APGENCO MECHANICAL ENGINEERING 2012

PAPER
MAX MARKS: 100 TIME: 2Hours 100 Questions
SECTION: A 70 Marks

Q.1. The cross head velocity in the slider crank mechanism, for the position shown in
Fig. below?

C
α
P β α
P O

(A) Vc cos(90-α+β) cosβ (B) Vc cos(90-α+β) secβ

(C) Vc cos(90-α-β) cosβ (D) Vc cos(90-α-β) secβ

Q.2. A Small element at critical section of a component is in a bi-axial state of stress

with the two principal stresses being 360MPa and 140MPa.The maximum working
stress according to Distortion energy theory is

(A) 220MPa (B) 110MPa (C) 314MPa (D) 330MPa

Q3. Fifty observations of production operations relieved a mean cycle time of 10min. the
worker was evaluated to be performing at 90% efficiency. Assuming the allowances to
be 10% of the normal time, the stand and time (in sec) for the job is

(A) 0.198 (B) 7.3 (C) 9.0 (D) 9.9

Q.4. The lengths of the links of a 4-bar linkage with revolute pairs only are p,q,r and s
units. Given that p<q<r<s, which of these links should fixed one , for obtaining “a
double crank” mechanism

(A) links of length p (B) links of length q

(C) links of length r (D) links of length s
Q.5. A project consists of activities A to M shown in the net in the figure below with the
duration of activities marked in days.

D, 10

A, 2 E, 5 G, 6 L, 3

B,8 H, 10

C, 4 F, 9 K, 3 M, 8

The project can be completed

(A)Between 18, 19 days (B) Between 20, 22 days

(C) Between 24, 26 days (D) Between 60, 70 days

Q.6. There are two products P and Q with the following characteristics

Product Demand(Units) Order Holding

cost(Rs./Order) cost(Rs/Unit/Year)
P 100 50 4
Q 400 50 1

The Economic order quantity (EOQ) of products P and Q will be in ratio

(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 1:4 (D) 1:8

Q.7. A Vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of
excitation frequency of vibrating machine to natural frequency of the isolation system is
equal to 0.5, the transmissibility ratio of isolation is

(A) 1/2 (B) 3/4 (C) 2 (D) 4/3

Q.8. In the window air conditioner, the expansion device used is

(A) Capillary tube (B) Thermo static expansion valve

(C) Automatic expansion valve (D) Float valve

Q.9. Figure shows a quick return mechanism. Crank OA rotates clock wise uniformly
OA=2 cm, OO'=4 cm. The ratio of time forward motion to that for return motion is

O'

(A) 0.5 (B) 2 (C) √12 (D) 1

Q.10.A thick cylinder subjected to an internal pressure of 60MPa. If the hoop stress on
the outer surface is 150 MPa, then the hoop stress on the internal surface is

(A) 105MPa (B) 180MPa (C) 210MPa. (D) 135MPa

Q.11. The Equation of motion for a single degree of freedom system with viscous
damping is 4¨x+9¨x+16x=0. The damping ratio is

(A) 9/128 (B) 9/16 (C) 9/8√2 (D) 9/8l

Q.12. Thermal efficiency of steam turbine can be increased by

(A) Reheating (B) Regeneration (C)Increasing the inlet pressure (D) All of the
above

Q.13. Steam turbines are used for

(A) Electric power generation (B) Direct drive for fans, compressors

(C) Marine propulsion (D) All of the above

Q.14. In an impulse steam turbine, the steam expands in

(A) Nozzles (B) Moving blades

(C) Nozzle and Moving blades (D) Moving and fixed blades

Q.15. In an air craft gas turbine, the axial flow compressor is preferred because of

(A) High pressure rise (B) Low frontal area (C) High thrust (D) High propulsion

Q.16. The essential function of the carburetor in a S.I. Engine is to

(A) Meter the fuel into air stream and amount dictated by the load and speed

(B) Vaporize the fuel

(C) Distribute the fuel uniformly into all cylinders

(D) Both (B) and (C)

Q.17. The most popular firing order in case of a four cylinder in line IC engine is

(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 1-3-2-4 (C) 1-3-4-2 (D) 1-2-4-3

Q.18.The air fuel ratio for idling speed of an automobile petrol engine is close to

(A)10:1 (B) 15:1 (C) 17:1 (D) 21:1

Q.19. A power screw is a device used for power transmission to convert

(A) Rotary motion into a linear motion (B) Linear motion into rotary motion
(C) Sliding motion (D) Centrifugal motion into rotary motion

Q.20. Creep depends on

(A) Pressure (B) Temperature (C) Load applied (D) Stiffness

Q.21. Ratio of force transmitted to the force applied is known as

(A) Damping factor (B) Damping coefficient

(C) Transmissibility (D) Magnification factor

Q.22. A simple gas turbine power plant used for air craft propulsion works on

(A) Rankine cycle (B) Carnot cycle (C) Brayton cycle (D) Otto cycle
Q.23. In EDM process, the tool and work piece are separated by

(A) An electrolyte (B) A metal conductor (C) Dielectric fluid (D) Metallic slum

Q.24. Surface roughness on a drawing is represented by

(A) Triangles (B) Circles (C) Squares (D) Rectangles

Q.25. Poor fusion in a welded joint is due to

(A) High welding speed (B) Dirty metal surface (C) Improper current (D) Lack of flux

Q.26. Mechanical properties of the metal improves in hot working due to

(A) Recovery of grains (B) Recystallisation

(C) Grain growth (D) Refinement of grain size

Q.27. Certain pilot study showed that % of occurrence of an activity as 50% with 95%
confidence level ad an accuracy of ±2%, the no. of observations are

(A) 2500 (B) 2300 (C) 2200 (D) 2000

Q.28. Ann IC engine has a bone and stroke of 2 units each. The area to calculate heat
loss can be taken as

(A) 4π (B) 5π (C) 6π (D) 8π

Q.29. In a weaving operation, the parameter to be controlled in the number of defects

per 10 square yards of material, control chart appropriate for this task is

(A) P-chart (B) C-chart (C) R-chart (D) X-chart

Q.30. The profile of a cam in a particular zone is given by x = √3cosθ and y = sinθ. The
normal to the cam profile at θ = π/4 is at an angle (with respect to x axis)

(A) π /4 (B) π /2 (C) π/3 (D) 0

Q.31. A heat engine operates at 75% of the maximum possible efficiency. The ratio of
heat source temperature to the heat sink temperature (in Kelvin) is 5/3. The function of
the heat supplied, that is converted to work is

(A) 0.6 (B) 0.4 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.7

Q.32 .A gas contained in a cylinder is compressed reversibly from the initial state
(P1,V1) to the final state (P2, V2) according to the path, PVn= constant. The work done
on the gas

(A) n(P1V1-P2V2) (B) P2V2-P1V1 (C) P(V1-V2) (D) P(V1-V2)

1-n n 1-n

Q.33. When wet steam is throttled to a low pressure, its temperature

(A) Increases (B) Does not change (C) Gets halved (D) Decreases

Q.34. A Carnot engine with an efficiency of 0.6 drives a Carnot refrigerator, having a
COP of 5. The energy absorbed from the cold body by the refrigerator for each kJ
energy absorbed from the source by the engine is

(A) 2 KJ (B) 8 kJ (C) 0.12 kJ (D) 3 kJ

Q.35. The maximum work, that can be obtained from a system during a given process in
which the initial and final temperature of the system are equal to the surrounding
temperature, is equal to the decrease in

(A) Internal energy (B) Helmholtz Free energy

(C) Gibbs Free energy (D) Enthalpy

Q.36. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Rankine cycle is lower than that of a carnot
cycle operating between the same temperature limits because

(A) Energy rejection does not take place at constant temperature

(B) The turbine is not reversible and adiabatic

(C) Energy addition does not take place at constant temperature

(D) The pump is not reversible and adiabatic

Q.37. Identify the correct set of approximations made in the thermodynamic analysis of
internal combustion engines

P. The combustion process is replaced by an equivalent energy addition process

Q. The working fluid is a mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapor

R. The combustion process is replaced by an equivalent energy addition process

S. The working fluids have constant heat capacities

(A) P,R,S (B) P,R (C) R,S (D) P,Q,R

38. If Nu is the Nusselt number, Re the Reynolds number, Gr the Grashoff number and
Pr the Prandtl number, then Stanton number is

(A) Nu/Re.Pr (B) Nu/Gr.Pr (C) Gr.Pr/Nu (D) Re/Nu.Pr

Q.39. A block plate (0.5 m x 1 m) is at a distance of 0.5 m from a second black plate, (1
m x 2 m). The shape factor F12 of the first plate is 0.48. What is the shape factor F21 of
second plate?

(A) 0.24 (B) 0.12 (C) 0.06 (D) 0.36

Q.40. a wire, 1 mm in diameter and 10 m long, is submerged in liquid water at

atmospheric pressure. An electric current is passed through the wire. The current is
increased until the water boils. For this situation h = 4000W/m2-oC. The water
temperature is 100 oC. If the wire surface to be maintained at 120 oC, the electric power
that need be spplied to the wire is

(A) 28.142W (B) 27.136W (C) 12.568W (D) 25.136W

Q.41. A certain quantity of liquid is heated for 10 minutes by an electric resister, which
draws 3 amperes current at 200 volts. The liquid is continuously stirred by a paddle
wheel, which was operated by a 200 W rating motor. The amount of energy transferred
to the liquid is

(A) 480 KJ (B) 360 kJ (C) 800 kJ (D) 240 kJ

Q.42. One face of copper plate, 3cm thick, is maintained at 300 oC, while he other face is
at 100 oC. If the thermal conductivity of copper at the average temperature is 374 W/m-
o
C, The amount of heat transferred through the plate, in MW/m2, is

(A) 3.74 (B) 2.49 (C) 2.74 (D) 3.49

Q.43. Water at rate of 60Kg/mm is heated from 35to 85 oC by an oil. The LMTD is
given as 40 oC. The overall coefficient is 300W/m2-oC. Specific heat of water is 4.2kJ/kg-
o
C. The heat exchange area, in square meters, is

(A) 18.5 (B) 15.5 (C) 17.5 (D) 16.5

Q.44. Two very large parallel plates are at 127 C AND 27 oC. Their emissivities are 0.4
and 0.5 respectively. Stefan-Boltzmann constant is 5.669x10-8 W/m2 –K4 .Then, the net
heat exchanged between them, in W/m2 , is

(A) 243 (B) 273 (C) 283 (D) 343

Q.45. U is the overall heat transfer coefficient, A is the surface area of the heat
exchanger, Cmin is the mc of fluid undergoing maximum temperature change and Cmax is
the mc of the fluid undergoing minimum temperature change , then the Number of
Transfer Units (NTU) is

(A) UA/Cmin (B) CmaxUA/Cmin (C) UA/ Cmax (D) CminUA/ Cmax.

Q.46. A fluid of jet cross sectional area A and velocity V strikes a flat plate moving with
a velocity u. If ρ is the density of fluid, the mass of fluid per second striking the plate is

(A) ρA (V+u) (B) ρA (V-u) (C) ρAV (D) ρA (u-V)

Q.47. The discharge in m 3 /sec. for laminar flow through a pipe of diameter 0.04m
having centerline velocity of 1.5 m/sec. is

(A) 3π/10000 (B) π/2500 (C) π/5000 (D) π/7500

Q.48. The hydraulic mean depth of the pipe 1 m diameter flowing full is

(A) 4m (B) 0.50 m (C) 0.125 m (D) 0.25 m

Q.49. An oil of specific gravity 0.9 is contained in a vessel. At a point the height of the oil
is 40 m. The corresponding height of water at that point is

(A) 40 m (B) 4 m (C) 36 m (D) 3.6 m

Q.50. Curve '2¨ in Fig. 1 corresponds to

1 3

Velocity gradient
(A) Ideal fluid (B) Newtonian fluid (C) Non-Newtonian fluid (D) Ideal solid

Q.51. For a given orifice time taken for the water level to fall down 8 to 4 m is 10
seconds. The time taken for water level to fall down from 4 m to zero is

(A) 15 sec (B) 24.14 sec (C) 25.3 sec (D) 20 sec
Q.52. If K is the thermal conductivity, Cp is the heat capacity, ρ is the density and μ is
the viscosity, then thermal diffusivity is

(A) Cpμ/K (B) Kρ/Cpμ (C) Cpμ/Kμ (D) K/Cpρ

Q.53. The relative humidity is defined as the ratio of

(A) Partial pressure of water vapor in the mixture to the total pressure
(B) Partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation pressure of water at system temperature
(C) Saturation pressure of water vapor to the total pressure at the system temperature
(D) Saturation pressure of water to the partial pressure of water vapor at system temperature

Q.54. The loss in available energy associated with a given process is

(A) T0ΔSuni (B) Q-T0ΔSuni (C) Q+T0ΔS uni (D) T0ΔSsystem

Q.55. A thermodynamic cycle consisting of two reversible, constant temperature and

two reversible, constant pressure processes is

(A) Air Standard Carnot Cycle (B) Air Standard Stirling Cycle
(C) ) Air Standard Brayton Cycle (D) ) Air Standard Ericsson Cycle

Q.56. A 1-ton air conditioning unit, with a seasonal energy efficiency rate of 10 is used
for 1000 hr per year. If the cost of electricity is Rs.5 per kW-h, the annual cost of power
consumption by the air conditioner is

(A) Rs. 10,000 (B) Rs. 5,000 (C) Rs. 6,000 (D) Rs. 12,000

Q.57. The detrimental property of a material for shock load application is

(A) High density (B) low toughness (C) High strength (D) Low hardness

Q.58. Materials which are strong and ductile

(A) Polymers (B) Ceramics (C) Metals (D) Semiconductors

Q.59. Alloy steel as compared to carbon steel is more

(A)Tough (B) Strong (C) Fatigue resistance (D) All of the above

Q.60. When a body vibrates under the influence of an external force, it is said to have

(A) Free vibrations (B) Forced vibrations

(C) Damped vibrations (D) Under damped vibrations

Q.61. A shaft having one end fixed and a disc oscillating forcely at the other end. With
increase in shaft stiffness, the natural frequency of vibration wills
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remains same (D) Both (A) and (B)
Q.62. A steel cube of volume 8x106mm3 is subjected to all round stress of 135 N/mm2.
The bulk modulus of material is 1.35x10 5N/mm2.The volumetric change is

(A)8000 mm3 (B) 800 mm3 (C) 80 mm3 (D) 8 mm3

Q.63. A steel bar 2 m length is fixed at both ends at 20 oC. The coefficient of thermal
expansion is 12x10 -6/ oC. The modulus of elasticity is 2x10 5N/mm2.If the temperature is
reduced to 18 oC, the bar will experience a stress of

(A) 2.4 MPa (compressive) (B) 2.4 MPa (tensile)

(C) 4.8 MPa (tensile) (D) 4.8 MPa (compressive)

Q.64. A rectangular beam is to be cut from a circular log of diameter D. The ratio of
breadth to depth for strongest section in bending should be

(A) 1/√3 (B) 1/√2 (C) √2 (D) √2/√3

Q.65. A beam A carries a point load at mid span. Another identical beam B carries the
same load but as uniformly distributed load over the entire span. The ratio of maximum
bending moment in beam A to that in beam B will be

(A) 3/2 (B) 1/2 (C) 3 (D) 2

Q.66. The Shear stress developed at a radial distance r is q. The shear stress developed
at a radial stress r/2 is

(A) 0.75q (B) 0.5q (C) q (D) 0.25q

Q.67. A bar of 40 mm diameter is subjected to an axial load of 4 kN. The extension of

bar over a gauge length of 200 mm is 0.3 mm. The decrease in diameter is 0.018 mm.
The Poisson's ratio is

(A) 0.33 (B) 0.35 (C) 0.30 (D) 0.25

Q.68. Two long columns A and B are of the same material, the same length, and the
same cross-section. Column A is hinged at both ends, while column B is fixed at one end
and hinged at the other. The ratio of the Euler-crippling loads for A and B is

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) √2 (D) 1/2

Q.69. A cantilever beam of uniform EI has a span equal to l . An upward force P acts
upwards at the free end and a downward load W acts at mid-section. If the free-end
deflection is zero, the relation between P and W is

(A) P = 2W/3 (B) P = W/5 (C) P = 5W/16 (D) P = W/2

Q.70. The power saved by fitting air vessel to a single-acting reciprocating pump is

(A) 88.4% (B) 84.8% (C) 39.2% (D) 48.8%

 SECTION: B 30 Marks
Q.71. When I add 4 times my age 4 years from now to 5 times my age 5 years from now,
I got 10 times my current age. How old will be I 3 years from now?

(A) 41 (B) 44 (C) 46 (D) 42

Q.72. There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed
over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner circle to outer circle?

(A) 3:4 (B) 5:7 (C) 3:1 (D) 1:2

Q.73. Sakshi can do a piece of work in 20 days. Tanya is 25% more efficient than sakshi.
The number of days taken by Tanya to do the same piece of work is

(A) 15 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 25

Q.74. A train passes a station platform in 36 sec. and a man standing on the platform in
20 sec. If the speed of the train is 54 Km/hr, what is the length of the platform?

(A) 120 m (B) 300 m (C) 500 m (D) 240 m

Q.75. Let f(x) = ax 2 +bx+c, where a, b, c are certain constants and a ≠ 0. It is known that
f(5) = -3f(2) and that 3 is rot of f(x) = 0.2. What is other root of f(x) = 0 ?

(A) -7 (B) -4 (C) 2 (D) 6

Q.76. Find the number which comes in place of a question mark

D R

T
5 9 3 B

L 4 ? P
P

C D

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

Q.77. 8, 11, 18, 33, 64,?

(A) 126 (B) 127 (C) 125 (D) 128

Q.78. If (5x)4 = 54)4 , then x= ?

(A) 5 4 (B) 5 60 (C) 563 (D) 515

Q.79. If √1+x+√x = √x+√x+5

(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12

Q.80. PS : DG:: ?

(A) CE : TR (B) KM : OQ (C) EH : TW (D) FH : JL

Q.81. Identify the missing number 12, 32, 72, 152, ?, 632

(A) 515 (B) 613 (C) 815 (D) 312

Q.82. A four letter code has to be formed using the alphabets form the set (a, b, c, d)
such that the codes formed have odd number of a's. how many different codes can be
formed satisfying the mentioned criteria ?

(A) 24 (B) 96 (C) 120 (D) 60

Q.83. (ABCD)a = D*a^0+C*a^1+B*a^2+A*a^3. If (1101)2*(2202)3 = (abcd)6, then

(a+b+c+d)=

(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 36 (D) 72

Q.84. The number of terms common in the two sequences 2, 6, 12, 20, ………. 930 and 4,
8, 12, 16, ………. 960 is

(A) 8 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 18

Q.85. TWO

*TWO

THREE

(TWO is a 3 digit number), with T, W, and O being distinct digits. Find the value of
T+O+W, all the alphabets will have distinct values of digits

A) 13 (B) 23 (C) 33 (D) 18

Q.86. In a three digit number, the middle digit equals the average of extreme digits. The
sum of its digits is 9. How many possibilities can it take?

A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4

Q.87. The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23m. its perimeter
is 206m, then its area is

A) 1520 m2 (B) 2420 m2 (C) 2480 m2 (D) 2520 m2

Q.88. A man walked diagonally across a square lot. Approximately what was the
percent saved by not walking along the edges.

A) 20 (B) 24 (C) 30 (D) 33

Q.89. If p-1+q-1 = 5/6, q-1+r-1 = 7/12 and r-1+p-1 = ¾ then p = ?

A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.90. ALCHEMIST: GOLD:: :

A) Druggist: Chemistry (B) Computer: COBOL

(C) Abrasion: Oil (D) Insignia: segregation

Q.91. A cuboidal metal of dimensions 44 cm x 30 cm x 15 cm was melted and cast into a

cylinder of height 28 cm. the radius of cylinder is

A) 25 cm (B) 35 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 5 cm

Q.92. A liquid is full in a hemisphere of inner diameter 9 cm. This is to be poured into
cylindrical bottles of diameter 3 cm and height 4 cm. The number of bottles required
are

A) 54 (B) 27 (C) 37 (D) 44

Q.93. Find the answer figure which should come at the end of problem figure?

Problem figures

1 2 3 4
Answer figures

(B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.94. If 'DEAR' is coded as '7' and 'BEARS' as '9', the code for 'WAX' is

A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 19

Q.95. By investing in 16⅔% stock at 64, one earns Rs. 1,500. The investment made is

A) 5640 (B) 5760 (C) 7500 (D) 9600

Q.96. Find the number which should come in place of question mark?

2 8 3

42 32 ?
6 8 9 6 5 8

4 7 6

A) 31 (B) 40 (C) 38 (D) 22

Q.97. Find the number which should come in place of question mark?

196 169 ?
8 6 4 9 6 9

A) 225 (B) 522 (C) 252 (D) 961

Q.98. In a code language 'min tin zin' means ''very good study'' . 'zin pin jin' means
''good health want'' . 'jin min kin' means ''want study always'' . According to this
language what is the code for kin?

A) Health (B) Study (C) Always (D) Very

Q.99. Identify the number which should come in place of question mark?

M R 62
K P 54
J T ?

A) 80 (B) 60 (C) 70 (D) 50

Q.100. In the following diagram, how many rectangles are there

A) 16 (B) 17 (C) 18 (D) 20

ANSWERS:
1.(D) 2.(C) 3.(D) 4.(D) 5.(C) 6.(C) 7.(D) 8.(A) 9.(B) 10.(C)

11.(B) 12.(D) 13.(D) 14.(A) 15.(B) 16.(A) 17.(C) 18.(A) 19.(A) 20.(B)

21.(C) 22.(C) 23.(C) 24.(A) 25.(C) 26.(D) 27.(A) 28.(B) 29.(C) 30.(C)

31.(C) 32.(B) 33.(D) 34.(D) 35.(B) 36.(C) 37.(A) 38.(A) 39.(B) 40.(D)

41.(A) 42.(B) 43.(C) 44.(C) 45.(A) 46.(B) 47.(A) 48.(D) 49.(C) 50.(C)

51.(B) 52.(D) 53.(B) 54.(A) 55.(D) 56.(C) 57.(B) 58.(C) 59.(D) 60.(B)

61.(A) 62.(A) 63.(C) 64.(B) 65.(D) 66.(B) 67.(C) 68.(D) 69.(C) 70.(B)

71.(B) 72.(D) 73.(B) 74.(D) 75.(B) 76.(B) 77.(B) 78.(C) 79.(A) 80.(C)

81.(D) 82.(C) 83.(A) 84.(B) 85.(A) 86.(B) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B)

91.(C) 92.(A) 93.(C) 94.(C) 95.(B) 96.(A) 97.(A) 98.(C) 99.(B) 100.(C)
 APPSC & AEE – 2012
GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY
(Series – A) Question Paper with Key sheet

01. Which of the following causes the rusting of iron?

(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Chemical reaction with oxygen (d) Chemical reaction with CO2
(1) a and b (2) b and c (c) c and d (d) a and c
Ans: (4)

02. Water gas is prepared by passing

(1) Steam over white-hot coke (2) Air over red-hot coke
(3) Methane over red-hot coke (4) Steam over heated sulphur
Ans: (1)

03. Match the following:

A. Anemometer (i). High temperature
B. Tachometer (ii). Power of machine
C. Pyrometer (iii) Rotation speed
D. Dynamometer (iv) Velocity of fluid
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-iv C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Ans: (3)

04. What is the correct sequence of the following in a heart attack?

(a) Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel.
(b) Plaque from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol.
(c) Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen.
(d) Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries.
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, d, a, c (3) b, c, a, d (d) d, b, a, c
Ans: (2)

05. Which one of the following best explains what pasteurized milk is ?
(1) Fresh and unboiled milk ready for packing in pouches
(2) Milk free from micro-organisms and protected from fermentation
(3) Milk made from fat contents
(4) Powdered milk packed in air-tight containers
Ans: (2)
 2

06. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is

(1) 24 hours (2) 30 days (3) 365 days (4) changing continuously
Ans: (1)

07. The filament of an electric lamp becomes white hot but the lead-in wires holding the
filament are only slightly heated because, they
(1) have smaller current passing through them
(2) have very low resistance
(3) have higher melting point
(4) are made of black iron
Ans: (2)

08. The astronomical (AU) is the

(1) mean distance from the centre of the sun to the centre of the Earth
(2) mean distance between the surface of the sun to the surface of the Earth
(3) maximum distance between the sun and the Earth
(4) minimum distance between the sum and the Earth
Ans: (1)

09. Stars appear to move from East to West because the

(1) whole Universe is moving from East to West
(2) Earth is revolving around the Sun
(3) Earth is rotating East to West
(4) Earth is rotating from West to East
Ans: (4)

10. Consider the following metals:

(a) Platinum (b) Gold (c) Copper (d) Lead
Their correct arrangement in the increasing order of density is
(1) c, d,b,a (2) d, c, b,a (3) a, b, c, d (4) c, d, a, b
Ans: (1)

11. A fish that is devoid of any scales is

(1) Carp (2) Dog fish (3) Cat fish (d) Mullet
Ans: (1)

12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List – II
(Planets) (Moons)
A. Mars 1. Titan
B. Saturn 2. Miranda
C. Uranus 3. Phobos
D. Jupiter 4. Ganymede
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(1) 1 3 2 4 (2) 3 1 2 4
(3) 3 1 4 2 (4) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (2)

Series - A
 3

13. The oxygen that keeps us alive is a product or photosynthesis. It comes from
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Carbonate absorbed from soil
(3) Oxides of mineral elements (4) Water
Ans: (4)

14. Gene, the basic unit of heredity, was first synthesized in the laboratory by
(1) Arthur Kornberg (2) Hargobind Khorana
(3) Gregor Mendel (4) Watson and Crick
Ans: (2)

15. Which of the following plant diseases caused by bacteria?

(1) Citrus die-back (2) Karnal bunt of wheat
(3) Potato witches’ broom (4) Tundu disease of wheat
Ans: (4)

16. Which of the following crops is/are affected by the early blight disease?
(1) Potato (2) Rice (3) Sugarcane (4) Wheat
Ans: (1)

17. Two solutions are said to be isotonic when they

(1) have the same osmotic pressure
(2) are of equal concentration
(3) contain the same solute dissolyed in them
(4) have the same vapour pressure
Ans: (1)

18. The processes that can be used for making artificial enzymes may be
(a) genetic engineering
(b) synthesis of crown ethers.
(c) donaturation of proteins from living systems.
Out of the above three reactions, the correct reactions are
(1) a and c (2) a and b (3) a, b and c (4) b and c
Ans: (2)

19. Interferon is
(1) an anti-bacterial drug (2) an anti-cancer agent
(3) an anti-viral agent (4) a hormone
Ans: (3)

20. An isoentropic process occurs at

(1) constant temperature (2) constant pressure
(3) constant entropy (4) constant enthalpy
Ans: (3)

21. Which state has the lowest density?

(1) Jammu & Kashmir (2) Rajasthan
(3) Nagaland (4) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (4)

Series - A
 4

22. In which area are Zoroastrains concentrated?

(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Maharashtra (4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (3)

23. OTEC refers to

(1) Oceanic mineral resources (2) Tidal and wave energy
(3) Ocean thermal gradient energy (4) None of the above
Ans: (3)

24. Where was the National Agricultural Science Complex established?

(1) Delhi (2) Bangalore (3) Madras (4) Calcutta
Ans: (1)

25. Intensive subsistence farming is characteristic of the area of

(1) high density of population and high technology
(2) low density of population and high technology
(3) low density of population and low technology
(4) high density of population and low technology
Ans: (4)

26. How many National Highways are existing in Andhra Pradesh?

(1) 10 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 20
Ans: (3)

27. What is the percentage of the population in Andhra Pradesh according to the Social and
Economic survey estimates of out country for 2010-11?
(1) 7.16% (2) 8.0% (3) 7.0% (4) 7.27%
Ans: (3)

28. How many lacs of heactares of land area is there in Andhra Pradesh?
(1) 274.09 lacs Ha (2) 270.0 lacs Ha.
(3) 275.04 lacs Ha (4) 273.0 lacs Ha.
Ans: (3)

29. When did the National Horticulture Mission commence?

(1) 2004 (2) 2005 (3) 2009 (4) 2010
Ans: (2)

30. Who was the Chairman of NABARD in 2011?

(1) A.K, Singh (2) V.C, Saarangi (3) K.N. Vajpai (4) D. Subba Rao
Ans: (1)

31. Where was the important meeting of the Mahatma Gandhi National Employment
Guarantee Scheme held during 2010?
(1) Kolkata (2) Bengaluru (3) Delhi (4) Nagpur
Ans: (3)

Series - A
 5

32. In IPL 2010 Golden Player of the tournament was

(1) Pollard (2) Dhoni (3) Suresh Raina (4) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans: (4)

33. What is the serial number of the census of India done during the year 2011?
(1) 14th (2) 16th (3) 15th (4) 18th
Ans: (3)

34. Where is the Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology located?

(1) Lucknow (2) Pune (3) Bhopal (4) Kolkata
Ans: (3)

35. The Montreal Protocol is related to

(1) Ozone depletion (2) Nuclear weapons
(3) Land mines (4) Sea-bed
Ans: (1)

36. Which of the following will host the 20th FIFA world Cup in 2014?
(1) Spain (2) Brazil (3) Germany (4) Argentina
Ans: (2)

37. The annual Summit meeting of the shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in 2010
at
(1) Tashkent (2) Dushanbe (3) Astana (4) Bishkek
Ans: (1)

38. The Almatti dam is on the river

(a) Godavari (2) Cauvery (3) Krishna (4) Mahanadi
Ans: (3)

39. New name of GATT is

(1) UNEEPA (2) APEC (3) WTO (4) OSCE
Ans: (3)

40. G-20 Summit was recently held in

(1) New York (2) Seoul (3) London (4) Tokyo
Ans: (2)

41. Aung San Suu Kyi-pro-democracy leader of Myanmar, was released from house arrest by
the military rulers in
(1) September 2010 (2) November 2010
(3) October 2010 (4) December 2010
Ans: (2)

42. The United Kingdom signed treaties agreeing to military cooperation including testing of
nuclear warheads with
(1) Belgium (2) France (3) The Netherlands (4) Germany
Ans: (2)

Series - A
 6

43. Which year has been set as a deadline for withdrawal of troops by North Atlantic Treaty
Organisation from Afghanistan?
(1) 2013 (2) 2015 (3) 2014 (4) 2016
Ans: (3)

44. Dilma Rousseff has been elected the new President of

(1) Brazil (2) Argentina (3) Peru (4) Chile
Ans: (1)

45. Justice Arun Kumar Mishra is the Chief Justice of

(1) Calcutta High Court (2) Rajasthan High Court
(3) Madras High court (4) Bombay High court
Ans: (2)

46. The period when men used both stomes and copper tools is known as the
(1) Monolithic Age (2) Chalcolithic Age
(3) Neolithic Age (4) Metal Age
Ans: (2)

47. Which among the following was the chief feature of Rig-Vedic religion?
(1) Performance of sacrifices
(2) Worship of images
(3) Belief in existence of life after death
(4) Predominance of female goddesses
Ans: (1)

48. With which religion is Kaivalya associated?

(1) Buddhism (2) Jainism (3) Hinduism (4) Sikhism
Ans: (2)

49. The misl of which Ranjit Singh was the leader, was
(1) Sukerchakia (2) Ahuluwalia (3) Phulkia (4) Ramgarhia
Ans: (1)

50. Akbar collected a very valuable library manuscripts on all subjects, because
(1) he was a voracious reader
(2) he wanted to write Akbarnama
(3) he had a great hunger for knowledge
(4) he wanted to start a new religion
Ans: (4)

51. The major difference between “Varna” and “Jati” is that

(1) Varna was formed after Jati
(2) Jati wad derived from Varna
(3) Varna are only four but Jati are many
(4) They are unrelated
Ans: (3)

Series - A
 7

52. The famous Besnagar pillar inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult
of
(1) Panchika and Hariti (2) Pashupathas
(3) Krishna-Vasudeva (4) Shakti
Ans: (3)

53. The Buddhist monument Stupa was raised

(a) over Buddha’s relics
(b) at places connected with Buddha’s life
(c) over relics of celebrated members of that sangha.
(d) as obects of devotion by Buddhist monasteries.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only (4) a, b, c and d
Ans: (3)

54. Dhai-din-ka Jhopra at Ajmer was constructed by

(1) Sher Shah (2) Qutub-ud-din
(3) Jalaluddin Firoz Khilji (4) Balban
Ans: (2)

55. Which of the following formed the eastern limit of the Sultanate in 1335?
(1) Jajnagar (2) Poshawar (3) Kalanaur (4) Malwa
Ans: (1)

56. Mohammad Ghazni attacked India many times mainly

(1) to plunder the wealth of India
(2) to spread Islam in India
(3) to establish his empire in India
(4) to take the famous artisans of India to his Cours
Ans: (1)

57. Put the following in ascending chronological order of construction:

(a) Puri Jagnannath Temple (b) Meenakshi Temple
(c) Mamallapuram temple (d) Kutub Minar
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, b, d (3) b, c, a, d (4) c, a, d, b
Ans: (4)

58. When did “The Mother Goddess” after centuries of neglect become an object of worship
again?
(1) Later Vedic time (1000 – 600BC)
(2) The Mauryan phase (321-185 BC)
(3) The years between the Mauryas and the Guptas (184 BC-AD 320)
(4) The period from the rise of the Guptas to the death of Harsha Vardhana (AD 320-647)
Ans: (3)

59. The most short lived of all constitutional reforms in British India
(1) The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (2) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
(3) Indian council Act of 1892 (4) Indian Council Act of 1861
Ans: (1)

Series - A
 8

60. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s reform of Hinduism was along the lines of
(a) condemnation of idolatry
(2) Irrelevance of Brahmnical priestcraft
(c) Propagation of monotheism
(4) Projection of Vedas as the repository of all scientific truths
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) a and d (2) a, c and d (3) a, b and c (4) All of the above
Ans: (4)

61. Match important court poets/scholars with their patrons :

A. Ravikirti Gupta i. Samudra
B. Bhavabhuti ii. Harsha
C. Hariscna iii. Pulakesin
D. Banabhatta iv. Yashovarman of Kannauj
(1) A –iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-I, D-ii (4) A-I, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
Ans: (3)

62. Vedic texts mention Vrihi, Tandula and Sali to refer to

(1) Wheat (2) Barley (3) Rice (4) Gram
Ans: (3)

63. Successive Sultans attempted to control the nobility through various ways, but did not
fully succeed
Match the following:
A. Balban i. Built a small nobility on the principle of heredity
B. Alla-ud-din Khilji ii. Nobility based on personal loyalty checked by spies
C. Mohammad –Bin iii. For a better Tughlaq control, the dispersed nobility
D. Firoz Shah Tughlaq iv. Created a nobility based on the racial antecedents
(1) A – ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-I (4) A – ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Ans: (3)

64. Who declared “The only hope for India is from the masses. The upper classes are
physically and normally dead”?
(1) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Swami vivekanand
Ans: (4)

65. Who was the advocate at the famous INA trials?

(1) Bhulabhai Desai (2) Asaf Ali
(3) Subhash Chandra Bose (4) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans: (1)

Series - A
 9

66. What was the chief programme of the Swaraj Party?

(1) Council entry
(2) Constitutional opposition
(3) Rural reconstruction programme
(4) None of the above
Ans: (1)

67. Which was the only province where Muslims had taken to commerce and education quite
early?
(1) Calcutta (2) Punjab (3) Madras (4) Bombay
Ans: (1)

68. Which of the following classes participated the least in the Indian. National movement?
(1) Capitalists (2) Princes of States
(3) Government’s officials (4) Peasants
Ans: (2)

69. Horse latitudes is the term applied to the

(1) 0050 N and S latitudes (2) Polar circles
(3) 300-400 N and S latitudes (4) 400600N and S latitudes
Ans: (3)

70. The velocity of winds is governed by

(1) Pressure gradient (2) Ferrel’s law
(3) Rotation of the Earth (4) Temperature
Ans: (1)

71. The Saturn rings were discovered by

(1) Copernicus (2) Newton (3) Galileo (4) None of the above
Ans: (3)

72. The planet having no moon is

(1) Mercury (2) Pluto (3) Venus (4) Neptune
Ans: (both 1 &3 answer are correct)

73. The Earth’s annual circuit round the Sun covers a distance of
(1) 1098 millions kms (2) 1038 millions kms
(3) 966 million kms (4) 896 millions kms
Ans: (3)

74. The International Date Line passes through the

(1) Bass Strait (2) Bering Strait (3) Cook Strait (4) Horn Strait
Ans: (2)

75. Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
Safari’?
(1) Tropical deserts (2) Equatorial regions
(3) Temperate grassland regions (4) Savanna or Tropical grassland regions
Ans: (4)

Series - A
 10

76. Canary Islands are dependenties of

(1) Spain (2) Portugal (3) Germany (4) U.K
Ans: (1)

77. A pharmaceutical plant of India is

(1) IDPL, Hyderabad (2) IDPL, Kanpur
(3) HSL, Bhilal (4) HIL, Delhi
Ans: (1)

78. The most important producer of tin in India is

(1) Bihar (2) Rajasthan
(3) Karnataka (4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (2)

79. Which iron and steel plant has been established with German collaboration?
(1) TISO, Jamshedpur (2) HSL, Rourkela
(3) HSL, Bhilai (4) HSL, Durgapur
Ans: (2)

80. What is the present population of the world?

(1) 5.6 Billion (2) 5.8 billion (3) 6.4 billion (4) 7 billion
Ans: (4)

81. Which part of United States is most densely populated?

(1) North – Central (2) North – Western (3) North-Eastern (4) South – Central
Ans: (3)

82. Which of the following places is likely to have a time ahead of GMT?
(1) Lisbon (2) Beghadad (3) New York (4) Buenos Aires
Ans: (2)

83. India’s first cotton textile mill was established at Fort Gloster in 1818? In which state is
it located?
(1) Maharashtra (2) West Bengal (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Gujarat
Ans: (2)

84. Black soil requires least tilling because,

(1) it is fertile (2) it develops cracks on drying
(3) it is a lava origin (4) it has plenty of iron and aluminium compounds
Ans: (2)

85. An upper air wind system with very high velocities in certain parts of the atmosphere is
called
(1) a cyclone (2) an anti cyclone (3) jet stream (4) a tsunami
Ans: (3)

Series - A
 11

86. What are the factors influencing ocean currents?

a. Corioilis force
b. Local winds
c. Waves
d. Continent shape
(1) a and d (2) a, c and d (3) a and c (4) a, b and d
Ans: (4)

87. All of the following are agents of fog formation except for
(1) high relative humidity (2) diurnal temperatures of short ranges
(3) winter season (4) rapid radiation
Ans: (3)

88. Which is an organic rock?

(1) Marble (2) Coal (3) Granite (4) Slate
Ans: (2)

89. The constituent Assembly was created by

(1) Simla Conference 1945 (2) Cabinet Mission Plan
(3) Indian Independence Act (4) Cripps Mission
Ans: (2)

90. Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?

(1) Executive is responsible to Judiciary
(2) Executive is responsible to Legislature
(3) Judiciary is responsible to Execute
(4) Legislature is responsible to Executive
Ans: (2)

91. Right to property is a

(1) Fundamental Right (2) Political Right
(3) Civil Right (4) Legal Right
Ans: (4)

92. Which of the following has banned “floor crossing” by he members elected on a party
ticket to the legislature?
(1) 52nd Constitution Amendment Act (2) Peoples Representation Act
(3) National Security Act (4) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Ans: (1)

93. The Union Territories get representation in

(1) Lok Sabha (2) Rajya Sabha
(3) Both houses of Parliament (4) None of the above.
Ans: (3)

94. Who is competent to prescribe conditions for acquiring Indian citizenship?

(1) Parliament (2) State Legislature
(3) President (4) Attorney General
Ans: (1)

Series - A
 12

95. The Supreme Court was set up under

(1) Pitt’s India Act (2) Indian Councils Act 1861
(3) Regulating Act (4) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans: (3)

96. The members of the Constituent Assembly

(1) were directly elected (2) were all nominated
(3) were indirectly elected (4) were partly elected directly by the people
Ans: (3)

97. The source of political power in India lies with

(1) the Constitution (2) the Parliament
(3) the people of India (4) the Legislature and the Judiciary
Ans: (3)

98. The concept that the courts can punish a person for contempt of court was borrowed
from
(1) UK (2) USA
(3) Govt. of India Act 1935 (4) South Africa
Ans: (1)

99. Which one of the following Lok Sabhas was dissolved before expiry of its normal term
and mid-term elections ordered?
(1) First (2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Seventh
Ans: (3)

100. The Swaraj Party soon got divided on the issue of

(1) not contesting elections in 1926
(2) acceptance of membership of the Executive Council of the Governor
(3) cooperation with the Muslim league
(4) All of the above
Ans: (2)

101. Who among the following transferred the Shivaji and Ganapti festival in to a national
festival?
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai (2) Bal Ganagadhar Tilak
(3) Veer Savarkar (4) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans: (2)

102. The Indian National Congress observed Independence Day for the first time on 26th
January in
(1) 1920 (2) 1925 (3) 1930 (4) 1947
Ans: (3)

103. A person can move the Supreme Court direction in the event of violation of
Fundamental Rights under
(1) Article 19 (2) Article 32 (3) Article 34 (4) None of the above
Ans: (2)

Series - A
 13

104. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in

(1) 1919 (2) 1921 (3) 1931 (4) 1920
Ans: (4)

105. The PIL in India has been introduced by

(1) Constitutional Amendment (2) Judicial Initiative
(3) Political Parties (4) Parliamentary
Ans: (2)

106. Vijay L. Kelkar, who was appointed as the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commision is
a former
(1) Comptroller and Auditor General (2) Finance Secretary
(3) Chairman of Planning Commission (4) None of the above
Ans: (2)

107. Chelliah Committee (1992 -93) recommended that in Income Tax there should be
(1) higher rates (2) broader spread between minimum and maximum rates
(3) minimum incentives (4) maximum incentives
Ans: (3)

108. Which South Asian country has adopted, Gross Nationa Happiness as an index of the
well being of its citizens?
(1) Bangladesh (2) Bhutan (3) Sri Lanka (4) Myanmar
Ans: (2)

109. Which year is known as “year of the great divide” with regard to population growth in
India?
(1) 1921 (2) 1951
(3) 1947 (4) None of the above
Ans: (1)

110. In India, National Income is computed by

(1) Ministry of Finance (2) Central Statistical Organisation
(3) Planning Commision (4) Indian Statistical Institute
Ans: (2)

111. National Planning Committee (1938) was chaired by

(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) M. Visveswarayya
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) M.N. Roy
Ans: (1)

112. The Planning commission was set up in accordance with the Directive Principles in
(1) Article 38 (2) Article 39 (3) Article 42 (4) Article 51(A)
Ans: (1)

113. Labour participation of women in India is

(1) 20% (2) 15% (3) 32% (4) 9%
Ans: (3)

Series - A
 14

114. Which of the following is not a method of estimating National Income?

(1) Product Method (2) Export-import Method
(3) Income Method (4) Expenditure Method
Ans: (2)

115. Chronic unemployment is measured using

(1) US data (2) CWS data
(3) None of the two (4) Both (1) and (2)
Ans: (4)

116. The cause for a steep decline in population in India in 1921 Census was
(1) First World War (2) Influenza
(3) Famine (4) Partition of Bengal
Ans: (2)

117. Land Development Banks form a part of the

(1) Commercial Banks (2) Industrial Development Bank of India
(3) Food Corporation of India (4) Cooperative Credit Structure
Ans: (4)

118. Decent ralised planning on the basis of Panchayat Raj institutions was recommended by
(1) Balwantray Mehta Committee (2) Mahalanobis Committee
(3) Asoka Mehta Committee (4) Gadgil Committee
Ans: (1)

119. The State which has the lowest percentage of persons below the poverty line is
(1) Kerala (2) Maharashtra (3) Punjab (4) Gujarat
Ans: (3)

120. National Income is arrived at by adding to Net Domestic Product

(1) Depreciation (2) Net inflow from abroad
(3) Indirect taxes (4) Subsidies
Ans: (3)

121. First Plan adopted

(1) Lewis- Fei model (2) Mahalanobis model
(3) Harrod Domar model (4) Keynesian model
Ans: (3)

122. Panchayat Raj institutions are intended to strengthen

(1) Indicative planning (2) Multilevel planning
(3) Structural planning (3) Functional planning
Ans: (2)

123. India has ………. % of the world’s geographical area and …….. % of the world
population.
(1) 4, 18 (2) 2.6, 16 (3) 2.4, 16 (4) 3.2, 15
Ans: (3)

Series - A
 15

124. The ex-officio chairman of the planning Commission of India is the

(1) Planning Minister (2) Finance Minister
(3) Prime Minister (4) Governor of R.B.I
Ans: (3)

125. Which one of the following sectors has attracted the maximum FDI during the last four
years?
(1) Software (2) Telecommunication
(3) Structural planning (4) Functional planning
Ans: (2)

126. What is the percentage of India’s population to the World population?

(1) 6% (2) 16% (3) 26% (4) 36%
Ans: (2)

127. 2, 15, 41, 80 ……

(1) 132 (2) 121 (3) 111 (4) 120
Ans: (1)

128. AGNI-V Missile was launched on

(1) 18th April 2012 (2) 20th April 2012 (3) 19th April 2012 (4) 21st April 2012
Ans: (3)

129. If PASSPORT is coded as RECURQTV, then how will BOOKLET be coded?

(1) CPPLMFU (2) CQQMNFV (3) DQQMNGV (4) DRRNMGW
Ans: (3)

130. If India is written as 95491, then Delhi will be written as

(1) 45389 (2) 45489 (3) 45498 (4) 45398
Ans: (1)

131. The missing number in the given figure is

(1) 44
(2) 48 30 11 72
36 22 15 18 ? 60
(3) 40
(4) 50
Ans: (1)

132. Prema has a son named Anand. Rajiv is Prema’s brother. Neha too has a dauthter
named Rashmi. Neha is Rajiv’s sister. What is the relationship to Rashmi?
(1) Uncle (2) Brother-in-law (3) Cousin (4) No relationship
Ans: (3)

133. Pan is to Nap as Tap is to

(1) Water (2) Tip (3) Cap (4) Pat
Ans: (4)

Series - A
 16

134. Cork is to Bottle as ……… is to Box

1. Lock (2) Side (3) Colour (4) Lid
Ans: (4)

135. Rekha is Virendra’s mother’s daughter’s daughter. What is her relationship with
Virendra?
(1) Aunt (2) Friend (3) Niece (4) Nephew
Ans: (3)

136. Match the following:

A. Desert (i). Sky
B. River (ii). Boulders
C. Mountain (iii). Flood
D. Clouds (iv) Famine

A B C D
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: (3)

137. Two players are tossing a balanced coin. If it shows heads four times in a row, what is
the probability that a head will occur in the fifth
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50
(3) 0.75 (4) None of the above
Ans: (2)

138. If the day tomorrow is Sunday, what was it yesterday?

(1) Wednesday (2) Thursday (3) Friday (4) Saturday
Ans: (3)

139. A clock shows the time as 12.20. What is the angle the hour hand makes with the
minute hand?
(1) 1000 (2) 1100 (3)1200 (4) 1300
Ans: (2)

140. How many prime numbers are integer multiples of 26?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 2
Ans: (4)

Directions: (Questions 141 to 145):

Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are traveling in a group
(i) In the group, there is one tennis player, one cricket player and one chess player.
(ii) P, the son of a doctor, carns more than the tennis player
(iii)S is an unmarried
(iv)There is one married couple in the group of which Q is the husband.
(v) T is the brother of R and is neither a chess player nor a cricket player
(vi)The cricket player earns the least money.

Series - A
 17

141. Which of the following is a group of male friends?

(1) P, Q, R (2) Q, T, R (3) P, T, R (4) P, Q, T
Ans: (4)

142. Who is the cricket player?

(1) P (2) Q (3)R (4) S
Ans: (2)

143. Who is the sister of R?

(1) P (2) Q (3) S (4) T
Ans: (3)

144. Who is the chess player?

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S
Ans: (1)

145. Who is the wife of Q?

(1) P (2) R (3) S (4) T
Ans: (2)

146. Select the odd one out

(1) Crying (2) Frying (3) Drying (4) Sweeping
Ans: (1)

147. Earthquakes and volcanoes are associated with

(1) folded and faulted region (2) deep sea plains
(3) plateau region (3) coastal region
Ans: (1)

148. The term ‘Nife’ refers to

(1) earthquakes (2) core of the Earth (3) crust of the Earth (4) Ocean beds
Ans: (2)

149. What is a cyclone?

(1) A low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(2) A high pressure system with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(3) A low pressure system with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(4) A high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
Ans: (3)

150. The National day for disaster reduction is

(1) 28th October (2) 29th October (3) 30th October (4) 31st October.
Ans: (2)

Series - A
 APPSC & AEE – 2012
COMMON FOR CIVIL & MECHANICAL ENGG.
PAPER – II (Series – D)
D
01. Reynolds number which quantifies the role of viscous effect expressed as
V Vd V 2 L 
(1) (2) (3) (4) V
gd   E
Ans: (2)

02. The lower limit of the critical Reynolds number below which all disturbances in pipe flow
are damped out by viscous action has a value approximately equal to
(1) 1 (2) 500 (3) 1000 (4) 2000
Ans: (4)

03. The shear stress distribution in pipe flow is expressed by

1  dp   dp  r  dp  r 2  dp 
(1)     (2)      (3)    2r   (4)    
r  dx   dx  2  dx  L  dx 
Ans: (2)

04. The Hagen – Poiseuille equation which governs the velocity distribution in laminar flow
through pipes may be expressed as
d 4 p d 2 p 128L 128L
(1)   (2)   (3)   2 (4)   4
128L 128L d p d p
Ans: (1)

05. The pressure drop per unit length of pipe in laminar flow is equal to
d2 32 VL 32 V 8V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32V d 2
d 2
d2
Ans: (3)

06. In laminar flow through a circular tube, the Darcy – Weisbach friction is related to the
Reynolds number by
1  16   64   0.316 
(1) f    (2) f    (3) f    (4) f   1 / 4 
R R R  R 
Ans: (3)
 --2--

07. The discharge in (m3/s) for laminar flow through a pipe of diameter 0.04 m bearing a
centerline velocity of 1.5 m/s is
3 3 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
59 2500 5000 10000
Ans: (4)

08. The most essential feature of a turbulent flow is

(1) large discharge
(2) High velocity
(3) velocity and pressure at a point exhibit irregular fluctuations of high frequency
(4) velocity at a point remains constant with time
Ans: (3)

09. The velocity distribution in turbulent flow follows a

(1) parabolic law (2) logarithmic law (3) linear law (4) hyperbolic law
Ans: (2)

10. Steel and cast iron pipes carrying fluid under pressure are regarded as hydraulically
smooth when
(1) the boundary surface is relatively smooth
(2) the roughness projections are of low height
(3) the roughness elements are completely covered by the laminar sub-layer
(4) the laminar layer is thin as compared to the average height of roughness elements
Ans: (3)

11. The Darcy – Weisbach friction factor ‘f’ which is a direct measure of resistance to flow in
pipes is dependant on
(1) roughness height, diameter and velocity
(2) relative roughness, diameter and viscosity
(3) relative roughness, velocity and viscosity
(4) relative height, diameter, velocity and kinematic viscosity
Ans: (4)

12. The parameters which determine the friction factor for turbulent flow in a rough pipe are
(1) Froude number and relative roughness
(2) Froude number and Mach number
(3) Reynolds number and relative roughness
(4) Mach number and relative roughness
Ans: (3)

13. In case of turbulent flow of a fluid through a circular tube, as compared to the case of
laminar flow, at the same flow, rate, the maximum velocity is __________, shear stress at
the wall is __________, and the pressure drop across a given length is________.
(1) higher, higher, higher (2) higher, lower, lower
(3) lower, higher, higher (3) lower, higher, lower
Ans: (3)

Series - D
 --3--

14. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum, when the velocity of wheel is
______ that of the jet velocity.
(1) on-fourth (2) one-half (3) three-fourth (4) double
Ans: (2)

15. The number of buckets on the periphery of a Pelton wheel is given by

D D D D
(1) 5 (2)  10 (3)  15 (4)  20
2d 2d 2d 2d
Ans: (3)

16. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used

(1) to run the turbine full (2) to prevent air to enter the turbine
(3) to increase the effective head of water (4) to transport water to downstream
Ans: (3)

17. In an inward flow reaction turbine

(1) the water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
(2) the water enters at the centre of the wheel and from there flows towards the outer
periphery of the wheel
(3) the water enters the wheel at outer periphery, and then flows towards the centre of the
wheel
(4) the flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
Ans: (3)

18. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the number of blades are generally

(1) 2 to 4 (2) 4 to 8 (3) 8 to 16 (4) 16 to 24
Ans: (2)

19. The power developed by a turbine is

(1) Directly proportional to H1/2 (2) Inversely proportional to H1/2
(3) Directly proportional to H3/2 (4) Inversely proportional to H3/2
Ans: (3)

20. The specific speed of a turbine is given by

N P N P N P N P
(1) 3/ 2
(2) 5/ 4
(3) (4)
H H H2 H3
Ans: (2)

21. The turbine to be used for 450 m head of water is

(1) Pelton wheel (2) Francis turbine (3) Kaplan turbine (4) None of these
Ans: (1)

22. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine

(1) causes noise and vibration of various parts
(2) makes the surface rough
(3) reduces the discharge of a turbine
(4) causes sudden drop in power output and efficiency
Ans: (1)

Series - D
 --4--

23. The specific speed of a turbine is speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given
turbine, which
(1) delivers unit discharge under unit load
(2) delivers unit discharge under unit speed
(3) develops unit H.P. under unit head
(4) develops unit H.P. under unit speed
Ans: (3)

24. In a centrifugal pump the liquid enters the pump

(1) at the centre (2) at the top (3) at the bottom (4) from sides
Ans: (1)

25. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to

(1) give high discharge (2) pump viscous fluids
(3) produce high heads (4) None of these
Ans: (3)

26. Theoretical power required to drive a reciprocal pump is

WQH s WQH s WQH d WQH s  H d 
(1) (2) (3) (4)
60 75 60 75
Ans: (4)

27. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump is given by

N Q N Q N Q N Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
H 2/3
H H 3/ 4 H 5/ 4
Ans: (3)

28. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum value of the vane exit angle is
(1) 10o to 15o (2) 15o to 20o (3) 20o to 25o (4) 25o to 30o
Ans: (4)

29. Which of the following pumps is preferred for flood control and irrigation applications?
(1) Centrifugal pump (2) Mixed flow pump
(3) Axial flow pump (4) Reciprocating pump
Ans: (3)

30. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps

(1) the suction pressure should be high (2) the delivery pressure should be high
(3) the suction pressure should be low (4) the delivery pressure should be low
Ans: (3)

31. In a propped cantilever beam, the number of points of contraflexure is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
Ans: (1)

Series - D
 --5--

32. A fixed beam ‘AB’ 6 m long carries a vertical load 90kN at 2 m from ‘A’. The fixed end
moments at ‘A’ and ‘B’ are
(1) 40 kN-m, 80 kN-m (2) 40 kN-m, 120 kN-m
(3) 80 kN-m, 40 kN-m (4) 120 kN-m, 80 kN-m
Ans: (3)

33. In a fixed beam, at the fixed ends

(1) slope is zero and deflection is maximum
(2) slope is maximum and deflection is zero
(3) both slope and deflection are maximum
(4) slope and deflection are zero
Ans: (4)

34. If a fixed beam is subjected to a point load at mid span, total number of points of
contraflexure are
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) zero
Ans: (2)

35. A beam of length, l, fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load of w per unit
length. If EI is the flexural rigidity, then the maximum deflection in the beam is
wl 4 wl 4 wl 4 wl 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
192 EI 24 EI 384 EI 12 EI
Ans: (3)

36. Slenderness ratio of a column may be defined as the ratio of its effective length to the
(1) radius of column (2) minimum radius of gyration
(3) maximum radius of gyration (4) area of the cross-section
Ans: (2)

37. The crippling load of a column with one end fixed and other end hinged is
(1) 2 times that of a both ends hinged column
(2) Two times that of a both ends hinged column
(3) Four times that of a both ends hinged column
(4) Eight times that of a both ends hinged column
Ans: (2)

38. The formula given by I.S. code in calculating allowable stress for the design of
eccentrically loaded columns is based on
(1) Johnson’s parabolic formula (2) Straight line formula
(3) Perry’s formula (4) Secant formula
Ans: (3)

39. The Rankine constant (a) in Rankine’s formula is equal to

 2E  2 E C
(1) (2) 2C (3) (4)
C  E CE 2
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --6--

40. When both ends of the column are pinned, then the formula for crippling load (P) is equal
to
 2 EI 4 2 EI 2 2 EI  2 EI
(1) P  2 (2) P  (3) P  (4) P  2
l l2 l2 l
Ans: (1)

41. In Rankine’s formula, the material constant for mild steel is

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9000 5000 1600 7500
Ans: (4)

42. If the flexural rigidity of the column is doubled, then the strength of the column is
increased by
(1) 16 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 4
Ans: (3)

43. The diameter of the core for no tension in a column of diameter 120 mm is
(1) 30 mm (2) 15 mm (3) 40 mm (5) 20 mm
Ans: (1)

44. The least radius of gyration for solid circular column is

d d d
(1) d (2) (3) (4)
2 4 3
Ans: (3)

45. In a mild steel tube 4 m long, the flexural rigidity of the tube is 1.2  1010 N-m2. The tube
is used as a strut with both ends hinged. The crippling load kN is given by
(1) 14.80 (2) 7.40 (3) 29.60 (4) 1.85
Ans: (2)

46. The ratio of pressures between two points X and Y located respectively at depths of 0.5 m
and 8 m below water level in a tank is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1:2 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:16
Ans: (4)

47. The hydrostatic pressure in kgf exerted on one side of an annular area enclosed by
concentric circles of radii 2 m and 1 m, and having its centroid 4 m below water surface is
(1) 10000  (2) 11000  (3) 12000  (4) 24000 
Ans: (3)

48. The depth of the centre of pressure of a vertical semi-circular plane of diameter ‘d’
submerged in aliquid, with diameter located at the free surface is
d d d 3d
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 32 64 32
Ans: (4)

Series - D
 --7--

49. A vertical rectangular plane surface is submerged in water with its top surface and bottom
surface at 1.5 m and 6.0 m below the free water surface. The depth of centre of pressure
below the free water surface is
(1) 4.0 m (2) 4.5 m (3) 4.375 m (4) 4.2 m
Ans: (4)

50. In an inclined plane submerged in water, the centre of pressure is located

(1) at the centroid (2) below the centroid
(3) above the cetnroid (4) anywhere in the plane
Ans: (2)

51. When a body floating in a liquid is given a small angular displacement, it stands
oscillating about a point known as
(1) centre of pressure (2) centre of gravity
(3) centre of buoyancy (4) matacentre
Ans: (4)

52. A vertical triangular plane area, submerged in water, with on e side coinciding the free
surface, vertex downward, with altitude, ‘h’, has the centre of pressure below the free
surface by
h h 2h h
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 3 3 4
Ans: (4)

53. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to a liquid on one of its sides. The total
pressure on the wall per unit length is
wH 2 wH wH 2
(1) wH (2) (3) (4)
2 2 3
Ans: (2)

54. A vertical gate closes a horizontal tunnel 5 m high and 3 m wide running ful with water.
The pressure at the bottom of the gate is 196.2 kN/m2. The total pressure on the gate is
(1) 2.0 MN (2) 2.575 MN (3) 5.525 MN (4) 1.75 MN
Ans: (2)

55. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if its metacentre

(1) coincides with its centre of gravity
(2) lies above its centre gravity
(3) lies below its centre of gravity
(4) lies below the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity
Ans: (1)

56. A flow whose stream line is represented by a curve is called

(1) one dimensional flow (2) two dimensional flow
(3) three dimensional flow (4) four dimensional flow
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --8--

57. The Bernoulli constants for points lying on the same stream line and those which lie on
other stream lines will have the same value, if the flow is
(1) incompressible (2) steady (3) irrotational (4) uniform
Ans: (3)

58. The Bernoulli’s equation written in conventional form represents total energy per unit of
a certain quantity. Identify this quantify.
(1) energy per unit volume (2) energy per unit mass
(2) energy per unit weight (3) energy per unit specific weight
Ans: (3)

59. The total energy line is always higher than the hydraulic grade line, and the vertical
distance between the two represents
(1) the datum head (2) the pressure head
(3) the velocity head (4) the piezometric head
Ans: (3)

 v2 p 
60. The total energy represented by the Bernoulli’s equation    z  has the units
 2g  
2
(1) N-m/m (2) N-m/N (3) N-m /s (4) N-m/s
Ans: (2)

61. In a double overhanging beam carrying udl throughout its length, the number of points of
contra flexure are
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) zero (4) 3
Ans: (2)

62. A beam ABCD is simply supported at B and C. The simply supported span BC=l. The
overhangs are each ‘a’. If the beam carries a udl of w/metre over the entire length, the
maximum BM at the centre is
w 2 wa 2 wa 2 wa 2 wl 2 wa 2
(1)  (2) (3) (4) 
8 4 4 2 8 2
Ans: (3)

63. Rate of change of shear force is equal to

(1) Bending moment (2) Intensity of loading
(3) Maximum deflection (4) Slope
Ans: (2)

64. A cantilever is subjected to udl throughout the length. If the maximum shear force is
200kN and maximum bending moment is 400kN, the span “L” of the beam in metres is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
Ans: (3)

Series - D
 --9--

65. A cantilever beam AB of length l is subjected to an anticlockwise couple of ‘M’ at a

section C, distance ‘a’ from support. Then the maximum shear force is equal to
M
(1) M (2) (3) Zero (4) Ma
2
Ans: (3)

66. If SFD between two sections varies linearly, BM between these sections varies
(1) linearly (2) parabolically (3) constant (4) None of these
Ans: (2)

67. At section of a beam sudden in BM indicates the action of

(1) point load (2) couple (3) point load or couple (4) udl
Ans: (2)

68. In a double equal overhang beam, for maximum BM to be as small as possible, the
supports must be placed at a distance ‘x’ from the ends of the beam. The value of x is
(1) 0.5l (2) 0.207 l (3) 0.53 l (4) 0.7l
Where l = span of the beam
Ans: (2)

69. A freely supported beam of span 6m is subjected to a point of 60 kN at mid span. The
maximum BM is equal to
(1) 300 kN-m (2) 180 kN-m (3) 90 kN-m (4) 270 kN-m
Ans: (3)

70. If a freely supported beam is subjected to udl throughout the span, the shape of the BMD
is
(1) rectangle (2) straight line (3) equilateral triangle (4) parabola
Ans: (4)

71. Section modulus of a beam is defined as

Y I
(1) IY (2) (3) (4) Y2I
I Ymax
Ans: (3)

72. A beam of uniform strength is one which has same

(1) bending moment throughout the section
(2) shearing force throughout the section
(3) deflection throughout the beam
(4) bending stress at every section
Ans: (4)

73. Neutral axis of a beam is the axis at which

(1) the shear force is zero
(2) the section modulus is zero
(3) the bending stress is maximum
(4) the bending stress is zero
Ans: (4)

Series - D
 --10--

74. A beam cross-section is used in two different orientations as shown in figure:

b
b/2

b/2
Bending moments applied in both causes are same. The maximum bending stresses
induced in cases (A) and (B) are related as
 
(1) A = B (2) A = 2B (3)  A  B (4)  A  B
2 4
Ans: (2)

75. The ratio of flexural strength of a square section with its two sides horizontal to its
diagonal horizontal is
2
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3) 2 2 (4)
5
Ans: (1)

76. The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average shear stress in case of a rectangular
beam is equal to
(1) 1.5 (2) 2.0 (3) 2.5 (4) 3
Ans: (1)

77. The nature of distribution of horizontal shear stress in a rectangular beam is

(1) linear (2) parabolic (3) hyperbolic (4) elliptic
Ans: (1)

78. Section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its centre of gravity is
 3  3   3
(1) d (2) d (3) d 3 (4) d
32 16 8 64
Ans: (1)

79. A steel plate 50mm wide and 100mm thick is to be bent into a circular arc of radius 10m.
If E = 2105N/mm2, then the maximum bending stress induced will be
(1) 200N/mm2 (2) 100 N/mm2 (3) 10,000N/mm2 (4) 1000 N/mm2
Ans: (1)

80. A beam of square section is placed with one diagonal placed horizontally. The maximum
shear stress occurs at
3 3
(1) the N.A. (2) d from top (3) d from N.A. (4) at the extreme fibres
8 8
Where d = depth of the beam
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --11--

81. Torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by

T T T T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 J  r
Ans: (3)

82. Shear stress for a circular shaft due to torque varies

(1) from surface to centre parabolically
(2) from surface to centre linearly
(3) from centre to surface parabolically
(4) from centre to surface linearly
Ans: (4)

83. If two shafts of the same length, one of which is hollow, transmit equal torques and have
equal maximum stress, then they should have equal
(1) angle of twist (2) polar modulus of section
(3) polar moment of inertia (4) diameter
Ans: (2)

84. A circular shaft subjected to torsion undergoes a twist of 10 in a length of 1.2m. If the
maximum shear stress induced is 100MPa and the rigidity modulus is 0.8105 MPa, the
radius of the shaft in mm should be
270  180 
(1) (2) (3) (4)
 270  180
Ans: (1)

85. Two shafts are of same length and same material. The diameter and maximum shear
stress of the second shaft is twice that of the first shaft. Then the ratio of lpower
developed between the first and second shaft is
16 1 3
(1) 16 (2) (3) (4)
3 3 16 16
Ans: (3)

86. The differential equation which gives the relation between BM, sllpe and deflection of a
beam is
d2y M d2y
(1) EI 2  (2) M
dx I dx 2
d2y dy M
(3) EI 2  M (4) EI 
dx dx F
Ans: (3)

87. A rolled steel beam having a span of 4m carries a point load of 20kN at 3m from the left
support. If the moment of inertia of the section is 1107 mm4 and E = 200kN/mm2, then
the deflection of the beam under the point load is equal to
(1) 25 mm (2) 7.5mm (3) 13.33 mm (4) 50 mm
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --12--

88. A cantilever of length ‘l’ carries a udl of w per unit ru, over the whole length. If the free
end be supported over a rigid prop, the reaction of the prop will be
2 w 5w 3w 7 w
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 8 8 8
Ans: (3)

89. Radius of curvature of the beam is equal to

ME M EI MI
(1) (2) (3) (4)
I EI M E
Ans: (3)

90. A simply supported beam span 3,m is subjected to a central point load of 5kN, then the
slope at the mid span is equal to
25 256 40
(1) (2) (3) (4) Zero
24 EI EI 48 EI
Ans: (4)

91. The ratio between the change in volume and original volume of the body is called
(1) tensile strain (2) compressive strain (3) volumetric strain (4) shear strain
Ans: (3)

92. The ratio between tensile stress and tensile strain or compressive stress and compressive
strain is termed as
(1) modulus of rigidity (2) modulus of elasticity
(3) bulk modulus (4) modulus of subgrade reaction
Ans: (2)

93. Relation between E, K and C is given by

3K  C 6KC 3KC 9KC
(1) E  (2) E  (3) E  (4) E 
6KC K  3C 3K  C 3K  C
Ans: (4)

94. The elongation of a conical bar due to its self weight is

 2  2  2  2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6E 2E 2E E
Where  = unit weight of the material
Ans: (1)

95. Strain in a direction at right angles to the direction of applied force is known as
(1) shear strain (2) lateral strain (3) longitudinal strain (4) volumetric strain
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --13--

96. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of

working stress ultimate load
(1) (2)
ultimate stress design safe load
ultimate stress design safe load
(3) (4)
working stress ultimateload
Ans: (3)

97. The strain due to a temperature change in a simple bar is

(1) t (2) /t (3) t/ (4)  + t
Ans: (1)

98. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform cross-section produced under its own
weight to the elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is
1 1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4)
2 4
Ans: (3)

99. Two bars A and B are of equal length but B has an area half that of A and bar A has
young’s modulus double that of B. When a load ‘P’ is applied to the two bars, the ratio of
deformation between A and B is
1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 2 (4)
2 4
Ans: (4)

100. The elongation of beam of length ‘l’ and cross-sectional area ‘A’ subjected to a load ‘P’
is l. If the modulus of elasticity is halved, the new elongation will be
l
(1) (2) 2(l) (3) l (4) 2l
2
Ans: (2)

101. A 16m diameter central hole is bored out of a steel rod of 40mm diameter and length
1.6m. The tensile strength because of this operation
(1) increases (2) remains constant (3) decreases (4) None of these

Ans: (3)

102. The force P for equilibrium of the bar shown in the figure is

A B C D
30kN
50kN P 40kN

Cross-sectional area =800mm2

2m 2m 2m

(1) 60kN (2) 40kN (3) 120kN (4) 20kN

Ans: (4)

Series - D
 --14--

1
103. The relationship between Young’s modulus and shear modulus when  0, is
m
(1) E = 2C (2) E = 3C (3) E = 2C+1 (4) C = 2E

Ans: (1)

104. If a rigidly connected bar of steel and copper is colled, the copper bar will be subjected
to
(1) compression (2) shear (3) tension (4) None of these

Ans: (3)

105. The force required to punch a 10mm diameter hole in a mild steel plate 10mm thick, if
the shear strength of mild steel is 360MPa is
(1) 9 kN (2) 36kN (3) 18kN (4) 2.25kN

Ans: (2)

106. The shear on principal plane is

(1) minimum (2) maximum (3) zero (4) infinity

Ans: (3)

107. If a body carries two unlike principal stresses, the maximum shear stress is given by
(1) sum of the principal stresses
(2) difference of the principal stresses
(3) half the difference of the principal stresses
(4) half the sum of the principal stresses

Ans: (3&4) (Options are vague. Using different logics. The options are 3&4 are correct

108. The radius of Mohr’s circle for two unlike principal stresses of magnitude  is
 
(1) (2)  (3) (4) Zero
2 4
Ans: (2)

109. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a maximum shearing stress of 140MPa. The
magnitude of maximum normal stress developed in the shaft is
(1) 140MPa (2) 80MPa (3) 70MPa (4) 60MPa
Ans: (1)

110. If the principal stresses at a point in a strained body are x and y (x > y), then the
resultant stress on a plane carrying the maximum shear stress is equal to
 2x   2y  2x   2y
(1)  
2
x
2
y (2)  
2
x
2
y (3) (4)
2 2
Ans: (3)

Series - D
 --15--

111. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m2 (tensile) and 10 kN/m2
(compressive) acting mutually perpendicular to each other. The maximum shear stress
is
(1) 30 kN/m2 (2)5 kN/m2 (3) 15 kN/m2 (4) 10kN/m2
Ans: (3)

112. Principal planes will be free of

(1) normal stress (2) shear stress
(3) both normal and shear stresses (4) None of these
Ans: (2)

113. On two perpendicular planes there are normal stresses, 1 and 2 and shear stress q. If
q2 = 1 2, the major and minor principal stresses respectively are
(1) 1 + 2 and zero (2) 1 + 2 and 1  2
(3) Zero and 1  2 (4) 1  2 and 1 + 2
Ans: (1)
Hint: Using the notation given
1   2    2 
2

Principle Stress p1    1  
2

2  2 
  2    2 
2

Principle Stress p 2  1   1  
2

2  2 
  2    2 
2

Principle Stress p1  1   1   1  2
2  2 
1   2 12   22  21 2  1 2
 
2 4

1   2 12   22  21 2
 
2 4

1   2  1   2 
    1   2
2  2 
(Similarly Principle Stress p2 = 0
114. Angle between the principal planes is
(1) 2700 (2) 1800 (3) 900 (4) 450
Ans: (3)

115. For a two-dimensional stress system the coordinates of the centre of Mohr’s circle are
x  y  x  y   x  y   x  y 
(1)  , 0 (2)  , 0 (3) 0,  (4) 0, 
 2   2   2   2 
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --16--

116. For a maximum bending moment, shear force at that section should be
(1) zero (2) maximum
(3) minimum (4) None of the above
Ans: (1)

117. For uniform shear force throughout the span of a simply supported beam, it should carry
(1) a concentrated load at the mid-span
(2) a couple anywhere in the sections
(3) udl over its entire span
(4) two concentrated loads equally spaced
Ans: (2)

118. Maximum bending moment in a cantilever carrying a concentrated load at the free end
occurs
(1) at the fixed end (2) at the free end
(3) at the mid span (4) None of these
Ans: (1)

119. The given figure shows the shear force diagram for the beam ABCD. Bending moment
in the portion BC of the beam
(1) is zero
(2) varies linearly from B to C C D
(3) parabolic variation between B and C A B
(4) is a non – zero constant
Ans: (4)

120. At the point of contra flexure in a beam

(1) B.M. is zero (2) B.M. changes its sign
(3) S.F. is zero (3) Both S.F and B.M. change sign
Ans: (2)

121. The kinetic energy correction factor  is a measure of effect of non-uniform distribution
of velocity which is caused on account of viscous and other resistances. It is expressed
by
2 3 3
1 v 1 v 1 v 1 V
A A  V 
(1)   dA (2)   dA (3)    dA (4)    dA
A A V  A A V  A A v 
Ans: (3)

122. A stagnation point is a point where

(1) pressure is zero (2) total energy is zero
(3) total energy is maximum (3) velocity of flow reduces to zero
Ans: (4)

123. Cavitation in fluid flow occurs when

(1) the total energy suddenly increases
(2) total energy decreases suddenly
(3) velocity head reduces to zero
(4) pressure of flow decreases to a value close to its vapour pressure
Ans: (4)

Series - D
 --17--

124. The momentum correction factor  is used to account for

(1) change in pressure
(2) change in mass rate of flow
(3) change in total energy
(4) non-uniform distribution of velocities at inlet and outlet sections
Ans: (4)

125. The change in moment of momentum of fluid due to flow along a curved path results in
(1) a dynamic force which passes through the centre of curvature
(2) a torque
(3) a change in energy
(4) a change in pressure
Ans: (2)

126. The velocity head representing the kinetic energy per unit weight of fluid is denoted by
2 v2 v2
(1) v (2) (3) 2gh (4)
2 2g
Ans: (4)

127. A prandtl type pitot tube is used to measure the

(1) velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
(2) pressure difference between two points in a pipe
(3) total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
(4) discharge through a pipe
Ans: (1)

128. While using the pitot-tube, it must ensured that its alignment is such that
(1) its horizontal leg is at right angles to the direction of flow
(2) its opening faces the downstream direction
(3) its opening faces upstream and the horizontal leg is perfectly aligned with the
direction of flow
(4) the horizontal leg be inclined at 450 in plan
Ans: (3)

129. The coefficient of discharge ‘Cd’ of a venture meter lies within the limits
(1) 0.7 – 0.9 (2) 0.6 – 0.8 (3) 0.75 – 0.95 (4) 0.95 – 0.99
Ans: (4)

130. When the venturemeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will give the reading as
(1) same (2) more (3) less (4) no relation
Ans: (1)

131. The velocity of liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a venturimeter
(1) remains constant (2) decreases (3) increases (4) no relationship
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --18--

132. The head lost is more in a

(1) nozzle meter (2) venture meter
(3) inclined venture meter (4) orifice meter
Ans: (4)

133. If successive measurements with a Prandtl-pitot tube indicate that the tip piezo meter
reading varies only across the flow, and the side piezometer reading varies only in the
direction of flow, the flow is evidently
(1) uniform, irrotational (2) non-uniform, rotational
(3) uniform, rotational (4) non-uniform, irrotational
Ans: (2)

134. A mechanical device, which has rotation elements, the speed of rotation of which is a
function of velocity of flow, and which is used measure the velocity of liquid in open
channels, is
(1) Anemometer (2) Orifice meter (3) Current meter (4) Rotameter
Ans: (3)

135. A mouthpiece and an orifice, both of the same diameter ‘d’, are discharging under the
same head ‘H’. The discharge through the mouthpiece will be
(1) the same as that of the orifice (2) less than that of the orifice
(3) more than that of the orifice (4) no relationship
Ans: (3)

136. As compared to a rectangular weir, a triangular weir measures low discharges more
accurately, the discharge through the latter being
5 5
2 8
(1) C d 2g tan .H 2
(2) C d 2g tan .H 2
3 15
3 3
8 2
(3) C d 2g tan .H 2 (4) C d 2g tan .H 2
15 3
Ans: (2)

137. A Cippoletti weir is a

(1) rectangular weir with sharp edges
(2) high triangular notch
(3) trapezoidal notch with 450 slopes
(4) trapezoidal notch with sides inclined at 1H : 4V
Ans: (4)

138. The time taken for a tank, filled to a height ‘h’ above its flat base, to empty through an
orifice in the base varies as the following power of ‘h’.
1 1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3)  (4)
2 2 3
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --19--

139. The equation of state for a perfect a perfect gas is

P P V P
(1) = RT (2) = (3) PV = RT (4) =T
V T R 
Ans: (3)

140. If the compression or expansion of a gas takes place in such a way that the gas neither
gives heat nor takes heat from its surroundings, the process is said to be
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic (3) Isobaric (4) None of these
Ans: (2)

141. For an adiabatic process,

(1) PV = a constant (2) PVn = a constant
P P
(3) K = a constant (4)  = a constant
 K
Ans: (3)

142. Momentum equation is completely independent of

(1) compressibility effects (2) frictional effects
(3) viscous effects (4) momentum flux
Ans: (3)

143. The velocity of elastic pressure wave in a fluid medium is equal to

(1) sonic velocity (2) half of sonic velocity
(3) square root of sonic velocity (4) Bulk Modulus
Ans: (1)

144. Match number is given by

Acoustic speed
(1)
Stream speed
Stream speed
(2)
Acoustic speed
(3) product of gas constant and temperature
(4) half of Bulk Modulus
Ans: (2)

145. Mach cone is possible in

(1) Stationary fluids (2) Subsonic flow
(3) Transonic flow (4) Supersonic flow
Ans: (4)

146. The range of Mach number for a subsonic flow is

(1) 0 < M < 1 (2) 0.3 < M < 1 (3) 0.8 < M < 1.2 (4) M > 1
Ans: (2)

Series - D
 --20--

147. The differential form of continuity equation for one dimensional steady flow
compressible fluids with usual terms is
d dA dA d dV
(1)  =0 (2)  
 A A  V
dA dV d dA d dV
(3)   (4)  
 V  A  V
Ans: (4)

148. For flow in a nozzle discharging from a ta “choking” condition occurs, when the flow
the nozzle exit is
(1) subsonic (2) supersonic (3) critical (4) transonic
Ans: (3)

149. Effect of compressibility of a fluid can neglected if Mach number is

(1) equal to 1 (2) greater than 1
(3) less than 1 but greater than 0.4 (4) less than 0.4
Ans: (4)

150. Laminar flow through a circular tube studied experimentally by

(1) Newton (2) Pascal
(3) Hagen and Poiseuille (4) Prandtl
Ans: (3)