
B. 3rd nerve palsy
C. Abnormal imaging
D. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor is contraindicated
Answer: A

159. All the following are risk factorsfor glaucoma, except:

A. Steroids
B. Myopia
C. Thin cornea
D. Being black, Asian, or Hispanic
Answer: C

160. Best method to deal with alkali trauma:

A. Irrigation with copious fluids
B. Mild steroids
C. Patching
D. Neutralize alkali with weak acid
Answer: A

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161. What is true about the commonest ocular tumor in adults?
A. Has good prognosis
B. Hematogenous spread
C. Primary metastasis is to the bone
D. It is rhabdomyosarcoma
Answer: B

162. The eyelid tumor with the worst prognosis:

A. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
B. Basel cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Merkel cell carcinoma
Answer: A

163. Large eyesare associated with:

A. Axial myopia
B. Refractive myopia
C. High myopia
D. Index myopia
Answer: C

164. In third cranial nerve palsy, all are true, except:

A. Diplopia
B. Dilated pupils
C. Absent pupillary reflex
D. Relative afferent pupillary defect
Answer: D

165. Neural fiber layer of retina is:

A. Axons of bipolar cells
B. Axons of photoreceptors
C. Axons of ganglion cells
D. None of the above
Answer: C

166. Patient with unilateral cataract, the most common etiology is:
A. Trauma

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 B. Intrauterine infection
C. Posterior pole tumors
D. Posterior lenticonus
Answer: A

167. All the following can be used to differentiate between orbital cellulitis and
preseptal cellulitis, except:
A. Ptosis
B. Proptosis
C. Decreased ocular motility
D. Decreased visual acuity
Answer: A

168. All the following are risk factors for glaucoma, except:
A. White race
B. Central corneal thinning
C. Positive family history
D. Black, Asian, or Hispanic
Answer: A

169. All the following are seen in blow-out fractures, except:

A. Exophthalmos
B. Double vision
C. Bruising, tenderness and swelling around the eye
D. Limitation of eye movement
Answer: A

170. Dysthyroid eye disease has which of the following complications:

A. Macular edema
B. Retinal detachment
C. Decrease in visual acuity
D. Cataract
Answer: C

171. Allthe following cause ectropion, except:

A. Age
B. Burn of the face

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 C. 3rdcranial nerve palsy
D. Congenital
Answer: C

172. The most important risk factor for retinal vein occlusion is:
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Hypertension
C. Age
D. Cardiovascular disease
Answer: B

173. All the following are true about chemical burn treatment, except:
A. Acids cause worse injury than alkali
B. Irrigation is the treatment of choice
C. Evert and double evert lids for all cases
D. No patching is done
Answer: A

174. The main risk factor regardingdiabetic retinopathy:

A. Duration of the DM
B. Control of DM
C. (A) & (B)
D. Age
Answer: C

175. All the following are true regarding dermoid cysts, except:
A. Located at the superio-lateral aspect
B. Main treatment is by excision
C. It is commonly seen in adulthood (mainly in children)
D. Present at birth
Answer: C

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-8]

176. One of the following is considered as motor adaption for strabismus:

A. Head tilt
B. Face turn
C. Chin elevation
D. All the above
Answer: D

177. One of the following statements is true:

A. The most common cause of tractional retinal detachment is diabetic retinopathy

o m
B. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is always treated by surgery
C. The most common cause of rhegmatogenous detachment is hypertension

. c
D. In exudative retinal detachment, there are holes and tears in the retina
Answer: A
t e
a is true?
q M
178. In right 6th nerve palsy, one of the following

c
A. Esotropia + limitation of adduction

M
B. Esotropia + limitation of abduction
C. Exotropia + limitation of adduction
D. Exotropia + limitation of abduction
Answer: B

179. All the following are considered as complications of anterior uveitis, except:
A. Glaucoma
B. Cataract
C. Macular edema
D. Retinal detachment
Answer: D

180. Regarding hyphema, all the following are true, except:

A. Atropine will be used in treatment
B. Always treated by surgical evacuation
C. Iris & ciliary body are source of blood
 D. May cause increased intra ocular pressure
Answer: B

181. One of the following is the most common cause of amblyopia?

A. Farsightedness
B. Strabismus
C. Nearsightedness
D. Deprivation
Answer: B

182. One of the following is caused by infection:

A. External hordeolum
B. Sebaceous cyst
C. Milia
D. Eccrine hidrocystoma
Answer: A

183. In optic tract lesion, all the following are true, except:
A. Central scotoma
B. Normalvisual acuity
C. Normal color vision
D. Positive RAPD
Answer: A

184. Regarding the fovea, all the following are true, except:
A. Rich in cons
B. Lateral to optic disc
C. Responsible for color
D. Sensitive in dim light
Answer: D

185. Regarding giant cell arteritis, all the following is true, except:
A. ESR> 60mm/h
B. Anterior ischemic neuropathy
C. Jaw claudication may be presented
D. Gradual loss of vision
Answer: D

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186. Regarding antiglaucoma medications, which one of the following is true?
A. Timolol is contraindicated in bronchial asthma
B. Sympathomimetic drug used as anti-glaucoma
C. Prostaglandins analogue treat glaucoma by increase the outflow of aqueous humor
D. All the above
Answer: D

187. Optic tract lesion is:

A. Bitemporal hemianopia
B. Homonymoushemianopia
C. Congruous hemianopia
D. Incongruous hemianopia
Answer: B

188. Least one to cause severe ptosis is:

A. Congenital ptosis
B. Involutional ptosis
C. Third nerve palsy
D. Horner's syndrome
Answer: D

189. Regarding myopia, all are true, except:

A. Corrected by convex spectacles
B. Corrected by concave spectacles
C. Corrected by contact lenses
D. Corrected b a minus lens
Answer: A

190. All are found in carotid cavernous fistula, except:

A. Bruit over the globe
B. Lid retraction
C. Proptosis
D. Ophthalmoplegia
Answer: B

191. Subluxated lens is found in all the following, except:

A. Marfan Syndrome

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 B. Homocystinuria
C. Trauma.
D. Heterochromic Fuchs' syndrome
Answer: D

192. Which type of cataract is associated with myopic shift?

A. Anterior subcapsular
B. Sclerosing nuclear
C. Posterior subcapsular
D. Diabetic
Answer: B

193. Safest method to treat myopia:

A. Glasses
B. Contact lens
C. LASIK
D. PRk
Answer: A

194. Which is wrong about the optic nerve?

A. Intraorbital segment is the longest
B. Have 4 compartments
C. Pial vessels supply most of the course
D. It passes out of the eye through the cribriform plate of the sclera
Answer: C

195. First line of treatment for diabetic macular edema:

A. Panretinal photocoagulation
B. Intravitreal Steroids Injection
C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF
D. Focal/Grid Laser
Answer: C

196. First line of treatment for old man with wet AMD:
A. Panretinal photocoagulation
B. Intravitreal Steroids Injection
C. Intravitreal anti-VEGF

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 D. Focal/Grid Lase
Answer: C

197. Which muscle is mostly affected in dysthyroid eye disease:

A. Superior rectus
B. Inferior rectus
C. Medial rectus
D. Lateral rectus
Answer: B

198. 30 year-old female complains that she is annoyed by car flashlight at night.
What is most likely diagnosis?
A. Vortex keratopathy
B. Optic neuritis
C. Posterior subscapular cataract
D. Myasthenia gravis
Answer: C

199. 60 year-old female with Systemic lupus erythematosusis on systemic steroids.

What type of cataract she could have?
A. Posterior subscapular
B. Nuclear
C. Cortical
D. Anterior subscapular
Answer: A

200. 60 year-old male assumes that he can read without using glasses. What type of
cataract he has?
A. Posterior subscapular
B. Nuclear
C. Cortical
D. Anterior subcapsular
Answer: B

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 Ophthalmology MCQs [set-9]

201. Fovea:
A. Receive nutrients from the choroid
B. Mostly rods
C. Sensitive to dim light
D. Located nasally to the optic disc
Answer: A

202. The following are appropriate interventions for acute Dacryocystitis, except:
A. DCR
B. Warm compressors
C. Topical antibiotics
o m
D. Systemic antibiotics . c
Answer: C
te
a one of the following is false:
M
203. Regarding benign intracranial hypertension,
q
A. Bilateral 6th nerve palsy
c
B. Headache
C. Visual disturbances
M
D. Nausea/vomiting
Answer: A

204. Which of the following is not supplied by the 3rd cranial nerve:
A. Ciliary muscle
B. Dilator papillae
C. Superior oblique
D. Superior rectus
Answer: C

205. One of the following is not a treatment for esotropia:

A. Bilateral lateral rectus resection
B. Medial rectus recession, Lateral rectus resection
C. Bilateral medial rectus recession
 D. Bilateral medial rectus recession and resection of one lateral rectus
Answer: A

206. One of the following is false regarding ophthalmia neonatorum?

A. Bilateral purulent discharge is typical of gonorrheal conjunctivitis
B. Systemic antibiotics can be used
C. Most commonorganism is Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Single instillation of povidone-iodine 2.5% solution is effective against common pathogens.
Answer: A

207. All are complications of chronic anterior uveitis, except:

A. Retinal detachment
B. Iris atrophy
C. Glaucoma
D. Cataract
Answer: A

208. One of the following is not associated with 3rd nerve palsy:
A. Miosis
B. Mydriasis
C. Ptosis
D. Affected eye turns slightly outward and downward
Answer: A

209. One of the following eye drops is not used for glaucoma treatment?
A. Dorzolamide
B. Tropicamide
C. Brimonidine
D. Pilocarpine
Answer: B

210. The most common orbital metastasis in men are cancer of the:
A. Carcinoid
B. Colon
C. Melanoma
D. Lung
Answer: D

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211. All are causes of secondary open angle glaucoma, except:
A. Trauma
B. Exfoliative
C. Rubeosis iridis
D. Pigmentary
Answer: C

212. All are true regarding optic nerve glioma, except:

A. Gradual onset
B. Optic atrophy
C. Painful
D. Proptosis
Answer: C

213. Chronic intermediate uveitis will cause:

A. Glaucoma
B. Cystoid macular edema
C. Cataract
D. All the above
Answer: D

214. All are true regarding accommodation, except:

A. Better in adult
B. Pupillary constriction
C. Relaxed ciliary
D. Lens increases in curvature
Answer: A

215. Measurement of intraocular lens power is called:

A. Pachymetry
B. Biometry
C. Gonioscopy
D. Keratometry
Answer: B

216. Which of the following is not a risk factor for chronic open angle glaucoma:
A. Myopia

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 B. Hypermetropia
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Family history
Answer: B

217. Which of the following is not associated with increased VEGF?

A. Retinopathy of Prematurity
B. Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy
C. Central retinal vein occlusion
D. None of the above
Answer: D

218. Which of the following not associated with uveitis:

A. Behcet’s disease
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Wilson's disease
D. Toxoplasmosis
Answer: C

219. Which one of the following is not recommended for contact lenses?
A. 3-old-month baby with aphakia
B. Keratoconus
C. Myopia
D. Hypermetropia
Answer: A

220. Regarding retinitis pigmentosa, one of the following is true:

A. Macular edema is treated by grid laser
B. Only rods affected
C. Macular edema may respond to oral acetazolamide
D. Nyctalopia and dark adaptation difficulties are late symptoms
Answer: C

221. One of the following is false regarding giant cell arteritis:

A. CRP morereliable that ESR
B. Phenomenon of “skip” lesions is present
C. Color Doppler shows a hypoechoic halo around the artery lumen in around 75%

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 D. Elevated platelets and anemia are commonly present
Answer: A

222. Which one of the following is false about the drug and its side effects?
A. Isoniazid: Glaucoma
B. Chlorpromazine: Dry eye and dry mouth
C. Amiodarone: Keratopathy
D. Chloroquine: Maculopathy
Answer: A

223. Which of the following cancers is not associated with sun exposure?
A. Lentigo
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
Answer: A

224. All the following drugs can cause cataract except:

A. Chlorpromazine
B. Steroids
C. Amiodarone
D. Erythromycin
Answer: A

225. All are signs of keratoconus, except:

A. Vogt’s striae
B. Munson’s sign
C. Thinning of central cornea
D. Keyser Fleisher rings
Answer: D

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