CTH 2326 SAT Phase Test 1

COMMON TEST
CFY 2226/CTH 2326
PHASE TEST – I
Time : 2 hours Maximum Marks : 100
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Instructions
➢ The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section 1 contains 40 questions of SST.
Section 2 contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section 3 contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section 4 contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section 5 contains 14 questions of Biology.
➢ Each question carries +1 marks for correct answer.
➢ There is No negative marking.
➢ Attempt All questions.
➢ Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
➢ All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
➢ The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
➢ This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.
Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..
Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section 1
SST
1. Match the following:
Column – I Column - II
(i) Contour Ploughing (a) Steps are cut out on the slope
(ii) Strip cropping (b) Decelerates the flow of water down the slopes
(iii) Shelter belts (c) Breaks up the force of wind
(iv) Terrace farming (d) Stabilises sand dunes
Select the correct option:
(A) (i – b), (ii – c), (iii – d), (iv – a) (B) (i – c), (ii – a), (iii – d), (iv – b)
(C) (i – d), (ii – c), (iii – a), (iv – b) (D) (i – b), (ii – a), (iii – d), (iv – c)
2. Choose the correct answer and match the following statement?

Column – I Column - II
(i) Northern Plains and eastern coastal Plains (a) Black soil
(ii) Odisha, Chhattisgarh (b) Laterite soils
(iii) Parts of WB & Odisha (c) Alluvial soils
(iv) Maharashtra, Saurashtra (d) Red soils
Select the correct option:
(A) (i – a), (ii – b), (iii – d), (iv – c) (B) (i – c), (ii – b), (iii – d), (iv – a)
(C) (i – b), (ii – c), (iii – d), (iv – a) (D) (i – c), (ii – d), (iii – b), (iv – a)
3. Soil formed by intense leaching:

(A) Alluvial soil (B) Red soil (C) Laterite soil (D) Desert soil
4. With reference to Alluvial soil which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
I. This soil is the most widely spread and important soil in India.
II. Rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime.
III. Alluvial soils are of two types Bhangar and Regur.
IV. It is formed when the river deposits its load as it flows from the upper to the lower course.
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) III only (D) II, III and IV only
5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Terrace cultivation practiced in Jammu and Kashmir.
(B) Black soil is found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal.
(C) The oceanic resources beyond 200 km of the Exclusive Economic Zone are called International
Resources.
(D) Flora, Fauna and Water are the example of renewable resources.
6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. National Forest Policy (1952) outlined that India’s forest area should be 33 percent.
II. According to 2014-15, India’s forest area is about 23.3% and Net sown area is 45.5%.
III. “Small is Beautiful” was written by Gandhiji.
IV. About 30 percent of the area of the country is the plateau region.
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) I, II and III
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
7. Match List – I (Factors of land degradation) with List – II (States) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists:
(Factors of land degradation) (State)
List – I List - II
(a) Over irrigation (1) Maharashtra & Gujarat
(b) Over grazing (2) Haryana & Punjab
(c) Mining (3) Chhattisgarh & Odisha
(d) Wind (4) Rajasthan
Codes
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 3 1 4 2
8. Black cotton soil of the Deccan region of India is associated with ……….. rocks.
(A) Volcanic rocks (B) Plutonic rocks (C) Sedimentary rocks (D) Hypabysal rocks
9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Dam/Lake River
(A) Bhakra Nangal : Satluj
(B) Nagarjuna Sagar : Krishna
(C) Mettur : Godavari
(D) Hirakud : Mahanadi
10. Rivers that pass through Uttar Pradesh are :

(A) Ganga and Yamuna only (B) Ghaghara and Gandak only
(C) Chenab, Ravi and Satluj only (D) Ganga, Yamunna, Ghaghara and Gandak.
11. Consider the following Dams :

(1) Panchet (2) Konar (3) Tilaiya (4) Rihand
Which of the above dams are on the Damodar River?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3 only
12. What is the goal of Jal Jeevan Mission?

(A) To supply piped water of 75 litres per capita per day.
(B) To supply piped water of 155 litres per capita per day.
(C) To supply piped water of 55 litres per capita per day.
(D) To supply piped water of 95 litres per capita per day.
13. Consider the following pairs:
Tributary River Main River
1. Yamuna : Ganga
2. Sone : Yamuna
3. Penganga : Godavari
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 3 only
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
14. Arrange the following historical developments in chronological sequence

I. Unification of Germany
II. Unification of Italy
III. The Vienna Peace Settlement
(A) III, II, I (B) I, II, III (C) III, I, II (D) II, III, I
15. Which of the following statements is not true with reference to Napoleon?
I. Napoleon was regarded as the child of the French Revolution.
II. In 1804, Napoleon crowned himself as the Emperor of France.
III. He introduced a system of weights and measures.
IV. He re-introduced slavery system in France
(A) I, II and III only (B) II and III only
(C) III and IV only (D) None of the above
16. Which of the following statements is not the result of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815?
(A) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(B) Poland was given to Prussia.
(C) Prussia was handed over to England.
(D) None of the above.
17. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) ‘When France sneezes,’ Metternich once remarked, ‘the rest of Europe catches cold.’
(B) Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the fifteenth century.
(C) Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilization.
(D) The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Turkey as an independent nation.
18. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) “Sword of Italian Unification” – Garibaldi.
(B) Fredric William IV, was the king of Austria.
(C) The ‘Conservatives Regimes’ set up in Europe in 1815.
(D) The industrialisation first began in England.
19. Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A) The large landowners of Prussia were called Junkers.
(B) The head of constitutional monarchy set up in France after July Revolution in 1830 was Louis
Philippe.
(C) Garibaldi was the founder of the revolutionary militia ‘Red Shirt’.
(D) The Act of Union (1707) was signed between England and Wales.
20. Which customs union was formed by Prussia to abolish tariff barriers?
(A) European Economic Union. (B) Zollverein
(C) Territorial State (D) Nordic Union
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21. A ‘Feminist’ is:

(A) A person aware of women’s rights and believes in the social, political and economic equality of
women
(B) A person who believes that women are the weaker sex
(C) A person who believes that gender equality would destroy the dignity of the family and endanger
harmony
(D) A person ready to give social equality but not political or economic equality
22. The famous Italian Revolutionary Giuseppe Mazzini was born in …………… in 1807.
(A) Rome (B) Paris (C) Genoa (D) Frankfurt
23. During the 19th century, …………….. emerged as a force that brought about sweeping changes in the
political and mental world of Europe.
(A) Conservatism (B) Nationalism (C) Socialism (D) Liberalism
24. The political and constitutional changes brought about the French Revolution were?
(A) It transferred power to a body of the French citizens.
(B) It ended the absolute monarchy.
(C) It proclaimed that henceforth people would constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(D) All the above
25. Which German philosopher claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the German
people?
(A) Johann Gottfried (B) Mazzini (C) Count Cavour (D) Napoleon
26. ………… played the leading role in the unification of Germany.

(A) German Emperor – Kaiser William I.
(B) Otto Von Bismarck – Prussian Chief Minister
(C) Johann Gottfried Herder – German philosopher
(D) Austrian Chancellor – Duke Metternich
27. …………… is a belief that majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants
by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority.
(A) Majoritarianism (B) Minoritarianism (C) Secularism (D) None of the above
28. Division of powers between higher and lower levels of government is called
(A) Horizontal distribution of power (B) Vertical division of power
(C) Parallel division of power (D) Diagonal division of power
29. Which of the following statements about community government is true?

(A) Power is shared among different organs of the government
(B) Power is shared among governments at different levels
(C) Power is shared by different social groups
(D) Power is shared by two or more political parties.
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
30. Which is/are the important feature(s) of prudential reason of power sharing?
I. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
II. Ensure the stability of political order.
III. Power sharing brings out better outcomes.
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I, II and III. (D) None of the above
31. What is a coalition government?

(A) Power shared among different levels of government
(B) Power shared among different political parties
(C) Power shared among different social group
(D) Power shared among different organs of government.
32. Why power sharing is desirable?

I. Helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.
II. It is good way to ensure the political stability.
III. It is the very spirit of democracy.
(A) I and II only (B) I and III only (C) II and III only (D) I, II and III.
33. Which of the following is an example of horizontal division of power?

(A) Power sharing between different organs of government
(B) Power sharing between different levels of government.
(C) Power sharing among different states.
(D) Power sharing between different political parties.
34. A government for the entire country is usually known as

I. Union government
II. National government
III. Federal government
IV. Central government
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I, II and III only (D) I, II, III and IV
35. According to World Development Report 2019, rich countries are those which have per capita income
of
(A) US $ 25,300 per annum and above (B) US $ 49,300 per annum and above
(C) US $ 12,236 per annum and above (D) US $ 13,276 per annum and above
36. Suppose, in the State of Jupiter, 5,000 children were born in the year 2020. Out of these, 40 died
between age of 1 to 5 years and 60 died before 1 year of age. Then what is the Infant Mortality Rate of
Jupiter?
(A) 22 (B) 12 (C) 08 (D) 20
37. Consider the following statements:

I. Those with per capita income in 2019, US $ 2500 or less are called low-income countries.
II. India per capita income in 2019 was US $ 6700 per annum.
III. India comes in the category of middle income countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only
(C) I and III only (D) I, II and III.
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
38. Consider the following statements:

I. Literacy rate refers to literate population in the age group of 7 and above.
II. Per capita income represents the average income of an individual in a country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) I only (B) II only (C) Both I and II (D) Neither I nor II
39. With reference to Human Development Report, which of the following statement is correct?
I. Human Development Report is published by World Bank.
II. Human Development Report is published by the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).
III. HDR compares countries based on the educational levels of the people, their health status and per
capita income.
IV. According to HDR, 2020 an Indian life expectancy is about 69.7 years.
(A) I and II only (B) II and III only (C) I, II and III only (D) II, III and IV only
40. Which parameter is used to calculate body mass index of an individual?

(A) Height (B) Weight
(C) Abdominal circumference (D) Both height and weight
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section 2
Mathematics
1. The largest number which divides 70 and 125, leaving reminders 5 and 8, respectively, is
(A) 13 (B) 65 (C) 875 (D) 1,750
2. If n is an even prime number, then 2(7 + 8 ) ends with
n n
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 6

3. In figure, the graph of a polynomial P(x) is shown. The number of zeroes of
P(x) is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
4. A quadratic polynomial, the product and sum of whose zeroes are 5 and 8 respectively is
(A) k[ x − 8 x + 5] (B) k[ x + 8 x + 5]
2 2
(C) k[ x − 5 x + 8] (D) k[ x + 5 x + 8]
2 2
5. If α, β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p ( x ) = x − ( k + 6 ) x + 2 ( 2k − 1) , then the value of

2
k, if
1
 +  =  , is
2
(A) –7 (B) 7 (C) –3 (D) 3
6. 1 1
p and q are the zeroes of the polynomial 4 y − 4 y + 1 . What is the value of + + pq ?
2
p q
15 3 5 17
(A) − (B) − (C) (D)
4 4 4 4
7. The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x 2 + 99 x + 127 are:
(A) both positive
(B) both negative
(C) One positive and one negative
(D) both equal
8. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax + bx + c, a  0 are equal, then:

2
(A) c and a have opposite signs

(B) c and b have opposite sings
(C) c and a have the same sign
(D) c and b have the same sign
9. Two lines are given to be parallel. The equation of one of the lines is 3 x − 2 y + 5 . The equation of the
second line can be
(A) 9 x + 8 y = 7 (B) −12 x − 8 y = 7 (C) −12 x + 8 y = 7 (D) 12 x + 8 y = 7
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
10. Graphically, the pair equations

6 x − 3 y + 10 = 0
2x − y + 9 = 0
represents two lines which are
(A) intersecting at exactly one point
(B) intersecting at exactly two points
(C) coincident
(D) parallel
11. One equation of a pair of dependent linear equations is −5 x + 7 y = 2 . The second equation can be:
(A) 10 x + 14 y + 4 = 0 (B) −10 x − 14 y + 4 = 0
(C) −10 x + 14 y + 4 = 0 (D) 10 x − 14 y = −4
12. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is subtracted from the number, its digits are
interchanged. Which of these is the product of the digits of the number?
(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 18 (D) 20
13. The father’s age is six times his son’s age. Four years hence, the age of the father will be four times his
son’s age. The present ages, in years, of the son and father are, respectively:
(A) 4 and 24 (B) 5 and 30 (C) 6 and 36 (D) 3 and 24
14. Which of the following equations has two distinct real roots?
9
(A) 2 x 2 − 3 2 x + =0 (B) x + x − 5 = 0
2
4
(C) x 2 + 3 x + 2 2 = 0 (D) 5 x − 3 x + 1 = 0
2
15. The quadratic equation 2 x − 5 x + 1 = 0 has

2
(A) two distinct real roots (B) two equal real roots
(C) no real root (D) more than 2 real roots
16. 1
The time taken by a person to covers 150 km was 2 hours more than the time taken in the return
2
journey. If he returned at a speed pf 10 km/h more than the speed while going, find the speed in km/h
in each direction.
(A) 20 &30 (B) 25 & 35 (C) 18 & 24 (D) None of these
17. Find the positive values of k for which quadratic equations x + kx + 64 = 0 and x − 8 x + k = 0 both
2 2
will have the real roots.

(A) 18 (B) 64 (C) 16 (D) 28
18. The difference between the radii of the smaller circle and the larger circle is 7 cm and the difference
between the areas of the two circles is 1078 sq. cm. Find the radius of the smaller circle.
(A) 22 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 25
19. The HCF of two numbers is 145 and their LCM is 2175. If one number is 725. Find the other number.
(A) 135 (B) 335 (C) 235 (D) 435
20. If HCF of 144 and 180 is expressed in the form 13m – 16. Find the value of m.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section 3
Physics
1. An object is placed 20 cm in front of a plane mirror. The mirror is moved 2 cm towards the object. The
distance between the positions of the original and final images seen in the mirror is :
(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 22 cm
2. Image formed by a plane mirror is
(A) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged
(B) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object
(C) real, at the surface of the mirror and enlarged
(D) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.
3. A concave mirror produces a magnification of + 4. The object is placed :
(A) at the focus (B) between focus and centre of curvature
(C) between focus and pole (D) beyond the centre of curvature
4. Linear magnification (m) produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles.
(A) is less than one
(B) is more than one
(C) is equal to one
(D) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object
5. The mirror used by a dentist to examine the teeth of a person is
(A) Convex (B) Concave
(C) Plane (D) Either concave or Concave
6. A ray of light falls on a transparent sphere with centre at C is shown in Fig.
The ray emerges from the sphere parallel to line AB. The refractive index of
the sphere is
3 1
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) (D)
2 2
7. You are asked to design a shaving mirror assuming that a person keeps it 10 cm from his face and views
the magnified image of the face at the closest comfortable distance of 15 cm. The radius of curvature of
the mirror would then be
(A) 24cm (B) 60cm (C) –24cm (D) 30cm
8. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world contained in a circular horizon. If the
refractive index of water is 4/3 and the fish is 12cm below the surface, the radius of this circle (in cm) is:
(A) 36 7 (B) 36 / 7 (C) 36 5 (D) 4 5
9. Two lenses of power −15D and 25D are in contact will each other. The focal length of the combination:
(A) –20cm (B) +10cm (C) +20cm (D) +40cm
10. An object ABED is placed in front of a concave mirror beyond the centre of curvature C as shown in the
figure. State the shape of the image.
(A) mAB  1 and mCD  1
(B) mAB  1 and mED  1
(C) mAB  1 and mED  1
(D) mAB  1 and mED >1
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11. An object 15cm high is placed 10cm from the optical centre of a thin lens. Its image is
formed 25cm from the optical centre on the same side of the lens as the object. The height of the image
is:
(A) 2.5cm (B) 0.2cm (C) 16.7cm (D) 37.5cmfsdfs
12. The velocity of image w.r.t to ground

(A) 4cm/sec leftwards
(B)12cm/sec rightwards
(C) 12m/sec leftwards
(D) 4m/sec rightwards
13. The given lens is broken into four parts rearranged as shown. If the initial
focal length is f, then after rearrangement the equivalent focal length
(A) f (B) f/2 (C) f/4

(D) 4f
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section – 4
Chemistry.
1. What is the possible pH value of the solution formed by reaction between hydrochloric acid and
ammonium hydroxide?
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 9
2. Silver chloride is stored in dark coloured bottles because it

(A) explodes in sunlight (B) undergoes photochemical decomposition
(C) reacts with oxygen rapidly (D) sublimes quickly
3. Baking soda on decomposition produces

(A) sodium bicarbonate (B) sodium hydroxide
(C) sodium carbonate (D) soda lime
4. What are the products when hydrogen sulphide gas reacts with oxygen gas?
(A) solid sulphur and liquid water (B) sulphur dioxide gas and hydrogen gas
(C) sulphur dioxide gas and water vapour (D) liquid sulphur and water vapour
5. Which one of the following is not a product in the electrolytic decomposition of brine?
(A) NaOH (B) Na2CO3 (C) Cl2 (D) H2
6. Grapes hanging on the plant do not ferment but after being plucked from the plant can be fermented
because of
(A) combination reaction (B) displacement reaction
(C) neutralization reaction (D) decomposition reaction
7. Which one of the following reactions implies that nonmetallic oxides are acidic in nature?
(A) 3H2 + CO2 → CH3OH + H2O (B) 4H2 + CO2 → CH4 + 2H2O
(C) Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O (D) CaCO3 + H2O+ CO2 → Ca(HCO3)2
8. The reaction between barium peroxide and chloric acid is represented as

aBaO2 + bHClO2→ cBaCl2 + dO2 + eH2O
What is the value of (a+b+c+d+e) after balancing the equation?
(A) 15 (B) 7 (C) 13 (D) 5
9. Which of the following reactions indicates that ZnO is amphoteric in nature?

(i) ZnO + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2O (ii) ZnO + CO2 → ZnCO3
(iii) ZnO + 2NaOH → Na2ZnO2 + H2O (iv) ZnO + C → Zn + CO
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iv)
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10. In the double displacement reaction between aqueous potassium iodide and aqueous lead
nitrate, a yellow precipitate of lead iodide is formed. While performing the activity if lead nitrate is not
available, which of the following can be used in place of lead nitrate?
(A) Lead sulphate (B) Lead acetate (C) Silver chloride (D) Potassium sulphate
11. Which of the following salts does not contain water of crystallization?
(A) Blue vitriol (B) Green vitriol (C) Washing soda (D) Baking soda
12. A dilute ferrous sulphate solution was gradually added to the beaker containing acidified
permanganate solution. The light purple colour of the solution fades and finally disappears.
Which of the following is the correct explanation for the observation?
(A) KMnO4 is an oxidizing agent, it oxidizes FeSO4
(B) FeSO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and oxidizes KMnO4
(C) The colour disappears due to dilution; no reaction is involved
(D) KMnO4 is unstable and decomposes in presence of FeSO4 to a colourless compound.
13. Match the following compounds with their corresponding formulae.
Column A Column B
P Caustic soda 1 CaSO4
Q Dead Plaster 2 Ca(OH)2
R Slaked lime 3 NaOH
S Washing soda 4 Na2CO3.10H2O
(A) P – 3; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 4 (B) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 2
(C) P – 4; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 3 (D) P – 2; Q – 3; R – 1; S – 4
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section 5
Biology
1. In which of the following groups of organisms are food materials broken down outside the body and
absorbed?
(A) Mushroom, green plants, amoeba (B) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(C) Paramecium, amoeba, cuscuta (D) Cuscuta, lice, tapeworm
2. What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in plants?

(A) Lactic acid + energy (B) Carbon dioxide + water + energy
(C) Ethanol + carbon dioxide + energy (D) Pyruvate
3. Which of the equations shows the correct conversion of CO2 and H2O into carbohydrates in plants?
6CO2 + 6 H 2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Chlorophyll
Heat Energy
C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + 12 H 2O
( Glu cos e )
(A)
6CO2 + 6 H 2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Chlorophyll
Sunlight
→ C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + 12 H 2O
( Glu cos e )
(B)
6CO2 + 12 H 2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ C6 H12O6 + 6O2 + 6 H 2O
Chlorophyll
Sunlight
( Glu cos e )
(C)
6CO2 + 12 H 2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Chlorophyll
Heat Energy
C6 H12 + 6O2 + 6 H 2O
( Glu cos e )
(D)
4. Which of the following is the important characteristic of Emphysema?

(A) Destruction of the alveolar wall and air sacs in the lungs are damaged
(B) Increase in the growth of the lung tissue
(C) Inflammation in the wall of bronchi
(D) Thickening of the artery walls of the lungs
5. The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are:

(i) Presence of oxygen (ii) Release of carbon dioxide
(iii) Release of energy (iv)Release of lactic acid
(A) i), ii) only (B) i), ii), iii) only (C) ii), iii), iv) only (D) only
6. A plant gets rid of excess water through transpiration. What is the method used by plants to get rid of
solid waste products?
(A) Shortening of stem (B) Dropping down fruits
(C) Shedding of yellow leaves (D) Expansion of roots into the soil
7. Which of the following option shows the transport of oxygen to the cell correctly?
(A) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(B) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(C) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → vena cava → body cells
(D) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ vena cava → body cells
8. Blood from superior vena cava flows into

(A) right atrium (B) right ventricle (C) left atrium (D) left ventricle
9. In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different
parts of the body?
(A) Pisces and amphibians (B) Amphibians and reptiles
(C) Amphibians only (D) Pisces only
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CTH - PT-I (SAT)
10. Choose the correct path of urine in our body.

(A) Kidney →ureter →urethra →urinary bladder (B) Kidney →urinary bladder →urethra →ureter
(C) Kidney →ureter →urinary bladder →urethra (D) Urinary bladder →kidney →ureter →urethr
11. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will be
affected?
(A) Proteins breaking down into amino acids (b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol (d) Absorption of vitamins
12. A student performs an experiment using a Balsam plant with intact stem, leaves, roots and flowers. The
plant was kept in a test tube containing eosin solution (a pink colour dye). The test tube mouth was
covered using cotton plug.The student kept the plant undisturbed in the lab. After 2-3 hours, a
transverse section of stem was obtained using sharp scissors and studied under microscope. The studies
reveal the presence of pink colour in the vessels of xylem. What does this observation explain?
(a) Most portion of the plant stem is occupied by xylem.

(b) Water moves through xylem in the plant.
(c) Eosin solution gets stored in the xylem.
(d) Xylem reacts with eosin and gives colour.
13. The image shows oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood in the human heart.
What is the direction of deoxygenated blood from right ventricle of the heart?
(A) towards the lungs. (B) towards the left atrium of heart.
(C) towards the upper body. (D) towards the lower body.
14. Pernicious anemia is caused due to deficiency of

(A) vitamin H (B) vitamin B12 (C) vitamin A (D) vitamin K
15
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Answer Key
Class X SAT Phase Test 1
SECTION I (SST) SECTION II (MATHEMATIS) SECTION III(CHEMISTRY)
Q. No. Ans. Concept Code Q. No. Ans. Concept Code Q. No. Ans. Concept Code Q. No. Ans. Concept Code
1 A G10000102 31 B PS1000101 19 D M10001701 12 A C10000107
2 D G10000101 32 D PS1000101 20 D M10001701 13 A C10000208
3 C G10000101 33 A PS1000101 SECTION III (PHYSICS) SECTION V (BIOLOGY)
4 C G10000101 34 D PS1000101 Q. No. Ans. Concept Code Q. No. Ans. Concept Code
5 B G10000101 35 B EC1000101 1 B P10000402 1 B B10000104
6 A G10000102 36 B EC1000101 2 B P10000402 2 C B10000106
7 C G10000102 37 A EC1000101 3 C P10000403 3 C B10000103
8 A G10000101 38 C EC1000101 4 A P10000403 4 A B10000112
9 C G10000301 39 D EC1000101 5 A P10000403 5 C B10000111
10 D G10000301 40 D EC1000101 6 B P10000404 6 C B10000120
11 A G10000301 SECTION II (MATHEMATICS) 7 B P10000403 7 A B10000109
12 C G10000301 Q. No. Ans. Concept Code 8 B P10000408 8 A B10000116
13 C G10000301 1 A M10001701 9 B P10000406 9 D B10000114
14 A H10000601 2 D M10001701 10 A P10000403 10 C B10000121
15 D H10000601 3 C M10001802 11 D P10000405 11 B B10000105
16 C H10000601 4 A M10000502 12 C P10000402 12 B B10000113
17 D H10000601 5 B M10000502 13 B P10000403 13 A B10000116
18 B H10000601 6 D M10000502 SECTION IV(CHEMISTRY) 14 B B10000101
19 D H10000601 7 B M10000503 Q. No. Ans. Concept Code
20 B H10000601 8 C M10000504 1 B C10000207
21 A H10000601 9 C M10000301 2 B C10000102
22 C H10000601 10 D M10000302 3 C C10000102
23 B H10000601 11 D M10000301 4 A C10000107
24 D H10000601 12 C M10001701 5 B C10000208
25 A H10000602 13 C M10000301 6 D C10000106
26 B H10000602 14 B M10000504 7 C C10000202
27 A PS1000101 15 C M10000503 8 A C10000108
28 B PS1000101 16 A M10000302 9 B C10000203
29 C PS1000101 17 C M10000504 10 B C10000104
30 C PS1000101 18 B M10000501 11 D C10000208
16
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Solution
Section II
Mathematics
Solutions
1. Required largest number = HCF of (70 – 5) and (125 – 8) = HCF of 65 and 117 = 13
2. Since 2 is an even prime number, then n = 2

Putting the value of n is 2(7 + 8 ) , we get
2 2
2(7 2 + 82 ) = 2(49 + 64)

= 2 113
= 226
( )
Hence, 2 7 n + 8n ends with 6, Where n is an even prime number.
3. 3 intersecting point of P ( x ) and x − axis
4. For any quadratic polynomial,

ax 2 + bx + c
−b
Sum of zeroes =
a
−b
8=
a
8 −b
=
1 a
or b = −8k , a = 1k
c
Also, product of zeroes =
a
c
5=
a
5 c
=
1 a
or c = 5k , a = 1k
Polynomial whose sum of zeroes or product of zeroes are given,
Required Polynomial = ax 2 + bx + c
= kx 2 − 8kx + 5k
= k ( x 2 − 8 x + 5)
5. p ( x ) = x 2 − ( k + 6 ) x + 2 ( 2k − 1) is the given polynomial
Here, a = 1, b = −(k + 6) & c = 2 ( 2k − 1)
Sum of zeroes =  + 
−b
=
a
= k +6
Product of zeroes = 
\
17
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
c
=
a
2 ( 2k − 1)
= = 2 ( 2k − 1)
1
It is given that,
1
 +  = 
2
1
 k + 6 = 2 ( 2k − 1)
2
 k + 6 = 2k − 1
 − k = −7
or k =7
6. Given polynomial is 4 y 2 − 4 y + 1
 −4 
∴ Sum of polynomial = −   =1
 4 
1
and product of polynomial =
4
1 1 q+ p
Now, + + pq = + pq
p q pq
1
We have proved above, p + q = 1 and pq =
4
p+q 1 1
So, + pq = +
pq 1/ 4 4
1 17
= 4+ = .
4 4
7. Let given quadratic polynomial be p ( x ) = x + 99 x + 127

2
On comparing p ( x ) with ax 2 + bx + c , we get a = 1, b = 99 and c = 127

We know that,
18
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
−b  b 2 − 4ac
x=
2ac
−99  ( 99 ) − 4 1127
2
=
2 1
−99  9801 − 508
=
2
−99  9293 −99  96.4
= =
2 2
−99 + 96.4 −99 − 96.4
= ,
2 2
−2.6 −195.4
= ,
2 2
= −1.3, − 97.7
Hence, both zeroes of the given quadratic polynomial p ( x ) are negative.
8. For equal roots b 2 − 4ac = 0 or b 2 = 4ac

b 2 is always positive so 4ac must be positive, i.e., product of a and c must be positive, i.e., a and c
must have same sign either positive or negative.
9. The given equation is

3x − 2 y = 5
According to the condition that if two lines a1 x + b1 y + c1 = 0 and a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0 are parallel
a1 b1 c1
then = 
a2 b2 c2
Taking option (C) and applying the above condition on it and in the given equation.
3 −2 5
or = 
−12 8 7
10. a1 6 b −3 c1 10
Here, = = 3, 1 = = =
a2 2 b2 −1 c2 9
a1 b1 c1
 = 
a2 b2 c2
So, the system of linear equations is inconsistent (no solution) and graph will be a pair of parallel
lines.
11. a1 b1 c1 1
= = =
a2 b2 c2 k
Given equation of line is, −5 x + 7 y − 2 = 0
Here, a1 = −5, b1 = 7, c1 = −2
5 7 2 1
From Eq. (i), − = =− =
a2 b2 c2 k
 a2 = −5k , b2 = 7k , c2 = −2k
where, k is any arbitrary constant.
putting k = 2, then a2 = −10, b2 = 14, c2 = −4 and c2 = −4
∴ The required equation of line becomes,
\
19
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
a2 x + b2 y + c2 = 0
 −10 x + 14 y − 4 = 0
 10 x − 14 y + 4 = 0
12. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. If 27 is subtracted from the number, its digits are
interchanged. Which of these is the product of the digits of the number?
(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 18 (D) 20
13. Let the present age of father be x years and the present age of son be y years.
∴ According to the question,
x = 6y ...(i )
Age of the father after four years = ( x + 4) years
Age of son after four year = ( y + 4 ) years
Now, according to the question,
x + 4 = 4 ( y + 4) ...(ii )
 x + 4 = 4 y + 16
 6 y − 4 y = 16 − 4 [ From ( i ) , x = 6 y ]
 2 y = 12
 y=6
 x = 6  6 = 36 years
and y = 6 years
So, the present ages of the son and the father are 6 years and 36 years, respectively.
14. x2 + x − 5 = 0
On comparing with ax + bx + c = 0
2
a = 1, b = 1, c = −5
b 2 − 4ac = (1) − 4 (1)( −5 )
2
= 1 + 20
= 21  0
Since, D(i.e., b 2 − 4ac)  0
Hence, the equation has two distinct real roots.
15. 2 x2 − 5x + 1 = 0
On comparing with ax + bx + c = 0
2
a = 2, b = − 5, c = 1
( ) − 4 ( 2 )(1)
2
Discriminant = b 2 − 4ac = − 5
= 5 − 8 = −3  0
Since D (i.e., b − 4ac)  0
2
Therefore, the equation has no real root.
16. Sol. Let the speed while going be x km/h

∴ Speed while returning = ( x + 10) km/h
According to question,
20
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
150 150 5
− =
x x + 10 2
 x 2 + 10 x − 600 = 0
 ( x + 30 )( x − 20 ) = 0
 x = 20 or − 30
Rejecting negative value,
∴ Speed while going = 20 km/h and speed while returning = 20 + 10 = 30 km/h
17. Sol. (i) For x 2 + kx + 64 = 0 to have real roots

k 2 − 256  0 ... ( i )
(ii) For x 2 − 8 x + k = 0 to have real roots
64 − 4k  0 ... ( ii )
For (i) and (ii) to hold simultaneously
k = 16
18. Sol. We have r2 − r1 = 7 cm, r2  r1 ... ( i )

and  ( r22 − r12 ) = 1078 cm 2 ... ( ii )
  ( r2 − r1 )( r2 + r1 ) = 1078
1078
 r2 + r1 = = 49 ... ( iii )
22
On adding (i) and (iii) we get
 2r2 = 56
 r2 = 28 cm
and r1 = 49 − 28 = 21
Hence, radii of smaller circle is 21 cm.
19. Sol. Given, HCF of two number = 145

LCM of two numbers = 2175
One number = 725
As we know that,
One number × other number = HCF × LCM
⟹ 725 × other number = 145 × 2175
145  2175
⟹ other number =
725
⟹ other number = 435.
20. Sol. Prime factors of 180 = 2  3  5

2 2
prime factors of 144 = 2  3

4 2
HCF (180, 144) = 2  3 = 36

2 2
∴
36 = 13m – 16
Solving, we get m = 4.
21
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section III
Physics
1.
The image is shifted by 4cm

2. B
3. C
4. A
5. A
6.
3 1
1 = 
2 2
= 3
  sin x = 1  sin 2 x …(i)
  sin x = 1  sin 60 …(ii)
from (i) & (ii)
sin 2 x = sin 60
x = 30
7. 1 1 2
+ =
v u R
1 −1
+15 10
2−3 2
=
30 R
R = –60 cm on concave mirrors
8. d sin  c
R=
1 − sin 2  c
3
d = 12cm sin  c =
4
36
R= cm
7
22
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
9. Pnet = P1 + P2
= −15 + 25 = 10 D
1
= 10 D
f net
1
f net = cm
10
=10cm
10. If object is placed behind the c, the image is always diminished in nature
11. v = +25 u = −10
ni v
=
nu u
ni 25
=
15 −10
ni = −37.5 cm (real)
12. VI = − (V0 − 2VM )
= − 8 − 2  ( −2 )
= − 8 + 4 = −2 cm/sec
towards the mirror 12cm/sec
13. 1 1 1 1 1
= + + +
f net 2 f 2 f 2 f 2 f
2f f
f net = =
4 2
23
CTH - PT-I (SAT)
Section IV
Chemistry
1. B
Sol 1. The salt solution of strong acid and weak base is acidic in nature. So pH < 7.
2. B
Sol 2. Silver chloride undergoes photochemical decomposition.
3. C
Sol 3. 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
4. A
Sol 4. H2S (g) + O2 (g) → S (s) + H2O (l)
5. B
Sol 5. 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g) (Chlor-Alkali Process)
6. D
Sol 6. Plucked grapes ferment due to decomposition of organic compounds.
7. C
Sol 7. Ca(OH)2 (base) + CO2 (acid) → CaCO3 (salt) + H2O (water)
8. A
Sol 8. 2BaO2 + 4HClO2→ 2BaCl2 + 5O2 + 2H2O; 2+4+2+5+2 = 15
9. B
Sol 9. ZnO (base) + H2SO4 (acid) → ZnSO4 (salt) + H2O (water)
ZnO (acid) + 2NaOH (base) → Na2ZnO2 (salt) + H2O (water)
10. B
Sol 10. (CH3COO)2Pb + 2KI → PbI2 + 2CH3COOK
11. D
Sol 11. NaHCO3 does not contain water of crystallization.
12. A
Sol 12. KMnO4 is an oxidizing agent and it oxidizes FeSO4
2KMnO4 + 10FeSO4 + 8H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 5Fe2(SO4)3 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O
13. A
Sol 13. Caustic soda – NaOH

Dead Plaster – CaSO4
Slaked lime – Ca(OH)2
Washing soda – Na2CO3.10H2O
24

CTH 2326 SAT Phase Test 1

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CTH 2326 SAT Phase Test 1

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COMMON TEST

CFY 2226/CTH 2326

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

2. Choose the correct answer and match the following statement?

3. Soil formed by intense leaching:

5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

10. Rivers that pass through Uttar Pradesh are :

11. Consider the following Dams :

12. What is the goal of Jal Jeevan Mission?

14. Arrange the following historical developments in chronological sequence

17. Which of the following statements is not correct?

18. Which of the following statement is not correct?

19. Which of the following statement is not correct?

21. A ‘Feminist’ is:

26. ………… played the leading role in the unification of Germany.

29. Which of the following statements about community government is true?

31. What is a coalition government?

32. Why power sharing is desirable?

33. Which of the following is an example of horizontal division of power?

34. A government for the entire country is usually known as

37. Consider the following statements:

38. Consider the following statements:

40. Which parameter is used to calculate body mass index of an individual?

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 6

5. If α, β are the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial p ( x ) = x − ( k + 6 ) x + 2 ( 2k − 1) , then the value of

8. If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial ax + bx + c, a  0 are equal, then:

(A) c and a have opposite signs

10. Graphically, the pair equations

15. The quadratic equation 2 x − 5 x + 1 = 0 has

will have the real roots.

12. The velocity of image w.r.t to ground

(A) f (B) f/2 (C) f/4

2. Silver chloride is stored in dark coloured bottles because it

3. Baking soda on decomposition produces

8. The reaction between barium peroxide and chloric acid is represented as

9. Which of the following reactions indicates that ZnO is amphoteric in nature?

13. Match the following compounds with their corresponding formulae.

2. What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in plants?

4. Which of the following is the important characteristic of Emphysema?

5. The characteristic processes observed in anaerobic respiration are:

8. Blood from superior vena cava flows into

10. Choose the correct path of urine in our body.

(a) Most portion of the plant stem is occupied by xylem.

14. Pernicious anemia is caused due to deficiency of

2. Since 2 is an even prime number, then n = 2

2(7 2 + 82 ) = 2(49 + 64)

3. 3 intersecting point of P ( x ) and x − axis

4. For any quadratic polynomial,

7. Let given quadratic polynomial be p ( x ) = x + 99 x + 127

On comparing p ( x ) with ax 2 + bx + c , we get a = 1, b = 99 and c = 127

8. For equal roots b 2 − 4ac = 0 or b 2 = 4ac

9. The given equation is

Therefore, the equation has no real root.

16. Sol. Let the speed while going be x km/h

17. Sol. (i) For x 2 + kx + 64 = 0 to have real roots

18. Sol. We have r2 − r1 = 7 cm, r2  r1 ... ( i )

19. Sol. Given, HCF of two number = 145

20. Sol. Prime factors of 180 = 2  3  5

prime factors of 144 = 2  3

HCF (180, 144) = 2  3 = 36