MIDTERM EXAMINATION - SEPTEMBER 2022

SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE

Class: 10 Max. Marks: 80
No. of Pages: 07 SET 1 Time Allowed: 3 Hours
Instructions:
i. The question paper is divided into five sections- Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section
E.
ii. The question paper has 46 questions in all. All questions are compulsory, however internal choices
are given in some questions. Attempt any one of them.
iii. Section A: Questions from serial number 1 to 22 are very short answer type questions of 1 marks
each
iv. Section B: Questions from serial number 23 to 30 are questions based on Sources. Each question
carries one mark
v. Section C: Questions from serial number 31 and 39 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks
each. Answer to these questions should not exceed 80 words each.
vi. Section D: Questions from serial number 40 and 43 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks
each. Answer to these questions should not exceed 120 words each.
vii. Question number 44 to 46 are map-based questions of 1 mark each

SECTION – A

In the following questions, two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the
statements and choose the correct option. 22x1M=22M

1. Assertion: Destruction of forests is not just a biological loss; it results in cultural loss as well.
Reason: It has marginalized and impoverished many forest- dependent communities.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are True, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion
b) Both Assertion and Reason are True, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion
c) Assertion is True, but Reason is False
d) Assertion is False, but Reason is True

2. Choose the correctly matched pair about the soils in India from the following options:
a) Arid Soil - Black coloured, also known as Regur soil.
b) Laterite soil - develops on crystalline rocks.
c) Forest soil - acidic with low humus content.
d) Alluvial soil - gets sticky when wet.

3. Contour Ploughing is done in the hilly areas:

a) to evenly distribute the water to the crop field.
b) to reduce the flow of the water down the slopes and check sheet erosion.
c) to allow the water runoff.
d) to avoid gully erosion.

4. Which of the following conservation strategies does not directly involve community
participation?
a) Joint Forest Management
b) Beej Bachao Andolan
c) Chipko Movement
d) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries
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5. Which of the following activities is not an important factor for the loss of forests?
a) Tribal women selling minor forest products. b) River valley projects
c) Mining d) Agricultural expansion

6. Identify the crop with the help of the clues given below:
a) It is the third most important food crop with respect to area and production.
b) Is a rain fed crop.
c) Mostly grown in areas which hardly need irrigation.
d) Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh are the major states
producing this crop.
Answer in one word ________________

7. Identify the correct statement with regard to The Act of Union – 1707 from the following
statements,
a) The British parliament seized power from Ireland.
b) The British monarchy surrendered the power to English Parliament.
c) The Formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’
d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.

8. Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?

a) Treaty of Constantinople 1832 b) Treaty of Vienna, 1815
c) Treaty of Versailles, 1871 d) Treaty of Greece Independence, 1832.

9. In Victorian Britain the upper classes - aristocratic class and bourgeoisie preferred
handmade goods because.,
a) They were made from imported material.
b) The handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.
c) They were better finished.
d) Only upper class could afford the expensive items.

In the following questions, two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). read the
statements and choose the correct option.

10. Assertion (A) – Female allegories were invented by artists in the nineteenth century to
represent the nation.
Reason (R) – To remind the public of the national symbol of unity and to persuade them to
identify with it.
a) A is correct but R is wrong.
b) A is wrong and R is correct.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.

11. Assertion (A) – New technology was expensive and merchants and industrialists were
cautious about using it.
Reasons (R) – The machines often broke down and repair was costly.
a) A is correct but R is wrong.
b) A is wrong and R is correct.
c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A.

12. Choose the correct option:

Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
a) 6-10 b) 7-11 c) 5-9 d) 14-15

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13. For calculating Body Mass Index(BMI), weight of the person is divided by the:
a) Square of the weight b) Square of the height
c) Square root of the height d) Square of the sum of the height and weight

14. Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B.

Column A
Category of Person
a) Landless rural labourers
b) Prosperous farmers from Punjab
c) Farmers who depend only on rain
for growing crops.
d) A rural woman from a land owning
family.
Column B
Developmental goals/Aspirations
i] More days of work
ii] Availability of other sources of Irrigation
iii] Assured a higher support price
for their crops.
iv] Regular job and high wages to
Increase her income.

15. Which of the following states has the highest Infant Mortality Rate?
a) Haryana b) Maharashtra c) Kerala d) Bihar

16. Which category does India come under with respect to Per Capita Income?
a) High-income countries b) Low middle-income countries
c) Low-income countries d) High middle-income countries

17. Match the following:

Problem faced by farming sector Some possible measures

a) Unirrigated land
b) Low prices for crops
c) Debt burden
d) No job in the off-season
e) Compelled to sell their grains to the
local traders soon after harvest.
i) setting up of agro based mills.
ii) Cooperative marketing societies.
iii) Procurement of food grains by the
government.
iv) Construction of canals by the government
v) Banks to provide credit at low interest.

Choose the correctly matched pairs from the following:

a) 1-b ; 2-e ; 3-a ; 4-c ; 5-d
b) 1-c ; 2-d ; 3-a ; 4-b ; 5-e
c) 1-d ; 2-b ; 3-e ; 4-c ; 5-a
d) 1-d ; 2-c ; 3-e ; 4-a ; 5-b

18. Which of the following is a subject of the Union List?

a) Agriculture b) Trade c) Defence d) Education

19. “For a long time, the same party ruled both at the Centre and in most of the States”. When
did this scenario change and what did this period see?
a) After 2000: saw the decline of regional parties in the country.
b) After 1950: saw the rise of one party in the country.
c) After 1990: saw the rise of regional political parties in many States of the country.
d) After 1980: Saw the presidential rule in the country.

20. ‘Sexual division of labour’ signifies,

i. Gender division emphasises division based on nature of work.
ii. Division is between men and women.
iii. Caste is the basis of Gender Division.
iv. Work decides the division between men and women.
a) (i), (iii) and (iv) b) (i), (ii) and (iv) c) (i) and (ii) d) (iv) and (i)

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21. Assertion (A) – All States in the Indian Union have identical powers.
Reasons (R) – Some States enjoy a special status.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are True, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion
b) Both Assertion and Reason are True, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion
c) Assertion is True, but Reason is False
d) Assertion is False, but Reason is True

22. Assertion (A) – In India the proportion of women in legislature has been very low.
Reasons (R) – In the government, cabinets are largely all male even when a woman
becomes the Chief Minister or Prime Minister.
a) Both Assertion and Reason are True, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion
b) Both Assertion and Reason are True, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion
c) Assertion is True, but Reason is False
d) Assertion is False, but Reason is True

SECTION – B
(Case based questions)

Read the passage below and answer the following questions.

Industries were set up in different regions by varying sorts of people. They history of many
business groups goes back to trade with China. From the late eighteenth century, the British in
India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England. Many Indians
became junior players in this trade, providing finance, producing supplies, and shipping
consignments. Having earned through trade, some of these businessmen had visions of
developing industrial enterprises in India.

23. When did the first cotton mill in Bombay come up?
a) 1854 b) 1862 c) 1855 d) 1874

24. Which businessman from Bombay built huge industrial empires in India, accumulated his
initial wealth partly from exports to China and partly from raw cotton shipments to
England?
a) Dwarakanath Tagore. b) Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata.
c) Jardine Skinner. d) Andrew Yule.

25. Who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917?
a) G.D. Birla. b) R.D. Tata. c) Seth Hukumchand. d) Vasant Parkar.

26. Which of the following functions Is performed by the commercial groups operated within
India but were not directly involved in external trade?
a) Carrying goods from one place to another. b) Banking money, and financing traders.
c) Transferring funds between cities. d) All of the above.

Read the passage below and answer the following questions. 4x1M=4M

You might find the Belgian model very complicated. It indeed is very complicated, even for
people living in Belgium. But these arrangements have worked well so far. They helped to avoid
civic strife between the two major communities and a possible division of the country on
linguistic lines. When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union,
Brussels was chosen as its headquarters.

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27. How did Belgium deal with question of power sharing?
a) The feelings and interests of different communities and regions were ignored.
b) The existence of regional differences and cultural diversities were recognised and
accommodated.
c) The majority community forced its dominance over others and refused to share power.
d) The country was divided on linguistic lines.

28. Between 1970 and 1993, how many times Belgian constitution was amended in order to
make an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same county?
a) Eight times. b) Five times. c) Four times. d) Three times.

29. Which of the following elements of complex Belgian model is incorrect?

a) The number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers shall be equal in the central
government.
b) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation.
c) There is a third kind of government called ‘community government’ which has the
power regarding cultural, educational and language-related issues.
d) The state governments are subordinate to the Central Government.

30. What are the two major communities of Belgium?

a) Dutch and French b) Dutch and German
c) French and German d) German and Spanish

SECTION – C

Answer the following questions in not more than 80 words 9x3M=27M

31. (a) Explain the role of advertisement in creating new consumers for the British products.
OR
(b) Describe the role of ‘Jobbers’ in the beginning of twentieth century of India.

32. (a) Explain the process of unification of Italy.

OR
(b) Explain the significance of portraying nations as female figure by the European artists
of the 18th and 19th Century.

33. (a) ‘While average income is useful for comparison, it may hide disparities.’
Support the statement by giving three valid reasons.
OR
(b) Explain the term ‘Conflicting Goals’. Give suitable examples to substantiate your answer.

34. (a) Explain any three factors responsible for the growth of Service sector of the Indian
Economy.
OR
(b) What steps are involved in the estimation of GDP? Who conducts this process?

35. (a) Explain the classification of the economy on the basis of working conditions.
OR
(b) State the main features of MGNREGA.

36. Write any three effective practices towards conserving forests and wildlife.

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37. (a) ‘Agriculture is the mainstay of the Indian economy’. Explain the statement by giving
three valid points.
OR
(b) Compare Primitive Subsistence Farming and Commercial Farming.

38. (a) How have Belgium and Sri Lanka dealt with the question of power sharing differently?
OR
(b) Why is power sharing good for democracy? Give any three suitable arguments.

39. (a) What are Feminist Movements? What were their major demands?
OR
(b) How has women participation been increased in the Indian Politics? Give a comparative
analysis of early and modern period.

SECTION – D

Answer the following questions in not more than 120 words: 4x5M=20M

40. (a) Explain democratic policies adopted by Government if India which made it a successful
federation.
OR
(b) On what type of principles is the Indian union based? Describe the three-fold
distribution of Legislative powers between Union Government and the State
Government. (2M+3M)

41. (a) “Formation of Great Britain is stranger than other unification movements” justify the
statement with suitable examples.
OR
(b) Explain the process of Unification of Germany.

42. (a) Multipurpose River projects are referred to as the ‘temples of modern India and at the
same time pose serious threats to the eco system and mankind.’ Justify the statement
by giving valid arguments
OR
(b) What is your understanding of ‘Rainwater Harvesting’? Explain the methods of
rainwater harvesting adopted in the different regions of India.

43. (a) Suggest ways to create more employment opportunities in rural India.
OR
(b) ‘The government plays a crucial role in the public sector.’ Explain.

SECTION - E
Map work: 3 Marks

On the political outline map of India locate and label the following dams:

44. A) Hirakud Dam 1M

45. B) Sardar Sarovar Dam 1M
46. C) On the same political outline map of India identify the soil marked. 1M

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