3

PART IV
Dear Student,

Current affairs is important in clearing the preliminary stage of the Civil Service Examination
(CSE). And, we at BYJU’S Exam Prep | IAS would like to help you understand its importance by
sharing the number of questions asked from current affairs in the past 5 years.

Year No. of Questions from Current Affairs

2018 14
2019 22
2020 18
2021 27
2022 21

We would also like to bring forth our Prelims Value Addition Series, which is a part of our effort
to prepare you to score the maximum out of this section.

This is being released in four parts. In the first, second and third parts we have covered current
affairs from the month of May 2021 till July 2022, from the month of August 2022 till October
2022, and from the month of November 2022 till January 2023 respectively. In this Fourth part, we
are covering current affairs from the month of February 2023 until April 2023. Therefore, this
series will comprehensively cover the last year “Current events of national and international
importance”, an integral part of the syllabus for the Civil Services Preliminary Examination.

While preparing this series we have kept in mind the demand and evolving nature of CSE, time
constraint of the student to study multiple subjects, revising them and attempting test series etc.
Hence, we have made our sincere efforts to keep the series concise and at the same time
comprehensive to meet the demands of the preliminary stage of CSE.

We recommend the student to read this series, connect the topics with the static portion and revise
it at least twice before appearing for the examination.

1 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

2 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
 CONTENT
Constitutional Issues and Important Judgements _________________ 04-08
1.1 Rahul Gandhi’s conviction
1.2 MediaOne: SC on freedom, national security
1.3 Right to be forgotten
1.4 Self incrimination
1.5 Judicial custody
1.6 Atiq Ahmed’s son killed: What apex court, NHRC have said on encounters
1.7 Behind the Kudmis’ agitation for ST status

Parliament, State Legislature and Local Government ______________ 09-11

2.1 Deputy speaker
2.2 Expunging words from Parliament
2.3 Nagaland ULBs election: CM Neiphiu Rio has a tightrope walk

Judiciary _____________________________________________________ 12-14

3.1 Puisne judge
3.2 What is the SC’s public interest immunity claim procedure?
3.3 Foreign lawyers and law firms to practise in India
3.4 Legal Aid defence system

Elections _____________________________________________________ 15-15

4.1 No bar on contesting two seats in one poll

Constitutional/Statutory/Executive Bodies _______________________ 16-19

5.1 NCPCR draft guidelines
5.2 Supreme Court Ruling on ECI Appointments
5.3 Competition Commission Amendments

Miscellaneous ________________________________________________ 20-22

6.1 Grievance Appellate Committees
6.2 Compassionate appointment
6.3 How is civil union different from marriage?
6.4 New IT rules create new power of censorship

3 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 CONSTITUTIONAL ISSUES AND
IMPORTANT JUDGEMENTS
1.1 Rahul Gandhi’s conviction
1.3 Right to be forgotten
1.5 Judicial custody
1.7 Behind the Kudmis’ agitation
for ST status
1.1 Rahul Gandhi’s conviction
Context: Recently, Congress leader Rahul
Gandhi was disqualified from the Lok Sabha,
following his conviction in a defamation case
by a Surat court.
What was the case?
• He had made a remark about the “Modi”
surname during 2019 Lok Sabha elections
saying “Why do all thieves, be it Nirav
Modi, Lalit Modi or Narendra Modi, have
Modi in their names?
• He was held guilty and sentenced to two
years in jail by a Surat court in a 2019
defamation case, over his remarks.
• The conviction triggered the
disqualification process for him as a
lawmaker.
What was the verdict?
• Chief Judicial Magistrate HH Verma
convicted him, and sentenced to two years
in prison.
• The judges used Section 500 of the Indian
Penal Code (IPC) that prescribes for
defamation a simple imprisonment for a
“term which may extend to two years, or
with fine, or with both.”
• The court also allowed his bail on a surety
of Rs 15,000 and suspended the sentence for
30 days for further appeal.
4 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
01
1.2 MediaOne: SC on freedom,
national security
1.4 Self incrimination
1.6 Atiq Ahmed’s son killed: What
apex court, NHRC have said on
encounters
Why was he disqualified?
There are three disqualification criterias:
• Using Articles 102(1) and 191(1): The
grounds here are holding an office of profit,
being of unsound mind or insolvent or not
having valid citizenship.
• Using Tenth Schedule of the
Constitution: disqualification of the
members on grounds of defection.
• The Representation of The People Act
(RPA), 1951 provides for disqualification
for conviction in criminal cases.
What does the Representation of The People
Act say?
• Section 8(3) of the RPA states: “A person
convicted of any offense and sentenced to
imprisonment for not less than two years
shall be disqualified from the date of such
conviction and shall continue to be
disqualified for a further period of six years
since his release.”
How does the disqualification operate?
• The disqualification can be reversed if a
higher court allows a stay on the conviction
or decides the appeal in favour of the
lawmaker.
• In a 2018 case in ‘Lok Prahari v Union of
India’, the Supreme Court ruled that the
disqualification “will not operate from the
date of the stay of conviction by the
appellate court.”
What is the remedy available to the
lawmaker?
• Section 8(4) of the RPA states that the
disqualification takes effect only “after
three months have elapsed” from the date
of conviction.
• Within that period, lawmakers could file an
appeal against the sentence before the High
Court.
1.2 MediaOne: SC on freedom,
national security
Context: Recently, the Supreme Court set away
the centre’s ban on telecast of Malayalam news
channel MediaOne. The matter relates to the
government's January 31st directive revoking
the licence and telecast on security grounds.
The background of the case:
• The news channel got security clearance
from the Union Home Ministry in 2011
which later got permission to uplink for 10
years.
• On 31st January, 2022, the I&B Ministry
revoked permission after the Home
Ministry denied fresh security clearance.
• The MHA alleged the channel promoters’
probable links with the Jamaat-e-Islami
Hind.
• Following the revoking of its licence,
MediaOne went off air.
Appeal in the High Court:
• The channel appealed before the Kerala
High Court which upheld the ban.
• The HC admitted and accepted the material
produced by the MHA.
Appeal in the Apex Court
• The promoters pleaded that they were
denied a chance to defend themselves.
• The national security reasons cited were
given only to the HC in a sealed cover.
• At the end, the SC put aside both the orders
upholding the government action.
The judgement: Highlights
• The Centre's action is restricting press
freedom.
• The SC concluded that an independence of
the press is vital for a robust democratic
republic.
5 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
• It said that criticism of the government’s
policy should not be a reasonable
restriction under Article 19(2) of the
Constitution.
• It refused to accept the government’s
national security angle as such a claim must
be backed by material evidence.
• It also held that national security claims are
big and concerning that cannot be made
out of thin air without any material
backing.
The principles of natural justice:
• Sealed cover procedure infringes principles
of natural justice and restricts the right to
fair and reasonable hearing.
• In a sealed cover procedure, the documents
are not available to the affected party.
• The courts cannot just rely upon covered
and sealed documents presented by one
party which is mostly the state.
• The culture of secrecy and opaqueness has
to be done away with.
1.3 Right to be forgotten
Context: Recently a plea was filed in Delhi
High Court seeking for Right to be forgotten.
What is the Right to be forgotten?
• The 'Right to be Forgotten' is the right to
remove or erase content so that it’s not
accessible to the public at large.
o It empowers an individual to have
information in the form of news,
videos, or photographs deleted from
internet records so it doesn't show up
through search engines like Google.
Law on Right to Forgotten:
• Section 43A of the Information
Technology Act, 2000 says that
organisations who possess sensitive
personal data and fail to maintain
appropriate security to safeguard such
data, resulting in wrongful loss or
wrongful gain to anyone, may be obligated
to pay damages to the affected person.
o The IT Rules, 2021 do not include this
right, they do however, lay down the
procedure for filing complaints with
the designated Grievance Officer so as
to have content exposing personal
information about a complainant
removed from the internet.
• The Personal Data Protection Bill under
Chapter V of the draft bill titled, “Rights
of Data Principal” mentions the “Right to
be Forgotten” as the right to restrict or
prevent the continuing disclosure of
personal data by a “data fiduciary”.
Current status of the law:
• The right is not recognized by a law or a
statute in India expressly, the courts have
repeatedly held it to be endemic to an
individual’s Right to Privacy under
Article 21 since the Apex Court’s 2017
ruling in K.S.Puttaswamy vs Union of
India.
1.4 Self incrimination
Context: Delhi excise policy case: how the right
against self-incrimination works
What is an individual right of self
incrimination?
• Article 20(3) of the Indian Constitution
says, “No person accused of any offence
shall be compelled to be a witness against
himself.
Constitutional principles and verdicts:
• The right to be presumed innocent until
proven guilty, and the right to remain silent
in an interrogation essentially flow from
this constitutionally guaranteed right
against self-incrimination.
o This right also ensures that police
cannot coerce anyone to confess to a
crime, and obtain a conviction based on
that confession.
• Since the onus of proving the case against
the accused beyond reasonable doubt is
on the state, a person cannot be compelled
to testify against himself or share
information that might go against him in a
trial.
• In the State of Bombay versus Kathi Kalu
Oghad, the apex court held that obtaining
photographs, fingerprints, signatures,
and thumb impressions would not violate
the right against self-incrimination of an
accused. The court distinguished “to be a
witness” from “furnishing evidence”.
• In Ritesh Sinha versus State of Uttar
Pradesh the apex court broadened the
parameters of handwriting samples to
include voice samples, adding that this
6 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
would not violate the right against self-
incrimination.
• In Selvi v State of Karnataka, the Supreme
Court held that a narco analysis test
without the consent of the accused would
amount to violation of the right against
self-incrimination. Obtaining a DNA
sample from the accused is permitted.
1.5 Judicial custody
Context: Recently Manish Sisodia was sent to
‘judicial custody’ in a liquor policy case.
What is custody?
• Custody refers to the state of being kept by
the police while awaiting trial.
o Section 57 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure (CrPC) says that any person
arrested without a warrant cannot be
detained for more than 24 hours unless
there is a special order of a Magistrate
under section 167 to that effect.
Judicial custody vs Police custody:
• Judicial custody means that the person
detained by a judicial magistrate is lodged
in central or state prison.
• The judicial custody can extend up to 60 or
90 days as a whole, depending upon the
maximum punishment prescribed for the
offence.
o According to Section 436A of CrPC, a
person in judicial custody, who has
served half the maximum punishment
that can be given for an offence, can
apply for default bail, if their trial is
pending.
• Police custody refers to when a person is
detained in a police station or lock-up
when he is believed to have committed a
crime. However, unlike judicial custody,
police custody requires the accused to be
furnished before the magistrate in 24 hours.
• In police custody, the investigating
authority can interrogate a person while in
judicial custody, officials need the
permission of the court for questioning.
o In police custody, the person has the
right to legal counsel, and the right to
be informed of the grounds which the
police have to ensure. A person under
judicial custody is usually lodged in
any of the Central or State prisons. In
judicial custody, the person is under
the responsibility of the magistrate.
1.6 Atiq Ahmed’s son killed: What
apex court, NHRC have said on
encounters
Context: The recent encounters or extrajudicial
killings by UP police has turned the focus on
guidelines and procedure issued by NHRC and
Supreme Court.
Supreme Court guidelines on encounters:
• In 2014 the SC issued guidelines on
encounters in the case PUCL vs the State of
Maharashtra. The 16-point guidelines were
issued by a bench of then CJI RM Lodha
and Rohinton Fali Nariman.
• The guidelines mandated
o Registration of a First Information
Report (FIR) along with provisions for
magisterial inquiry.
o Keeping written records of intelligence
inputs
o Independent investigation by bodies
such as the CID.
• Guidelines mandate magisterial inquiry in
all cases of death due to encounters or in
course of police action. The closest living
relative of the deceased must be associated
with such enquiry.
• In cases of allegations against the police of
culpable homicide, First Information
Report (FIR) must be registered under
appropriate sections of IPC. such an
inquiry under Section 176 of the Code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973 must show
whether the use of force is justified or the
action taken was lawful.
• After completing the enquiry a report must
be sent to the judicial magistrate.
• Further, the guidelines require police to
record in writing in some form (in a case
diary) or electronic form about any
intelligence or tip-off on criminal
movements or offensive activities.
• In case of any encounter or use of a firearm
by police resulting in death, FIR must be
registered and forwarded to court without
delay under section 157.
• The guidelines also include provisions for
an independent investigation by the CID or
police team of another police station under
the supervision of a senior officer.
• The court directed to follow the guidelines
by treating them as law under Article 141
of the constitution of India.
7 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
• The court required NHRC intervention
only in cases of serious doubt about the
independent and impartial investigation.
NHRC Guidelines:
• NHRC guidelines came into existence after
former CJI Justice M N Venkatachaliah
wrote to all Chief Ministers about NHRC
receiving complaints about fake
encounters.
• NHRC asked all states and UT to ensure
states follow certain guidelines in case of
police encounters.
• Guidelines mandated police to maintain an
appropriate register containing
information about encounter deaths.
• Guidelines also require police to
investigate the facts and circumstances of
death immediately upon receiving such
information of such instances.
• Guidelines of NHRC also include
compensation for the dependents of the
deceased where there is a conviction and
prosecution of police officers.
• Guidelines were amended in 2010
requiring registration of an FIR, magisterial
inquiry and reporting of all death cases to
the NHRC by a Senior Superintendent of
Police or Superintendent of Police of the
District within 48 hours of such death.
• A second report must be sent to NHRC
after three months including information
on the post-mortem report, inquest report
and the enquiry findings.
1.7 Behind the Kudmis’ agitation for
ST status
Context: Kurmi Community demands
inclusion in the ST list and recognition of
Kurmali language in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution.
Background:
• Kurmis were excluded from the ST list in
1950 and were classified as OBCs.
• In 2004, the Jharkhand government
recommended their inclusion in the ST list,
which was rejected by the Centre.
• According to the Tribal Development
Department of the state government, the
state's tribal population is about 5.8% of the
state's total population.
About Kurmis:
• Kurmis are a landowning farming
community whose status varies from state
to state.
• They are distributed across several states
and are classified as OBCs in most states.
• Kurmis in West Bengal, Odisha, and
Jharkhand want to be included among
Scheduled Tribes.

About Kurmali Language:

• Kurmali language is a language spoken by
the Kurmi community primarily in Bihar,
Jharkhand, and Odisha.
• It belongs to the Indo-Aryan language
family and has its own script called "Kurmi
Kudali," which is a modified version of the
Devanagari script.
• Kurmis want it to be included in the Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution.

Process of Inclusion under ST:

• The process for including a community in
the list of ST was established in 1999.
• The respective State or Union Territory
government must initiate the proposal for
inclusion, which then goes to the Union
Tribal Affairs Ministry and subsequently to
the Office of the Registrar General of India.
• If the ORGI approves the inclusion, the
proposal is then sent to the National
Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and if
they concur, the proposal is forwarded to
the Cabinet for amendment to the
Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order,
1950.

Benefits of being included in the ST list in

India:
• Reservation in Education
• Reservation in Government Jobs
• Reservation in Political Representation
• Economic and Social Development
• Protection of Land and Resources
• Preservation of Culture and Identit

8 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 PARLIAMENT, STATE
LEGISLATURE AND LOCAL
GOVERNMENT
02
2.1 Deputy speaker 2.2 Expunging words from Parliament
2.3 Nagaland ULBs election: CM
Neiphiu Rio has a tightrope
walk

2.1 Deputy speaker motion proposing his name is carried in the

Context: The present Lok Sabha and five state
Assemblies have not elected Deputy Speakers.
Constitution and Deputy speaker:
• Article 93 says “The House of the People
shall, as soon as may be, choose two
members to be Speaker and Deputy
Speaker and, so often as the office of
Speaker or Deputy Speaker becomes
vacant, the House shall choose another
member.
• Article 178 contains the corresponding
position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of
the Legislative Assembly of a state.
House.
• Once elected, the Deputy Speaker usually
continues in office for the entire duration
of the House.
o Under Article 94 (Article 179 for state
legislatures), the Speaker or Deputy
Speaker “shall vacate his office if he
ceases to be a member of the House.
Powers of the deputy speaker:
• Article 95(1) says: “While the office of
Speaker is vacant, the duties of the office
shall be performed by the Deputy
Speaker”.
• The Deputy Speaker has the same powers
as the Speaker when presiding over a
sitting of the House. All references to the
Speaker in the Rules are deemed to be
references to the Deputy Speaker when he
presides.

Figure: Days till election of deputy speaker

Source: prsindia

Is it mandatory to have a Deputy Speaker?

• Various experts say that both Articles 93
and 178 use the word “shall”, indicating
that the election of Speaker and Deputy
Speaker is mandatory under the
Constitution.
• Rule 8 of The Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha says
the election of Deputy Speaker “shall be
held on such date as the Speaker may fix”.
The Deputy Speaker is elected once a

9 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

2.2 Expunging words from
Parliament
Context: Recently, several words used by
Congress leader Rahul Gandhi have been
expunged by the Parliament during the heated
speeches over the Adani-Hindenburg row.
Rules on Expunging from the Record:
• Under Article 105(2) of the Indian
Constitution , Members of
Parliament enjoy immunity from court
proceedings for their statements in
Parliament.
• However, their speeches are subject to the
discipline of the Rules of Parliament, the
"good sense" of its Members, and
the control of proceedings by the Speaker.
• Rule 380 of the Rules of Procedure and
Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha gives
the Speaker the discretion to expunge any
words or expressions used in debate that
are considered defamatory, indecent,
unparliamentary, or undignified.
Unparliamentary expressions:
• The Lok Sabha Secretariat has brought out
a bulky volume of ‘Unparliamentary
Expressions’.
o This book contains words or
expressions that would likely
be considered rude or offensive in
most cultures. But it also contains
content that would appear to be fairly
harmless and innocuous.
• The Presiding Officers: Speaker of Lok
Sabha and Chairperson of Rajya
Sabha have the job of keeping such words
out of Parliament’s records.
How is the decision taken?
• The decision to expunge a word or portion
of a speech is taken by the Speaker under
Rule 380, based on a recommendation
from the head of the reporting
section, taking into account the context in
which the word or sentence was used.
• The context is key in making the decision to
expunge a remark. The focus is on
removing the minimum number of words.
• Rule 381: The portion of the proceedings of
the House so expunged shall be marked by
asterisks and an explanatory footnote shall
be inserted in the proceedings as
10 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
follows: ‘Expunged as ordered by the
Chair’.
• The expunged portions cease to exist in the
records of Parliament and cannot be
reported by media houses, although they
may have been heard during the live
telecast of the proceedings.
2.3 Nagaland ULBs election: CM
Neiphiu Rio has a tightrope walk
Context: The Nagaland government faces a
dilemma on the issue of urban local bodies
(ULBs) election, caught between the opposition
of tribal organisations and a Supreme Court
order.
What the recent Supreme Court Order says?
• On April 5, 2023, the Supreme Court stayed
the Nagaland government's notification
cancelling the ULBs election that was
scheduled to be held on May 16, 2023.
• The stay was issued after hearing a
contempt petition filed by some
organisations.
• The state election commission had earlier
announced that the election would be held
with 33% reservation of seats for women,
but the notification was cancelled after the
Assembly resolved to repeal the Nagaland
Municipal Act, 2001 in toto.
• The cancellation of the notification was
seen as a move to avoid the reservation for
women, which some influential tribal
organisations opposed, claiming it was
against Naga customary laws.
• The Supreme Court's stay order means that
the election process will go ahead as per the
earlier notification with the 33%
reservation for women unless the court
issues any further directives.
The conflict between Customary law and
Constitutional Mandate:
• The Nagaland Municipal Act, 2001
provides for 33% reservation of seats for
women in urban local bodies (ULBs) and
empowers them to collect property taxes.
• However, some influential tribal
organisations in Nagaland oppose the
reservation for women, claiming that it
infringes on Naga customary laws, which
are protected by Article 371(A) of the
Constitution.
• Article 371(A) gives special provisions to
Nagaland to protect the customs, traditions
and culture of the Nagas, but it also
mandates that these provisions should not
be contrary to the Constitution of India.
• The conflict arises as the reservation for
women in ULBs and the power to collect
property taxes are mandated by the
Constitution of India but are opposed by
some tribal organisations on the grounds of
customary laws.
• The Nagaland government is caught
between the constitutional mandate to hold
the ULBs election with the reservation for
women and the opposition of the tribal
organisations, who have threatened to
boycott the election if the reservation is not
removed.

11 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 JUDICIARY
3.1 Puisne judge
3.3 Foreign lawyers and law firms
to practise in India
3.1 Puisne judge
Context: Collegium has recently recommended
the name of two judges for as puisne judge of
the Supreme court.
What is a Puisne judge?
• The literal meaning of the puisne means
‘later’ ot ‘younger’ in french. In the context
of the judiciary it highlights seniority of the
judges.
• The term puisne judge is used in common
law countries to refer to judges who are
ranked lower in seniority, i.e., any judge
other than the Chief Justice of that court.
• With reference to India the context of
puisne judge is used to highlight the order
of seniority for appointments, elevations to
High Courts, etc, but it does not have a
bearing on the exercise of a judge’s
judicial power.
Appointment of the puisne judge:
• The judges are appointed by the President
on the recommendation of the collegium.
• In the Third Judges Case ruling in 1998 the
apex court held that , The Chief Justice of
India must make a recommendation to
appoint a Judge of the Supreme Court and
to transfer a Chief Justice or puisne Judge
of a High Court in consultation with the
four senior most puisne Judges of the
Supreme Court.
12 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
03
3.2 What is the SC’s public interest
immunity claim procedure?
3.4 Legal Aid defence system
3.2 What is the SC’s public interest
immunity claim procedure?
Context: Supreme Court of India introduced a
procedure for ‘public interest immunity claim’.
News in detail:
• Criticizing the so-called “sealed cover
jurisprudence”, the Supreme Court of India
has introduced a new procedure for ‘public
interest immunity claim’.
• The "sealed cover procedure" is a practice
where sensitive information or evidence is
submitted to the court in a sealed envelope
or cover, which only the judge and certain
authorized parties can access. This is done
to prevent the information from becoming
public or being disclosed to unauthorized
parties.
Public interest immunity claim:
• Public interest immunity (PII) is a legal
doctrine that allows the State to withhold
sensitive information from being disclosed
in court proceedings to protect national
security or public interest.
• The procedure for making a PII claim in the
SC will be governed by the Supreme
Court's Public Interest Immunity Claim
Procedure (SCPIICP).
Measure of validity of the claim:
• The Supreme Court ruled that for PII
claims related to national security, must be
based on the test of:
o Is there information showing that
keeping the information secret is
important for national security?
o Would a normal, careful person also
come to the same conclusion based on
the available information?
• The court concluded that the structured
proportionality standard is a more
appropriate standard of review for public
interest immunity claims than the sealed
cover procedure.
o “Structured proportionality" standard
means that the court will consider
whether the harm caused by disclosing
the information outweighs the public
interest in having access to the
information.
• Use of "sealed cover proceedings" not only
affects the principles of natural justice
(which include the right to a fair and
impartial trial) but also the principle of
open justice, which is the concept that
judicial proceedings should be transparent
and open to the public.
o In contrast, the assessment of public
interest immunity claims only impacts
the principles of natural justice.
Appointment of an amicus curiae to balance
the concerns of confidentiality and public
confidence:
• In order to protect the rights of the claimant
in cases involving public interest immunity
proceedings and also to balance the
conflicting considerations, the Court could
appoint an amicus curiae (Latin for "friend
of the court").
o There is a need to comply with Article
145 of the Constitution, which
mandates that all judgments of the
Supreme Court must be delivered in
open court.
o By appointing an amicus, the court can
ensure that all relevant information is
presented in open court, and that the
judgment is delivered in accordance
with the constitutional requirements.
• Working of the amicus curiae:
o The amicus appointed by the court will
be given access to materials that the
state wants to withhold.
13 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
o They will interact with the applicant
and their lawyer before the
proceedings to help them make
effective submissions on the necessity
of disclosure.
o Once the public interest immunity
proceeding has commenced and the
counsel has examined the document in
question, the amicus will refrain from
communicating with the applicant or
their counsel.
o The amicus will represent the interests
of the applicant and will be bound by
an oath of confidentiality.
Other aspects PII claim observed by the apex
court:
• The court noted that while considering a
public interest immunity claim, it is
important not to dilute procedural
guarantees.
o It is to be ensured that the rights of all
parties involved are respected and that
justice is done.
• The Court noted that public interest
immunity proceedings are confidential.
o Only the court and the party seeking
non-disclosure of the material have
access to the proceedings.
• The court proposed an alternative solution,
which involved redacting the confidential
parts of the document and presenting a
summary of its contents.
• The court also acknowledged that public
interest immunity proceedings may occur
in a closed setting, but it must provide a
clear explanation of the principles used to
make a decision, even if some information
is hidden. This hidden information will be
kept on record for future reference by the
courts.
3.3 Foreign lawyers and law firms to
practise in India
Context: Recently Bar Council of India
permited foreign lawyers and law firms to
practise in India
What is a Bar Council?
• The Bar Council of India is a statutory body
created by Parliament to regulate and
represent the Indian bar. The Bar Council
of India was established by Parliament
under the Advocates Act, 1961.
• It performs the regulatory function by
prescribing standards of professional
conduct and etiquette and by exercising
disciplinary jurisdiction over the bar.
• It also recognises Universities whose
degree in law shall be a qualification for
enrolment as an advocate. The Bar Council
of India visits and inspects Universities, or
directs the State Bar Councils to visit and
inspect Universities for this purpose.
Recent change:
• In a move that could transform the legal
landscape, the Bar Council of India (BCI)
has allowed foreign lawyers and law firms
to practise law in India on a reciprocity
basis.
o For a lawyer with a foreign law degree
to be eligible to practise in India, he or
she must be entitled to practise in his or
her country and will also be required to
register with the BCI.
• Although appearing in courts is prohibited,
foreign law firms can set up offices in India
to practise transactional and corporate
work on reciprocal basis.
• “A foreign lawyer registered under rules
shall be entitled to practise law in India in
non-litigious matters only.
• These rules will also help to address the
concerns expressed about flow of Foreign
Direct Investment in the country and
making India a hub of International
Commercial Arbitration.
14 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
3.4 Legal Aid defence system
Context: The Chief Justice inaugurates new
Legal Aid Defense Counsel System
What is the Legal Aid Defense Counsel
System?
• The LADC is a NALSA-funded project to
provide free legal aid to poor people
facing criminal cases to defend themselves
during trial.
• In other words, the LADCS has been
established to provide free legal services at
any stage in a criminal case, from pre-
arrest to appeal, across all districts.
• It can be availed by
o Women,
o Children,
o Members of the Scheduled
Caste/Scheduled Tribe community,
o Persons with annual income of less
than Rs. 3 Lakhs, per persons with
physical or mental disabilities,
o Victims of human trafficking and
o Natural disasters, amongst others.
• Legal aid is being offered at pre-arrest,
remand, trial and appellate stages in
criminal matters to the accused or convicts
coming under section 12 of the Legal
Services Act-1987.
• The new system involves full-time
engagement of lawyers with suitable
support systems. They deal exclusively
with legal aid work in criminal matters in
the district headquarters.
• The LADCS lawyers will receive a monthly
salary and would not handle other cases
 ELECTIONS
04
4.1 No bar on contesting two seats
in one poll

4.1 No bar on contesting two seats in

one poll

Context: The Supreme Court has recently

refused to set aside a provision in the election
law which allows candidates to contest polls
from two constituencies simultaneously.

Provision in the Representation of People Act:

• Section 33(7) of the Representation of
People Act allows a person to contest a
general election or a group of by-elections
or biennial elections from two
constituencies.

Issue with current regime:

• There have been cases where a person
contests election from two constituencies,
and wins from both. In such a situation he
vacates the seat in one of the two
constituencies.
o The consequence is that a by-election
would be required from one
constituency involving avoidable
labour and expenditure on the
conduct of that by-election.
• The Election Commission suggested that a
candidate should deposit an amount of ₹ 5
lakh for contesting in two constituencies in
an Assembly election or ₹ 10 lakh in a
general election.
o The amount would be used to cover
the expenses for a by-election in the
eventuality that he or she was
victorious in both constituencies and
had to relinquish one.
• Like one-person-one-vote, one-candidate-
one-constituency is the dictum of
democracy.

15 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 CONSTITUTIONAL/STATUTORY/
EXECUTIVE BODIES 05
5.1 NCPCR draft guidelines 5.2 Supreme Court Ruling on ECI
Appointments
5.3 Competition Commission
Amendments

5.1 NCPCR draft guidelines
Context: Recently, the National Commission
for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
released the draft guidelines on the
preliminary assessment of whether certain
minors are to be tried under law as adults in
specific cases, under the Juvenile Justice Act
2015.
Background:
• The Supreme Court is hearing a case
related to the murder of a Class 2 student
in Haryana, allegedly by a 16-year-old.
• The Supreme court said that the effect of
the assessment on whether the child is to be
tried as an adult or a minor is serious in
nature and it would have a long lasting
effect on the entire life of the child.
• It suggested that the assessment requires
expertise and the supreme court directed
specific guidelines to be placed.
Juvenile Justice Act 2015 and adults:
• The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 replaced the
Indian Juvenile delinquency law and
Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2000.
• It allows for juveniles in conflict with Law
in the age group of 16–18, involved in
Heinous Offences, to be tried as adults.
• The Act also created a universally
accessible adoption law for India.
• If tried as a minor, the child could be sent
to a special home for a maximum of 3
years. If tried as an adult, the child can be
sentenced to a jail term, except being
sentenced to death or life imprisonment
without the possibility of release.
Major draft guidelines:
• The preliminary assessment has to decide
on four aspects:
o Physical capacity of the child.
o Mental capacity.
o Circumstances in which the offence
was allegedly committed.
o Ability to understand the
consequences of the alleged offence.
• The experts must be given an optimal
opportunity to interact with the child to
build a rapport. Experts can be from the field
of child psychology and psychiatry.
• Other reports that the Board can rely on are
the Social Investigation Report, Social
Background Report, statements of witnesses
and interaction with parents, guardians,
school staff, peer groups and neighbors.

Preliminary assessment under JJ Act:

• Assessment of the offender child.
• The guidelines state that the Board can take
the aid of experienced psychologists or
psychosocial workers or other experts.
• Arriving at conclusion.

16 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

5.2 Supreme Court Ruling on ECI Independence of the Election Commission:
Appointments • Article 324 of The Constitution of India
mentions the provisions to safeguard and
Context: A five-judge Constitution Bench of the ensure the independent and impartial
functioning of the Election Commission
Supreme Court has unanimously ruled that a
which is as follows.
high-power committee consisting of the Prime
• The chief election commissioner is
Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha
provided with security of tenure. He
and the Chief Justice of India must pick the
cannot be removed from his office except in
Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and
the same manner and on the same grounds
Election Commissioners (ECs).
as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other
• CECs and Election Commissioners have so
words, he can be removed by the President
far been appointed by the President on the
on the basis of a resolution passed to that
advice of the Prime Minister.
effect by both the Houses of Parliament
with a special majority, either on the
Constitutional Appointment of ECI:
ground of proved misbehaviour or
• From its inception in 1950 and till 15
incapacity.
October 1989, the election commission was
• Thus, he does not hold his office until the
a one-member body with only the Chief
pleasure of the president, though he is
Election Commissioner (CEC) as its sole
appointed by him.
member.
• The service conditions of the chief election
• On 16 October 1989, the voting age was
commissioner cannot be varied to his
changed from 21 to 18 years. So, two more
disadvantage after his appointment.
election commissioners were appointed by
the president in order to cope with the • Any other election commissioner or a
increased work of the election commission. regional commissioner cannot be removed
from office except on the recommendation
• Since then, the Election Commission was a
of the chief election commissioner.
multi-member body that consisted of 3
election commissioners. • Though the constitution has sought to
safeguard and ensure the independence
• Later on, the two posts of election
and impartiality of the Election
commissioners were eliminated in January
Commission, some flaws can be noted, ie:
1990 and the Election Commission was
o The Constitution has not prescribed the
reverted to the previous position.
qualifications (legal, educational,
• This was repeated again later in October
administrative or judicial) of the
1993 when the president appointed two
members of the Election Commission.
more election commissioners. Since then,
o The Constitution has not specified the
the Election Commission functions as a
term of the members of the Election
multi-member body consisting of 3
Commission.
commissioners.
o The Constitution has not debarred the
• The chief and the two other election
retiring election commissioners from
commissioners have the same powers and
any further appointment by the
emoluments including salaries, which are
government.
the same as a Supreme Court judge.
• In case of a difference of opinion amongst
ECI’s Independence Under Question:
the Chief Election Commissioner and/or
• Appointment Process - CECs and Election
two other election commissioners, the
Commissioners have so far been appointed
matter is decided by the Commission by a
by the President on the advice of the Prime
majority.
Minister.
• The office is held by them for a term of 6
• Removal of EC’s - procedural safeguards
years or until they attain 65 years,
in place for removal of CEC does not exist
whichever happens first. They can also be
for Election Commissioners.
removed or can resign at any time before
• Lack of Financial Autonomy – Dependent
the expiry of their term.
on the Govt.

17 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

SC’s Ruling:
• The court said “fierce independence,
neutrality and honesty” envisaged in the
institution of the Election Commission
requires an end to government monopoly
and “exclusive control” over appointments
to the highest poll body.
• The court said the high-powered panel
would continue to advise the President on
the appointment until Parliament enacts a
law on the appointment process of Election
Commissioner.
• Justice Joseph said that in a substantive
democracy, the power to vote is “more
potent than the most powerful gun”.
• People depend on an honest Election
Commissioner, blessed with extraordinary
powers, to guard the purity of the electoral
process.
o A person who is weak-kneed before the
powers that be cannot be appointed as
an Election Commissioner. A person
who is in a state of obligation or feels
indebted to one who appointed him,
fails the nation. Such a person cannot
have a place in the conduct of elections
which forms the foundation of
democracy
o There is a crucial link between the
independence of the Election
Commission and the pursuit of power
by parties, their consolidation and
perpetuation.
• Financial Autonomy: The court further
made a “fervent appeal” to Parliament and
the Union government to set up a
permanent secretariat which draws its
expenses directly from the Consolidated
Fund of India and not the government.
5.3 Competition Commission
Amendments
Context: The Competition (Amendment) Bill,
2022, which attempts to modify the
Competition Act, 2002, was recently passed in
the Lower House despite protest from
opposition.
18 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
What is the Competition Act, 2002?
• The Competition Act of 2002 governs
competition in the Indian market and
forbids anti-competitive practices such as
cartels, abuse of dominant market position,
and mergers and acquisitions that could
harm competition. The Competition
(Amendment) Act of 2007 revised the Act.
• The Act is implemented and enforced by
the Competition Commission of India
(CCI).
o The Competition Appellate Tribunal is
a statutory entity established under the
Competition Act, 2002 to hear and rule
on appeals from the Competition
Commission of India's rules, decisions,
or orders.
o In 2017, the government abolished the
Competition Appellate Tribunal and
replaced it with the National Company
Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT).
What are the Amendments to the Competition
Act Proposed?
• Penalties for Violations of Competition
Law: The Bill expands the definition of
"turnover" to include global turnover
resulting from all products and services
provided by a person or company.
o The change provides for penalties for
violations of competition law to be
imposed based on a company's global
revenue rather than merely its
turnover in India.
• Timelines for Combination Approval:
The Bill reduces the CCI's time restriction
for forming a prima facie opinion on a
combination from 30 working days to 30
days.
o The measure is intended to expedite
the approval of mergers and
acquisitions in India.
• Regulations: The Bill proposes to alter the
Competition Act of 2002 to regulate
mergers and acquisitions based on
transaction value. Transactions worth more
than Rs 2,000 crore will require CCI
approval.
o The Bill proposes to shorten the 210-
day period for the CCI to issue an order
on such transactions to 150 days.
• The Bill decriminalises certain offences by
shifting the basis of punishment from fines
to civil penalties.
o These violations include failing to
comply with CCI orders and Director
General directives regarding anti-
competitive agreements and misuse of
dominant position.

19 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 MISCELLANEOUS
6.1 Grievance Appellate
Committees
6.3 How is civil union different
from marriage?
6.1 Grievance Appellate Committees
Context: The Centre established three
Grievance Appellate Committees based on the
recently amended Information Technology
(Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media
Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 (IT Rules 2021).
What is it?
• The IT rules 2021 provide for creating
avenues for grievance redressal apart from
Courts and ensure that the Constitutional
rights of Indian citizens are not
contravened by any Big-tech Platform by
ensuring new accountability standards for
companies.
• The Grievance Appellate Committee
(GAC) will ensure that the Internet in India
is Open, Safe & Trusted and Accountable.
o The need for GAC was created due to
large numbers of grievances being left
unaddressed or unsatisfactorily
addressed by Internet Intermediaries.
• GAC is expected to create a culture of
responsiveness amongst all Internet
Platforms and Intermediaries towards their
consumers.
• The GAC will be a virtual Digital platform
that will operate only online and digitally -
wherein the entire appeal process, from
filing of appeal to the decision thereof, shall
be conducted digitally.
• Users will have the option to appeal against
the decision of the grievance officer of the
social media intermediaries and other
online intermediaries before this new
appellate body.
o The Committee will endeavour to
address the user’s appeal within a
period of 30 days.
20 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
06
6.2 Compassionate appointment
6.4 New IT rules create new power of
censorship
6.2 Compassionate appointment
Context: Recently Supreme Court rejected
applications for ‘compassionate appointment’
What is a compassionate appointment?
• It can be traced back from article 39 of the
DPSP, which calls for providing
employment on compassionate grounds to
the dependent family members of a
government servant who dies in harness or
retires on medical grounds, leaving the
family without any source of sustenance.
• According to the DoPT’s office
memorandum dated January2023, these
appointments can only be made for
“Group ‘C’ posts against the direct
recruitment quota.
Who can apply for it?
• Compassionate appointments can extend
to dependent family members of a
government servant who:
o Dies while in service (including death
by suicide)
o Retired on medical grounds under
Rule 2 of the CCS (Medical
Examination) Rules 1957 or the
corresponding provision in the Central
Civil Service Regulations before 55
years of age (57 years for erstwhile
Group ‘D’ Government servants);
o Retired on medical grounds under
Rule 38 of the CCS(Pension) Rules,
1972 or the corresponding provision in
the Central Civil Service Regulations
before attaining the age of 55 years (57
years for erstwhile Group ‘D’
Government servants).
• The deceased’s dependents can only be
first-degree relations such as their spouse,
son or daughter (including adopted ones),
brother or sister in the case of an unmarried
Government servant or member of the
Armed Forces, who was wholly dependent
on the government servant at the time of
their death in harness or retirement on
medical grounds.
Who has a right to appoint?
• Compassionate appointments are made by
either the Joint Secretary in charge of
administration in the Ministry or
Department concerned or the “Head of
the Department under the Supplementary
Rule 2(10) in the case of attached and
subordinate offices.”
• They can also be made by the Secretary of
a Ministry or Department in special
cases.
6.3 How is civil union different from
marriage?
Context: Recently a five-judge bench of the
Supreme Court, headed by the Chief Justice of
India, began hearing a set of petitions seeking
legal recognition of same-sex marriage.
About Civil Union:
• The central government contested the
maintainability of the petitions, and also
the right of the Judiciary to confer legal
recognition on the “socio-legal institution”
of marriage,
• CJI clarified that the scope of the hearing
will be limited to defining a concept of
“civil union” that finds legal recognition
under the Special Marriage Act.
• The term civil union confers specific rights
and responsibilities to same-sex couples in
a similar manner conferred to married
couples.
• Though a civil union is similar to a
marriage and encompasses employment,
inheritance, property, and parental rights,
there are some differences between them.
21 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
Difference between Civil Union and
Marriage:
• The Supreme Court of the United States
(SCOTUS) legalised same-sex marriages in
the year 2015.
• Before 2015, in most US states, same-sex
couples married under civil union laws but
without the formal recognition of the
marriage.
• The civil unions were accompanied by the
following rights
o Inheritance rights
o Employment benefits to spouses
o Joint parenting or joint ownership
rights
o Right to abstain from testifying against
one’s partner which is similar to the
spousal privilege given under Section
122 of the Indian Evidence Act, when it
comes to disclosure of communication
between two spouses.
• The difference emerges between a civil
union and marriage from the fact that a
civil union is not recognized by federal law
and is only recognized by a particular state.
• This led to a situation of couples not being
able to be in civil union uniformly in all
states as the US had a system where states
determine their own marriage laws.
• Before US other countries that allowed
same-sex unions are Sweden, Norway,
Austria, Brazil, Uruguay, Andorra, and
Chile which eventually legalized same-sex
marriage.
6.4 New IT rules create new power of
censorship
Context: The government recently introduced
new rules called the Information Technology
(Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media
Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2023 (IT Rules,
2023).
News in details:
• The new rules allow a government "fact
check unit" to identify false information
related to any business of the central
government.
• The fact check unit can scrutinise online
comments, news reports, and opinions
about government officials and ministries
and tell online intermediaries to censor
them.
• These rules also allow censorship by online
social media companies, ISPs, and file
hosting companies.

Constitutionality of the IT Rules, 2023:

• The IT Rules, 2023 were created under
Section 79 of the Information Technology
Act, 2000.
• According to the Supreme Court's Shreya
Singhal judgement, intermediaries can
only take action if they have actual
knowledge from a court order or are
notified by the appropriate government
about unlawful acts.
• The IT Rules, 2023 go beyond the
established restrictions and contain no
definition of "fake or false or misleading"
information.
• The lack of clarity in the rules creates an
unconstitutional power for government
censorship.

Impact on Freedom of Expression:

• The IT Rules, 2023 do not define what
constitutes "fake or false or misleading"
information or the qualifications or hearing
processes for the "fact check unit."
• The absence of protection for a "fact check
unit" creates an arbitrary and discretionary
power for the Union government.
• The Press Information Bureau's existing
unit has been criticized for its lack of
competence, and the IT Rules, 2023 provide
no safeguards against such incompetence.
• The proposed amendments have been
criticized by the Editors Guild, Digipub,
and the Indian Newspaper Society.
• The lack of meaningful consultation before
the notification of the IT Rules, 2023 is a
cause for concern.
• The government's history of amending the
IT Rules every year to extend its powers
has been met with opposition.

22 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

23 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
 CONTENT
Governance __________________________________________________ 25-27
1.1 Gender gap in UG programmes widens
1.2 New literacy policy
1.3 Bhu-Aadhar or Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN)
1.4 Self-regulation, intermediary tag for the online gaming sector

24 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

 GOVERNANCE
01
1.1 Gender gap in UG programmes 1.2 New literacy policy
widens
1.3 Bhu-Aadhar or Unique Land 1.4 Self-regulation, intermediary tag
Parcel Identification Number for the online gaming sector
(ULPIN)

1.1 Gender gap in UG programmes

widens

Context: All India Survey on Higher Education

(AISHE) Report highlights Gender gap in UG
programmes widens.

Findings of the report:

• All India Survey on Higher Education
(AISHE) released by the Education
Ministry.
• Data show that the number of women for
every 100 men enrolled across different
Bachelor’s programmes dropped in the
academic year 2020-21.
• From 100 women per 100 men who
registered for the BCom programme in
2019, the enrollment for women fell to 94
for every 100 men in 2020 —
o This dip takes the enrollment figures
closer to what it was in 2016 (93
women per 100 male students).
• Similar drops were witnessed in other
programmes too, including medicine
where, from 110 women for every 100 men
in MBBS in 2019-20, there are now 100
women in 2020-21.
Figure: Girls enrollment
Source: Indian express
• The Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER) in
higher education for the age group of 18 to
23 years is 27.3% as against 25.6 % in 2019-
20.
o GER is a statistical measure to
determine the number of students
enrolled in undergraduate,
postgraduate and research-level
studies within the country and is
expressed as a percentage of the
population in the 18-23 years age
group.
• AISHE findings are based on responses
from 1,113 universities, 43,796 colleges and
11,296 standalone institutes. At the
postgraduate level, the only programme
which has seen a hike in the number of
women per 100 men is MCom – from 186
women in 2019 to 198 in 2020-21.
• Programmes like business administration
and technology at the post-graduation level
continue to be male bastions.

25 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE

1.2 New literacy policy
Context: Government has announced a
Centrally Sponsored Scheme namely, “New
India Literacy Programme” (NILP) for
implementation during five years from 2022-23
to 2026-27.
News in detail:
• New India Literacy Programme aims to
cover a target of 5.00 crore learners during
the five years under the Foundational
Literacy and Numeracy component.
• The programme has five objectives
o Foundational Literacy and Numeracy
o Critical Life Skills
o Vocational Skills Development
o Basic Education and
o Continuing Education.
• It would be a centrally sponsored
programme. The Central and State shares
are in the ratio of 60:40 for all States other
than North Eastern Region (NER) and
Himalayan States
o The sharing pattern between the
Centre and the State is in the ratio of
90:10. For UTs with legislature the
ratio is 60:40, except in the UT of
Jammu & Kashmir where the ratio is
90:10, and for all other UTs without
legislature the Central share is 100%.
• The objectives of the scheme is to impart
not only foundational literacy and
numeracy but also to cover other
components like skills including
o Financial literacy, digital literacy,
o Commercial skills,
o Health care and awareness,
o Child care and education, and family
welfare
o Vocational skills development with a
view towards obtaining local
employment
o Education including preparatory,
middle, and secondary stage
equivalency.
• The scheme will be implemented through
volunteerism via online mode. The
training, orientation, workshops of
volunteers, maybe organised through face-
to-face mode.
• The scheme will cover non-literates of the
age of 15 years and above in all state and
union territories.
26 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1.3 Bhu-Aadhar or Unique Land
Parcel Identification Number
(ULPIN)
Context: In the month of March, there was a
national conference on Bhu-Aadhar or Unique
Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN).
What is Bhu-Aadhar?
• Bhu-Aadhaar or Unique Land Parcel
Identification Number (ULPIN) project, is
touted as the world’s largest database on
land ownership once completed and is
being implemented by the Department of
Land Resources.
Advantages of Bhu-Aadhar or ULPIN:
• Completion of the digitisation project of
land records will help to mitigate the
pendency of cases related to land disputes.
• Stalling projects due to land disputes led to
an economic loss of 1.3% of the GDP of the
country.
• As per Daksh study, the average pendency
of land acquisition disputes is 20 years and
66% of civil suits in India are civil or land-
related disputes.
The Reality of Land Disputes in India:
• However, 66% of civil suits are not
necessarily related to land or property-
related disputes as there will be differences
between objective and subjective data.
• A NIPFP working paper in August 2021
shows that the claim of land or property
disputes constitute the majority of the
court's caseload and needs convincing
data.
• An analysis of Delhi high court cases shows
that 17% of all disputes are related to
immovable property. Private parties are
the most prominent litigants in these
disputes.
• The Union government is the appellant in
only 2% of such disputes and the
respondent in 18% of cases.
• Disputes related to property litigation are
only 13.6% of immovable property
litigation and tenancy disputes are the most
common type of litigation followed by land
acquisition-related disputes.
• Further, there are differences across types
of court as 35 per cent of cases before the
Supreme Court concern land/property.
• Economic survey of 2014-15 noted after
tracking stalling of projects and found that
land acquisition is not a significant issue.
1.4 Self-regulation, intermediary tag
for the online gaming sector
Context: Recently, the Union government
announced that online gaming companies must
act as digital intermediaries, weed out fake
information, and comply with rules set by self-
regulatory bodies.
News in details:
• The Information Technology Rules have
been updated to ban offshore betting ads
and prevent gaming companies from
promoting gambling.
• The online gaming industry has faced
challenges in regulating online gambling
and fact-checking processes.
• These changes aim to help India achieve its
goal of becoming a one trillion-dollar
digital economy by 2025-26.
What are the new IT rules for online gaming
companies in India?
• The Indian government released the first
version of the rules in January 2021 and
worked with the industry to finalize them.
• The final version requires online platforms
to stop misleading or fake information
from being shared.
• Online gaming companies must act as
digital intermediaries, check games and
customers, remove fake information, and
follow self-regulatory body rules.
27 | POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
• The new rules also ban offshore betting ads
and prohibit gaming companies from
offering gambling.
• Platforms must inform users of rules,
privacy policy, terms of service, and user
agreements, including KYC procedures
and deposit protection measures. Rule 4A
outlines the online real-money game
verification process.
• The government hopes these changes will
help India reach its goal of becoming a one
trillion-dollar digital economy by 2025-26.
What are the self-regulatory bodies, and who
can join them?
• The government will select three self-
regulatory bodies to make rules for the
online gaming industry.
• Trusts and for-profit organizations cannot
apply, and there are specific requirements
for the members who can join these bodies.
• Existing industry groups will not qualify as
self-regulatory bodies, and it may take up
to eight months to form them, according to
an industry expert.
• The bodies must be registered under the
Companies Act, have members from the
gaming industry, and have a board of
directors without a conflict of interest.
• They must also publish a list of members,
frameworks for verifying online real-
money games, and a grievance redressal
framework, along with contact information
for a grievance officer.
• They must update the list of allowed online
real-money games and provide details
about the applicant and the validity period
of the verification.
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