JEE Advanced O & I Chemistry-XI

JEE
ADVANCED
CHEMISTRY
ORGANIC & INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
IUPAC Nomenclature and structural isomerism
Structure Identification and POC

GOC-I
GOC-II
Periodic table
Chemical bonding
s-Block elements
p-Block element (group 13 &14)

CONTENT
CONTENT
CONTENT
TOPIC PAGE No.
1. IUPAC & STRUCTURAL ISOMERISM
1.1 Exercise 1-12
1.2 Answer Key 12-12
2. STRUCTURE IDENTIFICATION & POC
2.1 Exercise 13-22
3. GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - I
3.1 Exercise 24-36
4. GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - II
4.1 Exercise 38-55
5. PERIODIC TABLE
5.1 Exercise 56-64
6. CHEMICAL BONDING
6.1 Exercise 65-85
7. s-BLOCK ELEMENTS
7.1 Exercise 90-99
8. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
8.1 Exercise 101-111
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IUPAC Nmenclature and Structural Isomerism

EXERCISE-4
PART - 1 : SINGLE OPTION CORRECT TYPE
1. IUPAC name of the compound is
(A) 2, 2, 5-Trimethyl-4-(1-methylpropyl) nonane

(B) 4, 8, 8-Trimethyl-6-(1-methylpropyl) nonane
(C) 3, 6-Dimethyl-4-(1-methylene tertiary butyl) nonane
(D) 6, 6-Dimethyl-2-propyl-4-(1-methylpropyl) heptane
2. In the structure of 4-Isopropyl-2,4,5-trimethylheptane, number of 10, 20 & 30 H’s are respectively.
(A) 18, 5, 4 (B) 21, 4, 3 (C) 18, 4, 3 (D) 21, 5, 4
3. The correct IUPAC name of is :
(A) 1, 4-Diethyl-2-methyl-5-propylcyclohexane (B) 1, 4-Diethyl-5-methyl-2-propylcyclohexane

(C) 2, 5-Diethyl-1-methyl-4-propylcyclohexane (D) 2, 5-Diethyl-4-methyl-1-propylcyclohexane
4. IUPAC nomenclature of the given organic compound will be : (CH3)2C(CH2CH3)CH2CH(Cl)CH3 :
(A) 5-Chloro 3, 3-dimethyl hexane (B) 4-Chloro-2-ethyl-2-methyl pentane
(C) 2-Chloro-4-ethyl-4-methyl pentane (D) 2-Chloro-4, 4-dimethyl hexane
5. The correct IUPAC numbering in the compound is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. The correct IUPAC name of .
(A) 1-Ethylidenecyclohex-2-ene (B) 3-Ethylidenecyclohex-1-ene

(C) 2-Ethylidenecyclohex-1-ene (D) 3-Ethenylcyclohex-1-ene
7. The IUPAC name of the following structure (CH3)C.C.C.(CH3)CH(CH3) is:
(A) 3-Methylhex-4-yn-2-ene (B) 2-Methylhex-2-en-4-yne
(C) 4-Methylhex-4-en-4-yne (D) 3-Methylhex-2-en-4-yne
Head Office : D-3221, Indira Nagar Near Munsipulia, Lucknow (U.P) - 226016 – Contact No. : 0522-4954072 / 9935552255 JEE-1
O
||
8. IUPAC name of the following compound CH3 – CH – C – CH – O – CH2 – CH3 is :
| |
OCH3 CH3
(A) 2-Ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-2-one. (B) 2-Ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-3-one.

(C) 2-Ethoxy-3-methoxypentan-3-one. (D) None of the above
9. The correct structure of 3-Formyl-5-oxocyclohex-3-enecarbonyl chloride is :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
10. Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

O NH2
HC–CH–CH–COOH
COOH
(A) 2-Amino-3-Formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid (B) 2-formyl-3-amino butane-1,4-dioic acid
(C) 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1,4-dioic acid (D) 2-Amino-3-carboxy-4-oxo butanoic acid
11. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is :
(A) 1, 2, 3-Triaminobutane-1, 3-dione (B) 2, 4-Diamino-3-oxobutanamide

(C) 1, 3-Dioxobutane-1, 2, 4-triamine (D) 1, 3, 4-Triaminobutane-2, 4-dione
12. IUPAC name of the following molecule is
COOH
Br
COOH
(A) 2-Bromobenzene-1,4-dioic acid
(B) 3-Bromobenzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid
(C) 2-Bromobenzene-1,4-dicarboxylic acid
(D) 3-Bromobenzene-1,6-dicarboxylic acid
13. IUPAC name of picric acid is
(A) 2,4,6-Trinitrobenzene carboxylic acid (B) 2,4-Dinitrobenzene carboxylic acid
(C) 2,4,6-Trinitrophenol (D) 2,4-Dinitrophenol
14. Which one of the compound is not isomer of others ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15. ,
Relation between above compounds is:

(A) Position isomers (B) Chain isomers (C) Identical (D) Functional isomers
16. What is the number of all (structurally isomeric) alkynes with molecular formula C6H10.
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 9
17. Number of structurally isomeric ethers with molecular formula C5H12O.
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
18. How many structural isomers are possible when one of the hydrogen is replaced by a chlorine atom in
anthracene ?
(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 6
19. The number of structurally isomerc tribromo derivatives possible for benzene are :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
PART- 2: ONE OR MORE THAN ONE OPTIONS CORRECT TYPE
1. All the members of a homologus series have same
(A) Functional group (B) Empirical formula
(C) General formula (D) All of these
2. The pair of compounds having the same general formula.
(A) and (B) and
(C) and (D) and H—CC—CC—H
3. Which of the following IUPAC names are correct.
(A) (B)
3-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane 1-Ethyl-3-methyl-5-propylcyclohexane
(C) (D)
2-Bromo-1-chloro-4-fluorocyclohexane 1-Bromo-4-chloro-3-fluorocyclohexane
4. The compound with only primary hydrogen atoms is/are :
(A) Hexamethylcyclopropane (B) Neohexane
(C) Tetramethylbutane (D) Hexamethylbenzene
5. Which of the following is/ are incorrect IUPAC name/ (s) :
(A) 2-Methylbutan -3-one
(B) 3-Ethenylpent-1-en-4-yne
OH
CH3
(C) 3- (2-Aminoethyl)-2-methylcyclohexan-1-ol
CH2CH2NH2
(D) 4-Methyl-3-oxopentan-2-ol
6. Which of the following IUPAC names are correct.
(A) 2-Methylcyclopentanecarboxamide.
(B) Cyclohexanoyl chloride.
(C) 2-Methylcyclobutanecarbonitrile
(D) Methyl 2-bromocyclohexanecarboxylate
7. Which of the following IUPAC names are incorrect.
(A) (B)
Methyl-3-nitrobenzenecarboxylate Ethyl 3-phenylbenzene-1-carboxylate
(C) (D)
Ethyl 2–methyl-2-(3–nitrophenyl)ethanoate 1, 1, 1-Trichloro-2, 2-di(4-chlorophenyl) ethane

8. Which of the following is the correct relationship ?
NH2
NHCH3 CH2 – CH2 – NH2 CH2 – NHC2H5
CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3

CH3
I II III IV
(A) I & II are functional isomers. (B) II & IV are metamers.

(C) I & IV are position isomers. (D) I & III are chain isomers.
9. Which of the following are functional isomers of methyl ethanoate ?
O O O
|| || ||
(A) CH3 – CH2 – COOH (B) CH3 C (C) CH3 – O – CH 2 – C – H (D) CH2 – C – CH3
CH H |
| OH
OH
10. Which of the following can be the isomer(s) of C8H8O :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
PART- 3: SINGLE OR DOUBLE DIGIT INTEGER TYPE

1. A hydrocarbon (R) has six membered ring in which there is no unsaturation. Two alkyl groups are attached
to the ring adjacent to each other. One group has 3 carbon atoms with branching at 1st carbon atom of chain
and another has 4 carbon atoms. The larger alkyl group has main chain of three carbon atoms of which
second carbon is substituted. Number of 2° carbons in R are :
2. Number of correct names in the given substituents are :
(a) (b) (c)
Ethylmethyl 1-Methylpropyl 2,3-Dimethylpropyl
(d) (e) = CH–CH3 (f)

2,3-Dimethylbutyl Ethylidene 2-Methylethenyl
(g) –C CH (h) –CH2 –CH=CH 2 (i) –CH2 –C CH

Ethynyl 2-Propenyl Prop-1-ynyl
3. The number of compound(s) in which carbon atom of functional group can be counted in main chain
is/are :
(a) (b) (c)
(d) (e) (f)
4. What is the degree of unsaturation in a compound with molecular formula C9H6N4?

5. The no. of isomeric pairs with correct relationship specified are :
(a) & position isomers
(b) & Metamers
(c) & Functional isomere
(d) & Position isomers
(e) & Position isomers
(f) & Functional isomers
(g) & Functional isomers
6. How many structurally isomeric dibromo butanes are possible.

7. How many number of all structurally isomeric dienes with molecular formula C5H8 are possible :
8. How many structural alkenes of formula C2FClBrI are possible :
9. How many aromatic benzene ring containing isomers of formula C8H10 are possible :
10. How many tetramethyl benzene are possible :
11. How many structurally isomeric cyclic isomers of molecular formula C3H7N are possible :
12. The number of structurally isomeric ketones with molecular formula C6H12O are :
13. The number of structurally isomeric esters with molecular formula C5H10O2 are.
PART- 4: COMPREHENSION
Comprehension # 1 (Questions 1 to 2)
There are three isomeric compounds P, Q, R with molecular formula C4H6O3. Compound P is a saturated
hydroxy carboxylic acid. Compound Q is a symmetrical anhydride while R is an aldehydic ester.
1. Which of the following is P ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Which of the following is the metamer of Q ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
PART- 5: COLUMN MATCHING

1. Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
(A) and (p) Homologs
(B) and (q) Functional isomers.
(C) and (r) Chain isomers.
(D) and (s) Have same general formula

Column-I (Benzene derivative molecular formula) Column-II (No. of aromatic
structural Isomers)
(Here  X, Y, Z monovalent substituents)
(A) C6 H4X2 (p) 5
(B) C6 H4XY (q) 3
(C) C6H4X3 (r) 4
(D) C6H3X2 Y (s) 6
(E) C6H3XYZ (t) 10
EXERCISE-5
* Marked Questions may have more than one correct option.

1. Write IUPAC name of the following [IIT-JEE 2004]
2. Write IUPAC name of the following [IIT-JEE 2005]
3. The total number of cyclic isomers possible for a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C4H6 is / are :
[IIT-JEE 2010]
4. In allene (C3H4), the type(s) of hybridisation of the carbon atoms is (are) : [IIT-JEE 2012]
(A) sp and sp3 (B) sp and sp2 (C) only sp3 (D) sp2 and sp3
5. The IUPAC name(s) of the following compund is (are) [JEE Advanced 2017]
H 3C Cl
(A) 1-Chloro-4-methylbenzene (B) 4-Chlorotoluene

(C) 4-Methylchlorobenzene (D) 1-Methyl-4-chlorobenzene
6. Total number of isomers considering both structural and stereoisomers, of cyclic ethers with the
molecular formula C4H8O is__________ [JEE Advanced 2019]
PART - 2 : PRACTICE PROBLEMS (JEE ADVANCED)
SECTION-1 : (Only One option correct Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which Only ONE option is correct.
1. How many position isomers are possible for chlorophenol ?

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
2. IUPAC name of is
(A) 5-ethenylcyclopenta-1,3-diene (B) 3-ethenylcyclopenta-1,4-diene

(C) 1-ethenylcyclopenta-2,4-diene (D) 2-ethenylcyclopenta-1,3-diene
3. How many carboxylic acid structure isomers are possible with C5H10O2 ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 8
4. Which of the following is correct IUPAC name
(A) 2-Bromo cyclohex-5-ene carbaldehyde
(B) Ethyl-2-vinyl pentanoate
(C) 5-Bromo-3-chlorohept-3-ene
(D) 2-Ethenylhexa-1,5-diene
5. When X group is replaced by –CN, then the IUPAC name of the compound below is :
(A) 2-Methylpentane-3-nitrile (B) 3-Cyano-2-methylpentane

(C) 2-Ethyl-3-methylbutanenitrile (D) 2-Methylpentane-3-carbonitrile
6. Correct IUPAC name of following compound is
(A) 2-Amino-3-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic anhydride

(B) 3-Amino-2-formyl butane-1, 4-dioic anhydride
(C) 3-Amino-2-oxobutane-1, 4-dioic anhydride
(D) 2-Formyl-3-amino butane-1, 4-dioic anhydride
O
||
7. Me – O – C – Me and Et – O – CH = O are :
(A) Functional isomers (B) Metamers (C) Positional isomers (D) Chain isomers
8. Number of structurally isomeric carbonyl compounds possible with molecular formula C5H10O are :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
Section-2 : (One or More than one options correct Type)
and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.
9. Which of the following statements are incorrect for aniline.

(A) Compound is heterocyclic hydrocarbon.
(B) Number of  bonds are 8.
(C) Degree of unsaturation of the compound is 3
(D) It contains functional group amine
10. Select correct IUPAC name
(A) Methane-1,1,1,1-tetracarboxylic acid (B) 5-Carbonyl-heptane-1,7-dioic acid
(C) 2-Chloro ethanoyl chloride (D) 1-Bromo-3-fluoro-4-methyl cyclohexane
11. Which of the following IUPAC name(s) is/are incorrect :
(A) 4-Chloro-3-methyl cyclopentanol (B) 1-Amino-3-bromohexan-1-one
(C) 4-chloro-3-methylcyclohexane carboxylic acid (D) 3-Bromo-1-methylhexan-1-ol
12. Which of the following represent correct pair of homologous ?
(A) & (B) Me–OH & MeCH2CH2OH
(C) & (D) CH3–CH2–NH2 &
13. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) :
(A) & are functional isomers to each other
(B) & are position isomers to each other
(C) & are chain isomers to each other
(D) & are metamers of each other..

14. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) :
(A) The number of structural isomers for molecular formula C3H8 are 2
(B) The number of structural isomers for molecular formula C5H12 are 3
(C) The number of structural isomers for molecular formula C6H14 are 5
(D) The number of benzene ring containing structural isomers for molecular formula C6H4BrCl are 4
Section-3 : (Single/ Double Integer Value Correct Type.)

This section contains 6 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer
from 0 to 9 (both inclusive)
15. Number of functional groups present in the following compounds are :
16. The no. of amine(s) with correct IUPAC name is/are
(a) (b) (c)
N,N-Dimethyl-2-methylethanamine 2-Methylpropanamine N-Ethyl-N-Phenylbenzenamine
(d) (e)
3,4,4-Trimethylpentane-3-amine N-Propyl-2-methylethanamine
(f) (g)
3-Ethylamino-2-methylcyclohexan-1-ol (2-Methyl) N-ethyl-N-isopropyl propanamine

17. The no. of compound with correct IUPAC name is/are :
(a) (b)
2-Carboxyphenol 3-Ethyl-4-chloro-5-hydroxybenzenecarbonitrile
(c) (d)
3-Formyl-5-nitrobenzenecarboxylic acid 1-Hydroxy-3-methoxy-4-nitrobenzene
(e) (f) (g)
4-Amino-1-nitrobenzene 3-Methylphenol 2,4,6-Trimethylbenzenecarbonlychloride

18. How many alkynes isomers are formed with molecular formula C4H6 ?
19. Then number of structurally isomeric compound(s) possible with molecular formula C8H18 containing 5
carbons in main chain having methyl group(s) as side chain are
20. The number of possible alkynes (strucutral only) for the compound having molecular formula C3FClBrI is
:
SECTION-4 : Comprehension Type (Only One options correct)
This section contains 1 paragraphs, each describing theory, experiments, data etc. 2 questions
relate to the paragraph. Each question has only one correct answer among the four given options
(A), (B), (C) and (D)
Paragraph For Questions 21 to 22

Compounds having same molecular formula but different connectivity of atoms or groups are called struc-
ture isomers. Structrue isomers are further classify according to their dissimilarities.
21. Which is not the isomer of butanoic acid?
(A) 3-Hydroxybutanal (B) Ethyl ethanoate
(C) 2-Methylpropanoic acid (D) Butane-2,3-diol
22. In the following skelton Z can be, if the molecular formula is C5H10O2 :
CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH3
|
Z
(i) A carboxylic acid (ii) An ester
(iii) Hydroxyaldehyde (iv) Alkanediol
(A) i & ii (B) iii & iv (C) i & iv (D) ii & iii
SECTION-5 : Matching List Type (Only One options correct)

This section contains 1 questions, each having two matching lists. Choices for the correct
combination of elements from List-I and List-II are given as options (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which one is correct
23. List-I List-II
(P) Ph–CH2 –O–CH=O & Ph–O–CH2 –CH=O (1) Chain isomers
(Q) & (2) Position isomers
(R) & (3) Functional isomers
(S) & (4) Metamers
Code:
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 3 1 2 4 (B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 2 2 3 (D) 3 1 1 3
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART-1
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D)
15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B)
PART-2
1. (AC) 2. (ABD) 3. (ABC) 4. (ACD) 5. (ABD)
6. (ACD) 7. (CD) 8. (ABD) 9. (ABCD) 10. (BCD)
PART-3
1. 5 2. 5 3. 1 4. 9 5. 4 6. 6 7. 6
8. 3 9. 4 10. 3 11. 4 12. 6 13. 9
PART-4
1. (D) 2. (B)
PART-5
1. (A  p,s) ; (B  q,s,t) ; (C  r,s,t) ; (D  q,s,t)
2. (A  q) ; (B  q) ; (C  q) ; (D  p) ; (E  t)
EXERCISE-5
PART-1
1. 3–Aminobenzoic acid
2. 4–Methylbenzenesulphonic acid
3. 4 4. (B) 5. (AB) 6. 10
PART-2
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (B)
8. (C) 9. (ABC) 10. (AC) 11. (AB) 12. (BC) 13. (ABD)
14. (BC) 15. 6 16. 4 17. 2 18. 2 19. 4 20. 4
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (D)
Structure Identification & POC

EXERCISE-4
1. Which of the following alkyne will gives 3-Ethyl heptane on catalytic hydrogenation ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. An alkane with the molecular formula C7H16 forms seven monochlorinated products. The name of the alkane is
(A) Heptane (B) 2-Methylhexane (C) 3-Methylhexane (D) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
3. How many products (structural isomers only) are formed by monochlorination of given compound ?
CH3
CH3 CH3
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
Ozonolysis
4. An alkene (A)   , A is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5.
Compound 'X' is :
(A) 1-Methylcyclopropene (B) 1, 4-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene
(C) 1, 4-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,3-diene (D) 1, 2-Dimethylcyclohexa-1,4-diene
6. The chemical reactions of an unsaturated compound ‘M’ are given below. Determine the possible structural
formula of ‘M’
(M)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7. For the following reactions sequence
OHC CHO
O3
Zn/H2O
The structures of X and Y are :
X Y X Y
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Cu2Cl2
8. Red precipitate NH4OH
P(C5H8) Ozonolysis 2-Methylpropanoic acid + compound (Q)
structure of P can be -
(A) CH3–CH2 –CH2 –CCH (B)
CH3
(C) CH3 CC–CH2 –CH3 (D) CH 3–CH–CH=CH 2
CH3
9. Compound A (C3H5N) gives precipitate with Tollen’s reagent and H2 gas is also evolved on addition of Li
metal. Compound A can be :
(A) CH3 – CH2 – C  N (B) H – C  C – NH – CH3
(C) CH3 – CH2 – N C (D) CH2 = C = N – CH3
10. Compound ‘A’ (C16H16) on ozonolysis gives only one product ‘B’, (C8H8O). ‘B’ gives positive Iodoform
test and forms sodium benzoate as one of the product. Identify the structure of ‘A.
CH3 Ph
| |
(A) Ph – CH2 – CH = CH – CH2 – Ph (B) CH3  C  C  Ph
CH3
|
(C) Ph  C  C  Ph (D) Ph  CH  C – CH2  Ph
| |
CH3 CH3
11. I and II are homologues. These can be distinguished by using :
(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) 2, 4 – DNP (C) Baeyer’s reagent (D) I2 + NaOH
12. Observe the following compound and select +ve & – ve test respectively.
(A) + + + – (B) + + + + (C) + – + – (D) + – – +

13. A alkene on ozonolysis give only one product(X). X does not respond with Tollen’s reagent and NaOI but
give yellow precipitate with 2,4-DNP, The structure of alkene can be-
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. Which of the following amine does not react with Hinsberg's reagent ?
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) (CH3 CH2)2NH (C) (CH3CH2)3 N (D) All of these
15. Aromatic primary amines can be distinguished from aliphatic primary amines by
(A) Tollen's test (B) Action on red litmus paper
(C) Azo dye test (D) Action with dil. HCl
16. Lassaigne’s test for the detection of nitrogen will fail in the case of
(A) (B)
(C) NH2 –NH2.HCl (D) NHNH2 .HCl
17. The sodium extract of an organic compound on treatment with FeSO4 solution, FeCl3 and HCl gives red
solution. The Red colour of
(A) Fe(CN)3 (B) K4[Fe(CN)6 ]3 (C) Fe(CNS)3 (D) Fe2S
18. A unsaturated hydrocarbon (P) on reductive ozonolysis produces a dicarbonyl compound (Q). (Q) can
form precipitate with 2, 4-DNP but no with Tollen’s reagent. Identify the structure of (P).
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. An organic compound with 68.9% of C and 4.92% of H, is aromatic and gives CO2 with NaHCO3. The
organic compound is :
COOH
O OH O
C HO
(A) OH (B) (C) (D) OH
O
COOH
20. How many structural isomers of molecular formula C5H10O give chloroform with NaOCl ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

1. Which of the following compound is/are react with Na metal & liberate hydrogen gas.
(A) CH3–OH (B) CH3–CCH (C) Ph–OH (D)
2. Which of the following compound gives 1,4-Dimethyl cyclohexane when undergo catalytic hydrogenation.
CH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)

CH3
3. Which of the following will perform iodoform reaction with I2/OH– ?
(A) CH3 COCH2CH3 (B) CH3CONH2 (C) C6 H5COCH3 (D) CH3CHO
O3 / Zn, H2O
4.   (X) + (Y)
Compound (X) and (Y) can be distinguish by
(A) Tollen’s reagent (B) Fehling solution (C) Haloform test (D) 2, 4-DNP Test
5. A compound (X) gives fruity smell. [X] on hydrolysis gives an acid and alcohol. Acid give violet colour with
neutral FeCl3 while alcohol give yellow precipitate on boiling with I2 and NaOH. (X) can be :
Hydrolysis
[Hint : R–C–OR'    R–COOH + R’–OH]
O
O–CH2–CH3 OH OH OCH3
COOH COOC2H5 COOCH3 COOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. Formic acid and Acetaldehyde can be distinguish by

(A) I2 + NaOH (B) Tollen’s reagent (C) Fehling solution (D) 2,4-DNP test
7. Correct statement(s) about is/are
(A) It gives coloured solution with neutral FeCl3 solution.

(B) It liberates H2 gas with Na metal.
(C) It gives positive Iodoform test.
(D) It forms sweet smelling compound with alcohols.
8. Correct statment(s) about is /are :
3
(A) librate mole of H2 on treatment with Na. (B) Positive test with FeCl3
2
(C) Positive test with NaHCO3 (D) Positive test with tollen's reagent
1. How many isomeric alkynes on catalytic hydrogenation gives 3-Ethyl-4-methylheptane ?
2. Find the number of structural isomers of fully saturated cycloalkane of molecular formulae C6H12 which
give three monochloro structural products.
3. How many of the following compounds decolorise Br2 water solution ?
(I) (II) (III) Me – C  C – Me (IV)
(V) (VII) ` (VIII) Me – CH = CH – Et (IX)
4. How many structures possible for a compound with the molecular formula C6H12O which can give positive
iodoform and 2,4-DNP test.
5. Among the following the number of compounds which react with Fehling’s solution is :
O O
|| ||
, H3C – C – H , H C – CH – C – H , ,
3 2
, HCHO , HCOOH , CH3COCH3 .
6.
Calculate sum of number of products formed in the reaction a, b and c.

7. How many no. of active Hydrogen atoms are present in a compound (mol.mass 90) 0.45 g of which when
treated with Na metal liberates 112 ml of the H2 gas at STP.
8. In the Lassaigne’s test, one of the organic compound X gives blood red colour with FeCl3. Compound X,
when fused with sodium metal forms compound Y. Molecular mass of compound Y is
Comprehension # 1
O3
M + smallest aldehyde
Zn, H2O
CH2=CH–C=C–CH=CH2
H2
H3C CH3 N
Ni
1. Product M cannot respond with :
(A) 2, 4-DNP (B) Ammonical silver nitrate
(C) Sodium hypoiodite (D) Sodium bicarbonate
2. Number of moles of ozone used for one mole of the given unsaturated hydrocarbon ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
3. How many total monochloro structural isomers obtained on chlorination of product (N).
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

1. Match the column
2. Match the compounds of column – I with the reagent of column – II, which can distinguish between the
compounds of column I
Column – I Column – II
(A) (p) Tollen’s reagent
(B) , (q) I2/NaOH
(C) , (r) Lucas reagent
(s) neutral FeCl3
(D) , (t) 2,4–DNP
EXERCISE-5
1. Four isomeric para-disubstituted aromatic compounds A to D with molecular formula C8H8O2 were given
for identification. Based on the following observations, give structures of the compounds. [JEE 2002]
(i) Both A and B form a silver mirror with Tollen’s reagent; also B gives a positive test with FeCl3
solution.
(ii) C gives positive iodoform test.
(iii) D is readily extracted in aqueous NaHCO3 solution.
2. In conversion of 2-butanone to propanoic acid which reagent is used. [JEE 2005]
(A) NaOH, NaI / (B) Fehling solution (C) NaOH, I2 / (D) Tollen's reagent

1. An organic compound “A” of molecular weight 120, gives Tollen’s reagent test and 2,4-DNP test but no
Iodoform with I2/OH. The compound “A” may be –
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Phenyl methyl ketone
(C) 2-phenyl ethanal (D) 1-phenyl ethane
2. A hydrocarbon on oxidative ozonolysis produces Oxalic acid and Butanedioic acid. Its structure is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. Farnesene is a compound found in the waxy coating of apples. On hydrogenation it gives 2,6,
10-Trimethyl dodecane. On ozonolysis it gives one mole acetone, one mole of formaldehyde, one mole of 2-
Methylpentanedial and one mole of 4-Oxopentanal. The structure proposed for Farnesene may be
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
4. A compound P(C5H6 ) gives positive Bayer test and on hydrogenation form a hydrocarbon B(C5H10 )
which gives only one monochloro product. The compound 'P" is.
(A) (B) (C) (D) CHC–CH2–CH=CH2
5. ‘X’ compound (C4H8O) decolorises bromine water & gives instant turbidity with lucas reagent. When ‘X’
react with I2 & NaOH it give yellow ppt Identify ‘X’.
O CH3
(A) CH3–C–CH2–CH3 (B) CH 3–CH–CH=CH 2 (C) CH 3–C–CH 3 (D) CH 3–HC=CH–CH 2
OH OH OH
6. Compounds I and II can be distinguished by using reagent.
() (II)
4–Hydroxy–4–methylpent–2–enoic acid 5–Hydroxypent–2–ynoic acid
(A) NaHCO3 (B) Br2 / H2O
(C) HCl / ZnCl2 (anhydrous) (D) Cu2Cl2 / NH4OH
7. Which of the following test will not be given by (Squaric acid)
(A) Br2 water test (B) 2, 4-DNP test (C) Neutral FeCl3 (D) Tollen’s test

and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.
8. Which of the following compounds after complete hydrogenation will form three monochloro structural
isomeric products ?
C  CH
(A) (B) (C) (D) |
HC  C – CH – C  CH
9. A organic compound having molecular formula C3H4, react with sodium metal to give a colourless and
odourless gas. Select the correct statements about organic compound.
(A) It gives Bromine water test
(B) It reacts with Bayer’s reagent
(C) It reacts with Tollen’s reagent
(D) It reacts with Ammonical cuprous chloride.
10. Compound P Liberates H2 gas with Na metal. P gives white precipitate with tollen’s reagent, there is no
response towards Lucas reagent and compound Q gives instant turbidity with anhydrous ZnCl2 / HCl, and
with sodium metal 1 mole of compound Q liberates 11.2 litre H2 gas at STP. Find the structural formula of
compound P and Q.
O CH3
|| |
(A) P is CH2  CH  C  H (B) Q is CH3  C  CH2  O  CH3
|
OH
CH3
|
(C) P is CH3 – O – C  C – H (D) Q is CH3  C  CH  CH3
| |
OH OH
CHO
(1) O3
CH3–CH
(2) Zn/H2O
11. CHO
C8H12
(X) H2/Ni
Y
True statements is/are
(A) Structure of X is
(B) Structure of X is
(C) Y on monochlorination produce 3 monochloro structural products.

COOH
(D) Oxidative ozonolysis product of X is CH 3–CH
COOH
O3
12. C8H16O6(P) C4H8O4(Q) Violet colour ring
Zn, H2O
Structure of P cannot be :
OH
(A) CH2–CH–CH–CH=CH–CH–CH–CH2 (B) HO OH

OH OH OH OH OH OH OH
OH OH
(C) CH2–CH–CH–CH=CH–CH–CH–CH=O (D) HOOC–CH2–CH–CH=CH–CH–CH2–COOH

OH OH OH OH OH OH OH
Section-3 : (One Integer Value Correct Type.)

13. In how many reactions CO2 gas is released out after reaction with NaHCO3
(1) + NaHCO3  (2) + NaHCO3 
(3) + NaHCO3  (4) CH3–CH2–OH + NaHCO3 
(5) CH3–C  C–H + NaHCO3 
14. How many alkenes, alkynes and alkadienes can be hydrogenated to form Isopentane (Including all struc-
tural isomers)
15. How many acyclic structural isomeric carbonyl compound having molecular formula C6H12O can gives
haloform test.
16. Structure of Ascorbic acid is represented as follows.
(Ascorbic acid)
How many of the following reagents can give positive test with ascorbic acid.
2,4-DNP Na Metal HCl + ZnCl2 FeCl3
(II) (III) (IV) (V)
NaOH + Phenopthalein dil.KMnO4 Br2/H2O AgNO3 + NH4OH I2 + NaOH
(VI) (VII) (VIII) (XI) (X)
17. Observe the the following compounds.
O Me
OH CH3 CH3 Ph
CH3–C–OH C
O
CH3 O
(III) (IV) (V)
(I) (II)
O Ph
CH3 O CH3
C H3–CH–CH 2–CH 3 C C Ph–CH–CH 3
OH OH
O O
(VII) (VIII) (XI)
(VI)
Number of compound which can gives positive Haloform test = (x)

Number of compound which can gives positive Lucas reagent test = (y)
Report your answer (x + y)
18. ‘n’ number of alkenes yield 2,2,3,4,4-pentamethyl-pentane on catalytic hydrogenation and ‘m’ number of
monochloro structural isomers are possible for this compound.
Report your answer as (n + m).

(A), (B), (C) and (D)
Comprehension # 1
Aldehyde and ketones may be prepared by reductive cleavage of carbon-carbon double bonds. A particu-
larly useful reagent for this purpose is ozone under reductive conditions results in the formation of carbonyl
compounds.
O / Zn
19. 
3
 Products
H2O
Which of the following product is not formed in above reaction -
O
(A) (B) O O (C) H–C–H (D) CH3–C–H
O O
O / Zn
20. (X) 
HO
 CO2 + CH3–C–H + OHC–C–CHO
3
O O
(X) is
CH 3 H3C
(A) C C (B) C CH CH
H H3C
CH3 C C
(C) C (D)
H
O / Zn
21. 
3
 Products
H2O
Which of the following product is not formed in above reaction -

Products are
OHC–CH2–C–CH2 CHO
(A) H–C–H (B) OHC–C–CH2–CHO (C) (D) H–C–C–H
O O O O
O

This section contains 1 questions, Question has two matching lists. Choices for the correct
22. Column-I Column-II

(P) CH3–CH=CH–CH2 – C –CH3 (1) Bromine water solution decolourised
||
O
(Q) (2) precipitate obtained with AgNO3 + NH4OH
(R) (3) CO2 gas liberated by NaHCO3
(S) (4) Yellow precipitate by 2, 4-DNP
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART-1
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C)
15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (D)
PART-2
1. (ABC) 2. (ABC) 3. (ACD) 4. (AC) 5. (B)
6. (AD) 7. (ACD) 8. (ABCD)
PART-3
1. 3 2. 3 3. 5 4. 4 5. 4 6. 5 7. 2
8. 81
PART-4
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B)
PART-5
1. (A  q) ; (B  s) ; (C  p) ; (D  r)
2. (A) – p,q,t ; (B) – s ; (C) – r,t ; (D) q,r,s.
EXERCISE-5
PART-1
1. (A) (B) (C) (D)
2. (C)
PART-2
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (CD) 9. (ABCD) 10. (BC) 11. (BCD) 12. (BCD) 13. 2
14. 6 15. 4 16. 6 17. 8 18. 4 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (B)
General Organic Chemistry-I

EXERCISE-4
1. The most unlikely representation of resonance structures of p-nitrophenoxide ion is:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. In which delocalisation of positive charge is possible ?

–
NH H H OH O
3 2
N 

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3. Decreasing order of potential energy of the following cations is :
(I) (II) (III)

(A) II > I > III (B) I > II > III (C) III > II > I (D) II > III > I
4. Stability order of the following species ?
(A) > >  (B) > >  (C) > >  (D) > > 
5. In which of the following first resonating structure is more stable than the second ?
(A)  (B) 
(C) CH2=CH–NH2  (D) 

6. Which of the following is incorrect for stability of structures.
O¯ O¯
| |
(A) CH3  CH  CH  CH2 > CH3  C  CH  CH3 (B) <

(C) > (D) CH2  CH  CH  CH  C H2 >
7. Least contributing resonating structure of nitroethene is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. In which of the following resonance is not possible?
(A) CH2 = C = CH2 (B) CH2 = C = CH (C) CH2 = C = CH (D) CH2 = C =
9. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) In the dianion , all the C–C bonds are of same length but C–O bonds are of different length
(B) In the dianion, all C–C bonds are of same length and also all C–O bonds are of same lengths
(C) In the dianion, all C–C bond lengths are not of same length
(D) None of the above
10. The decreasing order of bond length of C = C bond in the following compounds is:
I II III IV
(A) II > I > IV > III (B) III > I > II > IV (C) IV > II > I > III (D) IV > I > II > III
11. The correct order of +M effect of ‘N’ containing functional group on benzene ring, amongst the given
compounds is
(A) I > II > IV > III (B) II > I > III > IV (C) I > II > III > IV (D) IV > III > II > I
12. In which case the -bond pair and  bond pair of electrons both are attracted in the same direction,
(towards same atom.) :
(A) H2C=CH–Cl (B) CH3 –CH2 –NH2 (C) H2C=CH–CH=O (D) H2 C=CH–OCH3
13. The longest C — N bond length in the given compound is :
(A) x (B) y (C) z (D) w

14. H2O2, O3, O2
Among these molecules, the correct order of O-O bond length is
(A) H2O2 > O3 > O2 (B) O2 > O3 > H2O2 (C) O3 > H2O2 > O2 (D) O3 > O2 > H2O2
15. Select the correct order of heat of hydrogenation?
(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I (C) II > III > IV > I (D) II > III > I > IV
16. Stability of -bond in following alkenes in the increasing order is :
CH3–CH = CH – CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) I < III < IV < II (B) I < II < III < IV (C) IV < III < II < I (D) II < III < IV < I
17. does not involve :

(A) –p overlap (B) –* overlap (C) p–p overlap (D) p–d overlap
CH3 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2

CH3
18.
CH3 CH3 CH2

I II III
The heats of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) II > III > I (D) II > I > III
19.
In this molecules, -electron density is more on :

(A) C1 and C3 (B) C2 and C4 (C) C2 and C3 (D) C1 and C4
20.
H
I II III
The aromatic character is maximum in which of these three compounds?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) Same in all
21. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

O
O O
4 3
22.
5 2
1
H
In pyrrole-electron density is maximum on
(A) C2 and C3 (B) C3 and C4 (C) C2 and C4 (D) C2 and C5
23. The correct stability order of given resonating structures is :
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I (C) I = II = III = IV (D) II = III > I = IV
24. If the given compound is planar. Select the correct statement.
(A) The boron is sp2 hybridized and the p–orbital contains an unshared pair of electron
(B) The boron is sp2 hybridized and a hybrid orbital contains an unshared pair of electron.
(C) The boron in sp2 hybridized and hybrid orbital is vacant
(D) The boron is sp2 hybridized and the p–orbital is vacant
25. Which of the following is correct about the following compound
(Naphthalene)
(A) All the C-C bond length are same
(B) C1–C2 bond length is shorter than C2–C3 bond length
(C) C1–C2 bond length is greater than C2–C3 bond length
(D) All the C-C bond length are equal to C-C bond length of benzene
26. The correct order of electron density in aromatic ring of following compounds is :
I II III IV
(A) IV > III > II > I (B) I > II > III > IV (C) IV > II > I > III (D) IV > II > III > I
2
3
27. 1
4
Which of the following statements is true about this molecule?
(A) C1-C2 and C3-C4 bonds are of same length
(B) C1-C2 bond is shorter than C3-C4 bond
(C) C1-C2 bond is longer than C3-C4 bond
(D) C1-C2 and C2-C3 bonds are of same length

1. Which statement is/are true about resonance ?
(A) It decreases the energy of system.
(B) The hybridisation of atoms do not change due to resonance
(C) Resonance hybrid is more stable than any resonating structure.
(D) Resonanting structures can not be isolated at any temperature
2. Which of the following statement is incorrect about resonance ?
(A) The most stable structure explains all the characteristics of a species.
(B) All resonating structures remain in equilibrium.
(C) Resonance hybrid has maximum similarity with most stable resonating structure.
(D) Resonance hybrid is real.
3. In which of the following pairs of compounds, will second structure have more contribution to resonance
hybrid than first ?
(A) & (B) & (C) & (D) &
4. In which of the following pairs of resonating structures first resonating structure is more stable than second?
(A)  (B) 
(C)  (D) 
5. In which of the following compounds delocalisation of electrons and shifting of electron in the same direction?
(A) (B) CH3–NH–NO2
H
|
(C) CH2=CH–CH=CH–NO2 (D) H2N – C  CH2
6.
I II III
The brrier for rotation about the indicated bonds will be maximum in which of these three compounds?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) same in all
7. Which of the following groups cannot participate in resonance with benzene :

(A) – COOH (B) COO (C) – NH3 (D) – COCl
8. Which of the following is/are correct :
(A) is antiaromatic (B) is aromatic
(C) is aromatic (D) is aromatic
9. Which of the following is/are correct statement :
(A) > > e– density
(B) > > e– density
(C) , , all are aromatic
(D) > > Dipole moment
10. The correct orders for bond length are :
(A) (a > a) (B) (b = b)
(C) (c > c) (D) (d > d)

1. Among the given sets , how many of the following not represents the resonating structure :
(i) and H–O–CN

(ii) and H–O–CN
(iii) and
(iv) and H–N=C=O

(v) and
(vi) CH2 = CH–NH2 and
(vii) and
2. How many of the following species can show resonance.
CH2 = CH – Cl , CH2 = CH –CH2– Cl,
3. How many groups (attached with benzene ring) can show +M effect ?
, , , , ,
, , , ,
4. Identify the number of compounds in which positive charge will be delocalised ?
5. In how many of the following cases, the negative charge is delocalised?
.. – CH3
..
6. In how many of the following compounds Hyperconjugation effect is observed -
(A) C6H5–CH = CH2 (B) Ph–CH3 (C)
(D) (E) (F)
(G) (H) (I)
7. How many of the following compounds is/are aromatic ?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(v) (vi) (vii) (viii)
(ix) (x) (xi)
8. Total number of moelcules which are antiaromatic?
+ +
(a) (b) (c) (d)

+
H H
Cyclopropenyl Cyclobutenyl
cation di-cation
(e) (f) (g) Tropylium cation (h)

(Cycloheptatrienyl
cation)
H
H H
(i) (j) (k) H H
H
[18] Annulene
9. Find the number of carbon atoms including the given structure which can have negative change in resonating
structures. (The structure with charge reperating are not accepted)
10. Observe the following compound and write the number of hydrogen atom involved in hyperconjugation ?
11. Find the total number of positions where positive charge can be delocalized by true resonance
. (Excluding the given position)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
Comprehension # 1
Hydrogenation of unsaturated hydrocarbons is an exothermic reaction. Due to hyperconjugation and
resonance the stability of unsaturated hydrocarbons increases and the increase in stability is more due to
resonance. Compound with same number of -bonds and more stability has lower heat of hydrogenation.
Heat of formation is defined as the energy evolved when a molecule is formed from its atoms. For isomers
the more stable compound has higher heat of formation.
1. The correct heat of hydrogenation order is :
(p) 1, 3-Pentadiene (q) 1, 3-Butadiene (r) 2, 3-Dimethyl-1, 3-butadiene (s) Propadiene
(A) p > q > r > s (B) s > q > p > r (C) q > s > p > r (D) s > p > q > r
2. The order of heat of formation of the following molecules is :
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > III > IV > I (C) IV > II > III > I (D) IV > III > II > I

1. Match the following
Coulmn - I Coulmn - II
(Compounds) (Characteristics)
(A) O (p) Mesomeric effect / resonance
(B) Ph–CH=CH–CH3 (q) Inductive effect.
(C) (r) Hyperconjugative effect
(D) (s) Nonpolar
(t) Polar
EXERCISE-5
Single option correct type
1. Write resonating structure of the compound . [JEE-03]
2. Explain why 7-bromo-1, 3, 5-cycloheptatriene exist as an ion while 5-Bromo-1, 3-cyclopentadiene does not
form any ion even in the presence of Ag+ . Explain why ? [JEE 2004]
3. Explain the following observations [JEE 2005]
but not
4. The total number of contributing structures showing hyperconjugation (involving C–H bonds) for the following
carbocation is [JEE-11]
5. Which of the following molecules, in pure form, is (are) unstable at room temperature ? [JEE-12]
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. Among the following, the number of aromatic compound(s) is [JEE(Advanced)-2017]

1. The correct order of increasing bond length of C–H, C–O, C–C and C=C is :
(A) C–H < C=C < C–O < C–C (B) C–C < C=C < C–O < C–H
(C) C–O < C–H < C–C < C=C (D) C–H < C–O < C–C < C=C
2. Which of the following compound(s) is/are an aromatic compounds?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) I, II and III (B) III and IV (C) IV only (D) I, III and IV
3. Which of the following resonating structure of 1-methoxy-1,3-butadiene is most stable :

   
(A) CH2 – CH  CH – CH  O– CH3 (B) CH2  CH – CH – CH  O– CH3
   
(C) CH2  CH – CH – CH – O– CH3 (D) CH2  CH – CH – CH – O – CH3
4. Which of the following has shortest C–Cl bond ?
(A) CH3–Cl (B) CH2=CH–Cl (C) (D) CH2=CH–CH=CH–Cl

5. Some meta - directing substituents in aromatic substitution are given. Which one is most deactivating ?
(A) –SO3 H (B) –COOH (C) –NO2 (D) –CN
6. In which of the following molecules -electron density in ring is minimum :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
7.
The most stable canonical structure of this molecule is :
(A) (B)
(C) (D) All are equally stable
8. Give the correct order of magnitude of heat of hydrogenation of the following :
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I < IV < III < II (B) IV < III < I < II (C) IV < I < III < II (D) IV < I < II < III

This section contains 6 multipole choice questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE are correct.
9. Which of the following pairs have same dipole moment
(A) & (B) &
(C) & (D) &
10. Which is/are the correct order of electron density in aromatic ring?
(A) > > > (B) > > >
(C) < < < (D) > > >
11. In which cases delocalisation of charge is possible?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12. The acceptable resonating structure(s) of the following molecule is/are :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
13.
Among these canonical structures of pyridine, the correct order of stability is/are :
(A) (II = IV) > (I = V) (B) (I = V) > (II = IV)
(C) III > (II = IV) (D) (II = IV) > III
14. Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(A) Contributing structures contributes to the resonance hybrid is directly proportional of their energies.
(B) Equivalent contributing structures make the resonance very important.
(C) Contributing structures represent hypothetical molecules having no real existance.
(D) Contributing structures are less stable than the resonance hybrid.

15. Find total number of the position where positive charge can be delocalized by true resonance.
(Excluding the given position)
16. Find the number of carbon atoms including the given structure which can have negative charge in resonating
structures. (The structures with charge separation are not accptable)
17. In given pairs no. of pairs in which  compound is more stable than .
(i) (ii) >
(iii) (iv) >
(v) > (vi) >
18. How many species out of the following are aromatic?

19. Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
P. 1. Aliphatic Hydrocarbon
Q. 2. Anti aromatic
R. 3. Aromatic
S. 4. Alicyclic Compound
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 3 1 4 2 (B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 3 2 1 4
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART-1
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (C)
8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (A)
15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (D)
22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (B)
PART-2
1. (ABCD) 2. (AB) 3. (ABC) 4. (BC) 5. (BC) 6. (B)
7. (C) 8. (BD) 9. (AD) 10. (ABD)
PART-3
1. 5 2. 8 3. 5 4. 5 5. 5 6. 3 7. 6
8. 3 9. 6 10. 9 11. 2
PART-4
1. (B) 2. (C)
PART-5
1. (A) - p,q,r,t ; (B) - p,q,r,t ; (C) - p,q,r,t ; (D) - p,q,s
EXERCISE-5
PART-1
1.
2. 7-bromo-1, 3, 5-cycloheptatriene on ionisation gives tropylium ion which is aromatic & highly
stable, but ionisation of 5-bromo-1, 3-cyclopentadiene gives 1, 3-cyclopentadienyl cation which is

anti aromatic & unstable. (non existent)
3. In the formation of first product the antiaromaticity due to the presence of three “ ” rings of the
reactant is finished and the product becomes more stable.While in 2nd case the product is thermodynamically
less stable.
4. 6 5. (BC) 6. 5
PART-2
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (C)
8. (C) 9. (ACD) 10. (ABC) 11. (BCD) 12. (AB) 13. (BD)
14. (BCD) 15. 10 16. 7 17. 4 18. 5 19. (A)
General Organic Chemistry-II

EXERCISE-3
PART -1 : SINGLE OPTION CORRECT TYPE
1. Select the most stable intermediates :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2. Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?
(A) CH3 (B) CH3 (C) CH3 – (D)

3. The most stable carbocation is :
(A) (B)
+ +
(C) + (D) +
4. The following carbocation rearranges to
CH3 CH3
|  |
CH2  C  C  C H  CH  CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(A) (B)
CH3 CH3
 | |
(C) (D) CH2  C  C  CH  CH  CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
5. CH3
 CH3
Rearrangement in this carbocation predominantly leads to
 
(A) CCH 3 (B)

CH 3 CH3
CH3
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
6. Arrange the following carbanions in decreasing order of stability :
Head Office : D-3221, Indira Nagar Near Munsipulia, Lucknow (U.P) - 226016 – Contact No. : 0522-4954072 / 9935552255 38
(A) III > II > IV > I (B) III > II > I > IV (C) III > I > II > IV (D) II > III > I > IV
NO2
NO2 NO 2
7. 
 NO2 NO2
 NO2
I II III
Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbanions?
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) I > III > II (D) III > I > II
8. Correct decreasing stability order of following carbanions :
I II III IV
(A) III > IV > II > I (B) IV > II > III > I (C) IV > III > II > I (D) III > II > I > IV

 
CH3
9.
CH3
CH3
I II III
Which of the following orders is correct for the stability of these carbanions?
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) II > I > III (D) II > III > I
10. Which of the following difluorocarbenes is more stable?
(A) CF2 (singlet) (B) CF2 (triplet)
(C) Both are equally stable (D) Stability of carbenes is unpredictable.

11. Write the order of K a1 values of following acids :
(I) (II) (III)

(A) II > III > I (B) I > III > II (C) III > II > I (D) II > I > III
12. The acid strength order is :
(A) I > IV > II > III (B) III > I > II > IV (C) II > III > I > IV (D) I > III > II > IV
13. (X) (C6H3ClBrCOOH) are a dihalosubstituted benzoic acids. The strongest acid among all isomers is -
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. The order of acidity of the H-atoms underlined in the following compounds is in the order :
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) IV > II > I > III (B) II > IV > III > I (C) III > IV > I > II (D) I > III > II > IV
15. Most acidic hydrogen is present in :
(A) (B) (C) (CH3CO)3CH (D) (CH3 )3COH
16. The correct orders are :
(A) > Acid strength
(B) > Acid strength
(C) > Basic strength
(D) > Boiling point
17. Correct basic strength order is :

NH2 NH2 NH – Et NH2
Et NO2
p q r s
(A) r > q > p > s (B) r > p > q > s (C) q > r > p > s (D) r > q > s > p
18. The order of basic strength of the given basic nitrogen atoms is :
(A) III > II > I > IV (B) III > I > II > IV (C) I > III > II > IV (D) II > III > I > IV
19. In the labelled N-atoms which is correct basic strength order :
(A) 2 > 1 > 3 (B) 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 2 > 3 > 1 (D) All are equally basic
20. Choose the strongest base among the following :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
21. Select the basic strength order of following molecules ?
(A) III > II > I (B) II > III > I (C) I > III > II (D) III > I > II
22. Which is the weakest base among the followings ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. Observe the following sequence of reactions :
+ CH3NH2 
 + + CH3NH2 +
(1)
Select the correct option regarding the relative basic strength (Kb) :
(A) > CH3  C  NH2 (B) > CH3  C  NH2

NH NH
(C) CH3  C  NH2 > CH3NH2 (D) CH3NH2 >

NH
24. Order of Ka which can be predicted by following reaction is :
NaNH2
–NH3
(A) NH3 > Ph3CH > C2H2 > H2O (B) H2O > HC  CH > Ph3CH > NH3
(C) HC  CH > H2O > Ph3CH > NH3 (D) Ph3CH > HC  CH > H2O > NH3
25. The gases produced in the following reactions are respectively
I : CH3NH2 + NH4Br 
II : CH3SO3H + NaHCO3 
III : CH3  C  NH2 + NaH 
O
(A) NH3, NH3, CO2 (B) NH3, SO2, H2 (C) NH3, SO2, NH3 (D) NH3, CO2, H2
O O
26.
Enol content of this compound is minimum in which of the following solvents?

(A) Hexane (B) Gas phase (C) H2O (D) Solvent has no effect on enol content
O O OH O
27.
Temperature Enol Content

0
10 C x%
0
20 C y%
0
30 C z%
The relation between x, y, z should be
(A) x > y > z (B) z > y > x (C) x > z > y (D) x = y = z
28. Decreasing order of enol content of the following compounds in liquid phase
(A) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4 (B) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 (C) 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 (D) 3 > 1 > 2 > 4

1. Which of the following stability order of anions is/are correct :
(A) II > III > I
  
(B) CH2 – C – H CH2 – C – OCH3 CH2 – CH3 I > II > III
|| || ( III)
O O
(I) ( II)
(C) I > II > III
 
(D) CH3 > CD3
2. Which of the following is/are correct for basic strength :
(A) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > NH3
(B) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
(C) PhNH2 > Ph2NH > Ph3N
(D) > >
3.
Among the following which statement(s) is/are correct :

(A) Both N of pyrimidine are same basic strength
(B) In imidazole protonation take places on N-3.
(C) In purine only one lone pair of N is delocalised.
(D) Pyrimidine, imidazole and purine all are aromatic.
4. Consider the following compounds
O O O O
|| || || ||
O2N – CH2 – C – OH F – CH2 – C – OH Ph – CH2 – C – OH CH3 – CH2 – C – OH
( I) (II) (III) ( IV )
Which statement is/are correct :
(A) I > II > III > IV (Acidic strength order)
(B) I is most acidic because of – M effect of – NO2 group
(C) I is most acidic because of – I effect of – NO2 group
(D) IV is least acidic because of + I Effect.
5. Carbolic acid is less acidic than :
(A) CH3 COOH (B)
(C) (D)
6.
OHb
Observe the compound and choose correct statement :
(A) It has carboxylic acid group (B) It is Ascorbic acid
(C) Hb is most acidic Hydrogen atom (D) Ha is least acidic Hydrogen atom
7. Which of the following reactions favour backward direction ?
(A) + +
(B) + +
(C) + +
(D)
H3C CH3 CH3

CH3
CH3
8. CH3
O O O
I II III
Which among these can exhibit tautomerism?
(A) I and II (B) I and III (C) II and III (D) All of these
9. The correct statement(s) concerning the structures P, Q, R & S is/are
(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(A) Q & S are not resonating structures (B) R & S are resonating structures
(C) P & R are tautomers (D) P & Q are resonating structures
10. Among the given pairs, in which pair second compound has less enol content :
O
(A) and || (B) and
CH3 – C – CH3
(C) and (D) and
PART- 3: INTEGER TYPE (SINGLE OR DOUBLE DIGIT)
1. How many of the following carbocation can undergo rearrangement :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(e) (f) (g) (h)
(i) (j) (k)
2. Consider following compound, which H-atom deprotonated first ?
3. How many of the following are correct orders for Basic Strength :
S1 : > CH3–NH2 >
S2 : > > C2H5–NH2
S3 : > >
S4 : > >
S5 : > > C2H5–NH2
4. How many following compounds are more basic than aniline.
CH3–CH2= NH
5. How many of the following compounds give CO2 on reaction with NaHCO3.
(i) , (ii) HCl, (iii) , (iv) , (v) ,
(vi) , (vii) HCOOH, (viii) C2H5–OH, (ix) CH3COOH , (x)
6. How many of the following are more acidic than HCOOH.

–
(i) CH2 – COOH (ii) CH3–COOH (iii) OOC – CH2 – COOH
|
Cl
(iv) NC–CH2–COOH (v) CH2 – COOH (vi) CH2 – COOH
| |
F NO2
(vii) CH2 – COOH (viii) CH2 – COOH

| |
NH– NH3
7. How many of the following compound have less pKa than benzoic acid :
(i) HCOOH (ii) CH3COOH (iii) (iv)
(v) (vi) (vii) (viii)
8. 90 g of acetic acid react with excess of NaHCO3 then what volume of CO2 will produce at S.T.P. Write
your answer in terms of nearest integer.
9. In how many of the following pairs first will have higher enol content than second.
O
(i) &
(ii) &
(iii) &
(iv) &
(v) &
10. Consider the following compound and write number of enolizable H-atom
Comprehension # 1
Reaction intermediates : Reaction intermediates are short lived species and are highly reactive. They
are formed by heterolytic and homolytic bond fission. There are various types of reaction intermediates in
which the most important are carbocation, carbanion and free radical.
Carbocation is an organic species in which carbon have positive charge and six electrons in its outermost
shell. The stability of carbocation can be increased by positive inductive effect, hyperconjugation and
delocalisation. If -atom with respect to carbocation has one or more lone pair of electrons then lone pair
of electron strongly stabilises the carbocation due to octet completion.
Species in which carbon have negative charge is called carbanion. Carbanion carries three bond pairs and
one lone pair. The stability of carbanion can be increased by negative inductive effect, negative mesomeric
effect and delocalisation.
Free radical is a species which have seven electrons in its outermost shell. The stability of free radical can
be increased by hyperconjugation and delocalisation.
1. Which of the following is the most stable carbanion intermediate ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
2. The stability order of following free radicals is :
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > III > I > IV (C) I > III > II > IV (D) III > II > I > IV
3. The stability order of following carbocations is
(A) I > II > III (B) II > I > III (C) III > I > II (D) II > III > I
Comprehension # 2
Ortho effect is a special type of effect that is shown by o-substituents. This ortho-effect operates at the
benzoic acids irrespective of the polar type. Nearly all o-substituted benzoic acid are stronger than benzoic
acid. Benzoic acid is a resonance stabilised and so the carboxyl group is coplanar with the ring. An o-
substituent tends to prevent this coplanarity.
4. What is the order of Ka of following compounds ?
COOH COOH COOH COOH COOH
NO2 Br Cl F OCH3
    IV V

(A) I > II > III > IV > V (B) II > I > III > IV > V
(C) V > IV > III > I > II (D) III > II > I > V > IV
5. Which among the following will be the strongest acid ?
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV

6. Which of the following is/are correct pKa order ?
(A) > > >
(B) CH3 – COOH > > >
(C) > > >
(D) > > >
Comprehension # 3
The lone pair of amines makes them basic. They react with acids to form acid-base salts. Amines are more
basic than alcohols, ethers and water. When an amine is dissolved in water, an equilibrium is established,
where water acts as an acid and transfer a proton to the amine. The basic strength of an amine can be
measured by basicity constant Kb.
Arylamines are less basic than alkylamines because the lone pair of nitrogen is delocalised with the aromatic
ring and are less available for donation.
Substituted arylamines can be either more basic or less basic than aniline, depending on the substitutent.
ERG substituents, such as –CH3, –NH2 and –OCH3 increases the basicity and EWG substituents, such as
–Cl, –NO2 and –CN decreases basicity. While sp2-hybridized nitrogen atom in pyridine is less basic than
the sp3-hybridized nitrogen in an alkylamine.
7. Select the correct order of Kb.
(A) CH3NH2 > NaOH
(B) Pyridine >
(C) p-Methyl aniline > p-Chloroaniline > p-Amino acetophenone
(D) p-Bromoaniline > p-Nitroaniline > p-Amino benzaldehyde
8. pKb order of the following compound is :
(I) NH2OH (II) NH2NH2 (III) NH3 (IV) H2 O
(A) IV > I > II > III (B) III > II > I > IV (C) I > IV > II > III (D) III > I > II > IV
9. The correct basicity order of various atoms is :
(A) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (B) 2 < 4 < 3 < 1 (C) 3 < 2 < 1 < 4 (D) 3 < 4 < 1 < 2
Comprehension # 4
Observe the following reaction and answer the following questions :
10. The product ‘R’ is :

(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11. The structure of Q1 is :

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

1. Match the column
Column-I (Keto) Column-II (% enol)
(A) CH3 – CH = O (p) 95 %
(B) (q) 76 %
(C) (r) 0.0001 %
(D) (s) 7.2 %
2 Column-I Column-II
(A) NaHCO3 will react with (p)
(B) Na will react with (q)
(C) NaOH will react with (r)
(D) NaNH2 will react with (s)
EXERCISE-5
1. Match the Ka values : [JEE-03]
2. Compound A of molecular formula C9H7O2Cl exists in keto form and predominantly in enolic form ‘B’. On
oxidation with KMnO4’A’ gives m-Chlorobenzoic acid. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’. [JEE–03]
3. Which one of the following two compounds is the stronger acid ? Explain why ? [JEE 2004]
4. The total number of basic groups in the following form of lysine is : [JEE-10]
5. The correct order of acidity of the following compounds is [JEE(Advanced) 2016]
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) III > I > II > IV
(C) III > IV > II > I (D) I > III > IV > II
6. The order of basicity among the following compounds is [JEE(Advanced) 2017]
(A) II > I > IV > III (B) IV > II > III > I
(C) IV > I > II > III (D) I > IV > III > II
7. The correct order of acid strength of the following carboxylic acids is : [JEE(Advanced) 2019]
O O OH
H H OH H3 C
OH O
H
(I) (II) (IV)
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) II > I > IV > III (C) I > III > II > IV (D) III > II > I > IV

1. The stability order of the following anions :
(A) IV > III > II > I (B) I > II > III > IV (C) I > II > IV > III (D) I > III > II > IV
2. The correct pKa order of the following acids is
I II III
(A) I > II > III (B) I > III > II (C) III > II > I (D) III > I > II
3. The preferred sites of protonation in the following compounds are
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
4. Which of the following carbocation is most stable :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. In which pairs first compound is stronger acid than the second ?

(A) Adipic acid, succinic acid (B) Fumaric acid, maleic acid
(C) Pthalic acid, terepthalic acid (D) Picric acid, o-toluic acid
6. Among the following reaction which favours forward reaction ?
(A) EtOH + + PhOH
(B) + +
(C) + CH3–NH2 CH3–CH3 +
(D) + +
7. Which of the following reactions is/are feasible :
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(A) (i) & (ii) (B) (ii) , (iii) & (iv) (C) (i) , (ii) & (iv) (D) (i) , (iii) & (iv)
8. Compare the bond lengths and select the correct option :
(A) x = y = z (B) x > y > z (C) x < y < z (D) x > y = z

9. Which of the following compounds will show tautomerism ?

(A) 2,2- Dimethylpropanal (B) 2,2-Dimethyl-1 nitropropane
(C) Acetyl Acetone (D) Benzophenone
10. Which of the following is correct regarding stability of the following pair of species?
(A)
+ – – +
(B) CH 2=CH–CH–O > CH2–CH=CH–O
(C)
(D) Pent-2-ene > 2-methylbut-2-ene

11. Which of the following is/are correct statement/statements ?
(A) Guanidine is more basic than pyridine because conjugate acid of guanidine has
three equal contributing resonating structure.

(B) Diethylamine is stronger base than triethylamine in aqueous medium.
(C) Ortho-methyl aniline is weaker base than para-methyl aniline.
(D) 2,4,6-Trinitro-N,N-dimethyl aniline is stronger base than 2,4,6-Trinitro aniline.
12. The tautomeric pairs are
(A) Me2C = NOH and Me2CH–N=O (B) CH2=CH–NHCH3 and CH3 –CH=N–CH3
(C) and (D) and
13. In which compounds (II) is more basic than (I)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
14. Which of the following reactions is/are not feasible :

(A) CH3COONa + HCOOH  CH3COOH + HCOONa
(B) CH3COONa + Ph–OH  CH3COOH + PhONa
(C) +  +
(D)

15. The groups which undergoes deprotonation & protonation respectively are x & y then x + y = ?
16. How many of the following compounds will accept from ammonium ion.
Pyridine, Aniline, Pyrrole, Triphenyl amine,
Benzyl amine, Methyl amine, Di-methyl amine, Tri-methyl amine
17. How many of the following compounds react with NaHCO3 and liberate CO2(g)
1. Salicylic acid2. Pthalic acid 3. Picric acid 4. Resorcinol
5. Carbolic acid 6. Aspirin 7. Anisol 8. Tarteric acid
SECTION-4 : Comprehension Type (Only one option correction )

(A), (B), (C) and (D)

Whenever an intermediate carbocation is formed in reaction it may rearranges.
Only those carbocation will rearrange which can produce more stable species. It can be done either by:
(i) Shifting of H, alkyl, aryl, bond (1, 2-shifting)
(ii) Ring expansion
(iii) Ring contraction
18. Most stable rearranged carbocation of is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. In which of the following carbocation rearrangement will not take place?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. Match each List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
Column-I Column-II
P. 1. Zero enolizable H-atom
Q. 2. 7-enolizable H-atom
R. 3. 2-enolizable H-atom
S. 4. 3-enolizable H-atom
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 2 1 4
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-3
PART-1
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. (A) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (D) 21. (A)
22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (B)
PART-2
1. (ABCD) 2. (BCD) 3. (ABCD) 4. (ACD) 5. (ACD)
6. (BC) 7. (BD) 8. (D) 9. (ABCD) 10. (ACD)
PART-3
1. 7 2. 2 3. 4 4. 5 5. 6 6. 6 7. 5
8. 34 9. 3 10. 10
PART-4
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (C)
PART-5
1. (A - s) ; (B - p) ; (C - r) ; (D - q)
2 (A - p,q,s) ; (B - p,q,r,s) ; (C - p,q,r,s) ; (D - p,q,r,s)
EXERCISE-5
PART-1
1. (a) – (ii) (b) – (iii) (c) – (iv) (d) – (i) (e) – (v)
2. A. B.
3. 4. 2 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
PART-2
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (B) 9. (BC) 10. (ABC) 11. (ABCD) 12. (AB) 13. (ABCD)
14. (BCD) 15. x = 5, y =2 so x + y = 7 16. 4 (v, vi, vii, viii) 17. 5 (1, 2, 3, 6, 8)
18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (A)
Periodic Table & Periodicity

EXERCISE-4
1. The statement that is not correct for periodic classification of elements in Modern periodic table is :
(A) The properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers.
(B) Non-metallic elements are less in number than metallic elements.
(C) For transition elements, the 3d-orbitals are filled with electrons after 3p-orbitals and before 4s-orbitals.
(D) The first ionisation enthalpies of elements generally increase with increase in atomic number as we go
along a period.
2. Which of the following is true about the element 33As according to Modern periodic table :
(A) It is a 5th period element. (B) It is a p-block element.
(C) It belongs to 16th group. (D) It is one among typical elements.
3. Which of the following contains atomic number of only s-block
(A) 55,12,18,53 (B) 13,33,54,83 (C) 3, 20,55,87 (D) 22,33,55,66
4. Screening effect is not observed in :
(A) He+ (B) Li2+ (C) Be3+ (D) In all cases
5. Which of the following have higher Zeff than Fluorine.
–
(A) Cl (B) O (C) F (D) none of these
6. The oxidation number that iron does not exhibit in its common compounds or in its elemental state is :
(A) 0 (B) +1 (C) +2 (D) +3
7. Which of the following can show +7 oxidation state ?
(A) Mn (B) F (C) In (D) N
8. Which of following does not exist :
(A) TlI3 (B) PbF4 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
9. Elements of which period show maximum inert pair effect :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
10. When the following five anions are arranged in order of decreasing ionic radius, the correct sequence is :
(A) Se2–, I–, Br–, O2–, F– (B) I– , Se2–, Br– , F–, O2–
2– – – – 2–
(C) Se , I , Br , F , O (D) I–, Se2–, Br–, O2–, F–
11. In which of the following compounds, manganese shows maximum radius ?
(A) MnO2 (B) KMnO4 (C) MnO (D) K3 [Mn(CN)6 ]
12. Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation enthalpy ?
(1) Be+ > Be (2) Be > Be+ (3) C > Be (4) B > Be
(A) 2, 3 (B) 3, 4 (C) 1, 3 (D) 1, 4
13. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg, and K, the correct order of their metallic character is :
(A) B > Al > Mg > K (B) Al > Mg > B > K
(C) Mg > Al > K > B (D) K > Mg > Al > B
14. Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among the ns2 np5 group on the Pauling scale, but the electron
affinity of fluorine is less than that of chlorine because :
(A) the atomic number of fluorine is less than that of chlorine.
(B) fluorine being the first member of the family behaves in an unusual manner.
(C) chlorine can accommodate an electron better than fluorine by utilising its vacant 3d–orbital.
(D) small size, high electron density and an increased electron repulsion makes addition of an electron to
fluorine less favourable than that in the case of chlorine in isolated stage.
Head Office : D-3221, Indira Nagar Near Munsipulia, Lucknow (U.P) - 226016 – Contact No. : 0522-4954072 / 9935552255 Med-56
15. Which one of the following arrangements represents the correct order of electron gain enthalpy (with
negative sign) of the given atomic species ?
(A) Cl < F < S < O (B) O < S < F < Cl (C) S < O < Cl < F (D) F < Cl < O < S
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(A) The tendency to attract bonded pair of electron in case of hybrid orbitals follow the order : sp > sp2 > sp3
(B) Alkali metals generally have negative value of electron gain enthalpy.
(C) Cs+(g) releases more energy upon gain of an electron than Cl(g).
(D) The electronegativity values for 2p-series elements is less than that for 3p-series elements on account
of small size and high inter electronic repulsions.
1. The group in modern periodic table in which all the elements do not have same number of electrons in their
outermost shell is (considering upto 6th period) :
(A) 13th (B) 11th (C) 9th (D) 18th
2. Element corresponding to which of these/this atomic number belongs to p-block in Modern Periodic Table
(A) 19 (B) 35 (C) 53 (D) 83
3. Which of the following have greater Zeff than Zn :
(A) Cu+ (B) Cu2+ (C) Fe3+ (D) Zn2+
4. Which of the following is/are correct regarding oxidation state of elements in their compounds :
(A) All d-Block elements show multiple oxidation state.
(B) All p-Block elements show multiple oxidation state.
(C) All s-Block elements show single oxidation state.
(D) Some of 18 group elements can show multiple oxidation state.
5. Which of the following elements have + 3 as most popular oxidation state ?
(A) Al (B) Xe (C) Cu (D) Sc
6. Which of the following compounds are found to exist (General formula obtaining) ?
(A) MgF (B) Cu2Cl2 (C) NaF2 (D) K2 O
7. Which of the following show non-zero multiple oxidation state ?
(A) S (B) O (C) Zn (D) H
8. Which of the following pairs of elements show similar set of oxidation state ?
(A) O16, O18 (B) Na, K (C) C, Be (D) Zn, Rb
9. Which of the following elements have their lower oxidation state as more stable oxidation state.
(A) O (B) Pb (C) T (D) Bi
10. Which is/are the correct order/s of atomic radius ?
(A) Li Be > B (D) N > O > F
11. Which is/are the correct order/s of atomic radius ?
(A) Mn > Fe > CO (B) Mn  Fe  Co (C) Sc > Ti > V (D) Zn < Cu < Ni
12. Which of the following orders is(are) correct for size :
(A) Al  Ga (B) Te2– > I– > Cs+ > Ba2+
3+ 6+
(C) Cr < Cr (D) Pd  Pt
13. The ionic radii depends upon in the following factors :
(A) Charge on cation (B) Charge on anion
(C) Shell number of valence shell electron(s) of the ion. (D) Effective nuclear charge
14. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
(A) The second ionization enthalpy of oxygen element is greater than that of fluorine element.
(B) The third ionization enthalpy of phosphorus is greater than that of aluminium.
(C) The first ionization enthalpy of aluminium is slightly greater than that of gallium.
(D) The second ionization enthalpy of copper is greater than that of zinc.
15. Those elements impart colour to the flame on heating in it, the atoms of which require low energy for the
ionisation (i.e. absorb energy in the visible region of spectrum). The elements of which of the following
groups in Modern periodic table will impart colour to the flame ?
(A) 2 (B) 13 (C) 1 (D) 17
16. Which of the following elements will gain one electron more readily in comparison to other elements of
their group ?
(A) S(g) (B) N(g) (C) O(g) (D) Cl (g)
17. Which of the following is/are correct order/s of electron affinity.
(A) N < C < O < F (B) P < Si < S < Cl (C) Si O– (B) P > N– (C) O– > S (D) N– > P
19. Which of the following is correct order of electronegativity :
(A) Cs > Rb > Na (B) Li < Be F > Br
20. Choose the correct statement(s) :
(A) In general more the ionisation energy more will be electronegativity.
(B) Electronegativity increase means metallic character increases.
(C) In general lower will be the ionisation energy, easier will be to remove electron.
(D) Electron affinity of S is less than that of Cl.
PART- 3: SUBJECTIVE QUESITONS
1. Identify the group (in Modern Periodic Table) and valency of a hypothetical element having atomic number
119. If group number is x and valency is y. Give the the value of x + y.
2. An element belonging to 3d series of modern periodic table has spin magnetic moment = 5.92 B.M. in +3
oxidation state. Determine the atomic number of element.
3. An element has atomic number 29. It belongs to x period and y group. Give value of 2x + y :
4. How many of the following have greater Zeff than Silicon atom :
Na , Mg , Al , P , Cl , S , N , O , C, F
5. The most stable oxidation state of chromium is +n, Give the value of ‘n’
6. How many of the following compounds are found to exist ?
BiF5, TI3, PbO2, SnCl2, T2O3, PbI4, As2O3
7. The Lanthanides are characterized by the uniform [+n] oxidation state shown by all the Lanthanides .
What is the value of ‘n’
8. Highest oxidation states shown by Chromium & Manganese are +x & +y respectively. Give the value of
x+y?
9. If internuclear distance between A atoms in A2 is 10Å and between B atoms in B2 is 6Å, then calculate
internuclear distance between A and B in Å. [Electronegativity difference between A and B has negligible
value].
10. Report atomic number of the element having largest size among the following : Ni, Cu, Zn
11. How many of following atoms have maximum ionization energy than boron.
Be, N , P, Ga, S, Mg
12.
Where a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h are 3rd period elements. If difference between atomic number of elements b and
e is x and difference between atomic number of elements c and f is y. What is the value of x – y.
13. Values of IE1, IE2, IE3 of an element are 9.3, 18.2 and 553.8 eV. Predict group number in Modern Periodic
Table.
14. A– (g)  A2+ (g) H = 1100 KJ/mol
2+
A (g)  A (g) H = 1200 KJ/mol
Electron gain enthalphy of A is P × 102 KJ/mol. What is the value of P ?
15. The electron gain enthalpy of a hypothetical element ‘A’ is –3 eV per atom. How much energy in kCal is
released when 10 g of ‘A’ are completely converted to A– ions in gaseous state ?
(Take : 1 eV per atom = 23 kCal mol–1, Molar mass of A = 30 g)
16. What is atomic number of element which have maximum electron affinity in Modern Periodic table.
17. How many of the following elements are more electronegative than Boron.
H, Li, Be, C, N, O, F
Comprehension # 1
In the modern periodic table, elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic numbers which is related
to the electronic configuration. Depending upon the type of orbitals receiving the last electron, the elements
in the periodic table have been divided into four blocks, viz, s, p, d and f. The modern periodic table consists
of 7 periods and 18 groups. Each period begins with the filling of a new energy shell. In accordance with
the Arfbau principle, the seven periods (1 to 7) have 2, 8, 8, 18, 18, 32 and 32 elements respectively. The
seventh period is still incomplete. To avoid the periodic table being too long, the two series of f-block
elements, called lanthanoids and actinoids are placed at the bottom of the main body of the periodic table.
Now answer the following five questions :
1. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to :
(A) s-block (B) p-block (C) d-block (D) f-block
2. The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic configuration :
(A) 7s27p6 (B) 5f146d107s27p0 (C) 4f145d106s26p6 (D) 4f145d10 6s26p4
3. Which of the elements, whose atomic numbers are given below, cannot be accommodated in the present
set up of the long form of the periodic table ?
(A) 107 (B) 118 (C) 126 (D) 102
4. The electronic configuration of the element which is just above the element with atomic number 43 in the
same group is ________:
(A) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2 (B) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s34p6
(C) 1s22s22p63s23p63d64s2 (D) 1s22s22p63s23p63d74s2
5. The elements with atomic numbers 35, 53 and 85 are all ________ :
(A) noble gases (B) halogens (C) heavy metals (D) light metals
Comprehension # 2
It is not possible to measure the atomic radius precisely since the electron cloud surrounding the atom does
not have a sharp boundary. One practical approach to estimate the size of an atom of a non-metallic
element is to measure the distance between two atoms when they are bound together by a single bond in
a covalent molecule and then dividing by two. For metals we define the term “metallic radius” which is
taken as half the internuclear distance separating the metal cores in the metallic crystal. The van der
waal’s radius represents the over all size of the atoms which includes its valence shell in a non bonded
situation. It is the half of the distance between two similar atoms in separate molecules in a solid. The
atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down the group. Same trends are observed in case
of ionic radius. Ionic radius of the species having same number of electrons depends on the number of
protons in their nuclei. Sometimes, atomic and ionic radii give unexpected trends due to poor shielding of
nuclear charge by d- and f-orbital electrons.
Now answer the following three questions :
6. Which of the following relations is correct, if considered for the same element :
(A) rVanderwaal > rCovalent > r Metallic (B) rCovalent > rMetallic > rVanderwaal
(C) rVanderwaal > rMetallic > rCovalent (D) rMetallic > rCovalent > rVanderwaa
7. K+, CI– , Ca2+ , S2– ions are isoelectronic. The decreasing order of their size is :
(A) Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2– (B) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
(C) K+ > Cl– > Ca2+ > S2– (D) S2– > Cl– > Ca2+ > K+
8. Select the INCORRECT option regarding atomic/ionic sizes :
(A) Zn > Cu (B) Pb2+ > Pb4+ (C) Zr  Hf (D) N3– < Al3+
Comprehension # 3
The periodicity is related to the electronic configuration. That is, all chemical and physical properties are a
manifestation of the electronic configuration of the elements.
The atomic and ionic radii generally decrease in a period from left to right. As a consequence, the ionization
enthalpies generally increase and electron gain enthalpies become more negative across a period. In other
words, the ionization enthalpy of the extreme left element in a period is the least and the electron gain
enthalpy of the element on the extreme right is the highest negative. This results into high chemical reactivity
at the two extremes and the lowest in the centre. Similarly down the group, the increase in atomic and ionic
radii result in gradual decrease in ionization enthalpies and a regular decrease (with exception in some third
period elements) in electron gain enthalpies in the case of main group elements.
The loss and gain of electrons can be co-related with the reducing and oxidising behaviour, and also with
metallic and non-metallic character respectively, of the elements.
9. The correct order of the metallic character is :
(A) Al > Mg > Na > Si (B) Na > Mg < Al > Si (C) Na > Mg > Al > Si (D) Al > Mg > Si > Na
10. Considering the elements B, C, N, F, and Si, the correct order of their non-metallic character is :
(A) B > C > Si > N > F (B) Si > C > B > N > F
(C) F > N > C > B > Si (D) F > N > C > Si > B
11. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) Ionisation enthalpies of elements decrease along a period and increase along a group in Modern
periodic table.
(B) In the 3rd period of Modern periodic table, the two most reactive elements are sodium and fluorine.
(C) Fluorine has the least negative electron gain enthalpy among all halogens.
(D) Ionisation enthalpy of Pb is greater than that of Sn.

(Atomic number)
(A) 57 (p) is d-Block or p-Block element
(B) 17 (q) is 4th period element
(C) 19 (r) is violates Aufbou’s principle element
(D) 29 (s) is non metal
(t) is s-Block element
2. Match the characteristics mentioned in column II with the process in column I.
Column-I Column-II
– –
(A) O(g) + e — O (g) (p) Positive Electron gain enthalpy
(B) O–(g) + e– — O2–(g) (q) Negative Electron gain enthalpy
(C) Na–(g) — Na(g) + e– (r) Exothermic
+ –
(D) Mg (g) + e — Mg(g) (s) Endothermic
EXERCISE-5
* Marked Questions may have more than one correct option.

1. The incorrect statement among the following is : [JEE- 1997(Cancelled)]
(A) the first ionization energy of Al is less than first ionization energy of Mg.
(B) the second ionization energy of Mg is greater than second ionization energy of Na.
(C) the first ionization energy of Na is less than first ionization energy of Mg.
(D) the third ionization energy of Mg is greater than third ionization energy of Al.
2. Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing size : Li+, Mg2+, K+, Al3+. [JEE-1997]
3. Fill in the blanks :
Compounds that formally contain Pb4+ are easily reduced to Pb2+. The stability of the lower oxidation state
is due to .................
4. Assertion : F atom has a less negative electron affinity than Cl atom. [JEE-1998]
Reason : Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3p electrons in Cl atom than by 2p electrons
in F atom.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
5. Ionic radii of : [JEE-1999]
(A) Ti4+ < Mn7+ 35
(B) Cl < Cl – 37 – +
(C) K > Cl –
(D) P > P5+
3+
6. The correct order of radii is : [JEE-2000]

(A) N < Be < B (B) F– < O2– < N3– (C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe+4
7. Assertion : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.
Reason : 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s. [JEE-2000]
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
8. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is : [JEE-2001]
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
9. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following : [JEE-2002]
(A) Li– (B) Be– (C) B– (D) C –
10. Statement-1 : Pb4+ compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds [JEE-2008]
Statement-2 : The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
members of the group due to 'inert pair effect'.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
11. Among the following, the number of elements showing only one non-zero oxidation state is :
O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, Ti [JEE 2010]
12. The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is(are) [JEE (Advanced) 2017]
(A) Cr2O3, BeO, SnO, SnO2 (B) Cr2O3, CrO, SnO, PbO
(C) NO, B2O3, PbO, SnO2 (D) ZnO, Al2O3, PbO, PbO2

This section contains 7 Single correct questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C)
1. Which set does not shows correct matching according to Modern periodic table :
(A) Cr = [Ar] 3d5 4s1 ; element belongs to 6th group.
(B) Fe2+ = [Ar] 3d6 ; element belongs to 8th group.

(C) Sc3+ = [Ne] 3s2 3p6 ; element belongs to zero/eighteen group.
(D) All of the above.
2. In which element shielding effect is not possible ?
(A) H (B) Be (C) B (D) N
3. Elements of which block in modern periodic table cannot have –ve oxidation state ?
(A) s (B) d (C) p (D) None of these
4. Which of following ions do not exist together in aqueous solution :
(A) Pb2+, F– (B) Tl3+, I– (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
5. Select correct statement(s) :
(A) Across a transition series (from Cr to Cu), there is only a small change in atomic radius from one
element to another due to very small change in effective nuclear charge.
(B) The rate of decrease in the size across the lanthanide series is less than the across the first transition
series.
(C) Both are correct statements.
(D) None of the statement is correct.
6. Which of the following is the correct order of ionisation enthalpy ?
(A) Te2– < I– < Cs+ < Ba2+ (B) I– < Te2– < Cs+ < Ba2+
2– + – 2+
(C) Te < Cs < I < Ba (D) Ba2+ < Cs+ < I– < Te2–
7. Which is true statement(s) ?
(A) Larger is the value of ionisation enthalpy, easier is the formation of cation.
(B) Larger is the value of electron gain enthalpy, easier is the formation of anion.
(C) Larger is the value of ionisation energy as well as electron affinity, smaller is the Mulliken electronegativity
of atom.
(D) Larger is the Zeff, larger is the size of atom.

8. Which of the following statement is correct for the d-block elements :

(A) They have general electronic configuration (n – 1)d1–10 ns0–2.
(B) They generally exhibit variable valency.
(C) Last electron enters in (n – 1)d sub-shell in them.
(D) They are placed from 3rd to 6th period in modern periodic table.
9. Poor shielding of nuclear charge by d or f- orbital electrons is responsible for which of the following facts
?
(A) Atomic radius of Nb (4d-series) is comparable to that of Ta (5d-series)
(B) The Ist ionisation enthalpy of copper is less than that of zinc
(C) The value of electron gain enthalpy is more negative for sulphur than for oxygen.
(D) The Ist ionisation energy for gold is greater than that of silver.
10. Which of the following element(s) have only one non-zero oxidation state.
(A) Be (B) O (C) F (D) N
11. Which of the following is/are true order(s) ?
(A) B+ < B < B– Size (B)  < Br < Cl < F Electron gain enthalpy
(C) O– – < O– < O+ Zeff (D) Na < Al < Mg < Si Ionisation potential
12. Select the endothermic step(s) :
(A) S–(g) + e–  S2–(g) (B) Ne(g) + e–  Ne–(g)
– –
(C) N(g)  e  N (g) (D) AI (g) AI3+(g) + e–
2+
13. Which of the following has/have no unit ?

(A) Electronegativity (B) Electron gain enthalpy
(C) Ionisation enthalpy (D) Metallic character

14. Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group the atomic numbers of elements placed above and below
Ag in long form of periodic table will be x and y respectively. Give the value of (x + y)/12.
15. What is oxidation states of hydrogen in CaH2 & CH4.
16. Most stable oxidation state of Thallium is +n. What is the Value of n.
17. Total number of elements which have more ionization energy as compare to their next higher atomic
number elements. Li, Be, C, N, O, F, Ne
18. For the gaseous reaction K + F  K+ + F–, H was calculated to be 18.4 kcal/mol under conditions where
the cations and anions were preverted from combining with each other. The ionisation enthalpy of K is 4.3
eV/atom. What is the electron gain enthalpy of F (in eV) ?
If your answer is x report it as –2x.
19. How many elements are more electropositive than Cl.
B, N, O, C, S, P, At, H, Li

(A), (B), (C) and (D)
EA1 value of some group of p-Block elements are given :
a, b, c........... are non radioactive p-Block elements :
20. Select the correct order of atomic radius :

(A) a j > k >  (D) e > f > g
21. Select the correct order of 2nd Ionisation energy :
(A) a < e i > a
22. Choose correct match :
(A) a, b, c, d = Pnictogens (B) e, f, g, h = Chalogens
(C) i, j, k, l = Halogens (D) All of these

23. Match the electronic configurations of the elements given in List-I with their correct characteristic(s) ( i.e.
properties for given configuration) given in List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists.
List-I List-II
P. 1s2 1. Element shows highest negative oxidation state.
Q. 1s2 2s2 2p5 2. Element shows highest first ionisation enthalpy.
2 2 6 2 5
R. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3. Element shows highest electronegativity on Pauling scale.
S. 1s2 2s2 2p2 4. Element shows maximum electron gain enthalpy (most
exothermic).
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 1 2 3 4
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART -1
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D)
15. (B) 16. (D)
PART -2
1. (CD) 2. (BCD) 3. (ABCD) 4. (CD)
5. (AD) 6. (BD) 7. (ABD) 8. (AB)
9. (ABCD) 10. (CD) 11. (BC) 12. (ABD)
13. (ABCD) 14. (AB) 15. (AC) 16_. (AD)
17. (AB) 18. (AB) 19. (BC) 20. (ACD)
PART -3
1. 2 2. 26 3. 19 4. 7 5. 3 6. 6 7. 3
8. 13 9. 8 10. 30 11. 2 12. 0 13. 2 14. 1
15. 23 16. 17 17. 5
PART - 4
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (B)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (D)
PART - 5
1. (A - p,r) ; (B - p,s) ; (C - q,t) ; (D - p,q,r)
2. (A - q,r) ; (B - p,s) ; (C - s) ; (D - q,r)
EXERCISE-5
PART - 1
1. (B) 2. Al3+ < Mg2+ < Li+ < K+ 3. Inert Pair Effect 4. (C)
5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B)
10. (C) 11. 2 12. (AD)
PART - 2
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (ABC) 9. (AD) 10. (AC)
Chemical Bonding
Chemical Bonding
EXERCISE-4

1. In NO3- ion, The number of bond pair and lone pair of electrons present on Nitrozen atom are :
(A) 2, 2 (B) 3, 1 (C) 1, 3 (D) 4, 0
2. How many bonded electron pairs are present in IF7 molecule?
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 5 (D) None of these
3. Which of the following is the electron deficient molecule?
(A) C2H6 (B) SiH4 (C) PH3 (D) BeCl2 (g)
4. Which is not an exception to the octet rule?
(A) BF3 (B) SnCl4 (C) XeF6 (D) ClO3
5. Which of the following structure is the most preferred structure for SO3 ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6. For hydrazoic acid, which of the following resonating structure will be least stable ?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) Both (I) and (III)

7. What is correct order of bond order of Cl–O bond.
(A) ClO4– > ClO3– > ClO2– > ClO– (B) ClO– < ClO2– > ClO3– < ClO4–
(C) ClO3– < ClO2– < ClO4– < ClO– (D) ClO2– < ClP3– < ClO4– < ClO–
8. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi bond formed between two carbon atoms?
(A) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma - bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
(B) Sigma -bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this
regard
(C) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
(D) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol. respectively.
9. Number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are :
(A) one sigma () and one pi () bond (B) one  and two  bonds
(C) one  and one and a half  bond (D) one  bond
10. The number of  and  bonds in dicyanogen (CN)2 are :
(A) 2 + 3 (B) 3 + 2 (C) 3 + 4 (D) 4 + 3
11. The hybridisation of P in phosphate ion (PO43–) is the same as :
(A)  in Cl4– (B) S in SO3 (C) N in NO3– (D) S in SO32–
12. Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?
(a) BCl3 (b) NH3 (c) PCl3 (d) BeF2
The correct answer is -
(A) a, b, d (B) a, b, c (C) b, c (D) c, d
13. The bent or V–shape of the molecule can be resulted from which of the following hybridization.
(A) sp3 (B) sp2 (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
Chemical Bonding
14. sp3d hybridization is considered to be a combination of two hybridization. They are

(A) p3 + sd (B) sp2 + pd (C) spd + p2 (D) none of these

15. The hybrid state of positively charged carbon in vinyl cation (CH2 = C H ) is :
(A) Unpredicatable (B) sp2 (C) sp (D) sp3
16. If the equatorial plane is x–y plane in sp3d hybridisation then the orbital used in pd hybridisation are -
(A) pz and dz2 (B) px and dxy (C) py and dyz (D) none of these
17. A -bonded molecule MX3 is T-shaped. The number of lone pairs of electrons can be
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) none of these
18. Which of the following should have pyramidal shape :
(A) [ClOF2]+ (B) ICl3 (C) [BrCl]– (D) All of these
19. Which of the following molecules has two lone pairs and bond angle (need not be all bond angles) < 109.5°?
(A) SF2 (B) KrF4 (C) Cl4– (D) All of these
20. The correct order of bond angle is :
(A) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < CH4 (B) NH3 < H2S < CH4 < BF3
(C) H2S < NH3 < CH4 < BF3 (D) H2S < CH4 < NH3 < BF3
21. In which of the following molecules are all the bonds not equal?
(A) NF3 (B) ClF3 (C) BF3 (D) AlF3
22. Which of the following is correct order of bond length ?
(A) BF4–< BF3 (B) NO2+ < NO2– (C) CCl4 < CF4 (D) +CH3 > CH4
23. Identify the correct statement :
(A) single N–N bond is stronger than single P–P bond
(B) single N–N bond is weaker than single P–P bond
(C) N N is weaker than PP
(D) None of these
24. In which of the following molecules/species all following characteristics are found ?
(a) Tetrahedral hybridisation
(b) Hybridisation can be considered to have taken place with the help of empty orbital(s).
(c) All bond lengths are identical i.e. all A–B bond lengths are identical.
(A) B2H6 (B) Al2Cl6 (C) BeCl2 (g) (D) BF4 –
25. In which of the following compounds B–F bond length is shortest ?
(A) BF4– (B) BF3  NH3 (C) BF3 (D) BF3  N(CH3)3
26. Which of the following statement is false for trisilylamine ?
(A) Three sp2 orbitals are used for  bonding, giving a plane triangular structure.
(B) The lone pair of electrons occupy a p-orbital at right angles to the plane triangle and this overlaps with
empty p-orbitals on each of the three silicon atoms resulting in -bonding.
(C) The N–Si bond length is shorter than the expected N–Si bond length.
(D) It is a weaker Lewis base than trimethyl amine.
27. Number of antibonding electrons in N2 is :
(A) 4 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
28. Following is the molecular orbital configuration of a diatomic molecule
 2p2y
 1s2 * 1s2  2s2  * 2s2  2p 2x  2
  2pz
Its bond order is
(A) 3 (B) 2.5 (C) 2 (D) 1

29. The bond order of He2 molecule ion is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/4
Chemical Bonding
30. Which species can exist among the following :
(A) B2 (B) Be2 (C) Ne2 (D) He2
31. Among the following which one will have the largest O – O bond length ?
(A) KO2 (B) O2 (C) O2+ [AsF6] – (D) K2O2
32. The correct order in which the O–O bond length increases in the following is :
(A) H2O2 < O2 < O3 (B) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (C) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (D) O3 < H2O2 < O2
33. Which of the following is a wrong order with respect to the property mentioned against each ?
(A) O22– > O2 > O2+ [Paramagnetic moment] (B) (NO)¯ > (NO) > (NO)+ [bond length]
(C) H2 > H2+ > He2+ [bond energy] (D) NO2+ > NO2 > NO2¯ [bond angle]
34. Which of the following option with respect to increasing bond dissociation energies is correct ?
(A) NO < C2 < O2– < He2+ (B) C2 < NO < He2+ < O2–
+ –
(C) He2 < O2 < NO < C2 (D) He2+ < O2– < C2 < NO
35. Pick out the incorrect statement.
(A) N2 has greater dissociation energy than N2+ (B) O2 has lower dissociation energy than O2+
(C) Bond length in N2+ is less than N2 (D) Bond length in NO+ is less than in NO.
36. The species which are diamagnetic :
(A) O2 – (B) NO2 (C) ClO2 (D) N2O4
37. Two types of carbon-carbon covalent bond lengths are present in
(A) diamond (B) graphite (C) C60 (D) benzene
38. In which of the following species peroxide group is not present :
(A) [B4 O5(OH)4 ]2– (B) [S2O8 ]2– (C) CrO5 (D) HNO4
39. Which of the following solids is a good conductor of electricity
(A) (BN)x (B) SiO2 (C) SiC (D) none of these
40. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) S3O9 – contains no S–S linkage. (B) S2O62– – contains –O–O– linkage.
(C) (HPO3)3 – contains P–P linkage (D) S2O82– contains S–S linkage
41. The percentage of s–character in the orbital forming P – S bonds in P4S3 is :
(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 75 (D) 50
42. Indicate the incorrect statement :
(A) Number of hybrid orbitals formed is equal to no. of atomic orbitals involved.
(B) 2px and 2py - orbitals of carbon can be hybridized to yield two new more stable orbitals
(C) Effective hybridisation is not possible with orbitals of widely different energies
(D) The concept of hybridisation has a greater significance in the VB theory of localised orbitals than in the
MO theory.
43. In which of the following compounds B atoms are in sp2 and sp3 hybridisation states ?
(A) Borax (B) Diborane (C) Borazole (D) All
44. S1 : Oxidation number of N in N2O5 is 5
S2 : The anhydride of Hypochlorous acid is Cl2O
S3 : As the electronegativity of central atom in a molecule having same hybridisation state and same
terminal atoms increases, bond angle increases.
S4 : For heteronuclear diatomic species A – B, the bond length decreases as the difference in electronegativity
values increases.
(A) T T T F (B) F T T T (C) F F T F (D) T T F T
45. Among the following compounds the one that is polar and has central atom with sp3 hybridisation is :
(A) H2CO3 (B) SiF4 (C) BF3 (D) HClO2
46. Which of the following are polar
(A) XeF4 (B) SO3 (C) XeOF4 (D) ICl4–
Chemical Bonding
47. Which of the following statemets is true?
(A) The dipole moment of NF3 is zero
(B) The dipole moment of NF3 is less than NH3
(C) The dipole moment of NF3 is more than NH3
(D) The dipole moment of NH3 is zero
48. Which of the following would be expected to have a dipole moment of zero on the basis of symmetry?
(A) SOCl2 (B) OF2 (C) SeF6 (D) ClF5
49. If molecule MX3 has Zero dipole moment, the hybrid orbitals used by M (Atomic No. < 21) are
(A) Pure p (B) sp hybrid (C) sp2 hybrid (D) sp3 hybrid
50. Which of the following are incorrect for dipole moment ?
(A) Lone pair of elements present on central atom can give rise to dipole moment
(B) Dipole moment is vector quantity
(C) PF 5(g) molecule has non zero dipole moment
(D) Difference in electronegativities of combining atom can lead to dipole moment
51. H-bonding is maximum in
(A) C 6H5OH (B) C 6H5COOH (C) CH3CH2OH (D) CH3COCH3
52. Which one of the following does not have intermolecular H-bonding ?
(A) H2O (B) o-nitro phenol (C) HF (D) CH3COOH
53. Give the correct order of initials T or F for following statements. Use T if statement is true and F if it is
false.
S1 : HF boils at a higher temperature than HCl
S2 : HBr boils at lower temperature than HI
S3 : Bond length of N2 is less than N2+
S4 : F2 has higher boiling point than Cl2
(A) T F T T (B) T T F F (C) T T T F (D) T T T T
54. Which of the following has minimum melting point
(A) CsF (B) HCl (C) HF (D) LiF
55. Select the correct statement for the sulphuric acid.
(I) It has high boiling point and viscosity.
(II) There are two types of bond lengths in its bivalent anion.
(III) p-d bonding between sulphur and oxygen is observed.
(IV) Sulphur has the same hybridisation that is of boron in diborane.
(A) II and III only (B) II, III and IV only (C) I, III and IV only (D) III and IV only
56. Which of the following is least volatile ?
(A) HF (B) HCl (C) HBr (D) HI
57. Which of the following is false ?
(A) Van der Waals forces are responsible for the formation of molecular crystals.
(B) Branching lowers the boiling points of isomeric organic compounds due to reduction in the van der Waals force
of attraction.
(C) In graphite, van der Waals forces act between the carbon layers.
(D) Boiling point of NH3 is greater than SbH3.
58. Which of the following contains both electrovalent and covalent bonds ?
(A) CH4 (B) H2O2 (C) NH4Cl (D) none
59. The correct order of the increasing ionic character is :
(A) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BaCl2 (B) BeCl2 < MgCl2 < BaCl2 < CaCl2
(C) BeCl2 < BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 (D) BaCl2 < MgCl2 < CaCl2 < BeCl2
60. Least melting point is shown by the compound :
(A) PbCl2 (B) SnCl4 (C) NaCl (D) AlCl3
Chemical Bonding
61. Increasing order of acidic character is :
(A) SO3 > N2O5 > CO2 > SiO2 (B) SO3 < N2O5 < CO2 < SiO2
(C) SO3 < N2O5 > CO2 < SiO2 (D) SO3 > N2O5 > CO2 < SiO2
62. CuI2 is unstable even at ordinary temperature because :
(A) the Cu2+ ion with a comparatively small radius has a strong polarising power.
(B) the Cu2+ ion with a 17 electron outer shell has weak polarising power.
(C) the I– ion with a larger radius has a high polarisability.
(D) both (A) and (C)
63. Which of the following is observed in metallic bonds ?
(A) Mobile valence electrons (B) Localised electrons
(C) Highly directed bond (D) None of these

1. Find the correct statements regarding SO4–2
(A) Bond order of S–O bond is 1.5 (B) Bond order of S–O bond is 2.5
(C) It violates Octet Rule. (D) All S–O bonds are equivalent.
2. Which of the following Lewis diagram is/are incorrect ?

 H  H H
   |  | |
–
(A) Na  O C l  (B) (C)  H  N  H  [ S]2- (D) H  N  N  H
   |   
 H 
2
3. Which are the exceptions of the lewis octet rule

(A) NO3– and N2O (B) BeH2 and NO (C) KrF2 and ClF3 (D) All of these
4. Which species have same bond order ?

(A) CO3–2 (B) NO3 – (C) NO2 (D) NO
5. In which of the following molecule bonding is taking place in excited state

(A) CH4 (B) BF3 (C) Cl3 (D) PCl3
6. Which statement is correct about hybridization ?

(A) In hybridisation orbitals take part.
(B) In hybridisation electrons take part.
(C) In hybridisation fully filled, half filled or empty orbitals can take part.
(D) Hybridised orbitals only contains bond pair electron.
7. Which of the following represent the given mode of hybridisation sp2–sp2–sp–sp from left to right
(A) H2C=C=C=CH2 (B) HCC–CCH (C) H2C=CH–CN (D) H2C=CH–CCH
8. Which is/are in linear shape ?
(A) NO2 + (B) XeF2 (C) 3– (D) 3+
9. Which is true about NH2–, NH3 ,NH4+ ?
(A) Hybridization of N is same. (B) No. of lone pair of electron on N are same.
(C) Molecular geometry (i.e. shape) is different. (D) Bond angle is same.
10. Which of the following molecule (s) has/have bond angle close to 90º ?
(A) NH3 (B) H2S (C) PH3 (D) ICl3
11. Which of the following is/are electron deficient compounds ?
(A) NaBH4 (B) B2H6 (C) AlCl3 (D) LiAlH4
12. Which of the following have coordinate bonds ?
(A) NH4Cl (B) NaCl (C) O3 (D) Cl2
Chemical Bonding
13. Which compounds are lewis acids ?
(A) AlCl3 (B) BCl3 (C) H2O (D) NH3
14. Which of the following have bond order three ?
(A) O22+ (B) NO+ (C) CN– (D) CN+
15. The species which are paramagnetic is/are :
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) ClO2 (D) N2O4
16. Which of the statement(s) are correct ?
(A) There is a single bond in FO+
(B) The F and O are further apart in FO– than in FO+.
(C) There is a double bond in FO–.
(D) It would take more energy to break F–O bond in FO+ than in FO–.
17. Among the following, the species with one unpaired electron are :
(A) O2 + (B) NO (C) O2 – (D) B2
18. Which of the following statements are true about borax :
(A) Boron atoms are present in 2 different oxidation state and it different by 1
(B) the average oxidation state of boron is same that in B2H6.
(C) Boron atoms are present in different hybridization
(D) 2 boron atoms are connected with 4 oxygen each and 2 boron atoms are connected with 3 oxygen
atom each.
19. Which of the following statements is /are true about the structure of fullerene (Buckminister fullerene) ?
(A) All the carbon atoms undergo sp2 hybridisation.
(B) Remaining fourth electron at each carbon is delocalised in molecular orbitals which in turn gives
aromatic character to molecule.
(C) It has a shape like rugby ball.
(D) It contains both single and double bonds and has two C–C distances of 143.5 pm and 138.3 pm
respectively.
20. Identify the correct statement
(A) H2S2O7 has peroxy linkage (B) H2S2O6 has S–S linkage
(C) H2S2O8 has peroxy linkage (D) H2SO3(Sulphurous acid) has S in +4 oxidation state
21. Which of the following statements is /are true for P4S3 molecule ?
(A) It contains six P–S bonds and three P–P bonds.
(B) It contains six P–S bonds and ten lone pairs.
(C) It has all atoms sp3 hybridised.
(D) It contains six P–P bonds and ten lone pairs.
22. Identify correct order of bond angles
(A) Cl2O > F2O and F2O < H2O
(B) AsI3 > AsBr3 > AsCl3
(C) NO2+ > NO2–
(D) Hb B̂ Hb > Ht B̂ Ht ; where Ht is terminal Hydrogen of B2H6 and Hb is the bridging Hydrogen of B2H6
23. In which of the following compound(s) oxidation number of one central atom is/are  6 ?
(A) N2O6 (B) CrO5 (C) H3PO5 (D) H2S 2O8
24. Which of the following is/are correct.
(A) Boiling point of alcohol is higher than than of diethyl ether
(B) Density of water is higher than ice because of inter molecular H-bonding.
(C) Glycerol is more viscous than ethanol
(D) Ammonia is more easily liquified than HCl due to H-bonding in NH3
Chemical Bonding
25. The halogen form compounds among themselves with formula XX, XX3, XX5 and XX7 where X is the
heavier halogen. Which of the following pairs representing their structures and being polar and non-polar
are correct?
(A) XX – Linear – polar
(B) XX3 – T-shaped – polar
(C) XX5 – square pyramidal – polar
(D) XX7 – Pentagonal bipyramidal – non-polar
26. Which of the following is/are correct statement(s) for dipole moment ?
(A) Lone pair of electrons present on central atom can give rise to dipole moment.
(B) Dipole moment is vector quantity.
(C) CO2 molecule has dipole moment.
(D) Difference in electronegativities of combining atoms can lead to dipole moment.
27. Which of the following are polar ?
(A) XeF4 (B) XeF6 (C) XeOF4 (D) XeF5–
28. Which of the following statements is correct regarding phosphoric acid ?
(A) p–d back bonding exist between O and P
(B) The anion is resonance stablized
(C) It is a dibasic acid
(D) Inter molecular H bonding between molecules make it a syrupy (viscous) liquid.
29. Which of the following is correct order of strength of hydrogen bonding?
(A) N—H- - -N > N—H- - -O (B) F—H- - -N > O—H- - -N
(C) N—H- - -Cl > N—H- - -N (D) O—H- - -F > O—H- - -O
30. Which of the following compounds contain(s) both ionic and covalent bonds?
(A) NH4Cl (B) KCN (C) CuSO4·5H2O (D) NaOH
31. Which of the following factors do not favour electrovalency ?

(A) Low charge on ions (B) High charge on ions
(C) Large cation and small anion (D) Small cation and large anion
32. Which statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A) Polarising power refers to cation.
(B) Polarisability refers to anion.
(C) Small cation is more efficient to polarise anion.
(D) Molecules in which cation having pseudo inert gas configuration are more covalent.
33. Identify the correct statement (s)

(A) in H-atom bond is formed by non direction orbital
(B) graphite behaves as conductor as well as semi conductor.
(C) in SiO2 molecule Si-atom is sp3 hybridised
(D) ClF3 is hyper valent molecule.
34. Identify correct statements

(A) Down the group strength of metallic bond increases in transition elements.
(B) Down the group strength of metallic bond increases in alkali metals.
(C) Down the group strength of metallic bond decreases in alkali metals.
(D) Down the group strength of metallic bond decreases in transition metals.
35. Which of the following statements are correct for band theory of metallic bond.
(A) Valence band is empty or half filled in metal.
Chemical Bonding
(B) Conduction band is empty or half filled in metal
(C) Energy gap between conduction and valence band is very large in non-conductors.
(D) Overlapping of conduction & valence band occurs in semi-conductors
36. The force that finds a metal atom to a number of electrons with in its sphere of influence is known as a
metallic bond. Now, which of these is /are true for this found.
(A) Metallic bond is non-directional in nature.
(B) Metallic bonds are weaker than covalent bond.
(C) Energy required to vapourise a mole of metal (say, copper) to the vapour state is larger than the energy
required to vapourise a mole of a covalent substance (say, graphite)
(D) The valency electrons in a metallic bond are mobile.
1. In OF2 number of bond pairs of electrons are :
2. How many of the following molecules the central atom is surrounded by atleast 10 electrons.
ClO2, NO3–, O3, PCl5, SO3, SO42–, CO2, N3–, I3–
3. Number of molecule or ions having lone pairs  2 for central atom are :
HClO4, HClO3, HClO2, H2O, NH2–1, ClF3, XeF2, XeF4, XeF6, I3–1, N3–1, O3, ICl4–, ICl2+, XeO3, XeF5–1
4. Total no. of resonating structure in CO32– are :
5. Compound SO3 has x bond pairs and y lone pairs of electrons. Calculate value of x + y.
6. Consider y-axis as internuclear axis, how many of following will lead to  bond formation :
(i) py – py (ii) px – px (iii) pz – pz (iv) dxy – dxy (v) dyz – dyz
(vi)px – dxy (vii) dxy – pz (viii) dxz – dxz
7. How many have p–d bonding
(i) CO3–2 (ii) NO3– (iii) SO3–2 (iv) SO4–2 (v) PO4–3 (vi) NO2–
(vii) S2O8–2 (viii) R3PO (ix) S2O3–2 (x) ClO4– (xi) ClO3– (xii) SO2
(xiii) SO3
8. Find the number of molecule having two lone e– pairs on central atom.
I3+, XeF2, XeF4, H2O, NH2–, H2S, H2SO4, NF3
9. Find the number of planar molecule
BF3, BCl3, CO32–, SO3, NH3, NCl3, PCl3, XeF4
10. Find the number of species having bond angle less than 109°28'.
H2S, SO4– –, CCl4, NH3, PH3, SiH4, NH4+, PF3, NH2–, SO3, H2O
11. Find out total number of  bond in following xenon oxyflourides
XeOF2, XeO2F4, XeO3, XeO4, XeO3F2, XeOF4, XeO2F2
12. Calculate total number of coordinate bonds in the following molecules.
(a) PCl6– (b) NH3 . BF3 (c) HNO3 (d) CO
13. Determine number of bonding electrons in H3SiNCO.
14. Find the no. of species having fractional bond order ?
N2+, N2– , O2 , O2+, F2, B2, C2+ ,CN-, NO+
15. Find out the no. of correct statements :
(a) Bond length N2+ > Bond length N2 (b) Bond length NO+ < Bond length of NO
(c) Bond length CN– < Bond length of CN (d) Bond length O2- < Bond length of O2-2
(e) Bond length O2 > Bond length of O2+ (f) Bond length B2 > Bond length of B2–
16. In how many conversions, the bond length increases ?
(i) NO  NO+ (ii) N2+  N2– (iii) O2  O2+ (iv) H2  H2+
(v) NH3  NH4+ (vi) NH3  NH2 – (vii) BF3  BF4–
Chemical Bonding
17. Which of the following have bond order less than two ?
NO3–, CO32 –, F2, Cl2, Br2, O22–, O2–, N2–, O22+, Li2+, He2+
18. Calculate p–d bonds present in SO42–, NO3– and trimer of SO3. (Report your answer as (x + y + z))
19. P4O10 has two different types of P–O bonds. Find the no. of P–O bonds with shorter bond length.
20. Difference in the oxidation number of sulphur atom is in Na2S4O6 is x, that of H2S2O5 is y. Find value of
x × y is :
21. In a P4O6 molecule, the total number of P–O–P bonds is :
22. Find total no. of polar molecules.
PF3Cl2, SF4, PCl5, PCl3F2, SF6, XeF2, NO2+, BF2Cl, BF3
23. How many of the following compounds are planar as well as non polar compound :
C3O2, CH2=C=CH2, BF3, CCl4, SF6, XeF4, IF5, IF7, SF4, ClF3
24. How many of the following has hydrogen bonding
NH3, CH4, H2O, HI, HF, HCOOH, B(OH)3, CH3COOH, HCO3– ion
25. How many of the following properties are correct regarding metallic bonding :
(a) Metallic bond is non-directional in nature
(b) Metallic bond is weaker bond than covalent bond.
(c) Metallic lusture is due to the delocalised mobile electron.
(d) The conductivity of metal decreases with rise in temperature.
(e) Metals show malleability and ductility since metallic bond is non-directional
(f) The metallic bonding in alkaline earth metals is stronger as compared to alkali metals due to smaller size
of the kernel and greater number of valence electrons.
(g) Greater is the number of unpaired electrons stronger is the metallic bonding.
(h) stronger the metallic bonding greater the melting and boiling points.
26. How many of the following oxides are acidic ?
Mn2O7, SO2, CO, N2O, NO2, PbO2, Na2O, CrO3, ZnO, Fe2O3, SiO2, SnO
27. How many of the following are correct orders of property indicated against it ?
(i) I– > Br– > Cl– > F– (order of polarizability)
+ + + +
(ii) Li > Na > K > Cs (order of polarising power)
+ 2+ 3+
(iii) Li > Mg > Al (order of polarising power)
(iv) LiI > NaI > KI (order of ionic character)
(v) AgI > AgBr > AgCl (order of solubility in water)
(vi) (Si-Si bond) Si > SiO2 (Si-O bond ) (order of % covalent character of bond)

Comprehension # 1
Hybridization is a theoretical concept, it explains observed facts about structure of a species, however in
some molecular species, there is no need to consider hybridization to explain observed structural facts.
1. In which of the following species bond angle w.r.t. central atom is found to be greater than 109º28’
(A) SO42– (B) BF4 – (C) XeO3 (D) (C2 H5 )2 O
2. In which of the following species, formation of bond pairs take place by participation of almost pure p-
orbital of central-atom.
(A) SiH4 (B) NH4 + (C) SF2 (D) BiH3
Chemical Bonding
3. In which of the following species, all bond lengths are not identical
(A) XeO64– (B) ClF6+ (C) SeF4 (D) XeF5 –
Comprehension # 2
VSEPR THEORY
The trigonal bipyramid is not a regular shape since the bond angles are not all the same. It therefore follows
that the corners are not equivalent in ClF3 molecule. Lone pairs occupy two of the corners, and F atoms
occupy the other three corners. These different arrangements are theoretically possible, as shown in
figure.
(i) The most stable structure will be the one of lowest energy, that is the one with the minimum repulsion
between the five orbitals. The greatest repulsion occurs between two lone pairs. Lone pair bond pair
repulsions are next strongest, and bond pair-bond pair repulsions the weakest.
A rule of thumb can be theorised, that the position having maximum repulsion amongst them are occupied
at equatorial points. Therefore (3) structure is right.
(ii) Since double bond occupies more space compared to single bond therefore it will prefer equatorial
position.
(iii) More electronegative element will occupy axial position in case of trigonal bipyramidal geometry
(iv) In case of sp3d2 hybridisation lone pairs should be placed opposite to each other because all the
corners are identical.
4. Geometry (i.e. arrangement of electron pairs around central atom) of ClOF3 is similar to the :
(A) XeF4 (B) SOCl2 (C) 3¯ (D) ClO4¯
5. The shape of SF5– can be :

– – – –
F F F
F
••
F F F F F
••
S S S S
F F F F F F F F
•• F F F
   V
(A)  only (B)  and  only (C) V only (D) , , & 
6. Actual shape of the molecule BrF5 is similar to the molecule :

(A) PCl5 (B) XeF4 (C) PCl4+ (D) None of these
7.* Which of the following do not exist ?
(A) SH6 (B) HFO4 (C) SI6 (D) HClO3
Chemical Bonding
Comprehension # 3
The distribution of electrons among various molecular orbitals is called the electronic configuration of the
molecule which provides us the following very important informations about the molecule .
(A) Stability of molecule : The molecule is stable if number of bonding molecular orbital electrons (Nb)
is greater than the number of antibonding molecular orbital electrons (Na) and vice- versa.
1
(B) Bond order : Bond order = (N – Na)
2 b
A positive bond order means a stable molecule while a negative or zero bond order means an unstable
molecule.
(C) Nature of the bond : Bond order 1, 2,or 3 corresponds to single, double or triple bonds respectively.
(D) Bond length : Bond length decreases as bond order increases.
(E) Magnetic nature : Molecular orbitals in a molecule are doubly occupied, the substance is diamagnetic
and if one or more molecular orbitals are singly occupied, it is paramagnetic.
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(A) Among O2+, O2 and O2- the stability decreases as O2+ > O2 > O2-
(B) He2 molecule does not exit as the effect of bonding and anti-bonding molecular orbitals cancel each
other
(C) C2 ,O22 - and Li2 are diamagnetic
(D) In F2 molecule, the energy of 2 Pz is more than  2px and  2 Py
9. The bromine (Br2) is coloured because:
(A) the difference in energy (E) between HOMO and LUMO is large and the electronic excitation take
place by absorption of light which falls in ultra violet region.
(B) the difference in energy (E) between HOMO and LUMO is small and the electronic excitation take
place by absorption of light which falls in infrared region.
(C) the bromine molecule is paramagnetic and the difference in energy (E) is such that the electronic
excitation take place in visible light.
(D) the difference in energy (E) between HOMO and LUMO is such that the electronic excitation take
place by absorption of light which falls in visible region and bromine molecule is diamagnetic.
10. N2 has greater bond dissociation energy than N2+ , where as O2 has a lower bond dissociation energy than O2+
because:
(A) Bond order is reduced when O2 is ionized to O2+ and bond order is increased when N2 is ionized to N2+
(B) Bond order is increased when O2 is ionized to O2+ and bond order is decreased when N2 is ionized to N2+
(C) Bond order is deceased when O2 is ionized to O2+ and bond order is decreased when N2– is ionized to N2+
(D) None of these.
Comprehension # 4
Bridge bonding is a specific kind of bonding in pages of chemistry. In general -bond pair delocalisation is
very difficult. But electron deficiency of the central atom forces to delocalised and forms this kind of bond.
11. The state of hybridisation of central atom in dimer form of both BH3 and BeH2 is
(A) sp2, sp (B) sp3, sp2 (C) sp3, sp3 (D) sp2, sp3
12. Which of the following molecule has complete octet
(A) B2H6 (B) Al2Cl6 (C) Be2Cl4 (D) BeH2
13. The B2H6 molecule is dissolved in tetrahydrofuran. Which atom(s) is/are having changes of hybridisation
with respect to reactant and final product of the process given.
(A) B only (B) B and O (C) B, O and C (D) None of these
14. In which of the dimerisation process, the achievement of the octet is not the driving force.
(A) 2AlCl3  Al2Cl6 (B) BeCl2  BeCl2(solid)
(C) 2lCl3  I2Cl6 (D) 2NO2  N2O4
15. The molecule is not having 3c – 2e bond.
(A) BeH2 (dimer) (B) BeH2 (solid) (C) C2H6 (D) B2H6
Chemical Bonding
Comprehension : 5
The degree of polarity of a covalent compound is measured by the dipole moment (  bond) of the bond
defined as:
 bond = Charge on one of the poles  bond length
 bond is a vector quantity. The dipole moment of a molecule is the vector addition of all the bond dipole
moments present in it. For a triatomic molecule, containing two bond's like H2O,  molecule is given by
 2 molecule =  2 bond +  2 bond + 2  bond .  bond cos 
 = bond angle
The % ionic character of a bond is calculated using the equations
 obs
% ionic character =  100
ionic
 ionic = dipole moment when the molecule is assumed to be completely ionic.
16. Which of the follwing molecule has non-zero dipole moment -

(A) XeF2 (B) ClF3 (C) XeO2F4 (D) XeF4
17. The dipole moment of is 1.5 D. The dipole moment of will be -
(A) 0 D (B) 1.5 D (C) 2.86 D (D) 2.25 D

18. Which of the following compound has Zero dipole moment -
(A) PCl3 (B) PCl2F3 (C) PCl3F2 (D) PClF4
Comprehension : 6
Molecular geometry is the general shape of a molecule as determined by the relative positions of the
atomic nuclei. VSEPR model predicts the shape of the molecules & ions in which valence shell electron
pairs are arranged about the atom as far away from one another as possible, thus minimizing pair repulsion
information about the geometry of a molecule can sometimes be obtained from an experimental quantity
called dipole moment.
19. The dipole moment of a triatomic molecule AX2 was found to be equal to the bond moment of A – X bond.
Which of the following information regarding geometry of the molecule can be drawn from the above
observation.
(A) Molecule is linear
(B) Molecule is V shaped with  X – A – X = 90°
(C) Molecule is V shaped with  X–A–X = 120°
(D) Molecular geometry can not be predicted with the given information
20. Which of the following inter-halogen compounds is non-polar in nature:
(A) ClF3 (B) BrF5 (C) IF7 (D) BrCl
Comprehension # 7
A covalent bond in which electrons are shared unequally and the bonded atoms acquire a partial positive
and negative charge, is called a polar covalent bond. Bond polarity is described in terms of ionic character.
Similarly in ionic bond, some covalent character is introduced because of the tendency of the cation to
polarise the anion. The magnitude of covalent character in the ionic bond depends upon the extent of
polarization caused by cations.
In general :
(i) Smaller the size of cation, larger is its polarizing power.
(ii) Larger the anion, more will be its polarisability.
Chemical Bonding
(iii) Among two cations of similar size, the polarizing power of cations with pseudo - inert gas configuration
(ns2np6nd10) is larger than cation with noble gas configuration (ns2np6) e.g. polarizing power of Ag+ is more
than K+.
21. Which of the following will be most covalent ?
(A) NaCl (B) Na2S (C) MgCl2 (D) MgS
22. Which of the following is least ionic ?
(A) Be2 (B) BeCl2 (C) BeBr2 (D) BeF2
23. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their ionic character :
SnCl2, SnCl4, SiCl4, SnF4, SnF2
(A) SnF2 < SnCl2 < SnF4 < SnCl4 < SiCl4 (B) SnF2 < SnCl2 < SnF4 < SiCl4 < SnCl4
(C) SiCl4 < SnCl4 < SnF4 < SnCl2 < SnF2 (D) SnCl4 < SnF4 < SnCl2 < SnF2 < SiCl4
24. Which is the correct order of covalent character
(A) BeF2 < BeCl2 < BeBr2 < Bel2 (B) BeCl2 < BeF2 < Bel2 < BeBr2
(C) Bel2 < BeBr2 < BeCl2 < BeF2 (D) Bel2 < BeCl2 < BeBr2 < BeF2
25. Which of the following combination of cation and anion has maximum covalent character.
(A) K+ , Cl– (B) Na +, Cl– (C) Cs+ , Cl– (D) Mg+2, Cl–
Comprehension # 8
In a molten metal, the metallic bond is still present, although the order structure has been broken down. The
metallic bond isn’t fully broken until the metal boils. That means boiling point is actually a better guide to the
strength of the metallic bond then melting point is. On melting the bond is loosened, not broken.
26. Order of boiling point of K, Ca, Sc is
(A) K > Ca > Sc (B) Ca > K > Sc (C) Sc > Ca > K (D) K > Sc > Ca
27. Order of boiling point & melting point of Zn, Cd, Hg, respectively is :
(A) Zn > Cd > Hg & Zn > Cd > Hg (B) Hg > Cd > Zn & Zn > Cd > Hg
(C) Hg > Cd > Zn & Hg > Cd > Zn (D) Zn > Cd > Hg & Hg > Cd > Zn
Comprehension # 9
Two models are considered to explain metallic bonding :
(A) Band model (B) Electron-sea model
(A) Band Model
The interaction of two atomic orbitals, say the 3s-orbitals of two sodium atoms, produces two molecular
orbitals, one bonding orbital and one antibonding orbital. If N atomic orbitals interact, N molecular orbitals
are formed. Atoms interact more strongly with nearby atoms than with those farther away . The energy
that separates bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals decreases as the interaction (overlap) between
the atomic orbitals decreases. When we consider all the possible interactions among one mole of Na
atoms, there is formation of series of very closely spaced molecular orbitals (3s and 3*s). This consists
of a nearly continuous band of orbitals belonging to the crystal as a whole. One mole of Na atoms contributes
one mole (6.02 × 1023) of valence electrons thus, 6.02 × 1023 orbitals in the band are half-filled.
Figure-1. The band of orbitals resulting from interaction of the 3s-orbitals in a crystal of sodium
The empty 3 p atomic orbitals of Na atoms also interact to form a wide band of 3 × 6.07 × 1023 orbitals.
The 3s and 3p atomic orbitals are quite close in energy, so that these bands of molecular orbitals overlap.
The two overlapping bands contain 4 × 6.02 ×1023 orbitals. Because each orbital can hold two electrons,
the resulting combination of bands is only one-eighth full.
Chemical Bonding
Figure-2. Overlapping of a half–filled “3s” band with an empty “3p” band of NaN crystal
According to band theory, the highest-energy electrons of metallic crystals occupy either a partially filled
band or a filled band that overlaps an empty band. A band within which (or into which ) electrons must
move to allow electrical conduction is called a conduction band. The electrical conductivity of a metal
decreases as temperature increases. The increase in temperature causes thermal agitation of the metal
ions. This impedes the flow of electrons when an electric field is applied.
Crystalline non-metals, such as diamond and phosphorus, are insulators, they do not conduct electricity. It is
due to the fact that their highest-energy electrons occupy filled bands of molecular orbitals that are separated
from the lowest empty bond (conduction band) by an energy difference called the band gap. In an insulator,
this band gap is an energy difference that is too large for electrons to jump to get to the conduction band.
Elements that are semiconductors have filled bands that are only slightly below, but do not overlap with
empty bands. They do not conduct electricity at low temperatures, but a small increase in temperature is
sufficient to excite some of the highest-energy electrons into the empty conduction band.
(B) Electron-Sea Model
Metals have ability to conduct electricity, ability to conduct heat, ease of deformation [that is, the ability to
be flattened into sheets (malleability) and to be drawn into wires (ductility)] and lustrous appearance.
One over simplified model that can account for some of these properties is the electron-sea model. The
metal is pictured as a network of positive ions immersed in a “sea of electrons”. In lithium the ions would
be Li+ and one electron per atom would be contributed to the sea. These free electrons account for the
characteristic metallic properties. If the ends of a bar of metal are connected to a source of electric
current, electrons from the external source enter the bar at one end. Free electrons pass through the metal
and leave the other end at the same rate.
In thermal conductivity no electrons leave or enter the metal but those in the region being heated gain
kinetic energy and transfer this to other electrons.
According to the electron-sea model, the case of deformation of metals can be thought of in this way : If
one layer of metal ions is forced across another, perhaps by hammering, the internal structure remains
unchanged as the sea of electrons rapidly adjusts to the new situation.
28. Considering band model, select the incorrect statement :
(A) Li metal should have partilly filled valence bond and empty conduction bond.
(B) Mg metal should have fully filled valence band and overlapping conduction band.
(C) Electrical conductivity of a metal decreases as temperature increases.
(D) The energy speed of each atomic energy level of an element behaving like a semiconductor is
infinitisimally small.
29. All metal written below have usually low melting points except :
(A) Caesium (B) Gallium (C) Gold (D) Mercury
30. Which of the following physical properties can be explained by electron sea model :
(A) Electrical conduction (B) Thermal conduction
(C) Malleability (D) All of these
Chemical Bonding

1. Column – I Column – II
(A) SF2 (p) sp3 and bent
(B) KrF4 (q) two lone pairs on central atom
(C) NOCl (r) bond angle < 109028’
(D) NF3 (s) sp2 and bent
(t) sp3d2 and square planar
2. Match the compounds listed in column-I with characteristic(s) listed in column-II.
Column – I Column –II
– +
(A) ClF2 , CIF2 (p) Square pyramidal.
(B) IO2F2– , F2SeO (q) See–saw and pyramidal shaped respectively.
–
(C) IOF4 , XeOF2 (r) Linear and bent shaped respectively.
(D) BrF5 , XeOF4 (s) Square pyramidal and T-shaped respectively.
(t) Both sp3d2.
Column - I Column - II
(A) BF3 (p) sp3 hybridization
(B) (SiH3)3 N (q) p–p back bond
(C) B2H6 (r) p–d back bond
(D) SiO2 (s) 3c–2e bond
(A) O2 and NO– (p) Same magnetic property and bond order as that in N2+
(B) O2+ and NO (q) Same bond order but not same magnetic property as that in O2
(C) CO and CN– (r) Same magnetic property and bond order as that N22 –
(D) C2 and CN+ (s) Same magnetic property and bond order as that in NO+
Column-I Column-II
(A) H3 P 3 O9 (p) S–O–S bond is present
(B) H2S 2O7 (q) Di-basic acid
(C) H2 S4O6 (r) P–O–P bond is present
(D) H4P 2 O5 (s) Central atom (S or P) in maximum oxidation state.
(A) HCl < HF (p) Strength of hydrogen bonding
(B) PH3 < NH3 (q) Dipole moment
(C) H2O < D2O (r) Boiling point
(D) F2 < Cl2 (s) Bond energy
(A) Liquid bromine (p) Hydrogen bond
(B) Solid hydrogen fluoride (q) Ion-dipole force
(C) Solution of sodium fluoride in water (r) Dispersion force.
(D) Liquid methylamine (s) Dipole induced dipole interaction.
(E) Noble gas clathrate in ice.
EXERCISE-5
* Marked Questions may have more than one correct options.

1. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO2+, NO3– and NH4+ are : [JEE–2000(S)]
(A) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively
Chemical Bonding
2. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are respectively : [JEE–2000(S)]
(A) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively.
(B) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively.
(C) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively.
(D) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively.
3. Draw the molecular structures of XeF2, XeF4 and XeO2F2, indicating the location of lone pair of electrons.
[JEE–2000(M)]
4. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the following species; NH3, PCl5 and BCl3 is :
[JEE–2001(S)]
(A) dsp2, sp2, sp3 (B) sp3, dsp3, sp2 (C) dsp2, sp3, dsp3 (D) dsp2, sp2, dsp3
5. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural ?
NO3– , CO32– , ClO3– , SO3 [JEE–2003(S)]
(A) NO3– , CO32– (B) SO3 , NO3– (C) ClO3– , CO32– (D) CO32– , SO3.
6. Which of the following represent the given mode of hybridisation sp2–sp2–sp–sp from left to right.
[JEE–2003(S)]
(A) H2C=CH–CN (B) HCC–CCH (C) H2C=C=C=CH2 (D)
7. Using VSEPR theory, draw the shape of PCl5 and BrF5. [JEE–2003(M)]
8. The number of lone pair(s) of electrons in XeOF4 is : [JEE–2004(S)]
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
9. Use VSEPR model to draw the structures of OSF4 and XeF4 (indicate the lone pair(s) on central atom)
and specify their geometry. [JEE–2004(M)]
10. In which of the following the maximum number of lone pairs is present on the central atom ?
[JEE–2005(S)]
(A) [ClO3]– (B) XeF4 (C) SF4 (D) I3–
11. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90 degree F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is : [JEE–2010]
12. The shape of XeO2F2 molecule is [JEE–2012]

(A) trigonal bipyramidal (B) square plannar
(C) tetrahedral (D) see-saw
13.* The correct statement(s) about O3 is (are) [JEE(Advanced) 2013]
(A) O-O bond lengths are equal. (B) Thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic.
(C) O3 is diamagnetic in nature. (D) O3 has a bent structure.
14. The total number of lone pairs of electrons in N2O3 is : [JEE(Advanced) 2015]
15. Among the triatomic molecules/ions, BeCl2, N3–, N2O, NO2+, O3, SCl2, ICl2–, I3– and XeF2, the total number
of linear molecules(s)/ion(s) where the hybridization of the central atom does not have contribution from
the d-orbital(s) is [JEE(Advanced) 2015]
[Atomic number : S = 16, Cl = 17,  = 53 and Xe = 54]
16. The number of P—O—P bonds in tricyclic metaphosphoric acid is : [JEE–2000(S)]
(A) zero (B) two (C) three (D) four
17. Write the Molecular orbital electron distribution of O2. Specify its bond order and magnetic property.
[JEE–2000(M)]
18. The number of S–S bonds, in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9) is : [JEE–2001(S)]
(A) three (B) two (C) one (D) Zero
Chemical Bonding
– +
19. The common feature of the species CN , CO, NO are : [JEE–2001(S)]
(A) bond order three and isoelectronic. (B) bond order three and weak field ligand.
(C) bond order two and  acceptor. (D) isoelectronic and weak field ligands.
20. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridisation of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1 complex of BCl3 &
NH 3 . [JEE–2002(S)]
(A) N : tetrahedral sp3, B : tetrahedral sp3 (B) N : pyramidal sp3, B : pyarmidal sp3
(C) N : pyramidal sp3, B : planar sp2 (D) N : pyramidal sp3, B : tetrahedral sp3
21. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired electron(s) ? [JEE–2002(S)]
(A) N2 (B) F2 (C) O2 – (D) O22–
22. Which one is more soluble in diethyl ether anhydrous AlCl3 or hydrous AlCl3 ? Explain in terms of bonding.
[JEE–2003(M)]
23. Amongst the following the acid having –O–O– bond is : [JEE–2004(S)]
(A) H2 S2 O3 (B) H2 S2 O5 (C) H2 S2 O6 (D) H2 S2 O8
24. According to molecular orbital theory, which one of the following statements about the molecular species
O2+ is correct ? [JEE–2004(S)]
(A) It is paramagnetic and has less bond order than O2
(B) It is paramagnetic and more bond order than O2
(C) It is diamagnetic and has less bond order than O2
(D) It is diamagnetic and has more bond order than O2
25. Arrange the following three compounds in terms of increasing O — O bond length : [JEE–2004(M)]
O2 , O2 [AsF6], K [O2]
Justify your answer based on the ground state electronic configuration of the dioxygen species in these
three compounds.
26. AlF3 is insoluble in anhydrous HF but when little KF is added to the compound it becomes soluble. On
addition of BF3, AlF3 is precipitated. Write the balanced chemical equations. [JEE–2004(M)]
27. Which of the following silicate is formed when three oxygen atoms of [SiO4]4– tetrahedral units are shared
? [JEE–2005(S)]
(A) Sheet silicate (B) Pyrosilicate
(C) Three dimensional silicate (D) Linear chain silicate
28. Predict whether the following molecules are iso-structural or not. Justify your answer.
(i) NMe3 (ii) N(SiMe3)3 [JEE–2005(M)]
29. Write the structure of P4O10 . [JEE–2005(M)]
30. The species having bond order different from that in CO is : [JEE–2007]
(A) NO¯ (B) NO+ (C) CN¯ (D) N2
31. Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is : [JEE–2007]
(A) Na 2 O2 (B) O3 (C) N2O (D) KO2
32. The percentage of p-character in the orbitals forming P – P bonds in P4 is : [JEE–2007]
(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 50 (D) 75
33. Match each of the diatomic molecules in Column I with its property/properties in Column II.
Column I Column II [JEE–2009]
(A) B2 (p) Paramagnetic
(B) N2 (q) Undergoes oxidation
–
(C) O2 (r) Undergoes reduction
(D) O2 (s) Bond order  2
(t) Mixing of 's' and 'p' orbitals
34. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N—N bond(s) is(are) : [JEE–2009]
(A) N2 O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
Chemical Bonding
35. Assuming that Hund's rule is violated, the bond order and magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule B2 is
(A) 1 and diamagnetic (B) 0 and diamagnetic [JEE–2010]
(C) 1 and paramagnetic (D) 0 and paramagnetic
36. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is NOT operative, the paramagnetic species among the following is :
[JEE(Advanced) 2014]
(A) Be2 (B) B2 (C) C 2 (D) N2
37. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I with the description given in List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the lists. [JEE(Advanced) 2014, 3/
120]
List-I List-II
P. 1. p–d  antibonding
Q. 2. d–d  bonding
R. 3. p–d  bonding
S. 4. d–d  antibonding
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 2 3 1 4 (D) 4 1 3 2
38. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te the one with highest boiling point is : [JEE–2000]
(A) H2O because of H-bonding. (B) H2Te because of higher molecular weight.
(C) H2S because of H-bonding. (D) H2Se because of lower molecular weight.
39. Identify the correct order of boiling points of the following compounds : [JEE–2002]
CH3 CH2CH2CH2OH CH3 CH2CH2CHO CH3 CH2CH2 COOH
1 2 3
(A) 1 > 2 > 3 (B) 3 > 1 > 2 (C) 1 > 3 > 2 (D) 3 > 2 > 1
40. The number of water molecule (s) directly bonded to the metal centre in CuSO4. 5H2O is
[JEE–2009]
41. The correct order of acidic strength is : [JEE-2000]
(A) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10 (B) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3
(C) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3 (D) K2O > CaO > MgO
42. The set with correct order of acidity is : [JEE-2001]
(A) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (B) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(C) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 (D) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO
43. Identify the correct order of acidic strengths of CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O. [JEE-2002]
(A) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2 (B) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(C) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2 (D) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO
44. Statement-1 : Band gap in germanium is small, because [JEE–2007]
Statement-2 : The energy spread of each germanium atomic energy level is infinitesimally small.
Chemical Bonding
45. Statement-1 : Boron always forms covalent bond, because
Statement-2 : The small size of B3+ favours formation of covalent bond. [JEE–2007]
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
46. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO, (ii) HClO2, (iii) HClO3 and (iv) HClO4 is(are)
(A) The number of Cl=O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is two [JEE(Advanced) 2015]
(B) The number of lone pairs of electrons on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three
(C) The hybridization of Cl in (iv) is sp3
(D) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)
47. Each of the following options contains a set of four molecules, identify the option(s) where all four
molecules passes permanent dipole moment at room temperature. [JEE(Advanced) 2019]
(A) NO2, NH3, POCl3, CH3Cl (B) BF3, O3, SF6, XeF6
(C) BeCl2, CO2, BCl3, CHCl3 (D) SO2, C6H5Cl, H2Se, BrF5
48. A tin chloride Q undergoes the following reaction (not balanced) [JEE(Advanced) 2019]
Q + Cl–  X
Q + Me3N  Y
Q + CuCl2  Z + CuCl
X is monoanion having pyramidal geometry. Both Y and Z are neutral compounds. Choose the
correct option(s)
(A) The central atom in X is sp3 hybridized.
(B) There is a coordinate bond in Y
(C) The oxidation state of the central atom in Z is +2
(D) The central atom in Z has one lone pair of electrons.
49. Among B2H6, B3N3H6, N2O, N2O4, H2S2O3 and H2S2O8, the total number of molecules containing
covalent bond between two atoms of the same kind is _________ [JEE(Advanced) 2019]
50. The total number of compounds having at least one bridging oxo group among the molecules given
below is.
N2O3, N2O5, P4O6, P4O7, H4P2O5, H5P3O10, H2S2O3, H2S2O5 [JEE(Advanced) 2018]
51. The sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each central atom in the following species is
[TeBr6 ]2 ,[BrF2 ] ,SNF3 ,and [XeF3 ] [JEE(Advanced) 2017]
(Atomic numbers: N = 7, F = 9, S = 16, Br = 35, Te = 52, Xe = 54)
52. Among H2, He2+, Li2, Be2, B2, C2, N2, O 2 , and F2, the number of diamagnetic species is
(Atomicnumbers:H= l,He=2,Li=3,Be=4,B=5,C=6,N=7,0=8,F=9) [JEE(Advanced) 2017]
53. Among the following, the correct statement(s) is(are) [JEE(Advanced) 2017]
(A) Al(CH3)3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure
(B) BH3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure
(C) AlCl3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure
(D) The Lewis acidity of BCl3 is greater than that of AlCl3
Chemical Bonding

1. Select the correct order of following property

(A) % s-character : sp3 > sp2 > sp (B) O – N – O bond angle : NO3– > NO2+ > NO2
(C) All angles in CH2F2 are not identical (D) C – F bond length : CF4 > CH3F > CH2F2 > CF3H
2. F–As–F bond angle in AsF3Cl2 can be
(A) 90° & 180° only (B) 120° only (C) 90° & 120° only (D) 90° only
3. The correct sequence of polarity of the following molecule :
1. Benzene 2. Inorganic Benzene 3. PCl3F2 4. PCl2F3
(P stands for polar and NP stands for non-polar)
1 2 2 4 1 2 2 4
(A) P NP NP P (B) NP NP NP P
(C) NP P NP P (D) NP P P NP
4. Which of the following molecule(s) is/are having p – p back bonding
(A) BF3 (B) BeF2 (C) BCl3 (D) All of these
5. In which of follwing option the (X – A – X) adjacent angle difference in cationic part and anionic part is
maximum in the solid state.
(A) PCl5 (B) Cl2O6 (C) N2O5 (D) BeH2
6. The boiling point of a compound is raised by -
(1) intermolecular hydrogen bonding (2) High volatility
(3) Intramolecular hydrogen bonding (4) Non-polarity
7. In which of the following compound peroxide linkage is absent ?
(A) Per oxy mono sulphuric acid (B) Per titanic acid
(C) Per chloric acid (D) Per nitric acid

8. The molecule is/are having N – N bond.

(A) N2 O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O5 (D) N2O4
9. London force works in
(A) Polar molecule (B) Non-polar molecule
(C) All polar and non-polar molecule (D) Only in polar molecule
10. There is change in the type of hybridisation when :
(A) NH3 combines with H+ (B) AlH3 combines with H–
–
(C) NH3 forms NH2 (D) SiF4 forms SiF62–
11. Select the correct order -
(A) Bond length= O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+
(B) Bond strength = O2+ > O2 > O2– > O22–
(C) Unpaired electron(s) = O2 > O2+ > O2– > O22–
(D) No. of antibonding electron(s) = O22– > O2– > O2 > O2+
12. Choose the option(s) regarding correct order of acidic nature :
(A) MgO < ZnO < P2O5 < SO3 (B) MgO < ZnO < SO3 < P2O5
(C) Li2O < NO < CO2 < SO2 (D) Li2O < BeO < CO2 < NO
Chemical Bonding

13. X is the number of maximum atom(s) is/are present in same plane of B3N3H6. Find value of X / 2
14. Find the number of molecules which are not having 3C – 2e bond from the following :
Al2(CH3)6, Si2H6, B2H6, C2H6, Si2Cl6, Al2Cl6, B3N3H6
15. Which of the following species having axial bond length greater than equatorial bond length :
PCl5, IF7, SF6, CCl4
16. The total number of orbitals involved in the overlapping in XeO2F4? Give answer after dividing by 4.
17. How many different type of bonds can be formed if any two d orbitals of two different atoms are overlapping
with each other ?
18. In which of the following all bond length are not equal ?
PCl5, SF4, ClF3, XeF2, [SF5]+, [ClF4]+, [XeF3]+, O3, P4 (white)

(A), (B), (C) and (D)

Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbital of comparable energy and the number of hybrid orbitals
formed is equal to the number of pure atomic orbitals mixed up and hybrid orbitals are occupied by -bond
pair and lone pair.
19. Which of the following geometry is most unlikely to form from sp3d hybridisation of the central atom
(A) Linear (B) Tetrahedral (C) T-shaped (D) See-Saw
20. The orbital, which does not participate in sp3d2 hybridisation.
(A) px (B) dxy (C) dx 2  y 2 (D) pz
21. ''The hybird orbitals are at angle of X° to one another'' this statement is not valid for which of the following
hybridisation.
(A) sp3 (B) sp2 (C) sp3d2 (D) sp

22. Match each List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
Column-I Column-II
(Pair of species) (Idenitcal Property in pairs of species)
(P) PCl3 F 2 . PCl2 F 3 (1) Hybridisation of central atom
(Q) BF 3 & BCl3 (2) Shape of molecule / ion
(R) CO2 & CN2 –2 (3)  (dipole moment)
(S) C 6 H 6 & B3 N 3 H 6 (4) Total number of electrons
Code : P Q R S
(A) 1,2 1,2,3 1,2,3,4 1,2,3,4
(B) 1,2,3,4 1,2,3 1,2 1,2,3,4
(C) 1,2,3 1,2 1,2,3,4 1,2,3,4
(D) 1,2,3,4 1,2,3 1,2,3,4 1,2
Chemical Bonding
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART - 1
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (A)
8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B)
15. (C) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (B)
22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (A)
29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C)
36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (A) 41. (A) 42. (B)
43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (C)
50. (C) 51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (C) 54. (B) 55. (C) 56. (A)
57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (C) 62. (A) 63. (BC)
PART -2
1. (ACD) 2. (AC) 3. (BC) 4. (AB) 5. (ABC)
6. (AC) 7. (CD) 8. (ABC) 9. (AC) 10. (BCD)
11. (B,C) 12. (A,C) 13. (A,B) 14. (A,B,C) 15. (A,B,C)
16. (B,D) 17. (A,B,C) 18. (B,C,D) 19. (A,B,D) 20. (B,C,D)
21. (A,B,C) 22. (A,B,C) 23. (B,D) 24. (A.B,C,D) 25. (A.B,C,D)
26. (A.B,D) 27. (B,C) 28. (A.B,D) 29. (A.B) 30. (A)
31. (B,D) 32. (A,B,C,D) 33. (A,B,C,D) 34. (A,C) 35. (B,C)
36. (A,B,D)
PART - 3
1. 2 2. 5 3. 100 4. 3 5. 12 6. 5
7. 10
8. 5 9. 5 (BF3, BCl3, CO32–, SO3, XeF4) 10. 6 11. 16
12. 4 13. 20 14. 4 15. 6 16. 4 (ii, iv, vi, vii)
17. 9 (NO3–, CO32 –, F2, Cl2, Br2, O22–, O2–, Li2+, He2+) 18. 8 19. 4 20. 10
21. 6 22. 3 23. 4 24. 07 25. 7 26. 5 27. 3
PART -4
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (ABC)

8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C)
15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C) 21. (D)
22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (C) 30. (D)
PART -5
1. (A - p,q,r) ; (B – q,r,t) ; (C – s) ; (D – r) 2. (A - r) ; (B – q) ; (C – s) ; (D – p, t)
3. (A - q) ; (B – r) ; (C – s,p) ; (D – p, r) 4. (A – r) ; (B – p) ; (C – s) ; (D – q)
5. (A–r,s); (B–p,q,s) ; (C–q); (D–q,r)
6. (A – p, q, r, s) ; (B – p, q, r, s) ; (C – p, q, r, s) ; (D – r, s)
7. (A – r) ; (B – p, r) ; (C – p, q, r) ; (D – p, r) ; (E – p, r, s).
EXERCISE-5
PART - 2
1. (B) 2. (D)
Chemical Bonding
3. According to VSEPR theory

XeF 2
Number of electron pairs = 5,
Number of bond pairs = 2, (linear)
So, Number of lone pairs = 3
Thus XeF2 is linear with 3 lone pairs occupying
3 equatorial positions of trigonal bipyramidal so as to minimize the repulsions.
XeF 4
Number of electron pairs = 6,
Number of bond pairs = 4, (square planar)
Thus XeF4 is linear with 2 lone pairs occupying
2 axial positions of octahedral pyramidal so as to minimize the repulsions.
XeO2F 2
Number of electron pairs (including super electron pairs) = 5,
Number of bond pairs = 4, (see-saw)
Thus XeO2F2 is see-saw with 1 lone pairs occupying
one equatorial position and two double bonds occupying other
two equatorial positions of trigonal bipyramidal so as to minimize the repulsions.
4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (A)

7. There are 5 electron pairs and all are bonds pairs in PCl5. So to have the minimum repulsions between bond
pairs it acquires trigonal bipyramidal shape. In BrF5, there are 6 electrons pairs out of which one lone pair
and rest all are bond pairs. So to have the minimum repulsions between bond pairs and lone pairs it acquires
square pyramidal shape.
PCl5 (trigonal bipyramidal), BrF5 (square pyramidal)
8. (C)
9. According to VSEPR theory two lone pairs out of six electron pairs are trans to each other to have
minimum repulsion. The shape of XeF4 is square planar and geometry is octahedral with sp3d2 hybridisation.
The molecule looks like :
In OSF4, there are five electron pairs and all are bond pairs. So geometry
is trigonal bipyramidal. As double bond creates more repulsion than singles
bond, the double bond acquires one of equatorial position of trigonal
bipyramidal to have minimum repulsions.
The structure looks like:
10. (D) I3– 11. 0 or 8 12. (D) 13.* (ACD)
14. 8 15. 4
16. (C)
17. Molecular orbital electronic configuration of O2 is as follows (Z is taken as molecular axis).
Chemical Bonding
1s2  *1s2  2s2  * 2s2 2p 2  2p 2  2p 2  * 2p 1   * 1

z x y x 2p y
10 – 6
Bond order = 2
= 2.
As it contains two unpaired electrons in bonding  molecular orbitals O2 is paramagnetic.

So, Magnetic moment = n (n  2) = 2 ( 2  2) = 2.83 B.M.
18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (C)
22. In diethyl ether (C2H5— —C2H5) oxygen atom has two lone pairs of electrons, thus acts as lewis base
while in anhydrous AICI3 aluminium has vacant 3p-orbital of valence shell and thus acts as Lewis acid.
AlCl3 accepts a lone pair of electrons from diethyl ether to complete its octet forming a complex
C2H5
O: AlCl3 . Hence, anhydrous AICI3 is more soluble in diethyl ether by means of solvolysis in
:
C2H5
comparison to hydrous AICI3 (i.e., AICI3 . 6H2O). Hydrous AICI3 is a polar compound, while ether is non-
polar, so on basis of Thumb`s rule, like dissolve in like solvents. Hence hydrous AICI3 is least soluble in
ether.
23. (D) 24. (B)
25. The electronic configuration of O2 will be:
O2 = 1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p2z 2p2x = 2p2y *2p1x = *2p1y
Nb  Na
Now bond order =
2
Where, Nb = Number of electrons in bonding orbitals, Na = Number of electrons in antibonding orbitals
10  6
bond order = =2
2
Similarly electronic configuration of O2– (in KO2) will be
1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p2z 2p2x = 2p2y *2p2x = *2p1y
10  7 3
Bond order = = = 1.5
2 2
In O2 [AsF4]–, O2 is O2+ .
The electronic configuration of O2+ will be
1s2 *1s2 2s2 *2s2 2p2z 2p2x, = 2p2y *2p1x
10  5
bond order  =2.5
2
1
Hence bond length order will be O+2 < O2 < O–2 because Bond order  Bond length .
26. There is inter molecular hydrogen bonding in HF and because of this it is weakly dissociated. So AlF3 is not
soluble in anhydrous HF. On the other hand KF is ionic compound and thus it is highly dissociated giving a
high concentration of F– ion which leads to the formation of a colourless soluble complex,
AlF3 + KF  K3[AlF6].
BF3 is more acidic than AlF3 because of the small size of B than that of Al. Thus BF3 pulls out F– from
[AlF6]3– forming [BF4]– and AlF3. Hence AlF3 is precipitated on adding BF3 to [AlF6]3–.
K3[AlF6] + 3BF3  3K[BF4] + AlF3  .
27. (A)
28. (i) N(SiMe3)3 is trigonal planar because in it silicon uses its vacant d-orbital for p-d back bonding with
lone pair of electrons of central N-atom and the p-d bonding is delocalised as given in the structure. So,
N(SiMe3)3 with steric number three is trigonal planar.
Chemical Bonding
(ii) In N(Me3), there is no such p-d delocalisation of lone pair of electrons on N atom as carbon does not
have vacant d-orbital. So N(Me)3 with steric number four is trigonal pyramidal with a lone pair at the apex.
(i) (ii)
Hence both are not isostructural.
29. Structure of P4O10.
30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (D)

33. (A) - p, q, r, t ; (B) - q, r, s, t ; (C) - p, q, r ; (D) - p, q, r, s 34. (A,B,C) 35. (A)
36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. 4 41. (A) 42. (A)
43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (BC) 47. (AD) 48. (AB) 49. 4
50. 5 or 6 51. 6 52. Bonus 53. (ABD)
PART - 2
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (1) 7. (C)
8. (A,B,D) 9. (A,B,C) 10. (B,D) 11. (A,B,D)
12. (A,C) 13. 6 14. 5 15. 1 16. 4 17. 3 18. 6
19. (B) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (A)
s-Block Elements
s-Block Elements
EXERCISE-4
1. The element having electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 will form :
(A) Acidic oxide (B) Basic oxide (C) Amphoteric oxide (D) Netural oxide
2. Beryllium has less negative value of reduction potentials compared to other alkaline earth metals due to:
(A) the smaller hydration energy of the Be2+ .
(B) the large value of the atomization enthalpy of the Be metal.
(C) the large value of ionisation energy of the Be metal.
(D) (B) and (C) both.
3. The incorrect statement is :
(A) Be2+ cation has largest hydration enthalpy among the alkaline earth metals.
(B) The second ionisation enthalpies of alkalilne earth metals are smaller than those of the corresponding
alkali metals.
(C) Li is the strongest reducing agent among all the elements.
(D) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are most covalent in their groups.
4. Select the correct statement with respect to alkali metals.
(A) Melting point decrease with increasing atomic number.
(B) Potassium is lighter than sodium.
(C) Salts of Li to Cs impart characteristic colour to an oxidising flame (of Bunsen burner).
(D) All of these.
5. On dissolving moderate amount of sodium metal in liquid NH3 at low temperature, which one of the
folloiwng does not occur?
(A) Blue coloured solution is obtained
(B) Na+ ions are formed in the solution
(C) Liquid NH3 becomes good conductor of electricity
(D) Liquid NH3 remains diamagnetic.
(A) KOH can be used as an absorbent of carbondioxide.
(B) Liquid Na metal is used as a coolant in fast breeder nuclear reactors.
(C) All alkali metal gives flame test.
(D) Lithium is the weakest reducing agent among alkali metals.
7. Consider the following statements ;
S1 : Alkali metals are never found in free state in nature.
S2 : The melting and boiling points of alkali metals are high.
S3 : The ceasium and potassium both are used as electrodes in photoelectric cells.
S4 : Alkali metals are normally kept in kerosene oil.
and arrange in the order of true/false.
(A) T T F F (B) T F T T (C) F F F T (D) T T F T
(A) The alkaline earth metals readily reacts with acids liberating dihydrogen.
(B) Lithium is the only alkali metal to form a nitride directly by heating with N2 gas.
(C) Calcium cannot be prepared by electrolysis of its aqueous salt solution.
(D) The mobilities of the alkali metal ions in aqueous solution are Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+.
s-Block Elements
9. Which of the following reacts with H2O at room temperature?
(A) Be (B) Li (C) Mg (D) All of these
10. Which of the following fails to react significantly with air at room temperature?
(A) Be (B) Li (C) Ba (D) All of these
11. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is :
(A) Be(OH)2, Al(OH)3 (B) Al(OH)3, LiOH
(C) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 (D) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
12. Na2[Be(OH)4] is formed when ;
(A) BeO reacts with NaOH solution. (B) Be(OH)2 reacts with NaOH solution.
(C) both (A) and (B) are correct. (D) none of the above is correct.
13. Drying agent which react with CO2 and removes water vapours from ammonia is :
(A) CaO (B) CaCl2 (C) CaCO3 (D) Ca(NO3)2
14. Brine solution on electrolysis will not give :
(A) NaOH (B) Cl2 (C) H2 (D) CO2
15. Chemical (A) is used for water softening to remove temporary hardness. A reacts with Na2 CO3 to
generate caustic soda. When CO2 is bubled through (A), it turns cloudy (i.e. milky). What is the chemical
formula of (A) ?
(A) CaCO3 (B) CaO (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Ca(HCO3)2
16. (X) reacts with sulphur dioxide in aqueous medium to give NaHSO3, (X) is :
(A) Na 2CO3 (B) NaNO3 (C) Na2S 2O3 (D) NaHSO4
17. In Solvay process of manufacture of Na2CO3 , the by products obtained from recovery tower are :
(A) NH4Cl, CaO, CO2 (B) CaO, Na2CO3, CaCl2
(C) CaCl2 , CO2 , NH3 (D) Na2CO3 , CaCl2 , CO2
18. A colourless solid (X) on heating evolved CO2 and also gave a white residue, soluble in water. Residue also
gave CO2 when treated with dilute acid. (X) is :
(A) K2CO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) KHCO3 (D) Na2 CO3
19. Crude common salt becomes damp on keeping in air because :
(A) It is hygroscopic in nature.
(B) It contains MgCl2 and CaCl2 as impurities which are deliquescent in nature.
(C) (A) and (B) both.
(D) none.
20. Acidified solutions of sodium thiosulphate are unstable because :
(A) they have the tendency to oxidise the acid. (B) they have the tendency to disproportionate.
(C) they have the tendency to reduce the acid. (D) they have strong S – S bonds.
(p ) (q)
21. CaCl2 + H2SO4   CaSO4.2H2O   (r)   (s)
 393 K
– HCl
Which of the following option describes, the products, reactants and the reaction conditions.
Option (p) (q) (.r) (s)
(A) Crystallisation Heat at 393 K 2 CaSO 4 .H2 O CaSO 4
Heat at 393 K
(B) Crystallisation 2 CaSO 4 .H2 O CaSO 4
at high pressure
(C) Higher temperature Cool CaSO 4 .H2 O CaSO 4
(D) Higher pressure Heat at 393 K CaSO 4 CaSO 3
22. Setting of plaster of paris involves :

(A) the oxidation with atmoshperic oxygen.
(B) the removal of water to form anhydrous calcium sulphate.
(C) the hydration to form the orthorhombic form of gypsum.
(D) the reaction with atmospheric carbondioxide gas.
s-Block Elements
23. Calcium cyanamide on reaction with steam under pressure gives ammonia and ------------- .
(A) calcium carbonate (B) calcium hydroxide
(C) calcium oxide (D) calcium bicarbonate

1. Which is/are not correct configuration of s–block elements :
(A) [Ar] 3d10 4s2 (B) [Ar] 3d10 4s1 (C) [Ar]) 4s2 (D) [Ar] 4s1
2. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation potential is :
(A) K < Na < Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca (C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
3. 2+
The hydration energy of Mg ion is higher than that of :
(A) Al3+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Na+ (D) None of these
4. Going down in  A group, following properties decrease :
(A) solubility of sulphates in H2O (B) hydration energy
(C) thermal stability of carbonates (D) ionic radius in water.
5. Exceptionally small size of Lithium results in :
(A) Anomalous behaviour of Li+. (B) Its high polarising power.
(C) It has high degree of hydration. (D) Exceptionally low ionisation enthalpy.
(A) The atomic radius of Na is greater than that of Mg.
(B) Metallic bond in Mg is stronger than the metallic bond in Na.
(C) Melting and boiling points of K are greater than those of Na.
(D) Mg and Ca both impart characteristic colour to the flame.
7. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
(A) All alkali metals are soft and can be cut with knife.
(B) Alkali metals do not occur in free state in nature.
(C) Alkali metals are highly electropositive elements.
(D) Alkali metal hydrides are covalent and low melting solids.
8. Which is/are true statements ?
(A) The heats of hydration of the dipositive alkaline earth metal ions decreases with an increase in their
ionic size.
(B) Hydration of alkali metal ion is less than that of  A ion of the same period.
(C) Alkaline earth metal ions, because of their much larger charge to radius ratio, exert a much stronger
electrostatic attraction on the oxygen of water molecule surrounding them.
(D) None.
9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) Milk of lime is a suspension of Ca(OH)2 in water.
(B) Lime water is a clear solution of Ca(OH)2 in water.
(C) Baryta water is a clear solution of Ba(OH)2.
(D) Nitrolim is the mixture of CaCN2 and carbon.
(A) Stability of peroxides and superoxides of alkali metals increases with increase in size of the cation.
(B) Increase in stability in (A) is due to stabilisation of large anions by larger cations through lattice energy
effects.
(C) The low solubility of LiF is due to its high lattice energy whereas low solubility of CsI is due to smaller
hydration energy .
(D) NaOH is not deliquescent .
(A) Li2CO3 is only sparingly soluble in water and no LiHCO3 has been isolated.
s-Block Elements
(B) K2CO3 cannot be made by a method similar to the ammonia–soda (Solvay) process.
(C) Li2CO3 and MgCO3 both are thermally stable.
(D) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O is a mineral called carnallite.
12. Sodium bicarbonate can react with :
(A) Na 2CO3 (B) NaOH (C) NaH (D) HCl
13. Aqueous solution of sodium carbonate can react with :
(A) MgCl2 (B) Ca(HCO3)2 (C) H2SO4 (D) CO2
14. Which of the following compounds are readily soluble in water?
(A) MgSO4 (B) SrSO4 (C) BeSO4 (D) BaSO4
15. Heating which of the following with C produces a metal sulphide?
(A) Na2 SO4 (B) MgSO4 (C) BaSO4 (D) Li2SO4
16. Which of the following are correctly matched?
(A) Basic strength Cs2O < Rb2O < K2O < Na2O < Li2O
(B) Stability of peroxides Na2O2 < K2O2 < Rb2O2 < Cs2O2
(C) Stability of bicarbonates LiHCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < RbHCO3 < CsHCO3
(D) Thermal stability of hydrides CsH < RbH < KH < NaH < LiH
17. Electrolysis of aqueous NaCl may produce :
(A) Na–Hg (B) Cl2 (C) NaOH (D) H2
18. A substance (P) releases a gas (Q) on reaction with H2O. (Q) decolourises Br2 water. (P) may be :
(A) BeC2 (B) Be2 C (C) Al4C3 (D) Mg2C3
19. Nitrate can be converted into metal oxide on heating not above 500ºC in case of :
(A) Li (B) Na (C) Mg (D) None of these.
20. A substance (P), when heated in a dry test tube, liberated a colourless odourless gas that rekindled a
glowing splinter. It may be :
(A) KClO3 (B) NaNO3 (C) K2SO3 (D) CaCO3
1. How many of the following are correctly matched?
Element Colour in flame test
K Violet/Lilac
Na Yellow
Be Crimson red
Ca Brick red
Sr Apple green
Mg No colour
Rb Red violet
Cs Blue
Li Crimson red
2. How many of the following form polymeric chains?
BeCl2, AlCl3, NaHCO3, Li2CO3, BeH2, Na2CO3
3. For alkali metal M :
M2O + H2O  x
M2O2 + H2O  x + y
MO3 + H2O  x + y + z
Sum of the number of atoms present in one molecule each of x, y, z.

4. NaOH + PbO  x + H2O

NaOH + SnO2  y + H2O

NaOH + H2O + Al  z + H2
s-Block Elements
Sum of the number of atoms present in one molecule each of x, y, z is...........
5. How many of the following will turn moist red litmus blue and finally white?
Li2O, KO3, RbO2, Cs2O2, BeO, MgO, BaO2, SrO
6. The by product of solvay process reacts with Na2CO3 to form a compound x, which on heating decom-
poses to give y. y is absorbed by KO2. The number of atoms per molecule of y is ...........
7. How many of the following statement is/are correct :
(a) Solvay process is used for manufacturing sodium carbonate.
(b) CaCl2 is obtained as by product in Solvay process.
(c) NH3 and CO2 can be recovered in above process.
(d) MgSO4.7H2O is epsom salt.
(e) On hydrolysis of Na2CO3, we get an acidic solution due to the formation of H2CO3.
(f) K2CO3 can also be prepared by Solvay process.
(g) CaCO3 can be obtained by passing excess of CO2 through lime water.
8. A + B + H2O  (NH4)HCO3
NH4HCO3 + NaCl  C + NH4Cl
NH4Cl + D  2NH3 + 2H2O + CaCl2
Sum of the atoms present in one molecule each of A, B, C and D.
9. Molecular formula of Glauber’s salt in Na2SO4.xH2O. The value of x is______.
10. When gypsum is heated at 393 K, the compund formed is CaSO4.xH2O. Value of 6x is.........
Comprehension # 1
All alkali metals dissolve in anhydrous liquid ammonia to give blue colour solution. It is the ammoniated
electron which is responsible for the blue colour of the solution, and the electrical conductivity is mainly due
to ammoniated electron, [e(NH3)y]–. Dilute solutions are paramagnetic due to free ammoniated electrons ;
this paramagnetism decreases at higher concentration. Above 3M concentration, the solutions are diamagnetic
and no longer blue but are bronze/copper-bronze coloured with a metallic luster.
1. Which of the following changes will be observed in concentrated solution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia
(A) Deep blue colour of the solution due to ammoniated electron is retained.
(B) Solvated electrons associate to form electrons-pairs and paramagnetic character decreases.
(C) Reducing character is increased.
(D) Two of the above.
2. Which of the following statement about solution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia is correct ?
(A) The dilute solutions are bad conductor of electricity.
(B) Both the dilute solutions as well as concentrated solution are equally paramagnetic in nature.
(C) Charge transfer is responsible for the blue colour of the solution.
(D) None of these.
3. Ammoniated solutions of alkali metals are reducing agents due to the :
(A) solvated cation. (B) solvated unpaired electron.
(C) the liberation of hydrogen gas (D) (A) and (B) both

1. Match the reactions listed in column-I with the characteristic(s) of the products listed in column-II.

(A) Na2O2  (p) One of the products is diamagnetic.
( i) S 
(B) KO2   
 (q) One of the products acts as reducing agent.
( ii ) C 
800 º C
(C) NaNO3    (r) One of the products acts as oxidising agent.
s-Block Elements

(D) Ba(NO3)2 
 (s) One of the products is a basic oxide.
500 C
2. Match the compounds listed in column-I with the characteristic(s) listed in column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) BeO (s) (p) Amphoteric in nature
(B) NaHCO3 (crystalline) (q) Imparts characteristic colour to Bunsen flame.
(C) BeCl2(s) (r) Produce H2O2 and O2 on reaction with water.
(D) CsO2(s) (s) Show hydrogen bonding
(t) Has a chain structure
EXERCISE-5
1. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with their atomic number is :
[JEE-1997(Cancelled)]
(A) ionisation energy (B) solubility of their hydroxides
(C) solubility of their sulphates (D) electronegativity
2. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia : [JEE-1998]
(A) shows blue colour. (B) exhibits electrical conductivity.
(C) produces sodium amide. (D) produces hydrogen gas.
3. Sodium nitrate decomposes above 800°C to give : [JEE-1998]
(A) N2 (B) O2 (C) NO2 (D) Na2O
4. Beryllium chloride shows acidic nature in water or why BeCl2 is easily hydrolysed ? [JEE-1999]
5. The Haber's process can be represented by the following scheme :
CaCO3
NH3 + H2O
H2O CaO + CO2

B
A NaHCO3 + D NaCl
C + H2O
NH3+ H2O + E
Identify A, B, C, D and E. [JEE-1999]

6. A white solid is either Na2O or Na2O2. A piece of red litmus paper turns white when it is dipped into a
freshly made aqueous solution of the white solid. [JEE-1999]
(i) Identify the substances and explain with balanced equation.
(ii) Explain what would happen to the red litmus if the white solid were the other compound.
7. The set representing the correct order of first ionization potential is : [JEE-2001]
(A) K > Na > Li (B) Be > Mg > Ca
(C) B > C > N (D) Ge > Si > C
8. Identify the following :
SO 2 Na CO elemental S 2
Na2CO3  A 2
  
3
 B  C  D

Also mention the oxidation state of S in all the compounds. [JEE-2003]
s-Block Elements
9. Statement-1 : Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to give blue solutions.
Statement-2 : Alkali metals in liquid ammonia give solvated species of the type [M(NH3)n]+ (M = alkali
metals). [JEE-2007]
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
10.* The compound(s) formed upon combustion of sodium metal in excess air is(are) : [JEE-2009]
(A) Na 2 O2 (B) Na2 O (C) NaO2 (D) NaOH

This section contains 7 Single correct questions. Each questions has four choices (A), (B), (C)
1. Consider the following statements :

S1 : Beryllium and Magnesium are inert to oxygen and water.
S2 : Concentrated solutions of alkaline earth metals in ammonia are bronze coloured.
S3 : Calcium, strontium and barium reacts with cold water forming hydroxides and liberating hydrogen gas.
S4 : Oxides and hydroxides of alkaline earth metals are more ionic and more basic than that of the alkali
metals.
(A) T T T T (B) T T T F (C) F T T F (D) F T F F
(A) The superoxide ion (i.e., O2–) is stable only in presence of larger cations such as K, Rb, Cs.
(B) Alkali metals are normally kept in kerosene oil.
(C) All the alkali metal hydrides are ionic solids with high melting points.
(D) The concentrated solution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia are strong paramagnetic in nature.
3. Sodium is heated in excess of air, free from CO2 at 3500C to form X. X absorbs CO2 and form Na2CO3 and
Y. 'X' and 'Y' are respectively :
(A) Na2O and O2 (B) Na2O2 and O2 (C) NaO2 and O2 (D) Na2O2 and O3
4. What products are formed during the electrolysis of a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride?
. Cl2 (g) ,  . NaOH (aq). , . H2(g).
(A)  only (B)  and  only (C)  and  only (D) All of these
5. The following flow diagram represents the manufacturing of sodium carbonate ?
(a) (b )
2 NH3 + H2O + CO2  (NH4)2CO3 
 NH4HCO3 

Which of the following option describes the underlined reagents, products and reaction conditions ?
Option (a ) (b) (.c) (d)
(A) Carbon dioxide NaCl NH4 Cl Heat
(B) Carbon dioxide NaCl NH4 Cl catalyst
(.C) Higher tempt. NaCl NH4 Cl Heat
(D) Higher pressure NaCl NH4 Cl Catalyst

(A) The effective component of bleaching powder is OCl–.
(B) CaCO3 is obtained when quick lime is heated with coke in an electric furnace.
s-Block Elements
(C) Anhydrous CaSO4 is dead burnt plaster.

(D) BaCO3 is obtained on fusion of BaSO4 and Na2CO3.
7. Consider the following statements,
S1 : Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than plaster of pairs.
S2 : Plaster of paris can be re-obtained by hydration of 'dead plaster'.
3
S3 : Gypsum loses 2 of its water of crystallisation forming plaster of paris at 120ºC.
S4 : Plaster of paris can be obtained by partial oxidation of gypsum.
(A) T F T F (B) F F T F (C) T T F F (D) T T T T

8. Select the correct statement with respect to the deep blue solution of an alkali metal in liquid ammonia.
(A) Its paramagnetism decreases with increasing concentration.
(B) It has lower density than pure solvent (i.e. liquid ammonia).
(C) Its conductivity decreases with increasing concentration to minimum at about 0.05 molar; thereafter it
again increases.
(D) Evaporation of ammonia from the solution yields alkali metal.
9. Freshly prepared pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia :
(A) shows copper - bronze colour.
(B) occupy larger volume than that from the sum of the volumes of Na and NH3 ().
(C) reduces the GeH4 to GeH2–.
(D) produces sodium amide and hydrogen gas with rusty iron wire.
10. Which of the following disproportionate(s) on heating with sodium hydroxide ?
(A) P4 (B) S8 (C) Cl2 (D) B
(A) Pure sodium oxide is obtained by heating the mixture of sodium azide and sodium nitrite.
(B) Glauber's salt effloresces in moist air.
(C) Potassium superoxide on heating in an evacuated and sealed tube yields sodium thiosulphate.
(D) Gypsum dissovle in ammonium sulphate solution.
(A) CaCO3 is more soluble in a solution of CO2 than in H2O.
(B) Na2CO3 is converted to Na2O and CO2 on heating.
(C) Li2CO3 is thermally unstable.
(D) Presence of CaCl2 or CaSO4 in water causes temporary hardness.
13. The pair (s) of compounds which can exist together in aqueous solutions is/are ?
(A) NaH2PO4 and Na2HPO4 (B) NaHCO3 and NaOH.
(C) Na2HPO3 and NaOH (D) NaHSO4 and NaOH.

s-Block Elements
14. M + (X + Y)NH3  [M(NH3)x]2+ + 2[e–(NH3)4]–
where M = alkaline earth metal.
Value of x is.... .
15. How many of the following are correctly matched :
Hydration energy : Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
Mobility of ions (aq) : Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
Density : Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
Reaction with N2 : Li < Na < Rb < Cs < K
Reducing nature of gas phase : Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
Reducing nature in aq. phase : Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs
16. How many of the following statements are correct ?
(a) BeO is amphoteric in nature.
(b) LiHCO3 is not found in solid state.
(c) K2O2 is diamagnetic but KO2 is paramagnetic.
(d) White phosphorous react with castic soda and gives phosphine gas.
(e) AlCl3 is soluble in excess of NaOH and form sodium meta aluminate.
(f) Anhydrous potassium nitrate on heating with potassium metal gives potassium oxide and nitrogen gas.
(g) Lithium chloride is highly soluble in water.
(h) Hydrated magnesium chloride on heating in dry air gives anhydrous MgCl2.
17. How many of the following orders are correct :
(A) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 Basic character
(B) BaCO3 > SrCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3. Decomposition temperature
(C) Na + > Mg2+ > Li+ > Be2+ Size
(D) Li2CO3 > Na2CO3 > K2CO3 > Rb2CO3 > Cs2CO3 Water solubility
(E) Na2O2 < K2O2 < Rb2O2 < Cs2O2 Stability
(F) LiHCO3 < NaHCO3 < KHCO3 < RbHCO3 < CsHCO3 Stability
(G) NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI Melting point
(H) Na2O2 < KO2 < O2[AsF4] O–O bond length
18. How many of the following bicarbonates are solid in nature?
LiHCO3 , NaHCO3 , KHCO3, RbHCO3 , CsHCO3 , CsHCO3, Be(HCO3)2 , Mg(HCO3 )2 , Ca(HCO3 )2 ,
Sr(HCO3)2, Ba(HCO3)2
19. How many types of produce are formed when LiNO3 and NaNO3 are heated at 500ºC.

This section contains 1 paragraph, describing theory, experiments, data etc. 3 questions relate
to the paragraph. Each question has only one correct answer among the four given options (A),
(B), (C) and (D)
Paragraph for Question Nos. 20 to 22

Alkali metals oxide are obtained by combustion of the metals. Although Na normally gives Na2 O2, it will
take up further oxygen at elevated pressure and temperatures to form NaO2. The per and superoxides of
the heavier alkalies can also be prepared by passing stoichiometric amounts of oxygen into their solution in
liquid ammonia.
The different alkali metal oxides can be distinguished by reaction with water. The superoxides reacts with
CO2 and give oxygen gas. The stability of per and superoxides is based upon that larger cation can stablise
larger anion, due to larger lattice energy.
Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia. Dilute solutions are dark blue in colour but as the concentration
increases above 3M, the colour changes to copper bronze and the solution acquires the metallic lusture due
to the formation of metal ions clusters. The solution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia are good conductors
of electricity due to the presence of ammoniated cations and ammoniated electrons. However, the conductivity
decreases as the concentrations increases, since ammoniated electrons and ammoniated cation associate.
s-Block Elements
20. Solution of sodium metals in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence of :
(A) Sodium hydride (B) Sodium atoms (C) Sodium amide (D) Solvated electrons.
21. KO2 is used in oxygen cylinders in space and submarines because it.
(A) Eliminates moisture (B) Absorbs CO2 only
(C) Absorbs CO2 and increases O2 contents (D) Produces ozone.
22. Select the correct choice for alkali metal oxides.
(A) Metal oxides reacts with water forming only metal hydroxides
(B) Metal peroxides reacts with water forming metal hydroxides and oxygen gas
(C) Metal superoxides reacts with water forming metal hydroxide, Hydrogen peroxide and O2 gas
(D) All of these

which one is correct.
23. Match the reactions given in List I with the main products obtained and given in List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List - I List - II
(Reaction at given temperature) (Reaction involve)
(P) 200 C, 
CaSO4.2H2O  (1) Formation of lime

(Q) 1100 C, 
CaSO2.2H2O  (2) Setting of plaster of paris
 
(R) room temp.
2CaSO4.H2O + H2O  (3) Formation of burnt plaster
 
(S) CaSO4.2H2O 120 C, 
  (4) Formation of plaster of paris
Code :
P Q R S P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2 (B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 3 1 2 4 (D) 4 2 1 3
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART - 1
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (A)
PART - 2
1. (A,B) 2. (A,B) 3. (B,C) 4. (A,B,D) 5. (A,B,C)
6. (C,D) 7. (A,B,C) 8. (A,B,C) 9. (A,B,C,D) 10. (A,B,C)
11. (A,B,D) 12. (B,C,D) 13. (A,B,C,D) 14. (A,C) 15. (A,C)
16. (B,C,D) 17. (A,B,C,D) 18. (A,D) 19. (A,C) 20. (A,B)
s-Block Elements
PART - 3
1. 7 2. 3 3. 9 4.. 15
5. 4 (KO3, RbO2, Cs2O2, BaO2) 6. 3 7. 4 8. 18
9. 10. 10. 3
PART - 4
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B)
PART - 5
1. (A – p,r,s) ; (B – p,q) ; (C – p,r,s) ; (D – p,q, r). 2. (A – p) ; (B – p, q, s, t) ; (C – t) ; (D – q, r)
EXERCISE-5
PART - 1
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A)
4. (i) Beryllium chloride is acidic, when dissolved in water because the hydrated ion hydrolysed producing
H3O+. This happens because the Be–O bond is very strong, and so in the hydrated ion this weakens the
O–H bonds, and hence there is tendency to lose portons.
BeCl2 + 4H2O  [Be(H2O)4] Cl2 ; [Be(H2O)4]2+ + H2O  [Be(H2O)3 (OH)]+ + H3O+
5. A = Ca(OH)2, B = NH4HCO3 , C = Na2CO3, D = NH4Cl, E = CaCl2
6. (i) Na2O2 is powerful oxidant and bleaching agent and bleaches red litmus paper to white in aqueous
solution according to the following reaction,
Na2O2 + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2O + [O]
[O] + Litmus  White (bleaching)
(ii) The other compound Na2O will give NaOH on dissolution in water according to the following reaction.
Na2O + H2O  2NaOH .
The red litmus will turn to blue due to stronger alkaline nature of NaOH.
7. (B)
H2 O
8. Na2CO3 + SO2  2NaHSO3 (A) + CO2
2NaHSO3 + Na2CO3  2Na2SO3 (B) + H2O + CO2


Na2SO3 + S  Na2S2O3 (C)
2Na2S2O3 + I2  Na2S4O6 (D) + 2NaI
Oxidation states of S + 4 in NaHSO3 [1 + 1 + x + 3(–2) = 0] and +4 in Na2SO3 [2 + x + 3(–2) = 0] ;
+ 6 and – 2 (or an average + 2) in Na2S2O3 and +5 and 0 (or an average + 5/2) in Na2S4O6.
9. (B) 10.* (A,B)
PART - 2
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A,B,C,D) 9. (B,C,D) 10. (A,B,C)
11. (A,D) 12. (A,C) 13. (A,C) 14. 6 15. 2
16. 6. 17. 5 18. 4 19. 4 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A)
p-Block Elements (B & C Family)

EXERCISE-4
1. Bauxite (Al2O3.2H2O) and Aluminosilicate both are ores of aluminium. Bauxite is found on earth but not on
Mars whereas Aluminosilicate is found on earth as well as Mars. Possible reason is :
(A) No human colony on Mars. (B) No tropical rain forests on Mars.
(C) No need of bauxite on Mars (D) Closeness of earth to sun.
2. Isolation of boron in very high purity is extremely difficult because of :
(A) Strong tendency of boron to acquire electron rich atoms such as C, N or O
(B) High melting point of boron (2180ºC)
(C) Tremendous affinity of liquid Boron towards oxygen.
(D) All of these
3.
Identify true statement :

(A) Excess of SiO2 should not be used in above process
(B) Produced Si is highly pure
(C) Cl2 & Mg are oxidising agents.
(D) Zone refining is not used for ultrapure Si.
heat
Reaction I : 3C (natural graphite) + SiO2  2500 º C
4.  SiC   C(graphite) + Si
 2CO
Reaction II : SiO2 + 2C  Si + 2CO
Reaction I is used in production of synthetic graphite, whereas Reaction II is used in extraction of silicon.
(A) Reaction I – SiO2 in excess ; Reaction II – SiO2 in excess
(B) Reaction I – C in excess ; Reaction II – SiO2 in excess
(C) Reaction I – SiO2 in excess ; Reaction II – C in excess
(D) It does not matter.
5. Catenation tendency in group 14 is :
(A) C >> Si > Ge _~ Pb due to bond energies C–H > Si–H > Ge–H > Sn–H
(B) C >> Si > Ge ~_ Sn > Pb due to bond energies C–C > Si–C > Ge–C > Sn–C
(C) C _~ Si _~ Ge _~ Sn _~ Pb due to bond energies C–H > Si–H > Ge–H > Sn–H
(D) C >> Si > Ge _~ Sn > Pb due to bond energies C–C > Si–Si > Ge–Ge > Sn–Sn
6. Given the order of density : Diamond > Graphite > Fullerene C60 ; choose the correct order for C–C bond
length
(Consider larger bond length if there are two different bond lengths)
(A) Diamond < graphite < fullerene (C60) (B) Diamond > graphite > fullerene (C60)
(C) Diamond > fullerene (C60) > graphite (D) Diamond < fullerene (C60) < graphite
7. An element E = {B, C, Si, Ge}, predict E on the basic of given conditions :
I : Powdered E reacts with O2 to form an oxide.
II : Oxide formed in I reacts with NaOH
III : E reacts with steam on red heat forming two gaseous products, which can be used as a fuel.
E can be :
(A) B (B) C (C) Si (D) Ge
8. In limited supply of oxygen C & Si are allowed to react at sufficiently high temperatures in separate
vessels, favourable products are :
(A) CO2 & SiO2 (B) CO, CO2, SiO & SiO2
(C) CO, CO2 & SiO2 (D) CO & SiO2
9. 2E + N2  2EN (very hard substance)
EN + H2O  Acid + pungent smelling gas
Acid is :
(A) HNO3 (B) H3BO3 (C) HNO2 (D) can be A & B
10. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda because :
(A) washing soda is expensive
(B) washing soda is easily decomposed
(C) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble aluminate
(D) washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble aluminium oxide
11. Select the incorrect statement of the following.
(A) Aluminium is often used as reducing agent for liberation of other metals from their oxides.
(B) Anhydrous AlCl3 can be prepared by treating Al2O3 with coke and chlorine gas.
(C) Aluminium readily dissolves in both dilute as well as in concentrated nitric acid.
(D) Aluminium hydroxide is soluble in both aqueous alkali and acids indicating its amphoteric nature.
12. Aqueous ammonia is used as a precipitating reagent for Al3+ ions as Al(OH)3 rather than aqueous NaOH,
because :
(A) N H4 is a weak base (B) NaOH is a very strong base
(C) NaOH forms soluble [Al(OH)4]- ions (D) NaOH forms [Al(OH)2]+ ions
13. Borax is used as a buffer since :
(A) Its aqueous solution contains both the weak acid and its salt
(B) Its aqueous solution contains H3BO3, which is a weak acid
(C) Its aqueous solution contains equal amount of strong acid and its salt
(D) statement that borax is a buffer, is wrong
14. Which of the following compound is obtained on heating potassium ferrocyanide with concentrated H2SO4?
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) C2H2 (D) (CN)2
15. B(OH)3 + NaOH  Na[B(OH)4] (aq).

Then addition of which of the following shifts the reaction in the backward direction.
(A) Glycerol (B) Mannitol (C) Catechol (D) Ethanol

16. H3BO3(s) + aq. NaOH  (X)

H3BO3(s) + molten NaOH  (Y)
Compound (X) & (Y) are respectively,
(A) Na3BO3 , Na3B (B) Na3BO3 , NaBO2
(C) Na[B(OH)4], Na3BO3 (D) Na3BO3 , Na[B(OH)4]
17. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added in excess to the solution of potash alum, we obtain :
(A) a white precipitate (B) bluish white precipitate
(C) a clear solution (D) a crystalline mass
18.
true statement is :
(A) z is least reactive non-metal (B) w is cooling
(C) y is electron deficient (D) All of these
450 K
19. B2H6 + NH3  Addition compound (X)    Y + Z (g)
In the above sequence Y and Z are respectively :
(A) borazine, H2 (B) boron, H2
(C) boron nitride, H2 (D) borazine and hydrogen
20. Borazine and benzene show striking similarities in their properties. This led to a labeling of borazine as
‘inorganic benzene’. However, in contrast to benzene, borazine readily undergoes addition reactions. The
appropriate reason for this difference is :
(A) Alternate arrangement of B and N atoms in the hexagonal ring.
(B) Due to the difference in electronegativity between boron and nitrogen, the cloud (electron density) is
more localised on the nitrogen atoms.
(C) Aromatic -clouds of electron density are delocalised over all of the ring atoms.
(D) Net dipole moment of borazine molecule is non-zero.
21. (SnCl4) stannic chloride hydrolyses in dilute solution as per given reaction
SnCl4 + 4H2O  [Sn(OH)4] + 4HCl
Hydrolysis can be repressed by adding compound "A".
SnCl4 + A  B
B can be :
(A) Sn(OH)4 (B) SnCl2 (C) H2SnCl6 (D) Sn(OH)Cl
22. Amphoteric oxide (X) + 3C + Cl2  Poisonous gas + anhydrous chloride (Y)

Hydrated chloride  Z
Element forming 'Y' other than 'Cl' reacts with concentrated HCl but leads to passivation with conc.
HNO3. Select the correct option.
(A) X = Z and Y on reacting with LiH forms strong oxidising agent
(B) X = Z and Y on reacting with LiH forms strong reducing agent
(C) X  Z and Y is used as a catalyst in Friedel crafts reaction
(D) X  Z and Y on reacting with LiH forms strong oxidising agent
23. BF3 on hydrolysis forms :
(A) H3BO3 (B) HBF4 (C) both (A) and (B) (D) none of these
24. Preparation of organosilicones from SiCl4 involves substitution in first step :
SiCl4 + xRMgCl  (R)x SiCl4–x + xMgCl2
Values of 'x' to obtain chain terminating & chain multiplication parts of chain silicone produced are respectively:
(A) 1 & 2 (B) 2 & 1 (C) 2 & 3 (D) 3 & 2
25. To get the silicone R3Si–(OSiR2)n–SiR3 having 4Si–O–Si linkage, the unit taken is
(A) 4 unit of R2SiCl2 and 2 unit of R3SiCl (B) 2 unit of R2SiCl2 and 2 unit of R3SiCl
(C) 3 unit of R2SiCl2 and 2 unit of R3SiCl (D) 3 unit of R3SiCl and 2 unit R2SiCl2

1. Select the correct statement(s).
(A) The graphite is diamagnetic and diamond is paramagnetic in nature.
(B) Graphite acts as a metallic conductor along the layers of carbon atoms
(C) Graphite is less denser than diamond
(D) C60 is called as Buckminster fullerene
2. One of the most fascinating developments in Modern chemistry has been the synthesis of Buckminister
fullerene, C60. Identify the correct options about C60.
(A) It consists of fused 5 and 6 membered carbon rings.
(B) All atoms are not-equivalent.
(C) All bonds are not-equivalent
(D) C–C bond lengths at the fusion of two 6-membered rings are shorter with the C–C bond length at the
fusion of 5-and 6-membered rings.
3. Boron can be obtained by :
(A) reduction of B2O3 by C.
(B) reduction of BCl3 with H2 at 1270 K.
(C) thermal decomposition of boron halides at 1173 K.
(D) electrolytic reduction of KBF4 in KF at 1073 K.
4. Aluminium can be prepared by :
(A) Electrolytic reduction of alumina in presence of Cryolite & fluorspar.
(B) Reduction of AlCl3(s) by potassium amalgam.
(C) Reduction of aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 (aq) by zinc metal.
(D) Thermal decomposition of aluminium oxide.
5. Which of the following can produce silicon.
(A) Reduction of SiO2 by carbon (B) Reduction of SiO2 by Silicon carbide
(C) Thermal decomposition of SiH4 (D) Thermal decomposition of SiC
6. Which of the following facts regarding boron and silicon is true ?
(A) Boron is used to make boron steel or boron carbide control rods for nuclear reactor.
(B) Boron and silicon form halides which are not hydrolysed.
(C) Boron and silicon react with magnesium to form magnesium boride and magnesium silicide which are
decomposed by acids to give volatile borane and silane, respectively.
(D) Both boron and silicon react with alkali to form borates and silicates containing BO33– and SiO44–
tetrahedral units, respectively.
7. Graphite and diamond will behave differently in which of the following reactions ?
(A) Burning in sufficient air (B) Reaction with hot conc. HNO3
(C) Reaction with F2 (D) Reaction with NaOH (aq.)
8. Which statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) Al acts as a reducing agent
(B) Al does not react with steam even at higher temperature
(C) Al forms a number of alloys with other metals
(D) Al is ionic in all its compounds
9. What products are expected from the reaction between colemanite powder and sodium carbonate solution,
when they are heated ?
(A) CaCO3 (B) Na 2 B4 O7 (C) NaBO2 (D) CaO
10. Which of the following statements are true.
(A) Red lead (Pb3O4) is diamagnetic and contains both Pb+2 and Pb+4 ions.
(B) Both PbO and PbO2 are amphoteric in nature.
(C) Stannate and plumbate ions results in SnO2 and PbO2 with acidic solution.
(D) Concentrated Nitric acid oxidises red lead into lead dioxide.
11. Which of the following forms tetrahydridoborates.
(A) (Li) (B) Na (C) NH4 + (D) Ag+
12. Borax bead test is given by :
(A) An aluminium salt (B) A cobalt salt (C) A copper (II) salt (D) A nickel salt
13. Carbon monoxide is prepared by :
(A) heating formic acid with conc. H2SO4 (B) heating potassium ferrocyanide with conc H2SO4
(C) heating malonic acid with P4O10 (D) hydrolysis of Mg2C3
14. The hydroxide of which metal ion is soluble in excess of sodium hydroxide solution :
(A) Fe3+ (B) Cr3+ (C) Sn2+ (D) Cu2+
15. Which of the following statements is true ?
(A) Small amines such as NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH give unsymmetrical cleavage of diborane.
(B) Boron hydrides can't be used as high energy fuels.
(C) Boron hydrides are readily hydrolysed.
(D) Borazine hydrolyses to NH3 and boric acid at elevated temperature, if heated with water.
16. Diborane undergoes unsymmetrical cleavage reactions with :
(A) dimethylamine (B) ammonia at low temperature
(C) methylamine (D) carbon dioxide
17. Select correct statements :
(A) B2H6 is stronger lewis acid than BF3 (B) BF3 is weaker lewis acid than BCl3
(C) B2H6 is not a lewis acid (D) In B2H6 all 'H' atoms are not in the same plane
(A) The oxide, B2O3 and B(OH)3 are acidic
(B) The halides of B (except BF3) and Si are hydrolysed.
(C) The hydrides of B and Si are volatile, spontaneously flammable and readily hydrolysed.
(D) Aluminium hydride is a polymer, (AlH3)n.
19. Which of the following species exists :
(A) [BF6]3- (B) [AlF6]3- (C) [GaF6]3- (D) [InF6]3-
20. Which is/are true in case of BF3 ?
(A) It is volatile liquid even at room temperature (B) It is Lewis acid
(C) It has planar geometry (D) It forms adduct with NH3
21. Which of the following statements about anhydrous aluminium chloride is/are incorrect ?
(A) It exists as AlCl3 molecule in gaseous phase (B) It is a strong Lewis base
(C) It sublimes at 100oC under vacuum (D) It is not easily hydrolysed
22. Which of following are correct.
(A) B2H6 is non-planar.
(B) B2H6 undergo symmetrical cleavage with PF3, CO and (C2H5)3N
(C) B2H6 undergo unsymmetrical cleavage with NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH.
(D) BeH2(s) , Ga2Me6 , Al2Me6 have two type of bonds (2C–2e bond as well as 2C–2e bond)
23. A complex cross-linked polymer (silicone) is formed by
(A) hydrolysis of (CH3)3SiCl. (B) hydrolysis of a mixture of (CH3)3SiCl and (CH3)2SiCl2
(C) hydrolysis of CH3SiCl3 (D) hydrolysis of SiCl4 .
24. Select the correct statement (s)
(A) CH3SiCl3 undergoes hydrolysis followed by inter molecular elimination of water to form a complex
cross - linked polymer (i.e silicone)
(B) Silicone fluids are thermally stable.
(C) In sheet silicate, three oxygen atoms of each tetrahedral are shared with adjacent SiO 44 – tetrahedrals.
(D) Silica is attacked by HF and NaOH.
25. Which is incorrect about permutit or zeolite :
(A) By it both temporary and permanent hardness of water can not be removed.
(B) It formula is Na2Al2Si3O8.xH2O
(C) It softens hard water by exchanging its Na+ ions with Ca2+ and Mg2+ present in hard water.
(D) Exhausted zeolite can be regenerated by passing conc. solution of NaCl through it.

1. How many of the following statements are correct regarding allotropes of carbon :
(a) Graphite is not a good conductor of electricity in perpendicular direction of layers at ordinary temperatures.
(b) Coke is the impure form of carbon.
(c) Anthracite is the purest form of Carbon.
(d) Buckminister fullerene contains 12 five membered rings and 20 six-membered rings.
(e) Diamond is a good conductor of Heat.
(f) Graphite is diamagnetic in nature.
(g) Graphite is thermodynamically more stable than diamond
2. For Boron family (B, A, Ga, In and T).
x : Number of elements which are solid at 40ºC.
y : Period number of element which has greater ionization energy than element just above and below it in
periodic table.
z : Period number of most abundant element of group 13.
Report your answer x + 2y + 3z
3. Consider a prototypical fullerene, C60.
Let, a = Number of 5-membered rings ; b = Number of 6-membered rings
c = Number of -bonds in C60
Find the value of (3a – 2b + c)
4. Central atom may exhibit sp3 hybridisation in how many of the following species :
(a) CO2 (b) Graphite (c) Diamond (d) CO
(e) H3BO3 (aq) (f) Zeolites (Si-central) (g) Silicones (Si) (h) Chlorosilane (Si)
(i) Borax (Boron) (j) Al2Cl6 (k) B2H6 (l) SiO2 (solid)
(m) H2CO3 (n) COCl2 (o) CH4 (p) CCl4
5. How many of the following order of bond energies are correct.
(i) C – C > Si – Si (ii) C – O > Si – O (iii) C – F > Si – F
(iv) C – F > Si – F (v) C – H > Si – H (vi) Si – Cl > C – Cl
(vii) Si – Si > C – Si (viii) C – Br > Si – Br
6. The number of oxygen atoms in borax which do not form p-p back bond is :
7. B10C2H12 is isostructural & isoelectronic with borate ion of formula BxHyZ– give x + y + z.
8. B + HNO3  (A) + (B)
conc. white solid brown gas
How many of the following statements are correct regarding products (A) & (B) ?
(1) (A) can be prepared by reacting borax with dilute acids.
(2) (A) is a weak monobasic lewis acid.
(3) (A) behaves like an electrolyte when dissolved in water.
(4) (A) can be prepared by reacting colemanite ,SO2 & H2O.
(5) (B) is paramagnetic in nature.
(6) (B) is a mixed anhydride.
(7) (B) does not forms a dimer
(8) (B) reacts with NaOH(aq) undergoing disproportionation.
(9) Bond angle about central atom is greater in (A) than in (B). (Assume atom forming maximum number
of bonds as central atom)
9. Which of the following salts are amphoteric in nature.
PbO , PbO2 , SnO , SnO2 , Al2O3 , ZnO, BeO, Ca2O3 , B2O3 .
10. How many compounds show amphoteric nature amongst following.
B2O3, Tl2O3, Al(OH)3, Ga(OH)3, Al2O3, Ga2O3 , NaAlO2 , Sr(OH)2, Cr2O3
11. How many compounds form acidic solution when dissolved in water.
H3PO4, H3BO3 , Na2B4O7.10H2O, H3P3O9, Ba(OH)2 Ca(OH)2 , PbO, CO
HCl
12. Mg + B  MgxBy   Diborane
Report your answer as (x + y).
13. 4 moles of NaBH4 react completely with I2.
Calculate volume of gaseous products at STP from above process.
(Give your answer by dividing 4.48)
14. Reduction of 117.5 g BCl3 by H2 in silent electric discharge produces HCl, which required 500 mL of xM
NaOH for neutralization. Report x.
15. No of compounds producing gas on hydrolysis (with H2O) is .......
Al4C3 , BaC2, Mg2C3, SiC, B2H6, Fe3C
16. How many of the given statements are true for potash Alum.
(1) It is a white crystalline solid
(2) It swells up on heating
(3) It imparts a golden yellow colour to the bunsen flame
(4) An aqueous solution of the above gives a white precipitate with BaCl2 solution soluble only in concentrated
sulphuric acid.
(5) An aqueous solution of the above given a white gelatinous precipitate on treatment with NH4OH.
Which dissolves in aqueous NaOH in excess and reappears, On boiling with concentrated NH4Cl solution.
(6) It gives a yellow precipitate with Cobalt nitrile solution.
(7) White precipitate in 5th state can also be obtained by passing H2S gas in aqueous solution of the above.
17. What is the number of oxygen atoms which are shared between tetrahedrons in Si3O96–.
18. In benitonite (BaTiSi3O9) number of O atoms shared persilicate tetrahedron is.......
19. The overall charge present on the cyclic silicate anion [Si6O18]–n is “–n”. Report n.
20. The silicate anion in the mineral kinoite is a chain of three SiO4 tetrahedron that share corners with adjaent
tetrathedra. The mineral also contains Ca2+ and Cu2+ and As2+ ion & water molecule in a 1 : 1 : 1 ratio. The
formula of mineral is Ca2Cu2Si3On. 2N2O. Give value of ‘n”.
21. Straight chain polymer is formed by hydrolysis of [x] which is tetrasubstituted chloromethylsilane then
followed by condensation polymerization. Atomicity of [x] is :
22. Zeolites are minerals of the composition M x  [(AlO2)x(SiO2)y].ZH2O

 
n
Where ‘n’ is the charge on the metal cation. These structure contain various rings which result in formation
of a fairly open structure containing channels and cavities at molecular level (2 to 11 Å) in diameter). They
may be used to trap molecules of various sizes, this makes them very useful as “Selective absorbants” or
as “molecular sieves”. In the structure of zeolites :
(A) Each Al atom is attached to ‘p’ oxygen atoms direcly
(B) Each Si atom is attached to ‘q’ oxygen atoms directly
(C) Each Al atom is attached to ‘r’ Si atoms directly
(D) Each O atom is spt hybridized.
Find (p + q + r + t)
Read the following comprehension carefully and answer the questions
Comprehension # 1
Compound (A) on reaction with iodine in the solvent diglyme gives a hydride (B) and hydrogen gas. The
product (B) is instantly hydrolysed by water or aqueous alkali forming compound (C) and liberating hydrogen
gas. The compound (C) in aqueous solution behaves as a weak mono basic acid. But in presence of certain
organic polyhydroxy compound behaves as a strong monobasic acid. The hydride (B) in air catches fire
spontaneously forming oxide which gives coloured beads with transition metal compounds.
1. Which of the following statement is correct for the product (C) ?
(A) It is an odd electron molecule. (B) It in water acts as proton donor.
(C) It in solid state have hydrogen bonding. (D) It is a useful primary standard for titrating against acids.
2. Aqueous solution of product (C) can be titrated against sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein indicator
only in presence of :
(A) cis-1, 2 diol (B) trans-1, 2 diol (C) borax (D) Na2 HPO4
3. Which of the following statement is correct for hydride (B) ?
(A) One mole of it react with two moles of HCl.
(B) It reacts with excess of ammonia at low temperature to form an ionic compound.
(C) One mole of it reacts with one mole of trimethylamine.
(D) It reacts with methyl alcohol to form a trimethyl compound liberating oxygen gas.
Comprehension # 2
All the boron trihalides except B3 may be prepared by direct reaction between the elements. Boron
trihalides consist of trigonal - planar BX3 molecules. Unlike the halides of the other elements in the group
they are monomeric in the gas, liquid and solid states, BF3 and BCl3 are gases, BBr3 is a volatile liquid and
B3 is a solid. Boron trihalides are Lewis acids because they form simple Lewis complexes with suitable
bases, as in the reaction :
BF3 (g) + :NH3 (g)  F3B – NH3 (s)
However, boron chlorides, bromides and iodides are susceptible (sensitive) to protolysis by mild proton
sources such as water, alcohols and even amines; for example BCl3 undergoes rapid hydrolysis:
BCl3 (g) + 3H2O()  B (OH)3 (aq)+ 3HCl (aq)
It is supposed that the first step in the above reaction is the formation of the complex
Cl3B  OH2 which then eliminates HCl and reacts further with water..
4. Which of the following is the best order of Lewis acid strength of BF3, BCl3 and BBr3 ?
(A) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 (B) BF3 = BCl3 = BBr3 (C) BF3 < BCl3 < BBr3 (D) BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3
5. Which of the following is the correct prediction about observed B–X bond length, in BX3 molecules ?
(A) B–F bond length in BF3 is found to be less than theoretical value because the electronegativity values
of B(2.04) and F(4.0) suggest the bond to be ionic and hence the attraction between oppositely charged
ions must decrease the bond length
(B) BF3 and [BF4]– have equal B–F bond length
(C) The decrease in the B–F bond length in BF3 is due to delocalised p – p bonding between vacant ‘2p’
orbital of B and filled ‘2p’ orbital of F.
(D) The correct B–X bond length order is B–F > B–Cl > B–Br > B–
6. Which is correct about the hydrolysis of BX3 ?
(A) All BX3 undergo hydrolysis to produce B(OH)3 (aq) and HX(aq).
(B) BF3 does not undergo complete hydrolysis due to formation of HBF4.
(C) BBr3 does not undergo hydrolysis at all because it cannot form H–bonds with water.
(D) All the above are correct
7. Which of the following reactions is incorrect ?
(A) BF3(g) + F– (aq)  [BF4]– (aq)
(B) BCl3 (g) + 3EtOH()  B(OEt)3 () + 3HCl (g)
(C) BBr3 () + F3BN(CH3)3 (s)  BF3(g) + Br3BN(CH3)3 (s)
(D) BCl3 (g) + 2 C5H5N ()  Cl3B(C5 H5 N)2 (s)
(excess)
Comprehension # 3
The small size and high charge of Al3+ ion gives it a high charge density which is responsible for its
tendency to show (a) covalency in its compounds in the gaseous state (b) high hydration energy which
stabilizes its compounds in solution, and (c) high lattice energy of its compounds in the solid state. Thus
aluminium can forms both covalent and ionic bond.
Like halides of boron, halides of aluminium do not show back bonding because of increase in size of
aluminium. Actually aluminium atoms complete their octets by forming dimers. Thus chloride and bromide
of aluminium exist as dimers, both in the vapour state and in polar-solvents like benzene while the
corresponding boron halides exists as monomer. In boron trihalides the extent of back bonding decreases
with increase in size of halogens and thus lewis acid character increases. All BX3 are hydrolysed by water
but BF3 shows a different behaviour.
8. The dimeric structure of aluminium chloride disappears when :
(A) it dissolves in water (B) it reacts with donor molecules like R3N
(C) it dissolves in benzene (D) (A) & (B) both
9. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) All boron trihalides are hydrolysed to boric acid.
(B) Anhydrous aluminium chloride is an ionic compound
(C) Aluminium halides make up the electron deficiency by bridging with halide or alkyl groups
(D) None of these
10. Which of the following statements about anhydrous aluminium chloride is correct?
(A) It is an ionic compound. (B) It is not easily hydrolysed.
(C) It sublimes at 100°C under vaccum. (D) It is a strong lewis base.
11. Which of the following reaction is incorrect ?
(A) BF3(g) + F–(aq)  BF4–
(B) BF3(g) + 2H2O  [BF3OH]– + H3O+
(C) BCl3(g) + 3EtOH()  B(Oet)3() + 3HCl
(D) BCl3(g) + 2C5H5N()  Cl3B(C5H5N)2(s)

1. Match the reactions listed in column-I with characteristic(s) / type of reactions listed in column-II.
Column - I Column- II
(A) BBr3 + H2  B (p) Borax bead test
(B) Na2B4O7.10 H2O + CuSO4  Cu(BO2)2 (q) Reduction
(C) AlCl3 + H2O  HCl (r) White fumes
(D) Cr2O3 + Al  Cr (s) Hydrolysis
2. Match the reactions listed in column-I with characteristic(s) / type of reactions listed in column-II.
Column - I Column- II
(A) Al2 (C2)3 + H2O  (p) One of the products contains both  and  bonds
(B) CH2 (COOH)2 + P4O10  (q) Hydrolysis
(C) CH3 SiCl3 + H2O  (r) Dehydration

on
(D) SnCl2.2H2O   
s tan ding
(s) complex crosslinked polymer
EXERCISE-5
Group 13th
1. Write the chemical reactions associated with the ‘borax bead test’ of cobalt () oxide.[JEE 2000 (M)]
2. Compound (X) on reduction with LiAlH4 gives a hydride (Y) containing 21.72% hydrogen along with other
products. The compound (Y) reacts with air explosively resulting in boron trioxide. Identify (X) and (Y).
Give balanced reactions involved in the formation of (Y) and its reaction with air. Draw structure of (Y).
[JEE 2001 (M)]
3. Write balanced equations for the reactions of the following compounds with water :[JEE 2002 (M)]
(i) Al4C3 (ii) CaNCN (iii) BF3 (iv) NCl3 (v) XeF4
4. How is boron obtained from borax ? Give chemical equations with reaction conditions. Write the structure
of B2H6 and its reaction with HCl. [JEE 2002 (M)]
5. H3BO3 is : [JEE 2003 (S)]
(A) monobasic and weak Lewis acid (B) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid
(C) monobasic and strong Lewis acid (D) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid
6. B(OH)3 + NaOH  Na[B(OH)4] (aq).
Then addition of which of the following proceeds the reaction in the forward direction ? [JEE 2006]
(A) Cis-1, 2 diol (B) Trans 1, 2 diol (C) Borax (D) Na2 HPO4
7. Match the reactions in Column-I with nature of the reactions in column-II. [JEE 2006]
Column-I Column-II
3+
(A) Bi  (BiO) + (p) Heat
(B) [AIO2]–  Al(OH)3 (q) Hydrolysis
(C) SiO44–  Si 2O76 (r) Acidification
(D) (B4O72–)  [B(OH)3] (s) Dilution by water
8. Statement-1 : In water, orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid, because
Statement-2 : In water, orthoboric acid acts as a proton donor. [JEE 2007 (P-)]
9. The coordination number of Al in the crystalline state of AlCl3 is : [JEE 2009 (P-)]
10.* The correct statement(s) for orthoboric acid is/are [JEE(Advanced) 2014]
(A) It behaves as a weak acid in water due to self ionization.
(B) Acidity of its aqueous solution increases upon addition of ethylene glycol.
(C) It has a three dimensional structure due to hydrogen bonding.
(D) It is weak electrolyte in water.
Group 14th
11. Starting from SiCl4, prepare the following in steps not exceeding the number given in parenthesis
(give reactions only) : [JEE 2001 (M)]
(i) Silicon (1) (ii) Linear silicone containing methyl groups (4) (iii) Na2SiO3 (3)
12. (Me)2 SiCl2 on hydrolysis will produce : [JEE 2003 (S)]
(A) (Me)2 Si(OH)2 (B) (Me)2 Si = O
(C) – [O(Me)2 Si O]n (D) Me2SiCl(OH)
13. Which of the following silicate is formed when three oxygen atoms of [SiO4]4– tetrahedral units are shared
? [JEE 2005(S)]
(A) Sheet silicate (B) Pyrosilicate
(C) Three dimensional silicate (D) linear chain silicate
14. Statement-1 : Pb+4 compounds are stronger oxidizing agents than Sn4+ compounds
Statement-2 : The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier
members of the group due to 'inert pair effect'. [JEE 2008 (P-)]
15.* In the reaction, 2X + B2H6  [BH2(X)2]+ [BH4]–
the amine(s) X is(are) : [JEE 2009 (P-)]
(A) NH3 (B) CH3NH2 (C) (CH3)2NH (D) (CH3 )3 N
16. The value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18 is : [JEE 2010 (P-)]
17. Three moles of B2H6 are completely reacted with methanol. The number of moles of boron containing
product formed is [JEE-Advance 2015]
18. Under hydrolytic conditions, the compounds used for preparation of linear polymer and for chain termination,
respectively, are : [JEE-Advance 2015]
(A) CH3SiCI3 and Si(CH3)4 (B) (CH3)2SiCI2 and (CH3)3SiCI
(C) (CH3)SiCl2 and CH3SiCl3 (D) SiCl4 and (CH3)3SiCl
ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-4
PART - 1
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (D)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C)
PART - 2
1. (B,C,D) 2. (A,B,C,D) 3. (B,C,D) 4. (A,B) 5. (A,B,C)
6. (A,C,D) 7. (B,C) 8. (A,B,C) 9. (A,B,C) 10. (A,B,C)
11. (A,B) 12. (B,C,D) 13. (A,B) 14. (B,C) 15. (A,C,D)
16. (A,B,C) 17. (B,D) 18. (A,B,C,D) 19. (B,C,D) 20. (B,C,D)
21. (A,B,D) 22. (A,B,C,D) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A,B)
PART - 3
1. 6 2. 21 3. 26 4. 11 5. 3
6. 3 7. 26 8. 7 9. 8 10. 5
11. 3 12. 5 13. 20 14. 6 15. 4
16. 6 17. 3 18. 2 19. 12 20. 10
21. 11 22. 10
PART - 4
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D)
PART - 5
1. (A – q) ; (B – p) ; (C – r, s) ; (D – q). 2. (A – p, q) ; (B– p, r) ; (C – q, s) ; (D – q)
EXERCISE-5
PART - 1

1. Na2 B4 O7.10H2O   B2O3 + 2Na+ + BO2– ; B2O3 + CoO  Co(BO2)2
 10 H2O
Blue bead
2. X = BF3 or BCl3 ; Y = B2H6
Ether
4BF3 (X) + 3LiAlH4  2B2H6 (Y) + 3 LiAlF4 ; B2 H6 + 3O2  B2O3 + 3H2O + Heat.
Structure of Y =
3. (i) Al4C3 + H2O  4 Al(OH)3 + 3CH4  (ii) CaNCN + 3H2O  CaCO3  + 2NH3 
(iii) 4BF3 + 6H2O  H3BO3 + 3 [BF4]– + 3H3O+ (iv) NCl3 + 3H2O  NH3 + 3HOCl
(v) 6XeF4 + 12H2O  4Xe + 2XeO3 + 24HF + 3O2.

4. Na 2B 4O 7 .10H2 O  Na 2B 4O 7 (aq) ; Na 2B 4O 7  2HCl  2NaCl  H2B 4 O 7 (tetra boric acid)
red hot
H2B 4 O 7  5H2 O  4H3BO 3 2H3BO 3    B 2O 3  3H2O
;
Boric acid Boric anhydride
Fusion
B2O3  3Mg / Na / Al   2B  3MgO ; Reaction with HCl : B2H6 + HCl  B2H5Cl + H2
Structure of B2H6 :
B................ H ................ B is hydrogen bridge i.e, 3 centre-2 electron bond.
5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A – q, s) ; (B – q, r, s) ; (C – p, q, r, s) ; (D – q,r, s).
8. (C) 9. 6 10.* (B,D)
11. (i) 3SiCl4(vapour) + 4Al(molten) 4AlCl3 + 3Si

Cu powder
(ii) (a) 3SiCl4 + 4Al 4AlCl3 + 3Si (b) Si + 2CH3Cl     (CH3)2SiCl2
570 ºC
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

| |
2 H2 O 
(c) (CH3)2 SiCl2   HO – Si – OH (d) nHO – Si – OH  HO Si O Si O
– 2HCl – n H 2O
| |
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 n
linear silicone
(thermoplastic polymer)
(iii) (a) SiCl4 + 4H2O  H4SiO4 or Si(OH)4 (ortho silicic acid) + 4HCl

(b) H4SiO4  SiO2 + 2H2O
(c) SiO2 + Na2CO3 1400 ºC
  Na2SiO3 + CO2
12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15.* (A,B,C) 16. 3

17. 6 18. (B)
PART - 2
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4)
6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)
11. (1) 12. All statement are correct there is no answer

JEE Advanced O & I Chemistry-XI

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JEE Advanced O & I Chemistry-XI

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JEE

IUPAC Nomenclature and structural isomerism

Structure Identification and POC

p-Block element (group 13 &14)

1. IUPAC & STRUCTURAL ISOMERISM

1.1 Exercise 1-12

1.2 Answer Key 12-12

2. STRUCTURE IDENTIFICATION & POC

2.1 Exercise 13-22

2.2 Answer Key 23-23

3. GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - I

3.1 Exercise 24-36

3.2 Answer Key 37-37

4. GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY - II

4.1 Exercise 38-55

4.2 Answer Key 55-55

5.1 Exercise 56-64

5.2 Answer Key 64-64

6.1 Exercise 65-85

6.2 Answer Key 86-89

7.1 Exercise 90-99

7.2 Answer Key 99-100

8.1 Exercise 101-111

8.2 Answer Key 111-112

IUPAC Nmenclature and Structural Isomerism

1. IUPAC name of the compound is

(A) 2, 2, 5-Trimethyl-4-(1-methylpropyl) nonane

3. The correct IUPAC name of is :

(A) 1, 4-Diethyl-2-methyl-5-propylcyclohexane (B) 1, 4-Diethyl-5-methyl-2-propylcyclohexane

5. The correct IUPAC numbering in the compound is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

6. The correct IUPAC name of .

(A) 1-Ethylidenecyclohex-2-ene (B) 3-Ethylidenecyclohex-1-ene

(A) 2-Ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-2-one. (B) 2-Ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-3-one.

10. Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 1, 2, 3-Triaminobutane-1, 3-dione (B) 2, 4-Diamino-3-oxobutanamide

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Relation between above compounds is:

(A) and (B) and

(C) and (D) and H—CC—CC—H

3. Which of the following IUPAC names are correct.

3-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethylcyclohexane 1-Ethyl-3-methyl-5-propylcyclohexane

6. Which of the following IUPAC names are correct.

(B) Cyclohexanoyl chloride.

(D) Methyl 2-bromocyclohexanecarboxylate

7. Which of the following IUPAC names are incorrect.

Methyl-3-nitrobenzenecarboxylate Ethyl 3-phenylbenzene-1-carboxylate

Ethyl 2–methyl-2-(3–nitrophenyl)ethanoate 1, 1, 1-Trichloro-2, 2-di(4-chlorophenyl) ethane

CH3 CH3 CH3

(A) I & II are functional isomers. (B) II & IV are metamers.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

PART- 3: SINGLE OR DOUBLE DIGIT INTEGER TYPE

(a) (b) (c)

Ethylmethyl 1-Methylpropyl 2,3-Dimethylpropyl

(d) (e) = CH–CH3 (f)

(g) –C CH (h) –CH2 –CH=CH 2 (i) –CH2 –C CH

(a) (b) (c)

(d) (e) (f)

4. What is the degree of unsaturation in a compound with molecular formula C9H6N4?

(a) & position isomers

(b) & Metamers

(c) & Functional isomere

(d) & Position isomers