PHYSICAL EDUCATION UNIT

P.E. TAKE HOME QUESTIONS

ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS

1. How should you open the airway of an unconscious casualty?

A. Head tilt and chin lift.

B. Jaw thrust.

C. Head tilt and jaw thrust.

D. Lift the chin.

2. How long would you check to see if an unconscious casualty is breathing normally?

A. No more than 10 seconds.

B. Approximately 10 seconds.

C. Exactly 10 seconds.

D. At least 10 seconds.

3. You are a lone first aider and have an unconscious non-breathing adult, what should you
do first?

A. Start CPR with 30 chest compressions.

B. Give five initial rescue breaths.

C. Call 911/112 requesting AED (defibrillator) and ambulance.

D. Give two initial rescue breaths.

4. Which is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for use in CPR of an
adult casualty?

A. 2 compressions: 30 rescue breaths.

B. 5 compressions: 1 rescue breath.

C. 15 compressions: 2 rescue breaths.

D. 30 compressions: 2 rescue breaths.

5. Which of the following is the correct sequence for the chain of survival?

A. 911/112. CPR. Defibrillation. Advanced care.

B. CPR. Defibrillation. 911/112. Advanced care.

C. Defibrillation. CPR. 911/112. Advanced care.

D. Defibrillation. 911/112. CPR. Advanced care.

6. What is the cause of angina?

A. Insufficient blood reaching the lungs.

B. Insufficient blood reaching the brain.

C. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle.

D. Insufficient blood reaching the leg muscles.

7. What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times?

A. Insulin.

B. Acetaminophen/Paracetamol.

C. Adrenaline (Epipen).

D. Aspirin.

8. Which test should you use if you suspect that a casualty has had a stroke?

A. Face, Arms, Speech, Test.

B. Alert, Voice, Pain, Unresponsive.

C. Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation.

D. Pulse, Respiratory Rate, Temperature

9. Which of the following can cause a stroke?

A. A blood clot in an artery in the brain.

B. A blood clot in an artery in the heart.

C. A blood clot in an artery in the leg.

D. A blood clot in an artery in the lungs.

10. What should your first action be when treating an electrical burn?

A. Ensure that the casualty is still breathing.

B. Wash the burn with cold water.

C. Check for danger and ensure that contact with the electrical source is broken.
D. Check for level of response.

11. What is an open fracture?

A. A fracture in which the bone ends can move around.

B. A fracture in which the bone is exposed as the skin is broken.

C. A fracture which causes complications such as a punctured lung.

D. A fracture in which the bone has bent and split.

12. Which medical condition will develop from severe blood loss?

A. Shock.

B. Hypoglycaemia.

C. Anaphylaxis.

D. Hypothermia.

13. What names are given to the three different depths of burns?

A. Small, medium and large.

B. First, second and third degree.

C. Minor, medium and severe.

D. Superficial, partial thickness, full thickness.

14. What is a faint?

A. A response to fear.

B. An unexpected collapse.

C. A brief loss of consciousness.

D. A sign of flu.

15. What steps would you take to control bleeding from a nosebleed?

A. Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose.

B. Sit casualty down, lean backward and pinch soft part of nose.

C. Lie casualty down and pinch soft part of nose.

D. Lie casualty down and pinch top of nose.

16. Netball was derived from early versions of which modern-day sport?
A. Handball

B. Volleyball

C. Basketball

17. From which country did netball originate in 1893?

A. The United States

B. England

C. Germany

18. How many seconds after catching the ball does a player have to pass or shoot in netball?
A. 3

B. 5

C. 10

19. Netball is especially popular in which group of countries?

A. The Commonwealth of Nations

B. Commonwealth of Independent States

C. European Union

20. How many players are on the court in each netball team?
A. 5

B. 7

C. 11

21. When is a point scored in netball?

A. When any player shoots the ball into the shooting circle

B. When a Wing Attack shoots the ball into the shooting circle

C. When a Goal Attack or a Goal Shooter shoots the ball into the shooting circle

22. Which country has won the most titles at the INF Netball World Cup?
A. Austria

B. South Africa
C. New Zealand

23. A centre player is offside when he or she enters which part of the court?
A. Goal third

B. Centre third

C. Goal circle

24. Which former Australian netball player is the most capped international player?
A. Sharelle McMahon

B. Kathryn Harby-Williams

C. Liz Ellis

25. Which of the following terms does NOT refer to a position in netball?
A. Goal Defence – GD

B. Centre Defence – CD

C. Wing Defence – WD

26. What do call a found in which a netball player moves while holding a ball?
A. Drifting

B. Stepping

C. Swinging

27. What is the nickname of the England national women’s netball team?
A. The Lions

B. The Roses

C. The Ladies

28. Why do netball players have to wear bibs?

A. To let the referee know their names

B. To identify the positions they play

C. To carry the number of the player

29. Which of the following is not a role of a Centre player in netball?

A. To start the game

B. To change play from defensive to attacking

C. To score a point

30. How long does a netball game last?

A. 30 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 120 minutes

31. The Netball Super league is the top-level netball competition featuring teams based in 3
out of 4 countries in the United Kingdom, except …
A. Scotland

B. Wales

C. Northern Ireland

32. How many teams compete in the Netball Super league?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

33. Which netball club won their first title in the 2021 Netball Super league?
A. Team Bath

B. Loughborough Lightning

C. Surrey Storm

34. Which version of netball is featured by goals worth multiple points and shortened games?
A. Walking netball

B. Mixed netball

C. Fast 5

35. In Fast 5 netball, how many minutes are there in each quarter of a game?
A. 6 minutes
B. 10 minutes

C. 15 minutes

36. The Netball Quad Series is an international netball competition contested by the national
teams of England, Australia and which two other countries?
A. South Africa and Canada

B. Canada and New Zealand

C. New Zealand and South Africa

37. Which of the following statements is not true about netball players?
A. Every player can score a goal

B. Each player is restricted within some areas of the court

C. A player cannot touch the opponent who is holding the ball

38. In which country was the word “women’s basketball” used to refer to both basketball and
netball until 1970?
A. New Zealand

B. Australia

C. South Africa

39. Which of the following is the most common type of injury in netball?
A. Knee injuries

B. Ankle injuries

C. Hip injuries

40. When was netball officially recognised by the International Olympic Committee?
A. 1990

B. 1995

C. 2000

41. Which shirt colour does a referee typically wear in netball?

A. White

B. Black
C. Red

42. The first World Series Netball competition was held in which city in the United
Kingdom?
A. Liverpool

B. London

C. Manchester

43. What does a referee do to start a netball game?

A. To throw the ball

B. To blow the whistle

C. To say out loud “Start”

44. How many points is a goal worth in netball?

A. Always 1 point

B. 1 or 2 points, depending on the distance

C. 1, 2, or 3 points, depending on the distance

45. Which city will host the 2023 Netball World Cup?
A. Melbourne, Australia

B. Cape Town, South Africa

C. Glasgow, Scotland

46. How many people on each team are in the court?

A. 6
B. 10
C. 5

47. What was the original name of volleyball?

A. Lacrosse
B. Volley Ball
C. Mintonette

48. When was volleyball created?

A. 2004
B. 1912
C. 1895
49. Who invented the game of volleyball?
A. John A. Belstrad
B. William G. Morgan
C. Elijah C. Campwood

50. When were the first volleyball World Championships held?

A. 1949 / 1952
B. 1872 / 1918
C. 2000 / 2004

51. How is the serving team chosen?

A. A coin toss
B. Referee’s choice
C. First team to catch the volleyball

52. What are points called in volleyball?

A. Goals
B. Points
C. Scores

53. If you score a point doing a spike, what is it called?

A. Kill
B. Down
C. Hit

54. What is the number of times a team can hit a ball without passing it over the net?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 3

55. What is the player who specializes in defense called?

A. Libero
B. Freestyle
C. Blocker

56. When the ball hits the floor on one side of the net, it counts as a point for the other team.
What type of scoring is this called?
A. Point
B. Rally
C. Field

57. How many sets are in a volleyball game?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 10

58. In which way do the teams rotate?

A. Clockwise
B. Counter-Clockwise
C. They do not rotate

59. What is it called when a server steps past the serving line?
A. Side step
B. Foot fault
C. Out

15. Which player position serves?

A. Middle Back
B. Right Front
C. Right Back

60. Which of these is not considered a fault?

A. Foot Fault
B. Double Hit
C. Dig

61. The technical name for ball reception in volleyball is?

A. Blocking
B. Digging
C. Serving

62. What are the names of the two volleyball referees?

A. Forward Referee and Back Referee
B. 1st Referee and 2nd Referee
C. Serve Referee and Volley Referee

63. Which of these is not a type of volleyball serve?

A. Underhand
B. Floater
C. Tandem

64 How many substitutions in a game are allowed on each team?

A. 12
B. 10
C. 5

65. How many positions are there on each side of the court?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 6

66. How many timeouts is a team allowed per game?

A. 2
B. 1
C. 10

67 For how many seconds does a timeout last?

A. 30
B. 45
C. 60

68. How does the referee know if the ball is in or out of line?
A. Instant replays
B. Line judges
C. Watching

69. What happens when the ball lands on the line?

A. The rally is replayed
B. It is considered “out”
C. It is considered “in”

70. In what year was volleyball introduced to the Summer Olympics?

A. 1902
B. 1964
C. 2001

71. When was the Volleyball Hall of Fame established?

A. 1978
B. 1909
C. 1885

72. Who was the first person to be inducted into the Volleyball Hall of Fame?
A. Jon Stanley
B. Ron Von Hagen
C. William G. Morgan

73. Which of these is the international governing body for all forms of volleyball?
A. NORCECA
B. FIVB
C. CEV
74. ______ won the first FIVB Volleyball Men’s World Championship.
A. Czechoslovakia
B. The USA
C. The Soviet Union
75. The FIVB was founded in…
A. 1919
B. 1947
C. 1980

76. Physical fitness consist of…. components.

A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3
E. 2

77. Which colour of flag is used to indicate a valid jump in pole vault?
A. Black
B. Red
C. Purple
D. White
E. Yellow

78. The movement order in volleyball game is….

A. anticlockwise.
B. clockwise.
C. backward.
D. kicking.
E. dreaming.

79. Volleyball game was invented by….

A. William G. Morgan.
B. CarISfielez
C. Fredrick Ludwig Jalin –
D. A.I Halsted
E. Jalin Basedow

80. Which of the following is NOT a health consequences of drug abuse?

A. Drugs damage vital organs of the body
B. Increase the risk of injuries and accidents
C. It makes one insane
D. Problem of discipline
E. Solves life’s problems

81. Non contact sports are less energy consuming while contact sports is…. nature.
A. strenuous
B. weak
C. happy
D. single
E. dancing

82. Dumping of refuse in the river is an example of… pollution.

A. air
B. light
C. noise
D. soil
E. water

83. One of the following is an example of non-contact sports.

A. Badminton
B. Basketball
C. Handball
D. Boxing
E. Football

84. A standard athletics oval is made of… lanes.

A. 12
B. 10
C. 8
D. 6
E. 4

85. …is an example of a folk dance.

A. Reggae
B. High-life
C. Disco
D. Atilogwu
E. Rap

86. Throwing events are for sectors while jumping events for….
A. track.
B. Oval.
C. running.
D. pitches.
E. sectors.

87. A relay race is a…. event.

A. individual
B. contract
C. team
D. sports
E. double

88 Ignorance and superstition on health matters fall within which determinant?

A. Environment
B. Health services
C. Heredity
D. Nutrition
E. Style of living

89. World Health Organization was founded in the year

A. 1948.
B. 1947.
C. 1946
D. 1945.
E.1949.

90. The following are the support you can give an aging person except….
A. economic support.
B. emotional support.
C. physical support.
D. social support.
E. spiritual support.

91. The art of floating and moving in water using the arms, legs, and torso is known as…
A. canoeing.
B. boating.
C. diving.
D. swimming.
E. water polo.

92. A let in volleyball game means….

A. Reserve.
B. Deuce.
C. Draw.
D. Point.
E. Game.

93. Volleyball was introduced into Olympic in the year

A. 1966.
B.1965-
C. 1964.
D. 1963.
E. 1962.

94. ………. are diseases that can be contacted from people, places, through air, water, food
and insects,
A. Communicable diseases
B. Contact diseases
C. Disease on water
D. Diseases
E. Transit diseases

95. The Hockey pitch is… in shape.

A. circular
B. circumference
C. ova
D. rectangle
E. triangle

96. The crip, dribble and push-pass are basic skills in the game of….
A. badminton.
B. cricket.
C. hockey.
D. lawn tennis.
E. table tennis.

97. The goal keeper wears …during a hockey match

A. boots
B. helmet
C. jersey
D. shin guard
E. stick

98. Which of the following terms is used in the game of hockey?

A. Heading
B. Scooping
C. Spicking
D. Traveling
E. Throw-off

99. Ulna is a bone found in the –

A skull
B arms
C chest
D legs
100. Which bone is not attached to any other bone in the human body?
A Scapula
B Hyoid
C Patella
D Stapes
101. An example of ball and socket joint in the human body can be found in the –
A Knees
B Ankles
C Shoulder
D Elbow
102. The number of bones in the human body system is :
A 206
B 370
C 260
D 306
103. About how many bones does a newborn baby have?
A 190
B 225
C 270
D 206
104. The other name for knee cap is -
A femur
B clavicle
C radius
D patella
105. In the human body, the number of cervical vertebrae is -
A 12
B8
C7
D5
106. The bones of cranium are joined by
A Sutures
B Cartilages
C Tendons
D Ligaments

107. Which of the following joints can move in only direction?

A Hinge joint
B Pivot joint
C Ball and Socket joint
D Gliding joint
108. Which of the following is not associated with the bones in human body?
A Control of blood sugar
B Protection of internal organs
C Storage of minerals
D Production of red blood cells
109. The total number of facial bones is
A 14
B 18
C 16
D 12
110. Which of the following bones is associated with hip replacement surgery?
A Femur
B Fibula
C Sternum
D Patella
111. Which of the following bones of the skull is movable?
A Temporal bone
B Mandible
C Maxilla
D Nasal bone
112. Which of the following is NOT a part of the axial skeleton?
A Scapula
B Skull
C Vertebral column
D Sternum
113 Which of the following is associated with pain in the lower back in a person?
A Coccygeal vertebrae
B Lumbar vertebrae
C Cervical vertebrae
D Thoracic vertebrae
114. At which place in the human body would you find the hyoid bone?
A Neck
B Knee
C Chest
D Hips
115. Which of the following is sesamoid bone?
A Patella
B Tibia
C Sternum
D Scapula
116. How many bones does the axial skeleton have?
A 80
B 126
C 48
D 72
117. What are bone forming cells called?
A Osteoblasts
B Osteons
C Osteoclasts
D Osteocytes
118. Which of the following is a part of the pectoral girdle?
A Hyoid bone
B Sternum
C Clavicle
D Pelvic bone
119. The branch of medical science which deals with the prevention or correction of the
musculoskeletal system is called
A Oncology
B Orthopaedics
120. Which of the following is a Ball and Socket joint
A Thumb joint
B Shoulder joint
C Elbow joint
D Ankle joint
121. What type of joint is found in wrist?
A Gliding joint
B Hinge joint
C Saddle joint
D Pivot joint
122. What is the number of floating ribs in humans?
A 2 pairs
B 12 pairs
C 4 pairs
D 3 pairs
123. What is the total number of bones in the both the lower limbs of a man?
A 54
B 60
C 56
D 58
124. How many bones are present in human skull?
A 22
B 12
C 32
D 42
125. What is the total number of bones found in right upper limb?
A 60
B 26
C 30
D 24
126. The number of saddle joints in human body is
A2
B4
C 10
D8
127. Which of the following is generally called a Sprain?
A Pulling of the ligament
B Muscle tear
C Greenstick fracture
D Hairline fracture
128. Which of the following connects the Sternum to the ribs?
A Aerolar tissue
B Hyaline cartilage
C White fibrous cartilage
D Bony matter
129. The longest bone in the human body is
A femur
B ulna
C humerus
D stapes
130. Number of vertebrae in human is
A 22
B 26
C 32
D 33
131. The record of electrical activity of muscle is known as .........?
A Electro-Myogram (EMG)
B Electro-Cardiogram (ECG)
C Both A and B
D Neither A nor B
132. How many types of Joints are present in our body?
A2
B3
C4
D5
133. Finger bones are also known as...........?
A Phalanges
B Metacarpal
C Hamate bone
D Girdles
134. Due to the presence of which pigment skeletal muscles are categorised in to red and
white muscles?
A Myoglobin
B Sarcoplasmic
C Myosin
D None of the above
135. Name the smallest muscle?
A Antagonisits
B Gutters maximus
C verify Table Data
D None of the above
136. Name the muscle that act in opposition to each other?
A Antagonists muscle
B Stapedius muscle
C Skeletal Muscle
D Cardiac Muscles
137. Name the thinnest bone of human body?
A Fibula
B Incus
C Malleus
D Stapes
138. What does Axial Skeleton consists of:
A Ribs and Sternum
B Vertebral Column
C Skull
D. All of the above

139. Skull is made of _____ numbers bones.

A. 18
B. 20
C. 22
D. 24

140. An adult human has _______ numbers bones.

A. 202
B. 204
C. 206
D. 208
141. An adult human has _____ numbers teeth.

A. 30
B. 32
C. 34
D. 36

142. How many bones are there in head?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

143. How many bones are there in face?

A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14

144. All the blood cells are manufactured within the ____.

A. bone marrow
B. blood vessel
C. nerves
D. none of these

145. Which blood cells carry oxygen to the different parts of the body?

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

146. Which blood cells protect the body against infection?

A. white blood cells

B. red blood cells
C. Both of the above
 D. None of the above

147. Which jaw in our face is fixed?

A. lower jaw
B. upper jaw
C. both
D. none of these

148. How many long curved bones are there to form the rib cage?

A. 14 pairs
B. 14 numbers
C. 12 pairs
D. 12 numbers

149. Floating ribs are the ______ pairs of ribs.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

150. Floating ribs are joined with the ____.

A. breast bones
B. back bone
C. both of the above
D. none of the above

151. The ribcage protects the _______.

A. hearts
B. lungs
C. both of the above
D. none of the above

152. Backbone consists of ___numbers of small and hollow bones.

A. 11
B. 22
 C. 33
D. 44

153. Backbone consists of some small bones. These are called as ____.

A. ribs
B. vertebrae
C. limbs
D. None of these

154. Which bone is known as femur?

A. thigh
B. arm
C. backbone
D. none of these

155. The longest bone is called as _______.

A. Carpals (in the hand) and

B. tarsals (in the feet)
C. femur
D. none of these

156. Tarsals is the bone of ___.

A. hand
B. leg
C. feet
D. thigh

157. Carpals is the bone of ____.

A. hand
B. leg
C. feet
D. thigh

158. ______are the storehouse of minerals like calcium and phosphorus.

A. joints
 B. bones in skeleton
C. blood cells
D. none of these

159. Muscles are connected to the bones by ____.

A. blood
B. fibres
C. none of these

160. The strong fibres in the muscles are known as _____.

A. tendons
B. marrow
C. limbs
D. none of these

161. There are ______ different kinds of muscles in our body.

A. 450
B. 550
C. 650
D. 750

162. How many different types of muscles are there in our body?

A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2

163. Voluntary muscles are located at ______.

A. tongue
B. heart
C. stomach
D. intestine

164. Involuntary muscles are located at ______.

A. eyes
 B. hands
C. intestine
D. heart
165. How many players from each team are allowed to be on the field?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
D. 8
166.What size is Handball court?
A. 20×30 m
B. 20×40 m
C. 20×50 m
D. 20×60 m
167. There is no shot clock?
A. True
B. False
168. Penalties are thrown from what distance?
A. 11 m
B. 9 m
C. 7 m
D. 4 m
169. Which of the following is not punishment in Handball?
A. 5-minute suspension
B. Yellow card
C. 2-minute suspension
D. Red card
170. Which Ukrainian (Soviet) player, was elected by International Handball Federation as a
female player of the century, and won the 1976 and 1980 Olympic gold medal?
A. Anja Andersen
B. Waltraud Kretzschmar
C. Sinaida Turtschina
D. Svetlana Kitic