COA P2

1. The body of a person has different organ systems that help regulate the body to
live. What system of the body is the major controlling, regulatory, and
communicating system in the body?
a. Respiratory System
b. Cardiovascular System
c. Nervous System
d. Digestive System
2. Like other systems in the body, the nervous system is composed of organs,
principally the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and ganglia. Together these carry out
the complex activities of the nervous system. The various activities of the
nervous system can be grouped together as three general, overlapping functions:
a. Sensory
b. Integrative
c. Motor
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
3. It is a part of the nervous system responsible for processing sensory information.
It consists of sensory receptors, neural pathways, and parts of the brain involved
in sensory perception.
a. Skin system
b. Brain system
c. Sensory system
d. Muscle system
4. It is a part of the nervous system that functions to review all stimuli—from the
internal organs, the surface of the body, eyes, ears, nose, and mouth. It then
reacts to these stimuli by correcting the position of the body, the movement of
limbs, and the rate at which the internal organs function.
a. Brain
b. Spinal Cord
c. Peripheral Nerves
d. Cerebrum
5. It is a part of the nervous system that functions to conduct impulses more slowly,
resulting in decreased sensation, slower reflexes, and often some clumsiness.
a. Spinal Cord
b. Peripheral Nerves
c. Brain
d. Cerebellum
6. There are four (4) major cognitive disorders in which the brain may develop.
What cognitive disorder is a progressive deterioration of brain function that is
marked by impairment of memory, confusion, and inability to concentrate?
a. Delirium
b. Dementia
c. Amnesia
d. Cognitive disorders not otherwise specified
7. Another cognitive disorder that has a significant loss of memory, despite no loss
of other cognitive functions there is in dementia.
a. Delirium
b. Dementia
c. Amnesia
d. Cognitive disorders not otherwise specified
8. Which item would not be a focus of a cognitive-perceptual pattern assessment
for the older client?
a. Cognition--Have you experienced any changes in your memory?
b. Communication--Have you had any difficulty speaking or forming ideas?
c. Financial--Have you had any financial hardships over the past several
months?
d. Orientation--Do you know what day, month, and year it is?
9. Nurse Olaf recognizes the most common eye-related disease affecting the older
adult is:
a. glaucoma
b. cataracts
c. near-sighted visual disturbances
d. far-sighted visual disturbances
10. These systems work together to support and move the body.
a. Nervous System
b. Skeletal System
c. Musculoskeletal System
d. Cardiovascular System
11. Common conditions affecting muscles and the skeleton, or the musculoskeletal
system, in older people include:
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. All of the above
12. Which of the following interventions should be taken to help an older client to
prevent osteoporosis?
a. Decrease dietary calcium intake.
b. Increase sedentary lifestyles
c. Increase dietary protein intake.
d. Encourage regular exercise.
13. A 69-year-old female presents with knee pain. The nurse hears a dry crackling or
grating sound and the client feels the same sensation on exam. The nurse
recognizes this as:
a. Nothing abnormal for the age of the client
b. Crepitation, the sound of osteoarthritis in the knee joint
c. Osteoporosis and a softening of the knee joint
d. Fluid-filled spaces in the knee joint
14. It is a situation wherein the bones lose mass and become brittle. Fractures are
more likely
a. Osteoarthritis
 b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
15. It is where the the bones become soft, due to problems with the metabolism of
vitamin D.
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
16. It is when the cartilage within the joint breaks down, causing pain and stiffness.
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
17. What is the study of blood and blood-forming tissues?
a. Pathology
b. Hematology
c. Cardiology
d. Cognitive Psychology
18. Anemia and immune deficiency are observed in late life in individuals without
other recognizable diseases, but these are typically mild and associated with
minimal morbidity or mortality. Thus, there are three (3) classifications of anemia.
What do we call anemia that has red cells of normal size?
a. Microcytic
b. Normocytic
c. Macrocytic
d. Normocephalic
19. What is associated with the immune system to such a degree that the two
systems are virtually indistinguishable?
a. Hematologic System
b. Lymphatic System
c. Immune System
d. Cognitive System
20. What leads to a decrease in bone marrow mass and cellularity and an increase
in bone marrow fat?
a. Immune system
b. Aging
c. Hemoglobin
d. Plasma membrane
21. Nurse Olaf would instruct the client to eat which of the following foods to obtain
the best supply of vitamin B12?
a. Whole grains
b. Green leafy vegetables
c. Meats and dairy products
d. Broccoli and Brussels sprouts
22. Laboratory studies are performed for an elderly suspected of having iron
deficiency anemia. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, knowing that which
of the following results would indicate this type of anemia?
a. An elevated hemoglobin level
b. A decreased reticulocyte count
c. An elevated RBC count
d. Red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic
23. The pituitary gland is often preferred as the:
a. Major gland
b. Master gland
c. Long gland
d. Good gland
24. This is the gland that promotes the growth of bone, muscle and most of the major
internal organs.
a. Pituitary gland
b. Anterior pituitary gland
c. Pineal gland
d. Thyroid gland
25. One of the body systems that works in conjunction with the nervous system to
regulate, and coordinate the activities of, the body’s tissues and organs. It
consists of a collection of glands located in different parts of the body – the main
ones being the pituitary, pineal, thyroid, parathyroids, adrenals, pancreas,
ovaries and testes.
a. Reproductive system
b. Endocrine system
c. Lymphatic system
d. Nervous system
26. This is the gland in the body in which it functions like an internal body clock:
during the day, when there is a lot of light, melatonin secretion is inhibited, but as
the day draws to a close and light diminishes, melatonin secretion increases,
preparing the body for sleep.
a. Pineal gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Parathyroid gland
d. Adrenal gland
27. This gland in the body plays a major role in controlling metabolism and adjusting
blood calcium levels.
a. Pineal gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Parathyroid gland
d. Adrenal gland
28. What regulates plasma levels of sodium and potassium, and plays an important
role in water balance and blood pressure control?
a. Testosterone
b. Estrogen
c. Androgen
 d. Aldosterone
29. Diabetes mellitus (DM) is quite prevalent, and its incidence is increasing in
people who are over the age of 65. Risk factors for DM 2 include the following
factors:
a. Hypertension
b. Obesity
c. Excessive Hunger
d. A and B only
e. All of the Above
30. Which of the following symptoms would a patient exhibit with hyperthyroidism?
a. Intolerance to cold
b. Decreased bowl movements
c. Slow heart rate
d. None of the above
31. Hormone therapy eases some of the negative effects of menopause. Which of
these hormones is used?
a. Estrogen
b. Estrogen and progesterone
c. Testosterone
d. Prostaglandin
32. An elderly patient reports a loss of interest in eating. When providing information
to the patient, which action by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in increasing
the patient's intake?
a. Having the patient keep a food diary.
b. Giving the patient a list of high-calorie foods.
c. Reminding the patient of the importance of eating.
d. Suggesting to the patient's family members that someone join the patient
for meals.
33. When planning care for the patient with acute pancreatitis, the nurse knows that
which intervention is a priority of care?
a. Pain control
b. Nutritional supplementation
c. Observation for mental changes
d. Observation for intestinal obstruction
34. A female client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome
indicates that the client is ready for discharge?
a. The client doesn’t exhibit rectal tenesmus.
b. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
c. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.
d. The client has normal gastric structures.
35. The process of aging changes the functional ability of the Gastrointestinal
system. What affect organs of the GI system, making it a challenge to separate
the sole effects of aging from lifestyle? SELLECT ALL THAT APPLY.
a. Diet
b. Alcohol Intake
c. Obesity
 d. Hemoglobin
36. This consists of a hollow muscular tube starting from the oral cavity, where food
enters the mouth, continuing through the pharynx, esophagus, stomach and
intestines to the rectum and anus, where food is expelled.
a. Lymphatic System
b. Gastrointestinal System
c. Nervous System
d. Cardiovascular System
37. Nurse Olaf is teaching a group of old-aged men about peptic ulcers. When
discussing risk factors for peptic ulcers, the nurse should mention:
a. a sedentary lifestyle and smoking.
b. a history of hemorrhoids and smoking.
c. alcohol abuse and a history of acute renal failure.
d. alcohol abuse and smoking.
38. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing a urinary tract infection (UTI)?
a. A 35 y.o. woman with a fractured wrist
b. A 20 y.o. woman with asthma
c. A 50 y.o. postmenopausal woman
d. A 28 y.o. with angina
39. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with stress incontinence.
Which of the following instructions should be included?
a. Avoid activities that are stressful and upsetting
b. Avoid caffeine and alcohol
c. Do not wear a girdle
d. Limit physical exertion
40. A patient in the hospital has a history of urinary incontinence. Which nursing
action will be included in the plan of care?
a. Place a bedside commode near the patient's bed.
b. Use an ultrasound scanner to check urine residual after the patient voids.
c. Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver to the patient.
d. Teach the use of Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor.
41. Nurse Anna is taking care of Olaf, an old adult. Which of the following changes
is associated with the aging process?
a. Half body paralysis
b. Some memory impairment
c. Asymmetrical smile
d. Dry eyes
42. Nurse Anna is taking care of an 80-year-old, female in the nursing home. Which
of the following measures MUST BE AVOIDED?
a. Use of large print books
b. Ensuring calendars and clocks
c. Conducting one-to-one visit
d. Use of complex puzzles
43. Nurse Anna observed that a resident has been developing confusion and unable
to concentrate. Nurse Anna observed that thus has been progressive. What is
the BEST WORD to describe this condition?
 a. Delirium
b. Dementia
c. Amnesia
d. Amnesty

44. The nurse noted that there is a backward tilt of the head. Which of the following
best describes this?
a. Lordosis
b. Scoliosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Anhidrosis

45. During assessment, it was found that the bone mineral density is decreased. The
physician educates the patient that she has “brittle bones.” What condition is
being referred to?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis

46. The physician recommends intake of Vitamin D to a patient with osteoporosis.

What is the rationale for this?
a. It makes the bone bigger.
b. It decreases the bone density.
c. It facilitates absorption of Ca.
d. It facilitates intestinal excretion of Ca.

47. Statistics reveal that there is higher incidence of autoimmune disorders among
old adults. What is the probable reason for this?
a. The immune system becomes more active.
b. The immune system cannot distinguish self from non-self.
c. The antibodies are becoming lesser in amount.
d. The antibodies have effectively attached to the antigen.

48. There are several hormones with varied functions in the hematopoietic system.
Which of the following triggers the bone marrow to produce blood?
a. Iron
b. Erythropoietin
c. WBC
d. ESR

49. The nurse is taking care of an old adult with dengue fever. The laboratory results
revealed that the patient has decreased platelet levels. Which of the following
interventions is MOST APPROPRIATE?
a. Instruct the patient to limit water intake.
b. Take safety precautions to avoid accidental wound.
 c. Avoid active infection (such as cough and colds).
d. Increase intake of iron. ‘

50. An old adult came in the clinic with complaints of sleep disturbances. Which of
the following interventions can help?
a. Administer furosemide in the evening.
b. Encourage long naps in the afternoon.
c. Avoid food intake prior to sleep.
d. Exercise regularly.

CHN P2

1. Environmental health is one of the factors that affect the quality of health. What are the
factors that determine the components of environmental health in a man’s life? SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY.
a. Physical factors
b. Chemical factors
c. Biological factors
d. Social factors
e. Psychosocial factors
2. In the Philippines, the maintenance of environmental health records is one of the
responsibilities given to the city, municipal, and _________________.
a. provincial health nurses
b. provincial board of directors
c. provincial health workers
d. provincial leaders
3. The discipline associated with the control of generation, storage, collection, transfer and
transport, processing, and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the
best principles of public health, economics, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and
other environmental considerations, and that is also responsive to public attitudes.
a. Solid waste stream
b. Solid waste management
c. Solid waste
d. Waster segregation
4. Environmental health needs to maintain safe water for the people. Hence, there are
levels of access to safe water. In which levels of access to safe water refers to protected
well (shallow or deep well), improved dug well, and developed spring or rainwater
cisterns with an outlet but without a distribution system?
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
5. This safe water access level refers to a system composed of a source, reservoir, piped
distribution network, and communal faucet located not more than 25 meters from the
farthest house.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
6. This level of access to safe water refers to a system with a source transmission pipe, a
reservoir, and a piped distribution network for household taps.
a. Level 1
b. Level 2
c. Level 3
d. Level 4
7. Sometimes, there are cases wherein water in the community is considered to be unsafe
for the consumers. Hence, there are emergency water treatments for these cases.
Which pre-water treatment process best describes the rapid shaking of a container that
is partially full of water for about 5 minutes?
a. Disinfection
b. Filtration
c. Aeration
d. Settlement
8. If we allow the water to be undisturbed in the dark for a day, what pre-treatment process
water is being done?
a. Aeration
b. Settlement
c. Filtration
d. Disinfection
9. Nurse Olaf is to dispose of used intravenous lines, he will place this in a:
a. Black bin
b. Yellow bin
c. Yellow with biohazard symbol bin
d. Yellow with black band symbol bin
e. Red bin
10. This level of the water system is common in remote areas. It can be shallow or deep but
without a distribution system:
a. Point system
b. Standpost
c. Waterworksrks system
d. Communal faucet
11. There are 6 Fs of Fecal-Oral Microbial Transmission. Which of the following is not
included?
a. Faces
b. Fingers
c. Fluids
d. Flies
e. Fields
f. Food
12. This refers to sanitation facilities in which fecal matter is collected into a tank containing
a caustic chemical solution, which controls and facilitates waste decomposition.
a. Septic Privy
b. Aqua Privy
c. Chemical Privy
d. Compost Privy
13. It has a bowl with a water-seal trap similar to the conventional tank flush toilet except
that it requires only a small volume of water for flushing.
a. Tank-flush latrine
b. Poor-flush latrine
c. UDDT
 d. VIP latrine
14. It is made up of an elevated pit privy that has a covered latrine. The elevation ensures
that the bottom of the pit is at least 1.5 meters
a. Box-and-can privy
b. Pit latrine
c. Antipolo toilet
d. UDDT
15. A vermin abatement method that utilizes living predators, parasites, and other natural
enemies of the pest species to reduce or eliminate the pest populations. It aimed at
killing the larvae without polluting the environment.
a. Environmental Sanitation
b. Naturalistic Control
c. Biological and Genetic Control
d. Chemical Control
16. A vermin abatement method that controls pests through the use of different methods and
procedures that are used to complement each other. These procedures may include the
use of pesticides, environmental sanitation measures, and natural, as well as
mechanical and biological control methods.
a. Chemical Control
b. Naturalistic Control
c. Integrated Control
d. Mechanical and Physical Control
17. The Epidemiologic Triangle Model has three (3) major components. Which of the
following components is an organism that harbors and provides nutrition for the agent?
a. Agent
b. Host
c. Environment
d. Human
18. It is the habitat in which the agent normally lives, grows, and multiplies. It also includes
humans, animals, and the environment.
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Human reservoir
d. Animal reservoir
19. The reservoir may or may not be the source from which an agent is transferred to a host.
Which reservoirs depict diseases transmitted from person to person without
intermediaries, including sexually transmitted diseases, measles, mumps, streptococcal
infection, and many respiratory pathogens?
a. Human Reservoirs
b. Animal Reservoirs
c. Environmental Reservoirs
d. Agent Reservoirs
20. It is a mode of infection transmission that occurs when infectious agents are carried by
dust or droplet nuclei suspended in air.
a. Airborne
b. Vehicleborne
c. Vectorborne
d. Droplet spread
21. A mode of transmission of disease in such as mosquitoes, fleas, and ticks may carry an
infectious agent through purely mechanical means or may support growth or changes in
the agent.
 a. Vectorborne
b. Airborne
c. Droplet spread
d. Vehicleborne
22. Which among the following is NOT true to the epidemiologic triangle model?
a. As long as the balance is maintained or is tilted in favor of the host, disease does
not occur.
b. Environmental elements can tilt the balance in favor of the agent.
c. The model suggests that the agent and the susceptible host interact freely in a
common environment.
d. If the balance is tilted in favor of the agent, disease does not occur.
23. This refers to any organism capable of causing disease:
a. Causative agent
b. Reservoir
c. Portal of exit
d. Susceptible Host
24. This is the habitat of causative agents:
a. Reservoir
b. Portal of exit
c. Portal of entry
d. Susceptible Host
25. Which among the following is a direct transmission of agents?
a. Droplet spread
b. Airborne transmission
c. Vehicleborne transmission
d. Vectorborne
26. To prevent transmission of diseases, the best way is to:
a. Remove any elements to prevent the onset of a communicable disease
b. Enhance the immune system of the susceptible host
c. Immunize all people
d. Eradicate the causative agent
27. The incubation period of leprosy:
a. 1 month to 1 year
b. 3 months to 3 years
c. 5 months to 5 years
d. 7 months to 7 years
28. The signs of leprosy are reddish or white change in skin color, loss of sensation on the
skin lesion, decrease/loss of sweating and hair growth over the lesion, thickened and or
painful nerves, muscle weakness, pain or redness of the eye, nasal obstruction/bleeding,
ulcers that do not heal. In what stage these signs and symptoms would be?
a. First stage
b. Early stage
c. Late stage
d. Final stage
29. The following are the preventions for leprosy. Which of the following is not included?
a. BCG vaccination
b. Avoid prolong skin to skin contact
c. Good personal hygiene

d. All of the above

e. None of the above
30. Where can malaria be acquired?
a. Female anopheles mosquito
b. Male anopheles mosquito
c. Both male and female anopheles mosquito
d. From airborne vectors
31. The intermediary host of a schistosomiasis is:
a. Oncomelania quadrasi
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Mansoni
d. Haematobium
32. The incubation period of tuberculosis:
a. 4-6 weeks
b. 5-10 weeks
c. 6-12 weeks
d. 1-2 weeks
33. Tuberculosis can be transmitted through:
a. Airborne
b. Vehicleborne
c. Vectorborne
d. Neverborne
34. This is useful in diagnosis TB patients who are asymptomatic, and those who cannot
submit sputum specimen but are suspected to have TB.
a. Chest xray
b. Abdominal xray
c. Back xray
d. Head to abdominal xray
35. Which among is the triad signs of malaria:
a. Chills, fever and cough
b. Profuse sweating, fever and abdominal pain
c. Fever, chills and profuse sweating
d. Fever, rash and abdominal pain
36. This act mandates that communicable diseases must be reported:
a. RA 3573
b. RA 4073
c. RA 1136
d. RA 9173
37. It is an integral part of primary health care approach to non-communicable disease
prevention and control program. It is inextricably related to community health practice
since it provides the theoretical bases for developing appropriate and responsive
intervention programs and strategies.
a. Health Trainer
b. Community Organizer
c. Researcher
d. Health Care Provider
38. Nurse Olaf is informing the people about the rightness of the cause. It is important to
convey the problem, show how it affects people in the community and describe what
possible actions to take. What role does he portray?
a. Health Advocate
b. Health Educator
c. Health Care Provider
d. Health Trainer
39. Nurse Raya’s role as a nurse is to inform the people. Her task is to creates an
awareness of health needs and problems which consequently make he people become
conscious of their own responsibilities towards their own health. What do you think does
she portray in her job?
a. Researcher
b. Community Organizer
c. Health Advocate
d. Health Educator
40. consequences. The Public Health Nurse provides activities that will permit clients who
have suffered from consequences of non-communicable diseases to lead a socially and
economically productive life.
a. Health Trainer
b. Researcher
c. Health Care Provider
d. Health Organizer
41. Nurse Anna tends to influence executive and legislative bodies to create and enforce
policies that favor a healthy environment.
a. Health Trainer
b. Researcher
c. Health Care Provider
d. Community Organizer
42. The PHN provides technical assistance in the assessment of the skills of auxiliary health
workers in NCD prevention and control; teaching and supervision on clinical
management of non-communicable diseases and other community-based services and
recording, reporting and utilization of health information related to non-communicable
diseases.
a. Health Advocate
b. Health Educator
c. Health Trainer
d. Health Organizer
43. What are the major noncommunicable diseases?
i. Cardiovascular disease
ii. HIV
iii. Cerebrovascular disease
iv. Tubercolosis
v. Diabetes
vi. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
vii. Cancer
viii. Malaria
b. i, ii, iii, iv, v
c. i, iii, v,vi, vii
d. iv, v, vi, vii, i
e. I, iv, v, ii, vi
44. Olaf is monitoring the level of physical activity of Aling Anna. Olaf knows that Aling
Anna’s activity is classified as low if he reported that he:
a. Washes cars twice a week
b. Does arts and crafts every day for 10 minutes daily
c. Plays non-competitive volleyball for an hour 2x a week
d. Washes clothes twice a week
45. The LDL cholesterol level is said to be at borderline level if it is:
a. More than 190
 b. 130-159
c. 90
d. 100-129
46. This law is known as the “National Healthy Lifestyle Advocacy Campaign”:
a. RA 1054
b. EO 958
c. RA 9211
d. RA 9165
47. It is also known as heart disease, diseases that involve the heart or blood vessels
(arteries, capillaries, and veins).
a. Cerebrovascular
b. Hypertension
c. Cardiovascular
d. Screening
48. This is an identification of an unrecognized disease by application of test, examination,
or other procedures that can be applied rapidly to help identify an individual’s chances of
becoming ill.
a. Screening
b. Diagnostic Test
c. Genetic Testing
d. Prenatal Testing
49. It is also known as stroke, a group of brain dysfunction related to disease of the blood
vessels supplying the brain.
a. Cardiovascular
b. Hypertension
c. Cerebrovascular
d. Atherosclerosis
50. It is a disease of the blood vessels characterized by the deposition of fats and
cholesterol within the walls of the artery.
a. Cerebrovascular
b. Hypertension
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Screening