RBI Grade B 2022 Phase 1 Previous Year Paper Shift 2

RBI Grade B 2022 Phase 1 Previous Year Paper Shift 2
Question No. 1
NABARD has launched an agroecology-based programme named ‘JIVA programme’. The objective of the
programme is to promote ______________.
Options :
1. Commercial Farming
2. Natural farming
3. Plantation Farming
4. Commercial mixed farming
5. Dairy Farming
Answer : Natural farming
Question No. 2
In May 2022, India and ____________ inked a joint declaration of intent on Green Hydrogen Task Force.
Options :
1. USA
2. Germany
3. France
4. Italy
5. Russia
Answer : Germany
Question No. 3
Which is not correct regarding SVAMITVA scheme: -
Options :
1. Creation of accurate land records for rural planning and reduce property related disputes.
2. To bring financial stability to the citizens in rural India by enabling them to use their property as a financial
asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.
3. Determination of property tax, which would accrue to the GPs directly in States where it is devolved or
else, add to the State exchequer.
4. Creation of survey infrastructure and GIS maps that can be leveraged by any department for their use.
5. Implemented by Mo Earth sciences
Answer : Implemented by Mo Earth sciences
Question No. 4
The Financial Access Survey, launched in 2009, is a supply-side dataset on access to and use of financial services
aimed at supporting policymakers to measure and monitor financial inclusion and benchmark progress against
peers. It was launched by ____________.
Options :
1. World Bank
2. IMF
3. ADB
4. NDB
5. AIIB
Answer : IMF
Question No. 5
The Railway Ministry had committed wrestlers of Indian Railways to provide a world class wrestling academy in
________________.
Options :
1. Hyderabad
2. Delhi
3. Ahmedabad
4. Chandigarh
5. Lucknow
Answer : Delhi
Question No. 6
There are total ___ SCO permanent member countries.
Options :
1. 7
2. 8
3. 9
4. 10
5. 11
Answer : 9
Question No. 7
Which of the following is not a money market instrument?
Options :
1. Treasury bills
2. Commercial papers
3. FD
4. Certificate of deposits
5. Call money
Answer : FD
Question No. 8
Palli Village is India's first panchayat to become carbon neutral. It is situated in which state?
Options :
1. J&K
2. Assam
3. Sikkim
4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Uttrakhand
Answer : J&K
Question No. 9
Which state has topped in highest number of Open defecation free (ODF Plus) villages till December 31, 2021?
Options :
1. Odisha
2. Telangana
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka
5. West Bengal
Answer : Telangana
Question No. 10
The government has extended the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY), launched in 2015 to improve
farm productivity by four years till ________.
Options :
1. 2023-24
2. 2024-25
3. 2025-26
4. 2026-27
5. 2027-28
Answer : 2025-26
Question No. 11
Survey conducted by Asia Securities Industry and Financial Market Association (ASIFMA) on Asian markets has
ranked India at ______ spot in terms of regulatory and operational environment.
Options :
1. 5th
2. 9th
3. 10th
4. 12th
5. 15th
Answer : 10th
Question No. 12
The Serengeti National Park is a large national park in ___________.
Options :
1. Namibia
2. Ethiopia
3. Uganda
4. Tanzania
5. Kenya
Answer : Tanzania
Question No. 13
Where is the headquarters of Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)?
Options :
1. Mumbai
2. New Delhi
3. Hyderabad
4. Lucknow
5. Bengaluru
Answer : New Delhi
Question No. 14
In March 2022, who was conferred the Sahitya Akademi Fellowship by the Sahitya Akademi?
Options :
1. Ruskin Bond
2. Shirshendu Mukhopadhyay
3. Indira Parthasarathy
4. Vinod Kumar Shukla
5. M Leelavathy
Answer : Indira Parthasarathy
Question No. 15
__________ introduced the virtual currency as a legal tender and became the first ever country to do so.
Options :
1. Nicaragua
2. Guatemala
3. Dominican Republic
4. El Salvador
5. Venezuela
Answer : El Salvador
Question No. 16
___________ would help India to convert 150 villages around the Centres of Excellence into villages of
Excellence.
Options :
1. Germany
2. Israel
3. UAE
4. France
5. UK
Answer : Israel
Question No. 17
Ons Jebeur has won Madrid Open 2022. She is from _____.
Options :
1. Tunisia
2. Morocco
3. Algeria
4. Turkey
5. France
Answer : Tunisia
Question No. 18
World Food Prize Foundation announced the name of World Food Prize laureate 2022, Dr. Cynthia Rosenzweig of
the United States. The cash award under World Food Prize of ________________.
Options :
1. USD 1,00,000
2. USD 1,50,000
3. USD 2,00,000
4. USD 2,50,000
5. USD 3,00,000
Answer : USD 2,50,000
Question No. 19
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
Options :
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Nitrous oxide
3. Nitrogen
4. Methane
5. Hydro chlorofluorocarbon
Answer : Nitrogen
Question No. 20
Which of the following bank was merged with Bank of Baroda from April 1, 2019?
Options :
1. Corporation Bank
2. Andhra Bank
3. Vijaya Bank
4. Union Bank of India
5. Syndicate Bank
Answer : Vijaya Bank
Question No. 21
Who became first Indian to win gold medal at IWF Junior World Championships in Greece?
Options :
1. Jeremy Lalrinnunga
2. Ragala Venkat Rahul
3. Harshada Sharad Garud
4. Sneha Soren
5. Achinta Sheuli
Answer : Harshada Sharad Garud
Question No. 22
In May 2022, who assumed charge as the vice chief of the Indian Army Staff?
Options :
1. Lt. General Amardeep Singh Bhinder
2. Lt. General Baggavalli Somashekar Raju
3. Lt. General Manoj Kumar Katiyar
4. Lt. General Manoj Pande
5. None of these
Answer : Lt. General Baggavalli Somashekar Raju
Question No. 23
On which date World Consumer Rights Day is observed annually?
Options :
1. 10 February
2. 15 March
3. 5 April
4. 16 May
5. 20 June
Answer : 15 March
Question No. 24
A company is called Decacorn if its value is _________.
Options :
1. 1 Billion Dollars
Answer : 10 Billion Dollars
Question No. 25
Who is the captain of West Indies ODI and T20 cricket team?
Options :
1. Kyle Mayers
2. Nicholas Pooran
3. Shimron Hetmyer
4. Rovman Powell
5. Kieron Pollard
Answer : Nicholas Pooran
Question No. 26
Stand up India Scheme was launched to promote SC, ST and women entrepreneurs at the grassroot level focusing
on economic empowerment and job creation. The Stand Up India scheme was extended till ______.
Options :
1. 2023
2. 2025
3. 2027
4. 2030
5. 2032
Answer : 2025
Question No. 27
For EPFO schemes what is the maximum wage for getting inducted in the scheme?
Options :
1. Rs. 15000
2. Rs. 20000
3. Rs. 21000
4. Rs. 22000
5. Rs. 25000
Answer : Rs. 21000
Question No. 28
The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development includes _____ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
Options :
1. 15
2. 17
3. 19
4. 20
5. 25
Answer : 17
Question No. 29
What is the total FDI limit allowed in Pension Fund under NPS?
Options :
1. 25%
2. 49%
3. 51%
4. 74%
5. 100%
Answer : 74%
Question No. 30
Who is the CEO of IBM?
Options :
1. Shantanu Narayen
2. Arvind Krishna
3. Ajay Banga
4. Sanjay Mehrotra
5. Nikesh Arora
Answer : Arvind Krishna
Question No. 31
Which of the following country is not an OPEC member country?
Options :
1. Iran
2. Russia
3. Congo
4. Venezuela
5. Angola
Answer : Russia
Question No. 32
India's telecommunication network is the _______ largest in the world
Options :
1. 1st
2. 2nd
3. 3rd
4. 4th
5. 5th
Answer : 2nd
Question No. 33
Which ministry notified green hydrogen policy, which will help in meeting the target of production of 5 million
tonnes of Green hydrogen by 2030 and the related development of renewable energy capacity?
Options :
1. Ministry of Power
2. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
3. Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises
4. Ministry of Coal
5. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
Answer : Ministry of Power
Question No. 34
What is the full form of NCAER?
Options :
1. National Committee for Applied Economic Research
2. National Council of Assessment and Economic Research

3. National Committee of Assessment and Economic Research
4. National Council of Applied Economic Research
5. None of these
Answer : National Council of Applied Economic Research
Question No. 35
United Nations took a major step to catalyse the large-scale action and support needed for the transition to clean,
affordable energy for all and net-zero emissions with the launch of a UN-Energy Plan of Action Towards
_________.
Options :
1. 2023
2. 2024
3. 2025
4. 2030
5. 2032
Answer : 2025
Question No. 36
The NFSA 2013 legally entitles upto ________ of the rural population and ________ of the urban population to
receive subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution.
Options :
1. 50%, 25%
2. 25%, 50%
3. 50%, 50%
4. 75%, 50%
5. 50%, 75%
Answer : 75%, 50%

Question No. 37
The 15th finance Commission suggested that the centre bring down fiscal deficit to 4% of GDP by ___________.
Options :
1. 2024-25
2. 2026-27
3. 2025-26
4. 2027-28
5. 2028-29
Answer : 2025-26
Question No. 38
What is the full form of ONDC?
Options :
1. One Network for Digital Commerce
2. Open Network for Digital Competition
3. Open Network for Digital Commerce
4. One Network for Digital Customers
5. None of these
Answer : Open Network for Digital Commerce
Question No. 39
What was the theme of the Report on Currency and Finance – 2021-22 (RCF22) which was released by the RBI?
Options :
1. Revive and Reconstruct
2. Reviewing the Monetary Policy Framework
3. Credit Discipline and Credit from Formal Institutions

4. Go Digital, Go Secure
5. None of these
Answer : Revive and Reconstruct
Question No. 40
Under 80C of income tax, which of the following does not get tax rebate?
Options :
1. National saving certificate (NSC)
2. Sukanya smriddhi yojana
3. Post office saving FD for 5 years
4. Kisan Vikas Patra
5. Saving Bank Deposit
Answer : Saving Bank Deposit
Question No. 41
Tata Steel Ltd has planned capital expenditure (capex) of Rs ________ crore for 2022-23.
Options :
1. 10,000
2. 11,000
3. 12,000
4. 15,000
5. 17,000
Answer : 12,000
Question No. 42
In SMA -1, the overdue period is from ______________.

Options :
1. Upto 30 days
2. More than 60 days and upto 90 days
5. Less than 365 days
Answer : More than 30 days and upto 60 days
Question No. 43
The allocation of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) has been kept at Rs ________ crore for financial year
2022-23.
Options :
1. 12500
2. 14,500
3. 15,500
4. 17,500
5. 19,500
Answer : 15,500
Question No. 44
Union Home Minister Amit Shah inaugurated three floating BOPs (border outposts) in the riverine border areas of
West Bengal. What are the names of the BOPs?
Options :
1. Chenab, Krishna and Narmada
2. Indus, Kaveri and Godavari
3. Jhelum, Kaveri and Sarasvati
4. Sutlej, Kaveri and Narmada

5. Yamuna, Kaveri and Krishna
Answer : Sutlej, Kaveri and Narmada
Question No. 45
The most used semiconductor material is _________
Options :
1. Aluminium
2. Quartz
3. Glass
4. Silicon
5. Boron
Answer : Silicon
Question No. 46
India has targeted to achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) target of Maternal Mortality Ratio (MMR) of
____ maternal deaths per lakh live births by 2030.
Options :
1. 40
2. 50
3. 70
4. 75
5. 100
Answer : 70
Question No. 47
______________ has joined the SEA-ME-WE-6 undersea cable consortium to scale up its high speed global
network capacity and serve India’s fast growing digital economy.

Options :
1. Jio
2. Bharti Airtel
3. BSNL
4. Vodafone Idea ltd.
5. None of these
Answer : Bharti Airtel
Question No. 48
_____________ is the combination of slow economic growth along with high unemployment and high inflation.
Options :
1. Creeping Inflation
2. Hyperinflation
3. Stagflation
4. Galloping
5. None of these
Answer : Stagflation
Question No. 49
Allocation to the rural roads construction scheme Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) is Rs __________
crore for the fiscal year 2022-23.
Options :
1. 15,000
2. 17,000
3. 19,000
4. 20,000
5. 23,000
Answer : 19,000
Question No. 50
According to the 24th Financial Stability Report which was released by RBI, what will be the NPA of banks by
September 2022?
Options :
1. 9.7% to 9.1%
2. 9.5% to 8.0%
3. 9.5% to 8.1%
4. 9.1% to 8.5%
5. None of these
Answer : 9.5% to 8.1%
Question No. 51
Match the following:
List I List II
A. First Plan 1. Rapid industrialisation
B. Second Plan 2. Community Development Progamme
C. Fifth Plan 3. Removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance
D. Eight Plan 4. Rapid economic growth
E. Twelfth Plan 5. Faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth
Select the correct code-:
Options :
1. 1 2 3 4 5
2. 2 1 3 4 5
3. 2 1 3 5 4
4. 2 1 4 5 3
5.
Answer : 2 1 3 4 5
Question No. 52
NBFCs were the largest net borrowers of funds from the financial system, which of the following was second
highest net borrowers of funds from the financial system?
Options :
1. Housing Finance Companies
2. Small Finance Companies
3. Non-Banking Financial Companies
4. Investment Corporation of India
5. None of the above
Answer : Housing Finance Companies
Question No. 53
Which of the following constitutional amendment act empower the state government to form 3 tier local self-
government?
Options :
1. 72nd Amendment Act
2. 73rd Amendment Act
3. 74th Amendment Act
4. 75th Amendment Act
Answer : 73rd Amendment Act
Question No. 54
Which of the following is not true regarding crypto currencies:
Options :
1. Transactions are verified but are not anonymous
2. Most of the platforms involve system and method which facilitate the computatio
3. Many cryptocurrencies are decentralized networks based on blockchain technology.
4. This decentralized structure allows them to exist outside the control of governments and central
authorities.
Answer : Transactions are verified but are not anonymous
Question No. 55
Which of the following is NOT true regarding corporate social responsibility?
Options :
1. The operations function plays a profound role in meeting corporate social responsibility.
2. Corporate social responsibility means "doing what's right" and doing it properly, which can be beneficial to
all stakeholders.
3. Corporate social responsibility only requires firms to focus on environmentally friendly product disposal.
4. Companies that practice corporate social responsibility introduce policies that consider environmental,
societal, and financial impacts in their decision making.
5. No specific tax exemptions have been extended to CSR expenditure
Answer : Corporate social responsibility only requires firms to focus on environmentally friendly product disposal.
Question No. 56
As per REPORT ON TREND AND PROGRESS OF BANKING IN INDIA 2020-21, The Payments Infrastructure
Development Fund (PIDF) Scheme intends to subsidise deployment of payment acceptance infrastructure in Tier-3
to Tier-6 centres with a special focus on __________.
Options :
1. Western States
2. North-eastern states
3. Northern States
4. Eastern States
Answer : North-eastern states
Question No. 57
In the case of Government subscribers in National Pension System, the lump sum is payable to the nominees/legal
heirs if the corpus is less than or equal to
Options :
1. Rs 5 lakh
2. Rs 4 Lakh
3. Rs 3 Lakh
4. Rs 2.5 Lakh
Answer : Rs 5 lakh
Question No. 58
Exit for NPS: In case the total corpus in the account is less than or equal to _________ as on the Date of Death of
the Subscriber (Government sector), nominee/legal heir can avail the option of complete Withdrawal.
Options :
1. 7 Lakh
2. 6 Lakh
3. 5 Lakh
4. 4 Lakh
Answer : 5 Lakh
Question No. 59
As per RBI committee for asset reconstruction companies (ARCs), for accounts above_________, two bank-
approved external valuers should carry out a valuation to determine liquidation value and fair market value.
Options :
1. 300 Crore
2. 500 Crore
3. 550 Crore
4. 600 Crore
Answer : 500 Crore
Question No. 60
As per 21st round of Systemic Risk Survey, which of the following risks were assessed as “high”:
Options :
1. Global and financial market risks
2. Macro-economic Risks
3. Financial Market Risk
4. Institutional Risks
Answer : Global and financial market risks
Question No. 61
Which of the following has Largest Capacity Factor Ratio –
Options :
1. Power
2. Technology
3. Nuclear
4. Transport
Answer : Nuclear
Question No. 62
_____________ is used by fraudsters to install malware through public ports in customers mobile –:
Options :
1. Juice Jacking
2. Spyware
3. Hacking
4. Trojan
Answer : Juice Jacking
Question No. 63
Which of the following committee had recommended the consolidation of banks -:
Options :
1. PJ Nayak Committee
2. Narasimham Committee
3. Mehta Committee
4. Swarn Singh Committee
Answer : Narasimham Committee
Question No. 64
Recently Parliament passes bill to raise Nabard’s capital to Rs _____.

Options :
1. 10,000 crore
2. 20,000 crore
3. 25,000 crore
4. 30,000 crore
Answer : 30,000 crore
Question No. 65
How many farmer have been insured under the scheme of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) as of
February, 2022?
Options :
1. More than 8.3 crore
2. More than 15 Crore
Answer : More than 36 Crore
Question No. 66
Consider the following statement about Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.
I. Recently Maharashtra government had requested to extend deadline of Crop Insurance scheme, PMFBY till July
23.
II. This scheme replaced two schemes called National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and Modified National
Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).
III. This scheme provided cover to all Food & Oilseeds crops and annual commercial or horticultural crop.
Select the correct codes given belwo?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. All statements are true
5. All statements are false
Answer : All statements are true
Question No. 67
Which of the following entities shall not be eligible to participate in the Call, Notice and Term Money Markets, both
as borrowers and lenders –:
Options :
1. Land Development Bank
2. Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Local Area Banks);
3. Payment Banks
4. Small Finance Banks
5. Regional Rural Banks
Answer : Land Development Bank
Question No. 68
As per DICGC, there are 98.1% protected accounts at end-March 2021, What is the required percentage as per
international norms?
Options :
1. 80 %
2. 85 %
3. 90 %
4. 95 %
Answer : 80 %
Question No. 69
Which of the following method often used in public projects, in which an interested party initiates a proposal for a
contract or the bid for a project –
Options :
1. Montreal Challenge
2. Swiss Challenge
3. Project Challenge
4. Contract Challenge
Answer : Swiss Challenge
Question No. 70
In term of energy produced in the country, how much energy India get by Coal?
Options :
1. 50%
2. 52%
3. 55%
4. 60%
Answer : 55%
Question No. 71
Consider the following statement about Protection of Women from Sexual Harassment (POSH) Act, 2013.
I. Every employer is required to constitute an Internal Complaints Committee at each office or branch with 20 or
more employees.
II. The Complaints Committees have the powers of civil courts for gathering evidence.
III. The Complaints Committees are required to provide for conciliation before initiating an inquiry if requested by
the complainant.
Which of the above is/are not correct?
Options :
1. I only
2. II only
3. III only
4. I and II both
5. II and III both
Answer : I only
Question No. 72
Which of the following is/are the aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
1. Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen.
2. Governance and Services on Demand.
3. Digital Empowerment of citizens
Which of the above statement is/are not correct:
Options :
1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3
5. All are correct
Answer : 1, 2 and 3
Question No. 73
In India, the population Census is under which list of schedules of Indian constitution?
Options :
1. Union subject
2. State subject
3. Concurrent subject
4. Reserved subject
Answer : Union subject
Question No. 74
Interest rate on small saving scheme is paid __________.
Options :
1. Daily
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Half Yearly
5. Yearly
Answer : Quarterly
Question No. 75
What are the total numbers of accounts opened in PMJDY accounts till April 2022?
Options :
1. 40.36 crore
2. 45.15 crore
3. 45.45 crore
4. 46.87 crore
5. 48.49 crore
Answer : 45.15 crore
Question No. 76
According to the annual report on Vital Statistics based on 2020 Civil Registration System report, __________
recorded the highest sex ratio at birth in the country in 2020
Options :
1. Kerala
2. Ladakh
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
5. Tripura
Answer : Ladakh
Question No. 77
How many projects worth Rs 2.12 lakh crore rupees are currently being implemented under Sagarmala programme?
Options :
1. 202
2. 216
3. 518
4. 802
5. 910
Answer : 202
Question No. 78
The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was launched in November 2015 at the 21st session of the United Nations
Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP-21) in ______.
Options :
1. New York
2. London
3. Berlin
4. Paris
5. Dublin
Answer : Paris
Question No. 79
Which of the following statement is incorrect about harvest festival?
Options :
1. Gudi Padwa – Maharashtra
2. Wangala – Meghalaya
3. Jharkhand - Nuakhai
4. Nabanna – West Bengal
5. Bihu – Assam
Answer : Jharkhand - Nuakhai
Question No. 80
Which city is called Life science capital of India?
Options :
1. New Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Hyderabad
4. Ahemdabad
5. Bengaluru
Answer : Hyderabad
Direction:
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Australia has long been at the leading edge of minimum wages. The state of Victoria was the second place in the
world to introduce a wage floor in 1896, beaten only by New Zealand. A landmark legal case in 1907 took a more
expansive view of a fair wage, ruling that it should be enough to maintain a family with three children in “frugal
comfort”. Australia is still at it: it now has the world’s most generous minimum wage, reclaiming a distinction it last
held more than a decade ago.
The OECD, a club mainly of rich countries, compares minimum wages around the world by adjusting for inflation
and the cost of living, and converting them into American dollars. On that basis Australian workers pulled in at least
$12.14 an hour last year, up by nearly 4% from 2017. That puts them narrowly ahead of their peers in Luxembourg,
ranked second, and a whopping two-thirds better off than federal minimum-wage earners in America.
Australians may be incredulous to learn that they are doing relatively well. In recent years one of their big gripes
has been sluggish wage growth. The norm in Australia used to be nominal annual wage increases of about 3% to
4%. Even after the global financial crisis of 2008, wage growth remained strong, thanks in part to the natural-
resources boom. But over the past five years the resources sector has lost its fizz, and wage growth has ebbed to
about 2% a year, lower than in America.
That makes the high minimum wage all the more notable. The Fair Work Commission, an independent panel that
sets the minimum wage after considering submissions from industry and the unions as well as academic research,
raised it by 3% this year, after increases of 3.5% in 2018 and 3.3% in 2017. These rises have outpaced both inflation
and broader wage growth, and have helped give low-end workers a somewhat bigger share of national income.
It used to be an article of faith among economists that higher minimum wages would cause job losses, but data
from Australia add to evidence that counters that assumption, at least as long as increases are gradual. A study by
the Reserve Bank of Australia (RBA), the central bank, examined minimum-wage increases between 1998 and 2008,
and found no discernible effect on employment. Similarly, over the past five years, Australia’s unemployment rate
has fallen steadily.
The value of the minimum wage is especially important in Australia since the pay of so many workers is linked to it.
Under a national system of industry-wide salary awards, pay in many jobs, from cabin crew to funeral directors, is in
effect indexed to the minimum wage. Every time the minimum wage goes up, so does the pay of nearly a quarter
of Australians, making it a powerful lever to affect the economy as a whole.
The RBA seems pleased with the boost to wages. It wants higher earnings to lift inflation, which is below its target
of 2-3%. With the housing market in the doldrums, the economy is growing at the slowest pace since 2009,
threatening Australia’s 28-year growth streak. But low pay rises, says Philip Lowe, the head of the RBA, harm the
economy more than low house prices.
Question No. 81
Australia has the highest minimum wage when compared to other countries and it is barely enough to run a family
having five people.
According to the passage, this statement is-
Options :
1. Definitely true
2. Definitely false
3. Probably true
4. Probably false
5. Cannot be determined
Answer : Probably true
Direction:
Question No. 82
Which of the following is true regarding OCED and the data it published, according to the passage?
(i) Parameters such as cost of living, inflation etc. are not taken into consideration while comparing
minimum wages around the world by OCED, which is a club maintained by developed countries.
(ii) The workers in Australia maintain a large gap in the difference of income with their competitor
Luxembourg.
(iii) The minimum-wage earners in America, although they have a low minimum wage compared to those in
Australia, maintain a better standard of living.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iii
3. Both i and ii
4. All are correct
5. None of these is correct
Answer : None of these is correct
Direction:

Question No. 83
Why are the Australians dubious about the fact that they receive the highest minimum wage when compared to all
other nations?
Options :
1. Their standard of living has been so low in the recent years and most of the people have fallen below the
poverty line.
2. They see that people in other countries have been receiving much more minimum wages than them, but
haven’t considered the external factors like inflation.
3. Most Australians, for a few years have been complaining about the slow improvement in their wages.
4. They understood that their minimum wages skyrocketed after recovering from the crisis in 2004, but still
they could not lead a decent life with what they receive.
5. None of these
Answer : Most Australians, for a few years have been complaining about the slow improvement in their wages.
Direction:
Question No. 84
What was the common belief among the economists, that was shattered by the Australians, because of their
gradual increase in minimum wages?
Options :
1. The economists believed that minimum wages would be increased if people are given more job
opportunities.
2. They believed that increasing the minimum wages will help in reducing the income disparity among the
people in the country.
3. They believed that increase in minimum wages is directly proportional to unemployment.
4. They believed that a sudden increase in minimum wages would bring more people into employment, thus
reduce unemployment in a country.
5. They believed that unemployment and minimum wages were not related to each other.
Answer : They believed that increase in minimum wages is directly proportional to unemployment.
Direction:
Question No. 85
Why is the RBA happy to see an elevation in minimum wages?

(i) Increase in minimum wages will pump more money into the economy, and it will increase the land
value.
(ii) Increase in the earnings will help them lift inflation.
(iii) They are afraid that if pay raise is too slow, it will have a negative impact on the economy.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iii
3. Only iii
4. All of these
5. None of these
Answer : Both ii and iii
Direction:

Question No. 86
Which of the following statements is true, according to the passage?
(i) After the global financial crisis of 2008, Australia did not experience an increase in minimum wages,
even though they could have done it with the help of the existing resources.
(ii) When we compare the increase in minimum wages of Australia and America for the last five years,
Australia stands lower than America.
(iii) The minimum wage increase in the current year is less than that in 2018, but better than that in 2017.
(iv) Increase in minimum wage will affect the economy as a whole because one- fourth of the wages of
Australians will go up, when there is an increase.

Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iv
3. Both i and iii
4. Only iii
5. All are correct.
Answer : Both ii and iv
Direction:
Question No. 87
Which of the following is a near synonym of the word ‘incredulous’?
Options :
1. incredible
2. disbelieve
3. inattentive
4. inactive
5. discontent
Answer : disbelieve
Direction:

Question No. 88
Which of the following is a near antonym of the word ‘doldrums’?

Options :
1. lively
2. gloom
3. despondency
4. mitigate
5. empathy
Answer : lively
Direction:
Select the phrase/connector from the given options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two
sentences given below, implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.
Question No. 89
1. The children waded largely
2. They did not have money to pay for the bamboo raft.
i. because
ii. so that
iii. accordingly
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iii
3. Both i and iii
4. i, ii and iii
5. None of these
Answer : Only i
Direction:
Question No. 90
1. Fenugreek is an herbal product that is frequently used to induce lactation.
2. No scientific evidence exists on its use for this purpose.
i. because
ii. although
iii. as well as
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both i and ii
3. Only ii
4. Both ii and iii
5. All of these
Answer : Only ii
Direction:
Question No. 91
1. Poaching and increased cultivation in their native habitats.
2. Researchers have determined that there are fewer than 100 Arabian leopards left in the wild.
i. Due to
ii. Rather than
iii. Because of
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both i and iii
3. Both ii and iii
4. i, ii and iii
5. None of these
Answer : Both i and iii
Direction:
Question No. 92
1. Broadly, he says, his government has listened and tried to understand business.
2. There are issues which still rankle.
i. furthermore
ii. but
iii. owing to
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iii
3. Both i and iii
4. Only ii
5. i, ii and iii
Answer : Only ii
Direction:
In each of the questions, a sentence is divided into five parts namely 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. In which one of the parts is
given in bold and is grammatically and contextually correct. You have to identify which fragment, apart from the
bold one, is correct in terms of grammar and usage. If all the parts are correct, then mark option 5, “All are
correct” as the answer.
Question No. 93
The ideal moreish dessert are (1)/a sticky pavlova with (2)/too many whipped cream (3)/and sweetened with
(4)/several spoon of caster sugar (5).
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
5. All are correct
Answer : 2
Direction:
Question No. 94
If I were him, (1)/I will eat (2)/all the cakes bought (3)/at my neighbour, (4)/without hesitation (5).
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. All are correct
Answer : 3
Direction:
Question No. 95
Although to our knowledge (1)/there exist no empirical data (2)/to confirming the disincentive hypothesis, (3)/there
is none (4)/which refutes it either (5).
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
5. All are correct
Answer : 1
Direction:
Question No. 96
The two combatants once again (1)/faced one another, (2)/taking a couple of sidestep, (3)/swords at the ready
(4)/from the next exchange (5).
Options :
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. All are correct
Answer : 4
Direction:
Question No. 97
The painting have been inspired by (1)/his wife Matilda II, who he (2)/ marries in 1100, (3)/the daughter of the
sainted (4)/Queen Margaret of Scotland (5).
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. All are correct
Answer : 4
Direction:
Six statements are given below, which are jumbled in any random order. Only the second statement (b), which has
been emboldened, is in its correct place. These statements will form a coherent and meaningful paragraph, when
arranged in the correct sequence. Arrange the sentences in the right order and answer the questions that follow.
Question No. 98
(a) Initiated as a symbolic gesture of sustainability by conserving electricity for an hour from 8:30 to 9:30 p.m., Earth
Hour has evolved into much more.
(b) So the Earth remains our only home for now and for the foreseeable future!
(c) While Neil Armstrong set foot on the moon more than five decades ago, we are yet to find new civilisations
across the solar system or beyond.
(d) What started as a “switch-off the lights” campaign in 2007 has evolved into a global movement linked to
different dimensions of climate change.
(e) Therefore, none of us can ever overstate the focus and action centred around conservation and sustainability
activities.
(f) It has become an event that centres on many actions that take the concept much deeper.
Options :
1. c,b,e,a,f,d
2. e,b,a,f,c,d
3. a,b,f,c,d,e
4. a,b,c,e,f,d
5. c,b,e,d,f,a
Answer : c,b,e,a,f,d
Direction:
Seven statements are given below, which are jumbled in any random order. Only the fifth statement (e), which has
been emboldened, is in its correct place. These statements will form a coherent and meaningful paragraph, when
arranged in the correct sequence. Arrange the sentences in the right order and answer the questions that follow.
(a) Khirk is not an avenue tree; its new foliage shines out from overgrown hedgerows in sarkari bungalows.
(b) And that’s exactly why putranjia has been planted in the hedgerows of almost every bungalow in Lutyens’ Delhi.
(c) If you drive down Teen Murti Marg in late January or early February, you might notice with some surprise the
bright new foliage of a small tree called khirk.
(d) That’s why it can be a bit of a shock to see such eager new foliage so early in the calendar year.
(e) Another hedge plant is putranjia, which can grow into a tall, handsome tree, but is valued for its extraordinary
ability to ‘coppice’.
(f) It’s a time of dry-season dormancy in Delhi when most trees are decidedly moth-eaten or completely bare.
(g) It means that when you chop off a leading shoot, it re-directs growth hormones into side-shoots to become
busily bushy — just the qualities you want in a good hedge.
Question No. 99
Which of the following is the correct order of the sentences?
Options :
1. a,g,b,d,e,c,f
2. f,b,a,c,e,d,g
3. c,f,d,a,e,g,b
4. g,d,a,c,e,b,f
5. a,d,f,c,e,b,g,
Answer : c,f,d,a,e,g,b
Direction:
In the following questions, an idiom is given followed by three sentences. Identify which of the sentences represent
the meaning of the idiom given in the question.
Question No. 100
Foot the bill
i. Airlines currently foot the bill for the security systems.
ii. The celebration cost hundreds of pounds, and I wonder who's going to foot the bill.
iii. Losing that job was a foot the bill really, and I ended up in a much more enjoyable career.
Options :
1. Only ii
2. i and iii
3. ii and iii
4. i and ii
5. i, ii and iii
Answer : i and ii
Direction:
Question No. 101
Make up one’s mind
i. It's not easy, but as a manager, sometimes you have to make up your mind and fire people.
ii. She deliberated over the decision for a long time before she made up her mind.
iii. He made up his mind never to go near a motorcycle again.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both ii and iii
4. Both i and iii
5. i, ii and iii
Answer : i, ii and iii
Direction:
Question No. 102
Break the bank
i. These days you can easily buy a smart phone without breaking the bank.
ii. I broke the bank going to grad school and I'm not sure how I'll ever pay back the money.
iii. With the wind increasing, the heavy rain being blown in my face I decided to break the bank.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both i and ii
3. Both ii and iii
4. Both i and iii
5. i, ii and iii
Answer : Both i and ii
Direction:
Question No. 103
Devil’s advocate
i. I will go to bed early because I will play the devil’s advocate.
ii. That sandwich really played the devil’s advocate.
iii. He offered to play devil’s advocate and argue against our case so that we could find out any flaws in it.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Only ii and iii
3. Only i and ii
4. Only iii
5. i, ii and iii
Answer : Only iii
Direction:
What gives rise to the wealth of nations? Some see the source in rich seams of mineral resources such as oil or coal.
Geography matters too: countries in temperate climes tend to be richer, other things being equal, than those closer
to the equator. Then there are institutions: the rule of law and (perhaps) democracy. Above these, most economists
since Adam Smith have believed, stands the invisible hand of the market, guiding selfish human actions to serve
the common good.
Is there something missing from the list? For the past decade or so, sociologists have been pushing one more
concept, “social capital”—trust or community, in one of its guises—that is now also being taken up by economists.
Crudely speaking, the more people trust each other, the better off their society. They might work more efficiently
together, for example. In business, trust might obviate the need for complicated contracts, and thus save on
lawyers' fees. You might expect that America, which has such a successful economy, had social capital in shedloads.
Maybe, and maybe not: one of the most influential essays in the field, “Bowling Alone”, by Robert Putnam of
Harvard University, pointed out that Americans were far less likely to be members of community organisations,
clubs or associations in the 1990s than they were in the 1950s. He illustrated his thesis by charting the decline of
bowling leagues.
A recent set of articles in the Economic Journal* shows how economists are grappling to analyse social capital. On
the face of it, the idea that trust or community can make a difference between wealth and poverty does not fit
easily with the basic assumption of orthodox economic theory: that humans are essentially self-interested animals.
That is why it has an instinctive appeal to “behavioural” economists, who think that this assumption has been
accepted too uncritically.
In one paper, Samuel Bowles and Herbert Gintis, of the University of Massachusetts, advance just such a view. They
argue that, if social capital is taken into account, economists have to put aside the idea that people are simple, self-
interested economic machines. People donate their time to all sorts of things, from voting to teaching in Sunday
school, whose costs outweigh the private benefits. Obviously, argue Mr Bowles and Mr Gintis, humans are social
animals.
This could be explained away easily, though, by making the assumption that people derive utility from helping
others at their own expense. But the authors think that something more sophisticated is required. They carried out
experiments, using university students, to see how a group of people might encourage each other to act in the
interests of the group as a whole. Many subjects, it seems, take pleasure in punishing free-riders. Many respond to
the shame of being found out as shirkers, which encourages co-operation. The lesson is that notions of selfish, or
indeed altruistic, preferences cannot explain the incentives of people in a village, school or parish. The authors
conclude that such communities are the missing ingredient, alongside markets and the state, in understanding an
economy.
In another paper, Edward Glaeser and David Laibson of Harvard University and Bruce Sacerdote of Dartmouth
College take individuals, not groups, as their starting point. They also use a more individualist definition of social
capital: a person's social skills. This can mean a long list of contacts, a facility for dealing with others, or even just
charisma. The authors include popularity in their definition, since it can be the result of investing in personal
relationships. They measure people's stock of social capital by the number of organisations—clubs, charities,
religious groups and so forth—to which they belong.
The authors see social capital as something that people can build for themselves, rather as they build financial
wealth by saving or investing, or “human capital” by acquiring skills and education. A doctor, for example, might
invest in more than just medical education: by joining a local club, she could get to know her patients better and
perhaps increase her future income.

Messrs Glaeser, Laibson and Sacerdote find that investment in social capital, as they define it, has similar
characteristics to investment in financial or human capital. People join professional societies, say, when they are
young and reap the benefits when they are older, relying on business contacts made early on, just as they do with
savings. People also invest more in social capital the more likely they are to remain living in the same place; the
“bowling alone” phenomenon may be partly attributed to rising mobility. They also invest more in social capital the
more they stand to gain from it. When there is nothing in it for them, they neglect their neighbours. Homo
economicus lives.
By definition, however, decisions to invest in social capital affect not just the individuals making them but others
too. It is tempting, if social capital is defined in terms of community or trust, to see such spillovers as always
positive. But they may not be. For instance, if people act in the interests of a group to which they belong, others
can be harmed: a professional association, for example, may keep fees and entry barriers high, or some groups may
exclude outsiders altogether.
In the final paper in the series, Steven Durlauf of the University of Wisconsin says that research into social capital
may have become a bit too other-worldly. Existing data, mostly taken from surveys, are not up to the task of
specifying social capital precisely enough. Perhaps too much has been invested in the concept of social capital to
help explain why nations become wealthy. As more economists pile into this fertile area, expect more deflation of
the concept—and also more argument.
Question No. 104
What is one thing that contributes to the wealth of nations, which has been added only around 10 years before?
Options :
1. The natural resources possessed by a nation.
2. The faith and feeling of togetherness that is felt by the people of a nation.
3. The trade and commerce that is booming in a nation.
4. The principle of governance of the nation.
5. The landscape, terrain, location, etc. of a nation.
Answer : The faith and feeling of togetherness that is felt by the people of a nation.
Direction:
the common good.
bowling leagues.
animals.
economy.
economicus lives.

Question No. 105
Why do “behavioural” economists think that the idea of social capital as a contributor to the wealth of nations has
been accepted too liberally?
Options :
1. It complies well with the hypothesis put forward by the orthodox economic theory.
2. The contributions of social capital have not been studied in detail by economists and has been
incorporated because it seemed a good way to improve human nature.
3. Wealth of a nation depend on its trade and commerce and the amount of resources it has got. It has
nothing to do with the attitude of the people.
4. Humans are considered as self-interested beings and the “behavioural” economists think that
togetherness cannot bring wealth because of this inherent nature.
5. None of these
Answer : Humans are considered as self-interested beings and the “behavioural” economists think that
togetherness cannot bring wealth because of this inherent nature.
Direction:
the common good.
bowling leagues.
animals.
economy.

economicus lives.
Question No. 106
The authors of a paper, who work at the University of Massachusetts argue that cooperation is encouraged only
because people will get benefited by helping others.
According to the passage, this statement is-
Options :
1. Definitely false
2. Definitely true
3. Probably false
4. Probably true
Answer : Definitely false

Direction:
the common good.
bowling leagues.
animals.
economy.
economicus lives.
Question No. 107
Which of the following is true regarding social capital?
(i) Unlike wealth and acquisition of skills, social capital is not something that an individual can build on his
own.
(ii) Investing is social capital is way different from investing in finance or human capital, as the former
involves attitude of people.
(iii) When we define social capital in terms of trust or harmony, we can see that it will always bring a
positive outcome.
(iv) If an individual makes an attempt to invest in social capital, he himself would invest in it, and cannot
influence the others. That is why social capital can only be thought about in terms of a group.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iii
3. i, iii and iv
4. All of these are correct
5. None of these are correct
Answer : None of these are correct
Direction:
the common good.

bowling leagues.
animals.
economy.
economicus lives.
Question No. 108
Why cannot the author assure that social capital expressed in terms of a group will always look up?
Options :
1. Because there has not been enough study to turn this hypothesis into a fact.
2. Because the author himself does not believe in the assumption that social capital could bring wealth to
nations.
3. Because a group consist of individuals belonging to different social strata and the capital gained might be
shared among individuals, thus preventing the group from growing further.
4. Because the author believe sin orthodox economic theory and implies that studies and debates should be
conducted on the topic.
5. Because the interest of a group might be detrimental to another group.
Answer : Because the interest of a group might be detrimental to another group.
Direction:
the common good.
bowling leagues.

animals.
economy.
economicus lives.
Question No. 109
Which of the following statements is true, according to the passage?
i. One of the examples of the idea of social capital bringing wealth to nations is businesses reducing
their cost on unwanted fees because of trust among the partners.
ii. It is interesting to note that those countries that lie close to the equator will be poorer than those on
the temperate region.
iii. Studies have found that many people help others, not because they are selfless, but because they will
be shamed as being lazy people.
iv. The author finally states that there is no doubt that social capital will contribute to the wealth of
nations and when more researchers research into the topic, they will understand that there is no room for
argument on this.
Options :
1. Only i
2. Both ii and iii
3. Only iv
4. i, ii and iii
5. All of these are correct.

Answer : i, ii and iii
Direction:
the common good.
bowling leagues.
animals.
economy.
economicus lives.
Question No. 110
Which of the following is a near antonym for the word ‘obviate’?
Options :
1. combine
2. continue
3. contextualise
4. complicate
5. commission
Answer : complicate
Direction:
Table given below shows details of payments made to 4 person - A, B, C and D. These payments are total pay,
Dearness Allowances (DA) and total incentives
Note:
1. Total salary = Basic Pay
2. Total incentives earned by them is obtained atter selling a certain number of units of TV and a certain number of
units of refrigerator.
3. D.A, for each person is 30% of basic pay
4. Incentive on selling 1 TV is 15% of Base pay and that of 1 refrigerator is 20% of Basic Pay.
5. Total incentive = (incentive on 1 TV × number of TV) + (Incentive on 1 Refrigerator × number of refrigerator)
Question No. 111
What is the difference between number of refrigerators and TV sold by person C
Options :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 0
5. None of these
Answer : 1
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 112
If equal number of TV and refrigerators are sold by person D, then, calculate number of TV sold by person D. Total
incentive amount for person D is 175% of total salary of same person.
Options :
1. 2
2. 7
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
Answer : 5
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 113
If total TV and refrigerator sold by person A is 3 and 4 respectively and total incentive earned by B is 12% more than
that of incentive earned by B. Then find the ratio of incentive earned by A and B.
Options :
1. 23 : 25
2. 28 : 25
3. 175 : 196
4. 25 : 28
5. None of these
Answer : 25 : 28
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 114
Find the annual income (Total Salary + incentive earned) of person D if it is given that he/she sold 3 TV and 4
refrigerators per month and having total salary of Rs. 7200 per month and DA is 20% more than the monthly
incentive.
Options :
1. Rs. 4.32 × 10^2
2. Rs. 4.32 × 10^6
3. Rs. 4.32 × 10^4
4. Rs. 4.32 × 10^3
5. Rs. 4.32 × 10^5
Answer : Rs. 4.32 × 10^5
Direction:
Note:
Question No. 115
Another person E, earned incentive of Rs. 10800 then find the ratio of dearness allowance of E and A. If it is given
that E sold 2 TV and 3 refrigerators.
Options :
1. 13 : 7
2. 6 : 7
3. 5 : 6
4. 5 : 8
5. None of these
Answer : 6 : 7
Question No. 116

2
Lateral surface area of a cube is 420 cm less than the lateral surface area of a cylinder. Height of cylinder is 2R cm
2
and radius is R cm. If the side of cube is equal to the radius of cylinder, find the approximate area (in cm ) of a circle
whose radius is (R + 3) cm.
Options :
1. 314
2. 290
3. 340
4. 388
5. 225
Answer : 314
Direction:
In the following questions three equations are given in variables x. Third equation is equal to the sum of the first
two equations. You have to solve the questions based on given information.
Question No. 117
What is the value of (b + c)?
Options :
1. 2
2. 5
3. 6
4. 9
5. 11
Answer : 6
Direction:
Question No. 118
What is the product of the roots of equation I.
Options :
1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4
5. 6
Answer : 4
Direction:
Question No. 119
2
If ay + by + k = 0, then find the quadratic equations whose roots are y and 2y.
Options :
1. x^2 + 5x + 8 = 0
2. x^2 + 6x + 8 = 0
3. x^2 + 7x + 8 = 0
4. x^2 + 2x + 8 = 0
5. None of these
Answer : x^2 + 6x + 8 = 0
Direction:
A missing number series is given below:
86, 81, 88, 79………..
A, B, C, D, E, F
Question No. 120
If x and y are next two terms after F, then find the value of y.
Options :
1. 93
2. 92
3. 85
4. 75
5. None of these
Answer : 75
Direction:
A missing number series is given below:
86, 81, 88, 79………..
A, B, C, D, E, F
Question No. 121
What should be added to (F+20) in order to make a perfect square.
Options :
1. 1
2. 5
3. 7
4. 3
5. 2
Answer : 3
Question No. 122
If Rs. P is invested for T years at 20% interest compounded annually. Interest earned is 10560. The difference of
2
principal and interest is 56% of principal. Find (T + 3)
Options :
1. 25
2. 16
3. 49
4. 9
5. 64
Answer : 25
Question No. 123
Quantity I: The rate at which the train must run to reduce the time to 30 minutes. A train takes 40 minutes for a
journey if it runs at 72 km/hr.
Quantity II: The speed of the train, Shailendra travelled 400 km by train and 300 km by taxi. It took him 4 hrs and 10
min. However, if he travels 360 km by train and 540 km by taxi, he takes 56 minutes more.
Options :
1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Answer : Quantity I < Quantity II
Question No. 124
Quantity I: Number of days the work is extended beyond normal days. A can do a piece of work in 100 days and B
in 60 days. Both of them start working together and 6 days before the scheduled completion, B drops out.
Quantity II: Number of days required to complete the work working 10 hrs daily by 60 women working together. 24
men take 20 days working 12 hrs daily to do a piece of work, if 5 women do as much work as 4 men.
Options :
1. Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity I < Quantity II
3. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
4. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Answer : Quantity I < Quantity II
Direction:
The following questions are accompanied by three statements I, II and III. You have to determine which
statement(s) is/ are sufficient to answer the questions.
Question No. 125
What is the length of train ‘A’?
I. Train A takes 12 second to cross a pole.
II. Train A crosses train B coming from opposite side in 12 second, speed of train B is 28 m/sec and length of train B
is half of train A.
III. Train A takes 20 sec to cross two pole 200 m apart.
Options :
1. Only I and II together
2. Only I and III together

3. Any two of them
4. Either II alone or I and III together
5. All statements are required
Answer : Any two of them
Direction:
The following question has three statements. Study the question and the statements and decide which of the
statement (s) is/are necessary to answer the question.
Question No. 126
In a company, three friends Arun, Varun and Tarun are partners. Tarun got retired and his sons Ram and Raman are
admitted as partners in the firm. In what ratio the profit will be shared between Arun, Varun, Ram and Raman?
I) Ram’s and Raman’s share in the profit is in the ratio 3 ∶ 5
II) Ratio of Arun, Varun and Tarun was 1 ∶ 2 ∶ 3
III) Arun’s share is double than Raman’s share and Varun receives Rs. 15750 out of total profit of Rs. 56250.
Options :
1. Only I and II together
2. Only I and III together
3. Any two of them
4. Either II alone or I and III together
5. All statements are required
Answer : Only I and III together
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below:
Ajay can do a piece of work in 12 days. With the help of Rohit, he can complete the work in 36/7 days. Baneet can
do the same work in 3 days less than that of Rohit, when working alone. Ajay started the work, Rohit and Baneet
join him every third day and thus time taken by them to complete the work is ____ (A) _____ days. Efficiency of
Shikha is half of the efficiency of Rohit. Ajay and Baneet started the work. Shikha joined them after two days. Time
taken by them to complete the remaining part of the work is _____ (B) ____days. Shikha started the work and left
after 2 days. Reena complete the remaining part of the work in 16/3 days. Ajay and Reena together can complete
the work in ___ (C) ____ days. Gauri and Rohit together can complete half of the work in 18/7 days. Gauri and
Reena started the work and left after three days. Baneet can complete the remaining part of the work in ____ (D)
____ days. If Reena, Shikha, Ajay and Baneet started the work together, they can complete the work in ____ (E)
____ days.
Question No. 127
Find the place value of (A)?
Options :
1. 39(1/6)
2. 5(11/13)
3. 37(7/17)
4. 23(1/11)
5. None of these
Answer : 5(11/13)
Direction:
____ days.
Question No. 128

Find the place value of (C)?
Options :
1. 11
2. 8
3. 4
4. 2
5. None of these
Answer : 4
Direction:
____ days.
Question No. 129
Find the place value of (D)?
Options :
1. 3/2
2. 5/3
3. 11/7
4. 6/5
5. None of these
Answer : 3/2
Direction:
____ days.
Question No. 130
Find the place value of (E)?
Options :
1. 53/18
2. 45/13
3. 31/17
4. 36/17
5. None of these
Answer : 36/17
Direction:
____ days.
Question No. 131
Find the place value of (B)?
Options :
1. 18/11
2. 13/8
3. 23/17
4. 15/12
5. None of these
Answer : 18/11
Question No. 132
A contractor assigned a job to three persons A, B and C. ‘A’ which is 25% less efficient than ‘B’ can complete 20% of
a work in 12 days. ‘C’ takes 45 days more than ‘B’ to complete the same work. ‘A’ and ‘B’ started working together
and after 3 days C joined them. Due to some personal emergency ‘A’ left after 3 more days and rest of the work is
completed by 'B' and 'C', together. Find the total time taken to complete the whole work.
Options :
1. 21 days
2. 28 days
3. 22 days
4. 20 days
5. None of these
Answer : 28 days
Question No. 133
Neeraj starts a business and after 3 months Dheeraj also joins the business. The initial investment of Neeraj and
Dheeraj is in the ratio of 3:2, respectively. Neeraj and Dheeraj receives Rs. _____ and Rs. _____ respectively as
profit after completion of one year of the company.
Which of the following satisfies the two blanks given in the questions?
I. Rs.2814, Rs.1407
II. Rs.1758, Rs.879
III. Rs.2356, Rs.1146
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Only I and II
5. Only II and III
Answer : Only I and II
Question No. 134
In a company, 90% of the employees are men. Of these 50% are drawing more than 8 LPA. If 50% of the total
employees of the company draw more than8 LPA, then what is the percentage of women who are drawing less
than 8 LPA year?
Options :
1. 40%
2. 55%
3. 44%
4. 50%
5. None of these
Answer : 50%
Question No. 135
Team A can built a project in 3 hours less than the time taken by Team B to built the same project.
The ratio of the strength of Team A to that of Team B is ______. If it is given that the efficiencies of each member
of both the teams is same (where the efficiency is measured in work done per hour), then which of the following
ratios will satisfy the condition?
(i) 7:3
(ii) 21:35
(iii) 16:9
(iv) 22:26
Options :
1. Only (i) satisfy
2. Only (i) and (ii) satisfy
3. Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) satisfy
4. Only (i) and (iii) satisfy
5. Only (i), (iii) and (iv) satisfy
Answer : Only (i) and (iii) satisfy
Question No. 136
Time taken by car A to cover distance from point X to point Y is 7`(1/2)` hrs including half an hour of stoppage. B
also started from point X and stopped 60 km earlier from point Y after travelling for 7`(1/2)` hrs. Had they started
from same point and at same time, the difference between their distance covered in 8.5 minutes will be 1.7 km. Find
the distance between two cars, if they start a race for the distance which is twice the distance between X and Y ,
assuming that both cars stops when one of the car finish the race.
Options :
1. 168 km
2. 182 km
3. 174 km
4. 145 km
5. None of these
Answer : 168 km
Question No. 137
Deepak invested Rs. (X-5000) at R% p.a. SI for 3 years and Rs. X at R% p.a. CI for 2 years. If simple interest earned in 3
years is Rs. 2424 more than compound interest earned in 2 years and the ratio of amount invested at SI and CI is 7:8,
then find integral value of R.
Options :
1. 12%
2. 10%
3. 11%
4. 12.5%
5. none of these
Answer : 12%
Direction:
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in all the three statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all
the statements and give answer –
Question No. 138
What will be the cost of painting the four walls of a room if the rate of painting is Rs. 20 per square metre?
I. Perimeter of the floor is 52 m.
II. Height of the wall of the room is 15 m.
III. Ratio of length and breadth of the room is 5 : 2.
Options :
1. I and II together or only III alone
2. Only I and III
3. Only I and II
4. All I, II and III
5. None of these
Question No. 139
Saurabh bought a laptop at a discount of `16(2/3)` % on MRP. He earned half the amount of his CP by renting it for
200 days. After that he resells it at half of MRP. In this transaction he earned Rs.200, find MRP of laptop (in Rs).
Options :
1. Rs.2800
2. Rs.2700
3. Rs.2400
4. Rs.2000
5. None of these
Answer : Rs.2400
Question No. 140
There is a rectangular path just inside a rectangular park. Width of the path is 3 cm. If length of park is decreased by
6 cm then, it becomes a square. Area of the rectangle is (6/5) times the area of the path.
From the above given information which of the following can be found out.
(i) Area of path
(ii) Length of the park
(iii) Sum of perimeter of the rectangular park and perimeter of the path (both external and internal perimeter)
Options :
1. only (ii)
2. only (ii) and (iii)
3. only (i) and (iii)
4. all (i), (ii) and (iii)
5. only (iii)
Answer : all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Direction:
Study the information and answer the following questions:
Ten books P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W, X and Y are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order. All
books have different heights (in inches) viz. 13, 15, 18, 20, 23, 36, 39, 49, 53 and 55 (not necessarily in the same order).
Five books are placed between book R and the book whose height is a perfect square and one of them is placed at
the bottom. Two books are placed between book R and book U whose height is 39 inches. No book is placed above
the book whose height is 13 inches. The height of book S is 18 inches. The book which is tallest among all is placed
immediately below the book which is smallest. Five books are placed between T and the book which is tallest. The
height of book P is 15 inches is placed immediately above book R. The height of book V is 20 inches is placed below
U. Three books are kept between the book whose height is 23 inches and book V. Book Q is placed immediately
below book Y. The book whose height is 53 inches is placed above the one whose height is 49 inches. R’s height is
not an odd number. Book W is not placed below book X.
Question No. 141
How many books are placed between T and the one whose height is 36 inches?
Options :
1. Two
2. None
3. Three
4. One
5. None of these
Answer : Three
Direction:
Question No. 142
What is the difference between the height of book Q and V?
Options :
1. 35
2. 38
3. 32
4. 30
5. None of these
Answer : 35
Direction:
Question No. 143
What is the height of book T?
Options :
1. 49
2. 23
3. 36
4. 53
5. None of these
Answer : 53
Direction:
Question No. 144
Which book is placed immediately above the book whose height is 49 inches?
Options :
1. Book U
2. Book W
3. Book P
4. Book V
5. None of these
Answer : Book V
Direction:
Question No. 145
Which among the following book is placed at the top & bottom most position respectively?
Options :
1. Book Y & Book X
2. Book X & Book V
3. Book Q & Book Y
4. Book R & Book X
5. None of these
Answer : Book Y & Book X
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are eight members i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who belong to a family having three generation. B and D are
siblings. D is the only daughter of H and she is unmarried. C is the grandson of E. H is the father-in-law of G. F is the
son of A, who is husband of E. F is the brother of G.
Question No. 146
How is B related to C?
Options :
1. Brother
2. Son
3. Mother
4. Father
5. None of these
Answer : Father
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are eight members i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H who belong to a family having three generation. B and D are
siblings. D is the only daughter of H and she is unmarried. C is the grandson of E. H is the father-in-law of G. F is the
son of A, who is husband of E. F is the brother of G.

Question No. 147
Who is the maternal grandfather of C?
Options :
1. A
2. T
3. F
4. D
5. None of these
Answer : A
Question No. 148
Which of the following symbols should replace the sign ($) and (*) respectively in the given expression in order to
make the expression W ≥ B and S > E definitely true?
T>W≥E$G=B≤Z<Y*Q≤S
Options :
1. ≤, ≤
2. ≥, <
3. ≤, =
4. >, ≤
5. =, <
Answer : =, <
Question No. 149
Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank space in order to complete the given expression in
such a manner that ‘O > R’ definitely true?
A>W=N≥R?S=K≤V=O
Options :
1. ≥
2. =
3. <
4. >
5. ≤
Answer : <
Question No. 150
Which of the following order of letters in the blanks makes the expression W > X is definitely true? ___ < ___ ≤ ___
= ___ > ____
Options :
1. U, V, W, X, T
2. T, U, V, X, W
3. W, U, T, V, X
4. X, V, T, U, W
5. V, T, W, U, X
Answer : V, T, W, U, X
Direction:
Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.
In a certain code language,
‘Recognising Great Crushing’ is written as ‘X@10 T%27 I%25’
‘Efforts Crisis Economic’ is written as ‘V@8 X@22 V%24’
‘Expressed Recent Briefing’ is written as ‘Y@9 I@38 V%9’
Question No. 151

In the given code language, what does the code ‘D%42’ stand for?
Options :
1. Waterproof
2. Willingness
3. Wrapper
4. Wellness
5. None of these
Answer : Willingness
Direction:
Question No. 152
What is the code for ‘Assistance International’ in the given code language?
Options :
1. Z%8, R@23
2. Z@8, R%23
3. Z%6, R%21
4. Z@6, R%21
5. None of these
Answer : Z@6, R%21
Direction:
Question No. 153
What is the code for ‘Community’ in the given code language?
Options :
1. X@28
2. X%28
3. X@25
4. X%21
5. None of these
Answer : X%28
Direction:
Question No. 154
What will be the code for ‘G%27’ in the given code language?
Options :
1. Traffic
2. Tamarind
3. Terminate
4. Totalling
5. None of these
Answer : Totalling
Direction:
Question No. 155
What may be the possible code for ‘Through Situation’?
Options :
1. H@38, G&25
2. G%28, H%33
3. K@35, H%25
4. M%22, G@21
5. None of these
Answer : G%28, H%33
Direction:
Study the following information carefully and answer the below questions.
Ten persons – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J are living in a five floored building marked 1 to 5 from bottom to top.
There are two flats flat I and flat II on each floor from west to east. Each person likes different subjects viz.-
Accounts, Commerce, Biology, Economics, Hindi, English, Physics, Chemistry, History, and Geography. All the
information is not necessarily in the same order. Flats adjacent to each other mean either east-west or north-south.
F lives on an even number floor and lives three floors below I, who likes Commerce. Both F and the one who likes
Commerce live in a different flat type. The one who likes Accounts lives immediately west of I, who lives on the
adjacent floor of B. One floor is between H and the one who likes English, both are not living in the same flat type.
G lives immediately north-east of the one who likes English, but not living on the same floor along with F. The one
who likes History neither lives on the adjacent flat of the one who likes English nor B. Six persons lives between E
and A, who likes History. J and the one who likes Physics live on the same floor. One floor is between the one who
likes Physics and C, both are not living on the same flat. C neither likes English nor Hindi but lives just below the one
who likes Chemistry. The person living immediately south-east of the one who likes Economics lives two floors
above Biology. The one who likes Biology and B lives on the different flat types.
Question No. 156
Which of the following statement is true with respect to G?
I) G likes Physics.
II) G lives along with the one who likes Economics.
III) G lives immediately south-west of the one who likes Accounts.
Options :
1. Both I and III
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Only III
5. None of these
Answer : Only II
Direction:
Question No. 157
Who among the following person lives immediately below the flat of D?
I. The one who likes History.
II. The one who lives immediately south-east of B.
III. The one who lives along with F.
Options :
1. Only II
2. Both I and III
3. Only III
4. Both II and III
5. None of these
Answer : Both I and III
Direction:
Question No. 158
How many persons are living between F and the one who likes Hindi?
I. As many as between E and the one who likes Physics.
II. As many as above the one who likes Economics.
III. As many as below the one who likes Biology.
Options :
1. Only III
2. Both I and III
3. Both I and II
4. Only II
5. None of these
Answer : Only II
Direction:
Question No. 159
Who among the following person likes English?
Options :
1. D
2. C
3. The one who lives along with G on the same floor.
4. The one who lives immediately north-east of A.
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
Direction:
Question No. 160
Find the odd out of the five?
Options :
1. The one who likes Accounts
2. The one who likes Physics.
3. The one lives immediately west of A.
4. The one who lives immediately south-west of G.
5. The one who likes Biology.
Answer : The one lives immediately west of A.
Direction:
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.
There are three horizontally parallel rows row 1, row 2 and row 3. Row 1 is north of row 2, which is north of row 3.
Five persons sit on row 1 facing south, five persons sit in row 3 facing north and ten persons sit in row 2 such that
first five persons (from the left of the row) face north while rest of the five persons face south. Persons, who sit in
row 1 and row 3 face the persons, who sit on row 2. The distance between each of the adjacent persons in the row
is same. No seat is vacant. K, X, C and F are some of the persons sitting on the seats.
B faces the person, who sits third to the right of G. Two persons sit between I and the person who faces O. I doesn’t
sit at any extreme ends. Person, who sits to the immediate right of I, faces D. Person, who faces A, sits to the
immediate left of N. Q sits to the immediate left of Y. O sits to the immediate left of Z, who faces E. One person sits
between G and E. Neither Y nor O sit at any extreme ends. D faces the person, who sits third to the right of A. One
person sits between Y and P, who faces south. L sits to the immediate right of J. Neither X nor C face north. Neither
H nor F sits at any extreme ends. One person sits between H and M.
Question No. 161
Who sits third to the left of J?
Options :
1. D
2. K
3. F
4. O
5. None of these
Answer : K
Direction:
Question No. 162
Who among the following persons sit between A and the person, who faces O?
I. E
II. Y
III. I
Options :
1. Both II and III
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Only III
5. Only I
Answer : Only III
Direction:
Question No. 163
How many persons sit between H and E?
Options :
1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5
5. None of these.
Answer : 4
Direction:
Question No. 164
Who sits opposite to O?
Options :
1. D
2. K
3. F
4. O
5. P
Answer : P
Direction:
Question No. 165
Who sits third to the right of H?
Options :
1. G
2. P
3. E
4. Y
5. F
Answer : G
Direction:
Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
th th
There are eight person A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born on two different date i.e. 12 and 25 of four months
(January, February, March, April). Each of them spend different age are different i.e. 10, 13, 17, 19, 22, 26, 27 and 30. All
information is not necessarily in same order. February is not considered as leap year.
Note: The even numbered age is not born on even numbered date and odd numbered age is not born on odd
numbered date.
G born on even date and even numbered days month. Two persons were born between G and the one whose age
is 30. Equal number of person born before E, who age is 10 and after B. Neither E nor B born in March month. F was
born just after A but not in same month. Difference between the age of G and F is 6. Neither F nor G’s age is 30. E
was born before B. G is older than F. Two person were born between the one whose age is 26 and the one whose
age is 17. D’s age is 22. C was born before D and his age is not 30. A is 9 years older than B. C and D were not born in
same month. The one whose age is 3 years less than H born on even date.
Question No. 166
Who among the following person was born immediately after H?
Options :
1. The one whose age is 19
2. D
3. The one whose age is 22
4. A
5. None of these
Answer : None of these
Direction:
th th
numbered date.
Question No. 167
th
Who among the following person born on 25 February?
Options :
1. C
2. F
3. A
4. G
5. None of these
Answer : A
Direction:
th th
numbered date.
Question No. 168
What is the difference between the age of H and B?
Options :
1. 19
2. 13
3. 14
4. 12
5. None of these
Answer : 13
Direction:
th th
numbered date.
Question No. 169
How many persons born between G and the one whose age is 22?
Options :
1. One
2. Three
3. Two
4. None
5. More than three
Answer : More than three
Direction:
th th
numbered date.
Question No. 170
Who among the following person’s age is 13?
Options :
1. A
2. F
3. G
4. C
5. None of these
Answer : F
Direction:
Read the instructions carefully and answer the questions that follow –
Six children U, V, W, X, Y and Z were playing on the staircase of their school. The staircase had sixteen steps which
were numbered 1 – 16 from bottom to top. No two students were standing on the same step initially. They were
playing the game of rolling a dice. Each child rolled the dice only once in the alphabetical order i.e. U rolled first and
so on. They made some movements as per the number they rolled. Each child rolled the dice moved as per the rules
and then passed on the dice once and moved accordingly. No 2 children rolled the same number.
Conditions-
Clue 1 – X’s stair number was same as the number he rolled.
Clue 2 – X and U were standing at a gap of 5 steps and they rolled consecutive numbers.
Clue 3 – Y’s step number was 5 times as that of Z.
Clue 4 – Z rolled thrice as that of Y
Clue 5 – U was below W with a gap of 2 steps in between them
Clue 6- U’s stair number was thrice as that of the number rolled by V
Clue 7 – V’s stair number was prime valued which was three more than the number he rolled
Clue 8 – The lowest stair was vacant
Rules –
a. The person who rolled 1: Swapped positions with the person who rolled 5
b. The person who rolled 2: moved 5 stairs below, if already taken, stayed at original position
c. The person who rolled 3: Swapped positions with the person who rolled 6
d. the person who rolled 4: Swapped positions with the person who rolled 1.
e. The person who rolled 5: Moved 7 stairs below, if not possible then moved 5 stairs up
f. The person who rolled 6: Remained at original place
Question No. 171
Who among the following remained at their original positon even after the movements?
I) W
II) X
III) U
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both II and III
4. Both I and III
5. Only III
Answer : Only I
Direction:
Conditions-
Rules –
Question No. 172
What was the difference between the initial step and final step number of student V?
Options :
1. 3
2. 4
3. 1
4. None
5. None of these
Answer : 3
Direction:
Conditions-

Rules –
Question No. 173
What is the step number of student U, finally?
Options :
1. Step 15
2. Step 7
3. Step 5
4. Step 6
5. Step 2
Answer : Step 7
Direction:
Conditions-
Rules –
Question No. 174
What is the sum of the step number of W in the final setup and the dice number he rolled?
Options :
1. 13
2. 17
3. 11
4. 16
5. 20
Answer : 17
Direction:
Conditions-
Rules –
Question No. 175
Which student is at the step number 6 in the final step?
Options :
1. Y
2. X
3. U
4. V
5. Z
Answer : Z
Question No. 176
If first, third and sixth letters of the word “PAYMENT” are changed to their immediately preceding letters as per
English alphabet series and fourth and seventh letters are changed to their immediately succeeding letters as per
English alphabet series, then how many letters (in English alphabet series) are there between the fourth and
seventh letters of the newly formed word?
Options :
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
5. None of these
Answer : 6
Question No. 177

If third, sixth, eighth and tenth letters of the given word are changed to their second next letter as per alphabet
series then all the letters are arranged as per alphabetical order within the letter, then how many letters in English
alphabet series are there between the fifth letter from left end and fifth letter from right end?
MANUFACTURE
Options :
1. 3
2. 4
3. 6
4. 5
5. More than 6
Answer : More than 6
Question No. 178
st rd th th
If a meaningful English word has to be formed using 1 , 3 , 8 and 10 letters of the word (each letter to be used
once only) “PERFORMANCE” then which of the following will be third letter of such word? If more than one such
words can be formed then mark ‘X’ as your answer and if no meaningful English word can be formed then mark “Y”
as your answer.
Options :
1. P
2. A
3. R
4. X
5. Y
Answer : X
Question No. 179

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘HIMACHAL’ which have as many letters between them as in
the English alphabetical series?
Options :
1. None
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
5. More than three
Answer : Two
Question No. 180
st th
What will be the last letter of the meaningful 4-letter English word formed using 1 and 5 letter of “CARPET”
rd th
along with 3 and 5 letter of “PERSONAL” such that each letter to be used once? If more than one such word can
be formed then mark ‘X’ as your answer, if no such word can be formed then mark “Y’ as your answer.
Options :
1. R
2. E
3. C
4. X
5. Y
Answer : X
Direction:
Study the given information and answer the following the questions.
There are 16 persons – H, I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W standing in a square plot. Inside a square plot, a
square shaped garden is developed. The persons who are standing inside the garden facing outside. The persons
who are standing outside the garden facing inside the centre and likes different fruits namely viz., – Banana,
Mango, Grapes, Apple, Kiwi, Pear, Papaya and Orange. So all the persons standing in the inner square faces the
persons standing in the outer square works in different companies namely viz., – TCS, ACC, AMUL, BHEL, BPL, HCL,
MRF and TVS.
M faces the centre and W faces M. J sits second to the right of M. There are four persons sits between M and K. J is
not an immediate neighbour of K. There are three persons standing between O and K. There are two persons
standing between O and H. H stands exactly between the K and L. L stands to the immediate left of M. There are
two persons standing between W and U. U faces N. T faces outside. There are two persons standing between T and
Q. T faces I. Q stands to the immediate left of W. R, the one who faces H stands exactly between the persons P and
V. P faces K. The one who sits in the corner of the square likes Banana, who faces P. The one who likes Banana sits
between the persons who like Grapes and Mango. The one who likes Mango sits second to the right of the person
who likes Pear. Three persons sit between one who likes Grapes and one who likes Pear. Two persons sit between
one who likes Grapes and one who likes Kiwi. Two persons sit between one who likes Kiwi and one who likes
Orange. M and L do not like Papaya and Kiwi. The immediate neighbours of P are the one who works in TCS and the
one who works in BHEL. The one who works in TCS faces the one who likes Grapes. Three persons sit between the
one who works in TCS and the one who works in MRF. The immediate neighbours of the person who works in ACC
are the one who works in TCS and the one who works in HCL. The one who works in BPL sits exactly behind to the
one who works in ACC. The one who works in TVS sits exactly behind to the one who works in AMUL. The one who
works in TVS faces K.
Question No. 181
In the given arrangement, if three people come and stand to the immediate left of K, how many people will sit
between L (From the left of L) and I?
Options :
1. Two
2. Three
3. Five
4. More than four
5. One
Answer : Five
Direction:
MRF and TVS.
Question No. 182
Who amongst the following likes Pear?
Options :
1. J
2. I
3. M
4. K
5. L
Answer : J
Direction:
MRF and TVS.
Question No. 183
How many people stand between V and U?
Options :
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. More than four
5. One
Answer : Three
Direction:
MRF and TVS.
Question No. 184

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based upon their arrangement and so form a group. Which of
the following does not belong to the group?
Options :
1. KP
2. LV
3. UN
4. MW
5. OQ
Answer : MW
Direction:
MRF and TVS.
Question No. 185
Who amongst the following works in BPL?
Options :
1. P
2. U
3. Q
4. L
5. T
Answer : U
Direction:
Each of the questions below consists of a question and three Statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question:
Question No. 186
Six persons – A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circular table facing to the center and each likes different fruits –
Grapes, Banana, Apple, Orange, Pear and Mango then, who sits immediate right of the one who likes Apple?
I. C likes Banana and sits second to the right of one who likes Pear, who is facing A. E sits third to the left of D, who
is an immediate neighbor of one who likes Mango and F sits second to the right of D who likes Orange.
II. B sits second to the left of one who likes Grapes, who sits second to the left of A. One who likes Banana is facing
B, who is an immediate neighbor of one who likes Orange.
III. F likes Pear and sits second to the right of D, who sits third to the left of E. One who likes Mango sits immediate
right of D.
Options :
1. Both statements I and II together are sufficient.

2. Both statements II and III together are sufficient.
3. Both statements I and III together are sufficient.
4. All statements I, II and III together are necessary.
5. All statements I, II and III together are not sufficient.
Answer : Both statements II and III together are sufficient.
Direction:
Question No. 187
Is Prema aunt of Mohan?
I. Sunita is sister-in-law of Chetna, who is daughter-in-law of Kiran. Mohan is the brother of Sunita. Prema is sister-
in-law of Aarohi who is married to Kiran.
II. Aarohi is father of Sunita, who is sister-in-law of Chetna. Kiran is mother of Mohan, who is married to Chetna.
Only two married couple in family and Kiran is sister of Prema.
III. Chetna is daughter-in-law of Aarohi, who is married to Kiran and Sunita is daughter of Kiran. Chetna is married to
Mohan and Prema is sister-in-law of Aarohi.
Options :
2. Statement I alone is sufficient.
3. Statement II alone is sufficient.
4. Statement III alone is sufficient.
5. Either statement I alone or statement III alone is sufficient.
Answer : Either statement I alone or statement III alone is sufficient.
Direction:
Question No. 188

Seven persons – Prerna, Ragini, Anupama, Akshara, Abhimanyu, Neel and Kavya are going for a shopping on Friday,
Saturday and Sunday. At least two persons are going for a shopping on same day. On which day Neel is going for
shopping?
I. Prerna and Abhimanyu are going on same day. Neel is going with 2 other persons. Kavya and Ragini are going on
different days. Akshara is going on Saturday. Akshara and Abhimanyu are going on different days. Abhimanyu is
going before Kavya who is going with Anupama.
II. Ragini is going after Abhimanyu but before Kavya. Kavya and Prerna are going on different days. Neither Ragini
nor Akshara is going with Neel. Akshara is going after Prerna. Anupama is going with Kavya.
III. Prerna is going before Neel. Prerna isn't going on Saturday. Anupama is going after Akshara. Neel and Anupama
are going on same day. Neither Neel nor Akshara is going with Abhimanyu. Kavya is going with Anupama.
Options :
2. Any two of the given statements together are sufficient.
4. Either statements I and II together or statements II and III together are sufficient.
5. Either statements I and III together or statements II and III together are sufficient.
Answer : Either statements I and III together or statements II and III together are sufficient.
Direction:
Question No. 189
Seven boxes – A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in the same order were placed in a row facing to the north and
each box was of different colour – Red, Violet, Orange, Silver, Gold, Maroon and Indigo. Which box is placed second
to the right of Orange box?
I. A was placed second to the left of B, which was placed third to the right of Red box. C was placed third to the
right of F, which was placed second to the right of G and Indigo box was placed second to the left Silver box,
which was placed immediate right of C.

II. G was placed third to the left of B, which was placed second to the left of C which was a Gold box. F was placed
second to the left of E, which was placed third to the right of Maroon box. D was placed second to the right of
Indigo box, which was placed second to the right of Violet box. Red box was placed immediate left of A which was
a Maroon box, which was placed second to the left of B and Silver box was placed immediate right of C.
III. C was placed second to the right of B, which was placed third to the left of Silver box. Red box was placed
second to the left of Violet box, which was placed immediate right of A and C was placed third to the right of F,
which was placed immediate right of Maroon box and E was placed third to the right of A.
Options :
2. Either statement II alone or statement I and III together are sufficient.
3. Statement II alone is sufficient.
5. None of the given options.
Answer : Statement II alone is sufficient.
Direction:
Question No. 190
'X + Y' means 'X is mother of Y'
'X – Y' means 'X is the sister of B'
'X * Y' means 'X is father of Y'
'X = Y' means 'X is the brother of B'
'X @ Y' means 'X is the daughter of Y'
How is E related to I?
Statement I: D * E – G = H @ J
Statement II: D * E + F – G – K
Statement III: H + F * I – L
Options :
1. The data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
2. The data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question.
3. The date in statement III and either I or II is sufficient to answer the question.
4. All I, II, III statements are together not sufficient to answer the question
5. All I, II, III statements are together sufficient to answer the question
Answer : The data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question.
Question No. 191
Directions: A situation/problem statement is given followed by three statements. Choose the one/s which is/are the
correct course of action/s to be followed from the problem statement.
Both Russia and the United States are major spacefarers. America’s allies in Europe and Asia are also key sources of
technologies that support the use of space. Even Ukraine has a significant aerospace industry. The risk to space
cooperation could come in three ways. The first is through sanctions on Russia due to the Ukraine-Russia conflict.
The second is through physical destruction or control of aerospace facilities in Ukraine. The third is potential
attempts by either side to disrupt the other’s use of space for military purposes. As India navigates a treacherous
diplomatic landscape, it will need to keep an eye on how much of these risks could affect its interests.
Course of actions:
I. India should offer to launch satellites left stranded by sanctions on Russia.
II. India should develop a private sector-led space economy to take advantage of opportunity due to the lessening
of space cooperation amongst the US and Russia.
III. India should delay its ongoing projects which rely on Russian cooperation.
Options :
1. Only III
2. Only II
3. Both I and III
4. Both I and II
5. All of I, II and III
Answer : Both I and II
Question No. 192
Directions: A passage is given followed by three statements. Read the following passage and answer the question
that follows.
On December 30, 2019, an Artificial Intelligence-driven health monitoring platform called Blue Dot spotted a cluster
of unusual pneumonia cases occurring in Wuhan, China. The Canadian company sent out a warning to its customers
the next day. They had identified what would come to be known as Covid-19 a week before the Centre for Disease
Control and Prevention in USA or 2 weeks before WHO was able to spot it. AI has played a key role in identifying
and addressing the pandemic.
I. Many technology executives have expressed uncertainty about their investments in machine learning Artificial
intelligence.
II. In future workforce would be able to translate whatever the results of AI models to give out into real business
tangible actions and to product ionize AI solutions.
III. A lot of technocrats are dissatisfied with the ways their organization was adopting Artificial Intelligence.
Which of the above statements weakens the overall contention that Artificial Intelligence would be adopted by the
industry in the future?
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Both II and III
5. Both I and III
Answer : Both I and III

Question No. 193
Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best assumption on which the argument is based.
As per the latest Indian military inputs, Pakistan continues to host 350-400 terrorists at border launch pads. Plus,
with Taliban’s return to power in Afghanistan- which simply wouldn’t have been possible without Islamabad’s
support- it is doubtful that Pakistan’s military ISI complex is ready to abandon it’s tried and tested strategy of
promoting cross-border terrorism. Therefore, if at all Pakistan is serious about peace with India and benefitting from
geo-economics, the ball is in its own court.
Options :
1. Pakistan has to give up its destabilizing activities in the region.
2. Geo-economic and peace talks are subject matter for India-Pakistan bilateral relationships only when the
promotion of cross-border terrorism ends.
3. Pakistan’s economy will benefit immensely only if relations with India normalize.
4. Anti-India obsession has had disastrous consequences for Pakistan.
5. State policy of Pakistan promotes cross-border terrorism.
Answer : Geo-economic and peace talks are subject matter for India-Pakistan bilateral relationships only when the
promotion of cross-border terrorism ends.
Question No. 194
Directions: In the following question a paragraph is given, followed by five options, each giving a conclusion that
may or may not follow. Choose the one which reflects the conclusion that follows.
While crypto has some obvious advantages-it isn’t issued by any sovereign. Secondly, most of the popular cryptos
like Bitcoin are extremely volatile. Extreme volatility makes for a poor store of value and medium of exchange.
Further, while liquidity in cryptos has gone up dramatically in recent years, it is still a small fraction of global
currency flows.
Options :
1. Cryptocurrencies are not a practical solution yet in international trade.
2. Cryptos can be settled electronically, technically without banking intermediation.
3. Availability of Bitcoin is less as compared to the total trading volume of international trade.
4. Few countries would be willing to climb on an alternative like BlockChain technology.
5. Cryptocurrencies cannot be made immune to US surveillance.
Answer : Cryptocurrencies are not a practical solution yet in international trade.
Question No. 195
Directions: Read the following group of statements and choose the best inference which can be deduced from the
argument given below.
Covid has changed our lives in more ways than we can imagine. Beyond despair, disease and death, the pandemic
has also created opportunities for the future. The development of vaccines at unprecedented speed now makes it
possible to control pandemics with vaccines for the first time. Early apprehensions of a compressed timeline were
replaced by hope for billions of people worldwide.
Options :
1. A better future is realized due to involvement of science and innovation in public policy.
2. Multiple vaccines for Covid have been explored since the identification of virus.
3. Science and evidence has led to vaccine deployment in very less time after the identification of virus.
4. Earlier vaccine development used to take a lot of time to develop after the identification of virus.
Answer : Earlier vaccine development used to take a lot of time to develop after the identification of virus.
Question No. 196
Directions: In the question given below, there are two statements (I) and (II). These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the
effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statement I : Government welfare schemes now project greater empathy for women voters.
Statement II: Greater participation of women in the electoral process is now a phenomenon cast in stone going by
the higher female voter turnout percentage in many recent elections.
Options :
1. Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect.

2. Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
3. Both statements I and II are independent causes.
4. Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
5. Both statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
Answer : Statement II is the cause and statement I is the effect.
Question No. 197
Directions : The passage given below is followed by three statements. Choose the one which can be the correct
assumptions on which the passage is based.
How are our girls faring? In a large and diverse country, anecdotal evidence cuts several ways. But one hard,
remorseless, empirical reality is son preference. That distressing social bias flourishes. As against a Sustainable
Development Goal of achieving sex ratio at birth of 954 by 2030, a Niti Aayog update finds the national average still
at a distant 899.
I. Offenders are unafraid of laws that prohibit sex selection in India.
II. Sex determination and diagnosis at prenatal and preconception stage in India are not prohibited.
III. Policymakers will have to come up with specific incentives-perhaps, more attractive grants for bringing up
daughters.
Options :
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
4. Both I and III
5. Only III
Answer : Only I
Question No. 198
Directions: Study the following passage carefully and answer the question given beside.
Water is nectar, says the Satapata Brahman. Yet, tragically for too many people, instead of being a source of life,
water, or lack of it, is a source of illness and death. More people die annually from lack of clean water than from all
forms of violence combined. Every choice we make of what to purchase, what to wear, and what to eat has a direct
and powerful impact upon climate change, upon children dying of starvation, and upon the health and balance of
the water, air and land of Mother Earth.
Which of the following undermines that our lifestyle choices do impact the climate change and balance of water,
air on Earth?
Options :
1. The meat industry according to the UN is the single greatest contributor to climate change, and a major
cause of the planet’s water shortage.
2. Almost everything we purchase is produced in a factory, and the industrial, toxic waste of far too many
factories is dumped into the groundwater, into rivers, or spewed into the air.
3. Urbanisation and development which in tune makes more people to leave rural areas and live in the city
making more available land for nature and its habitats.
4. Both A and B
5. Both A and C.
Answer : Urbanisation and development which in tune makes more people to leave rural areas and live in the city
making more available land for nature and its habitats.
Question No. 199
Directions: In the question below, a passage is given followed by few statements. Read the passage and answer the
questions that follow.
Even while undertaking the world’s largest vaccination exercise, the below par capacity utilisation at many
vaccination sites is forcing authorities to rejig their strategies. The turnout among health workers for receiving the
vaccine was just over 50% in the first three days.
I. Vaccination hesitancy is posing a major roadblock for the drive as the fast pace of vaccine development and trials
coupled with the regulatory anomalies with Covaxin are contributing to the hesitation.
II. Gliches in Co- Win, the digital backbone of the vaccination drive is misfiring as the the non-delivery of the of text
messages to scheduled recipients is delaying the whole process.

III. The software glitches must be resolved quickly so that an enabling technology doesn’t become a drag on
vaccination.
IV. Guarantees on safety must be repeated non-stop, efficacy data must be periodically updated and released by
the authorities.
V. The specific reasons why health workers topped the priority list must be underlined because they are most
vulnerable to virus exposure and vaccines offered first to them is also society’s gratitude for selfless service.
VI. To win the confidence of health workers it may be necessary to forego earlier reservations about netas jumping
the line. Inspirational figures volunteering for the jab could bolster the vaccination drive. Which of the above
statements are the causes of the argument given in the passage?
Options :
1. Only I and III
2. Only I and II
3. Both IV and V
4. Both V and VI
5. Both II and V
Question No. 200
Directions: A course of action is given below followed by three situations. Read it carefully and answer the question
that follows. Course of Action: Chennai Corporation’s public health centres have begun vaccinating individuals
above 18 years of age to reduce vaccine wastage and improve capacity utilisation. The second Covid wave
demands such improvisation and flexibility and Centre’s decision to revise the priority group addresses this need.
Situation I: Against vaccination capacity of 60,000 daily, Chennai’s civic body achieved only 32,000 on average in a
week. Situation II: A vaccine vial once opened has to be exhausted within four hours or is wasted. Situation III: In
the US, healthcare facilities are offering unused doses to young people waiting to jump the line, thereby reducing
wastage. Which of the situation(s) above will the given course of action follow?
Options :
1. Only II
2. Both I and II
3. Only I
4. Both I and III
5. All of I, II and III
Answer : All of I, II and III
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RBI Grade B 2022 Phase 1 Previous Year Paper Shift 2

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programme is to promote ______________.

4. Commercial mixed farming

Answer : Natural farming

Which is not correct regarding SVAMITVA scheme: -

asset for taking loans and other financial benefits.

else, add to the State exchequer.

5. Implemented by Mo Earth sciences

Answer : Implemented by Mo Earth sciences

peers. It was launched by ____________.

There are total ___ SCO permanent member countries.

Which of the following is not a money market instrument?

farm productivity by four years till ________.

ranked India at ______ spot in terms of regulatory and operational environment.

The Serengeti National Park is a large national park in ___________.

Where is the headquarters of Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)?

Answer : New Delhi

4. Vinod Kumar Shukla

Answer : Indira Parthasarathy

Answer : USD 2,50,000

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

4. Union Bank of India

Answer : Vijaya Bank

2. Ragala Venkat Rahul

3. Harshada Sharad Garud

Answer : Harshada Sharad Garud

1. Lt. General Amardeep Singh Bhinder

2. Lt. General Baggavalli Somashekar Raju

3. Lt. General Manoj Kumar Katiyar

4. Lt. General Manoj Pande

Answer : Lt. General Baggavalli Somashekar Raju

On which date World Consumer Rights Day is observed annually?

A company is called Decacorn if its value is _________.

Answer : 10 Billion Dollars

Answer : Nicholas Pooran

Answer : Rs. 21000

Who is the CEO of IBM?

Answer : Arvind Krishna

Which of the following country is not an OPEC member country?

India's telecommunication network is the _______ largest in the world

2. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy

3. Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises

5. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Answer : Ministry of Power

What is the full form of NCAER?

1. National Committee for Applied Economic Research

2. National Council of Assessment and Economic Research

3. National Committee of Assessment and Economic Research

4. National Council of Applied Economic Research

Answer : National Council of Applied Economic Research

receive subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution.

Answer : 75%, 50%

What is the full form of ONDC?

1. One Network for Digital Commerce

2. Open Network for Digital Competition

3. Open Network for Digital Commerce

4. One Network for Digital Customers

Answer : Open Network for Digital Commerce

1. Revive and Reconstruct

2. Reviewing the Monetary Policy Framework

3. Credit Discipline and Credit from Formal Institutions

Answer : Revive and Reconstruct

1. National saving certificate (NSC)

2. Sukanya smriddhi yojana

Which of the following is NOT true regarding corporate social responsibility?