REGULAER BATCH 2023-2024

DATE: 30.07.2023 WEEK TEST 5 – NEET

TIME: 1.30 MIN MARK:240
PART A – PHYSICS
1. The potential difference in open circuit for a cell is 2.2 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡. When a 4 𝑜ℎ𝑚 resistor is connected between its
two electrodes the potential difference becomes 2 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡. The internal resistance of the cell will be
a) 1 𝑜ℎ𝑚 b) 0.2 𝑜ℎ𝑚 c) 2.5 𝑜ℎ𝑚 d) 0.4 𝑜ℎ𝑚
2. Two bulbs, one of 50 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡 and another of 25 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡 are connected in series to the mains. The ratio of the
currents through them is
a) 2 :1 b) 1 :2
c) 1 :1 d) Without voltage, cannot be calculated
3. When a resistor of 11 Ω is connected in series with an electric cell, the current flowing in it is 0.5 𝐴. Instead,
when a resistor of 5 Ω is connected to the same electric cell in series, the current increases by 0.4 𝐴. The
internal resistance of the cell is
a) 1.5 Ω b) 2 Ω c) 2.5 Ω d) 3.5 Ω
4. An electric heater of resistances 6 Ω is run for 10 min on 120 V line. The energy librated in this period of time
is?
a) 7.2 × 105 J b) 14.4 × 105 J c) 43.2 × 105 J d) 28.8 × 105 J
5. A source of a primary cell is 2V. what is the short circuited it provides 4A current, then the internal resistance
of cell will be
a) 8 Ω b) 2.0 Ω c) 4 Ω d) 0.5 Ω

6. Four wires 𝐴𝐵, 𝐵𝐶, 𝐶𝐷, 𝐷𝐴 of resistance 4 𝑜ℎ𝑚 each and a fifth wire 𝐵𝐷 of resistance 8 𝑜ℎ𝑚 are joined to
form a rectangle 𝐴𝐵𝐶𝐷 of which 𝐵𝐷 is a diagonal. The effective resistance between the points 𝐴 and 𝐵 is
4 8
a) 24 𝑜ℎ𝑚 b) 16 𝑜ℎ𝑚 c) 𝑜ℎ𝑚 d) 𝑜ℎ𝑚
3 3
7. Two resistors are connected (a) in series (b) in parallel. The equivalent resistance in the two cases are 9 𝑜ℎ𝑚
and 2 𝑜ℎ𝑚 respectively. Then the resistance of the component resistors are
a)2 𝑜ℎ𝑚 and 7 𝑜ℎ𝑚 b)3 𝑜ℎ𝑚 and 6 𝑜ℎ𝑚
c)3 𝑜ℎ𝑚 and 9 𝑜ℎ𝑚 d)5 𝑜ℎ𝑚 and 4 𝑜ℎ𝑚
8. The equivalent resistance and potential difference between 𝐴 and 𝐵 for the circuit is respectively

a)4 Ω, 8 𝑉 b) 8 Ω, 4 𝑉 c) 2 Ω, 2 𝑉 d) 16 Ω, 8 𝑉
9. The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of resistances shown in adjoining figure between the points 𝐴
and 𝐵 is
8
16 20
16
A B
9
6
18

a)6 𝑜ℎ𝑚 b) 8 𝑜ℎ𝑚 c) 16 𝑜ℎ𝑚 d) 24 𝑜ℎ𝑚

10. Three identical resistances 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶 are connected as shown in figure.
B

R
A

R C

The heat produced will be maximum

a) In 𝐵 b) In 𝐵 and 𝐶 c) In 𝐴 d) Same for 𝐴, 𝐵 and 𝐶
11. In a conductor 4 𝑐𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑜𝑚𝑏 of charge flows for 2 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠. The value of electric current will be
a)4 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 b) 4 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 c)2 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 d)2 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
12. A wire is stretched so as to change its diameter by 0.25%. The percentage change in resistance is
a)4.0% b)2.0% c)1.0% d)0.5%
13. 5 cells, each of emf 0.2𝑉 and internal resistance 1Ω are connected to an external circuit of resistance of 10Ω.
Find the current through external circuit
1 1 1 1
a) 𝐴 b) 𝐴 c) 𝐴 d) 𝐴
2.5 10 15 2
14. An electric bulb is rated 220 V-100 W. The power consumed by it when operated on 110 V will be
a)75 W b)40 W c)25 W d)50 W
15. A series combination of two resistors 1 Ω each is connected to a 12 𝑉 battery of internal resistance 0.4 Ω. The
current flowing through it will be
a)3.5 𝐴 b)5 𝐴 c)6 𝐴 d)10 𝐴
16. A storage battery has e.m.f. 15 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 and internal resistance 0.05 𝑜ℎ𝑚. Its terminal voltage when it is
delivering 10 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 is
a)30 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 b)1.00 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 c)14.5 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡 d)15.5 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑡
17. The drift velocity of the electrons in a copper wire of length 2 m under the application of a potential
difference of 220 V is 0.5ms −1 . Their mobility (in m2 V −1 s −1 )
a)2.5 × 10−3 b)2.5 × 10−2 c)5 × 102 d)5 × 10−3
18. There is a current of 1.344 𝑎𝑚𝑝 in a copper wire whose area of cross-section normal to the length of the wire
is 1 𝑚𝑚2 . If the number of free electrons per 𝑐𝑚3 is 8.4 × 1022 , then the drift velocity would be
a)1.0 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 b)1.0 𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 c)0.1 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐 d)0.01 𝑚𝑚/𝑠𝑒𝑐
19. 𝑂ℎ𝑚′𝑠 law is true
𝑎) For metallic conductors at low temperature
𝑏) For metallic conductors at high temperature
𝑐) For electrolytes when current passes through them
𝑑) For diode when current flows
20. A uniform wire of resistance 𝑅 is uniformly compressed along its length, until its radius becomes 𝑛 times the
original radius. Now resistance of the wire becomes
𝑅 𝑅 𝑅
a) b) c) d)𝑛𝑅
𝑛4 𝑛2 𝑛
PART B (PHYSICS)
21. What length of the wire of specific resistance 48 × 10−8 Ω 𝑚 is needed to make a resistance of 4.2 Ω
(diameter of wire = 0.4 𝑚𝑚)
a)4.1 𝑚 b)3.1 𝑚 c)2.1 𝑚 d)1.1 𝑚
22. When the current 𝑖 is flowing a conductor, the drift velocity is 𝑣. If 2𝑖 current is flowed through the same
metal but having double the area of cross-section, then the drift velocity will be
a)𝑣/4 b)𝑣/2 c)𝑣 d)4𝑣
23. For a cell, the graph between the potential difference (𝑉) across the terminals of the cell and the current (𝐼)
drawn from the cell is shown in the figure. The e.m.f. and the internal resistance of the cell are
 a)2𝑉, 0.5Ω b)2𝑉, 0.4Ω c)> 2𝑉, 05Ω d)> 2𝑉, 0.4Ω
24. A given piece of wire of length 𝑙 and radius 𝑟 is having a resistance 𝑅. This wire is stretched uniformly to a
𝑟
wire of radius . What is the new resistance?
2
a)3𝑅 b)8𝑅 c)16𝑅 d)2𝑅
25. The steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities
constant along the length of the conductor is/are
a) Current, electric field and drift velocity b) Drift speed only
c) Current and drift speed d) Current only
26. A thin wire of resistance 4 Ω is bent to form a circle. The resistance across any diameter is
a)4 Ω b)2 Ω c)1 Ω d)8 Ω
27. The electric intensity 𝐸, current density 𝑗 and specific resistance 𝑘 are related to each other by the relation
a)𝐸 = 𝑗/𝑘 b)𝐸 = 𝑗𝑘 c)𝐸 = 𝑘/𝑗 d)𝑘 = 𝑗𝐸
28. Resistances of 6 𝑜ℎ𝑚 each are connected in the manner shown in adjoining figure. With the current
0.5 𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑒 as shown in figure, the potential difference 𝑉𝑃 − 𝑉𝑄 is
6 6 6

P 6 Q
0.5 A
6 6

a)3.6 𝑉 b)6.0 𝑉 c)3.0 𝑉 d)7.2 𝑉

29. The resistivity of a wire depends on its
a) Length b) Area of cross-section c)Shape d)Material

30. The voltage of clouds is 4 × 106 V with respect to ground. In a light ning strike lasting 100 ms, a charge of 4
C is delivered to the ground. The power of lightning strike is
a)160 MW b) 80 MW c)20 MW d) 500 Kw
PART A ( ZOOLOGY)
31. The best way to decrease population of a country is to
a) Educate people b) Have better houses
c) Kill people on a large-scale d) Practice and implement family planning
32. Family planning programme was initiated in
a) 1920 b) 1930 c) 1950 d) 1951
33. The statutory minimum marriageable age for females in India is
a) 18 years b) 21 years c) 25 years d) 50 years
34. Following are signs which indicate improved reproductive health of the society
p) better awareness about sex-related problem
q) better detection and cure of STDs
r) Better postnatal care
s) Increased number of couples with large families
a) p and s b) q, r and s c) p and q d) p, q and r
35. Present increase in India's population has not been due to decline in
a) Infant mortality rate b) Number of people reaching reproductive age
c) Death rate d) Maternal mortality rate
36. Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD)?
a) CuT b) Lippes loop c) Cu7 d) LNG 20
37. Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing
a) Ova formation/ovulation b) Fertilisation
c) Implantation d) Sperm to move from uterus to fallopian tube
38. On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based?
a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation
 b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days
c) Sperms survive for about 3 days
d) All of these
39. The Saheli oral contraceptive pill is taken
a) Daily for 14 days after menstruation b) Daily for 21 days after menstruation
c) Twice a week d) Once in a week
40. Method in which couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10-17 of menstrual cycle when ovulation
could be expected is
a) Periodic abstinence b) Coitus interruptus
c) Withdrawal method d) Lactational amenorrhoea
41. Saheli, developed by CDRI, is a
a) social magazine for females b) Steroidal oral contraceptive pill
c) Non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill d) Injectable contraceptive
42. Identify a copper releasing IUD among the following
a) Lippes loop b) LNG 20 c) Multiload 375 d) Progestasert
43. Emergency contraception must be taken within __________ of unprotected intercourse.
a) An hour b) 72 hours
c) The menstrual cycle d) Three weeks
44. Vasectomy and tubectomy are generally not very well accepted as
a) They are ineffective in preventing pregnancies
b) The procedures carry high mortality rates
c) They are expensive surgical procedures
d) Their reversibility is very poor
45. Birth control in females by surgical sterilization generally involves cutting and tying the cut ends of the
a) Endometrium b) Urethra
c) Ovaries d) Fallopian tubes (oviduct)
46. Minipill contains
a) Only estrogens b) Only progesterone’s
c) Both estrogens and progesterone’s d) Herbal formulations
47. What is true for natural methods of contraception?
a) They increase phagocytosis of sperms
b) They employ barriers to prevent fertilization
c) They are natural ways of avoiding chances of fertilization
d) They are surgical and terminal methods
48. What is the method called where the male withdraws his penis just before ejaculation?
a) Coitus interruptus b) Lactational amenorrhoea
c) Withdrawal method d) Both a and c
49. Condoms
a) Increase sperm phagocytosis
b) Decrease sperm motility
c) Prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female reproductive tract
d) Inhibit ovulation
50. Jellies and cream
a) Are spermicidal and immobilize the sperms
b) Entangle the sperms
c) Prevent the ova to be released
d) Enable the sperms to reach towards ovum speedily
PART B(ZOOLOGY)
51. Which of the following is not a natural method of contraception?
a) Periodic abstinence b) Withdrawal method
c) Lactational amenorrhoea d) Condoms
52. Which of the following is an additional advantage of hormone releasing IUDs?
a) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
b) Suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of sperms
 c) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation and cervix hostile to the sperms
d) Always inhibit ovulation
53. Population size of India according to 2011 census report is
a) 350 million b) 1000 million c) 1200 million d) 1500 million
54. In which year, every one individual was an Indian among the world population?
a) 1900 b) 2000 c) 2010 d) 2020
55. Which is not a temporary birth control method?
a) Vasectomy b) withdrawal method c) IUDs d) Oral pills
56. Which of the following related to reproductive health monitoring bodies in India?
a) Family planning programme b) RCH programme
c) MTP programme d) Both a and b
57. Amniotic fluid collecting and identify genetical abnormalities of growing embryo is followed in which
method?
a) Amniocentesis b) Chorionic villi sampling
c) CT-Scan d) MRI scan
58. Population explosion may lead to
a) increase in poverty line b) increase in unemployment
c) Shortage of food and shelter d) all of these
59. Which is not a birth control method?
a) vasectomy b) IUD’s c) Pills d) MTP
60. Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural contraceptive method gives
a) 6 months contraception b) 12 months contraception
c) 18 months contraception d) 24 months contraception